Solved papers for AMU Medical AMU Solved Paper-2014

AMU Solved Paper-2014 Total Questions - 200

1) The measured value of length of a simple pendulum is 20 cm known with 2 mm accuracy. The time for 50 oscillations was measured to be 40 s with Is resolution. Calculate, the percentage accuracy in the determination of acceleration due to gravity g from the above measurements.

A)

6.0%

B)

7.2%

C)

9.4%

D)

10.2%

View Answer
2) Which of the following curves represents the variation of total energy with radius r for a satellite in a circular orbit?

A)

P

B)

Q

C)

R

D)

S

View Answer
3) In a container, 200 g of aluminum (specific heat 900 J/kg. K) at \[{{100}^{o}}C\] is mixed with 50 g of water at \[{{20}^{o}}C\], with the mixture thermally isolated. Find the entropy change of the aluminum-water system.

A)

+2.8 J/K

B)

-22.1 J/K

C)

+24.9 J/K

D)

None of the above

View Answer
4) Figure shows three particles with charges\[{{q}_{1}}=2Q,\,{{q}_{2}}=-2Q\] and \[{{q}_{3}}=-4Q\], each a distance d from the origin. Find the net electric field E at the origin.

A)

\[\frac{2.56Q}{4\pi {{\varepsilon }_{0}}{{d}^{2}}}\] towards + ve x-axis

B)

\[\frac{6.93Q}{4\pi {{\varepsilon }_{0}}{{d}^{2}}}\] towards + ve x-axis

C)

\[\frac{6.93Q}{4\pi {{\varepsilon }_{0}}{{d}^{2}}}\] towards - ve x-axis

D)

Zero

View Answer
5) In Millikans experiment, an oil drop of radius 1.64 am and density \[0.85\,\,g/c{{m}^{3}}\] is suspended when a downward electric field of \[1.9\times {{10}^{5}}\,N/C\] is applied. What is the charge on the drop in terms of e?

A)

-9e

B)

-7e

C)

-5e

D)

-3e

View Answer
6) A uniformly charged conducting sphere of diameter 1.2 m has a surface charge density of\[8.1\,\mu C/{{m}^{2}}\]. Find the total electric flux leaving the surface of the sphere.

A)

\[4.1\times {{10}^{6}}N-{{m}^{2}}/C\]

B)

\[1.3\times {{10}^{4}}N-{{m}^{2}}/C\]

C)

\[-4.1\times {{10}^{6}}N-{{m}^{2}}/C\]

D)

Zero

View Answer
7) A thin non-conducting rod of length 50 cm has a positive charge of uniform linear density\[{{10}^{-12}}C/m\]. Find the electric potential due to the rod at a point, which is at a perpendicular distance of 1.0 cm from one-end of the rod\[({{\varepsilon }_{0}}=8.8\times {{10}^{-12}}F/m)\].

A)

0.02 V

B)

0.04 V

C)

0.06 V

D)

1.02 V

E)

None of the above

View Answer
8) Arrange the following materials in the increasing order of their resistivity. Copper, Platinum, Silver, Aluminium

A)

Copper, Silver, Platinum, Aluminium

B)

Silver, Copper, Aluminium, Platinum

C)

Aluminium, Platinum, Silver, Copper

D)

Platinum, Aluminium, Copper, Silver

View Answer
9) In a given circuit, each cell has an emf of 0.15 V and internal resistance of 0.25 \[\Omega \]. Find the current in the circuit.

A)

0.12 A

B)

0.012 A

C)

0.045 A

D)

0.45 A

View Answer
10) The figure shows four directions for the velocity vector v of a positively charged particle moving through a uniform electric field E and a uniform magnetic field B. Of all four directions, which results in a net force of zero?

A)

4

B)

1

C)

3

D)

2

View Answer
11) Four conductors carrying 2.0 A of current into or out of the page are shown in the diagram. A path C is indicated for the line integral \[\oint{B.\,ds}\] . Find the value of the integral for the path C.

A)

\[2{{\mu }_{0}}\]

B)

Zero

C)

\[-2{{\mu }_{0}}\]

D)

\[-8{{\mu }_{0}}\]

View Answer
12) Figure shows a circuit that contains three identical resistors with resistance \[R=9.0\,\Omega \], two identical inductors with inductance L = 4.0 mH, and a battery with emf E = 18 V. Find the ratio of the currents in the circuit just after and long after the switch K is closed.

A)

1/3

B)

2/3

C)

1

D)

4/3

View Answer
13) An iron rod is subjected to the cycles of magnetisation at the rate of 50 Hz. Given the density of the rod is 8 x 103 kg/m3 and specific heat is \[0.11\times {{10}^{-3}}\] \[cal/k{{g}^{o}}C\]. The rise in temperature per minute, if the area enclosed by the B-H loop corresponds to energy of \[{{10}^{-2}}J\] is

A)

\[{{78}^{o}}C\]

B)

\[{{88}^{o}}C\]

C)

\[8.1\,C\]

D)

None of the above

View Answer
14) A series L-C-R circuit has inductance L = 12 mH, capacitance \[C=1.2\mu F\], and resistance R = 12\[\Omega \]. At what time will the amplitude of the charge oscillations in the circuit be 10% of its initial value?

A)

2.0 ms

B)

3.0 ms

C)

4.0 ms

D)

5.0 ms

E)

                (e) None of the above

View Answer
15) A beam of monochromatic light reflects and refracts at point A, as shown in the diagram. Find the angle of refraction at point A.

A)

\[{{60}^{o}}\]

B)

\[{{45}^{o}}\]

C)

\[{{30}^{o}}\]

D)

None of these

View Answer
16) The electric field of a certain plane electromagnetic wave is given by \[{{E}_{x}}=0\], \[{{E}_{y}}=0,\,{{E}_{z}}=2.0\cos \,[\pi \times {{10}^{15}}(t-x/c)]\] . The wave is propagating in the positive x-direction. Find the expressions for the components of the magnetic field of the wave.

A)

\[{{B}_{x}}=0,\,{{B}_{y}}=6.7\times {{10}^{-9}}\cos [\pi \times {{10}^{16}}(t-x/c)]\],\[{{B}_{z}}=0\]

B)

\[{{B}_{x}}=0,\,{{B}_{y}}=-6.7\times {{10}^{-9}}\cos [\pi \times {{10}^{15}}(t-x/c)]\],\[{{B}_{z}}=0\]

C)

\[{{B}_{x}}=0,\,{{B}_{y}}=0,\,{{B}_{z}}=2.0\cos [\pi \times {{10}^{15}}(t-x/c)]\]

D)

\[{{B}_{x}}=0,\,{{B}_{y}}=0,\,{{B}_{z}}=-6.7\times {{10}^{-9}}\cos [\pi (t-x/c)]\]

View Answer
17) A beam of parallel light rays is incident on a solid transparent sphere of refractive index \[\mu \]. If a point image is produced just at the back of the sphere, what is the refractive index of the sphere?

A)

2.0

B)

2.3

C)

2.5

D)

2.7

View Answer
18) In a double slit experiment, the distance between slits is 5.0 mm and the slits are 1.0 m from the screen. Two interference patterns can be seen on the screen; one due to light with wavelength 480 nm and the other due to light with wavelength 600 nm. Find the separation on the screen between the third order bright fringes of the two interference patterns.

A)

                0.072 mm

B)

                0.063 mm

C)

0.037 mm

D)

0.019 mm

View Answer
19) Find the de-Broglie wavelength of an electron with a kinetic energy of 120 eV.

A)

95pm

B)

102pm

C)

112pm

D)

124pm

View Answer
20) A LED is constructed from a p-n junction based on a certain semi-conducting material whose energy gap is 1.9 eV. Find the wavelength of the emitted light.

A)

\[2.9\times {{10}^{-9}}m\]

B)

\[1.6\times {{10}^{-8}}m\]

C)

\[6.5\times {{10}^{-7}}m\]

D)

\[9.1\times {{10}^{-5}}m\]

View Answer
21) The energy spectrum of \[\beta \]-particle [number N(E,) as a function of \[\beta \]-energy E] emitted from a radioactive source is

A)



B)

C)



D)



View Answer
22) For the following fission reaction\[^{235}U+n{{\xrightarrow{{}}}^{140}}Ce{{+}^{94}}Zr+2n\],Find the disintegration energy. \[({{M}_{U}}=23502\,u,\,{{M}_{n}}=1.0\,u,\,\,{{M}_{Ce}}=139.9\,\,u\],\[{{M}_{Zr}}=93.9\,\,u)\]

A)

205 MeV

B)

198 MeV

C)

123 MeV

D)

89 MeV

View Answer
23) Find the minimum frequency of a photon that can produce a singly ionized He-atom.

A)

\[5.6\times {{10}^{10}}Hz\]

B)

\[6.9\times {{10}^{12}}Hz\]

C)

\[7.3\times {{10}^{13}}Hz\]

D)

\[1.31\,\,\,{{10}^{15}}Hz\]

View Answer
24) The work functions of four materials \[{{M}_{1}},{{M}_{2}},{{M}_{3}}\] and \[{{M}_{4}}\] are 1.9 eV, 2.5 eV, 3.6 eV, and 4.2 eV, respectively. Which of these material is (are) useful in a photocell to detect visible light?

A)

\[{{M}_{1}}\]only

B)

\[{{M}_{1}}\] and \[{{M}_{2}}\]

C)

\[{{M}_{3}}\] only

D)

All of these

View Answer
25) Two amplifiers are connected in series. The first amplifier has a voltage gain of 10 while the second one has voltage gain of 20. If the input signal is 0.01 V, calculate the voltage of the output AC signal.

A)

                2V

B)

                3V

C)

                4V

D)

                5V

View Answer
26) Amplitude modulation has

A)

one carrier with two side band frequencies

B)

one carrier

C)

one carrier with infinite frequencies

D)

one carrier with high frequency

View Answer
27) Calculate the focal length of reading glasses of a person, if his distance of distinct vision is 75 cm.

A)

25.6 cm

B)

37.5 cm

C)

75.2 cm

D)

100.4 cm

View Answer
28) A battery of V voltage is connected across the potentiometer wire AC of total resistance \[{{R}_{0}}\]as shown. Calculate, the potential across the resistance R, if the sliding contact point B is exactly at the middle of the potentiometer wire.

A)

\[\frac{2VR}{4{{R}_{0}}+R}\]

B)

\[\frac{4VR}{2{{R}_{0}}+R}\]

C)

\[\frac{2VR}{{{R}_{0}}+4R}\]

D)

\[\frac{4V{{R}_{0}}}{{{R}_{0}}+2R}\]

View Answer
29) The diameter of a given wire is measured by a screw gauze. The three measurements of the diameter give the reading in cm as 0.036, 0.035 and 0.037. What is the percentage error of the measurement?

A)

1.8%

B)

2.8%

C)

3.2%

D)

4.6%

View Answer
30) Which of the following ratios has the dimension of mass?

A)

Volume / Density

B)

Surface tension/\[{{\left( Angular\text{ }velocity \right)}^{2}}\]

C)

Linear momentum / Force

D)

Pressure / Power

View Answer
31) The distance x of a particle moving in one I dimension under the action of constant force is related to the time t by the relation,\[t=\sqrt{x}+3\]Find the displacement of the particle when its velocity is 6.0 m/s.

A)

9.0m

B)

6.0m

C)

4.0 m

D)

0.0 m

View Answer
32) Which of the following pairs of vectors are parallel?

A)

\[A=\hat{i}-2\hat{j}\,;\,B=\hat{i}-5\hat{j}\]

B)

\[A=\hat{i}-10\hat{j}\,;\,B=2\hat{i}-5\hat{j}\]

C)

\[A=\hat{i}-5\hat{j}\,;\,B=\hat{i}-10\hat{j}\]

D)

\[A=\hat{i}-5\hat{j}\,;\,B=2\hat{i}-10\hat{j}\]

View Answer
33) From the top of a tower of height 10 m, one fire is shot horizontally with a speed of \[5\sqrt{3}\]m/s. Another fire is shot upwards at angle of \[{{60}^{o}}\] with the horizontal at some interval of time with the same speed of \[5\sqrt{3}\] m/s. The shots collide in air at a certain point. The time interval between the two fires is

A)

2s

B)

1 s

C)

0.5 s

D)

0.25 s

View Answer
34) A tube of length L is filled completely with an incompressible liquid of mass M and closed at both ends. The tube is rotated in a horizontal plane about one of its ends with a uniform angular velocity co. The force exerted by the liquid at the other end is.

A)

\[\frac{1}{2}M{{\omega }^{2}}L\]

B)

\[M{{\omega }^{2}}L\]

C)

\[\frac{1}{4}M{{\omega }^{2}}L\]

D)

\[\frac{1}{6}M{{\omega }^{2}}L\]

View Answer
35) In an elastic collision, a neutron collides with carbon. How much energy (in percentage) of neutron is transferred to carbon?

A)

90%

B)

45%

C)

28 %

D)

12%

View Answer
36) A block of mass 1.0 kg moving on a horizontal surface with speed 2m/s enters a rough surface. The retarding force \[({{F}_{r}})\] on the block is given by \[{{F}_{r}}=-\frac{k}{x};\,10\,m<x<100\,m\]\[=0\,;\,x<10\,m\] and \[x>100\,\,m\],where, \[k=0.5\,J\]. The kinetic energy of the block at \[x=100\,m\] is

A)

4.5 J

B)

2.5 J

C)

0.5 J

D)

1.5 J

View Answer
37) Two uniform rods of different materials \[{{M}_{1}}\] and \[{{M}_{2}}\] have lengths 2 m and 3 m, respectively. The mass per unit length of rods \[{{M}_{1}}\] and \[{{M}_{2}}\] are 1 kg and 2 kg respectively. If the rods are arranged, as shown, the position of the cm relative to point O is

A)

4.9m

B)

3.9 m

C)

2.9 m

D)

2.2 m

View Answer
38) If we consider the mass of black hole as the mass of the earth \[({{M}_{e}})\], then the radius of black hole would be

A)

\[\frac{2G{{M}_{e}}}{{{C}^{2}}}\]

B)

\[\frac{2G{{M}_{e}}}{3{{C}^{2}}}\]

C)

\[\frac{G{{M}_{e}}}{3{{C}^{2}}}\]

D)

\[\frac{G{{M}_{e}}}{{{C}^{2}}}\]

View Answer
39) The surface tension and vapour pressure of water at \[{{30}^{o}}C\] are \[7.2\times {{10}^{-2}}\] N/m and\[2.4\times {{10}^{3}}\], respectively. What is the radius of the smallest droplet of water which can be formed without evaporating at \[{{30}^{o}}C\]?

A)

\[1.6\times {{10}^{-2}}m\]

B)

\[2.9\times {{10}^{-3}}m\]

C)

\[5.6\times {{10}^{-4}}m\]

D)

\[6.0\times {{10}^{-5}}m\]

View Answer
40) The temperature on a Fahrenheit scale is\[98.6{{\,}^{o}}F\]? What is the corresponding temperature on a kelvin scale?

A)

310.2 K

B)

280.3 K

C)

420.5 K

D)

370.6 K

View Answer
41) Two spherical bodies P (radius 9 cm) and Q (radius 27 cm) are at temperatures \[{{T}_{p}}\] and \[{{T}_{Q}}\]respectively. If the maximum intensities in the emission spectra of P and Q are, respectively, at 300 nm and 900 nm, what is the ratio of the rate of energy radiated by P to that by Q?

A)

6

B)

7

C)

8

D)

9

View Answer
42) The four curves \[{{A}_{1}},{{A}_{2}},{{A}_{3}}\] and \[{{A}_{4}}\] are shown on p-V diagram. Which of the curves represents adiabatic process?

A)

\[{{A}_{3}}\]

B)

\[{{A}_{4}}\]

C)

\[{{A}_{1}}\]

D)

\[{{A}_{2}}\]

View Answer
43) The mean free path of a gas molecule at STP is\[2.1\times {{10}^{-7}}m\]. Find the diameter of the molecule. (Boltzmann constant\[=1.4\times {{10}^{23}}J/K\])

A)

\[5.2\overset{\text{o}}{\mathop{\text{A}}}\,\]

B)

\[4.6\overset{\text{o}}{\mathop{\text{A}}}\,\]

C)

\[3.5\overset{\text{o}}{\mathop{\text{A}}}\,\]

D)

\[2.1\overset{\text{o}}{\mathop{\text{A}}}\,\]

View Answer
44) For a damped harmonic oscillator of mass 200 g, the values of spring constant and damping constant are, respectively, 90 N/m and 0.04 kg/s. The time taken for its amplitude of vibration of drop to half of its initial value is (log, 2 = 0.693)

A)

7.0s

B)

14.2 s

C)

15.9s

D)

26.6 s

View Answer
45) For the following reference circle, the equation of simple harmonic motion (SHM) is

A)

\[x=-2\sin (2\pi t+\pi /4)\]

B)

\[x=-2\sin (3t+\pi /3)\]

C)

\[x=-2\cos (\pi /6-t)\]

D)

\[x=-2\cos \pi t\]

View Answer
46) Find the equation of a plane progressive wave travelling along positive: c-axis having amplitude 0.04m, frequency 120 Hz and speed 360 m/s.

A)

\[y=0.04\sin 2\pi (120\,t-x/3)\]

B)

\[y=-0.04\sin 2\pi (110\,t-x/3)\]

C)

\[y=0.04\sin 2\pi (120\,t+x/3)\]

D)

\[y=0.04\sin \,\pi (120\,t-x/3)\]

View Answer
47) A 70 cm long sonometer wire is in unison with a tuning fork. If the length of the wire is decreased by 1.0 cm, it produces 4 beats per second with the same tuning fork. The frequency of the tuning fork is

A)

186 Hz

B)

220 Hz

C)

276 Hz

D)

312 Hz

View Answer
48) Two open organ pipes on sounding together produce 5 beats per second. If the length of the smaller pipe is 0.66m, the length of the larger pipe would be

A)

0.95m

B)

0.85 m

C)

0.75 m

D)

0.67 m

View Answer
49) An observer moves towards a stationary source of sound with a velocity one-fifth the velocity of sound. What is the percentage change in the apparent frequency?

A)

Increase by 0.5 %

B)

Decrease by 5 %

C)

Increase by 20 %

D)

Increase by 50 %

View Answer
50) A steel wire of 1.5 m long of diameter 0.25 cm and a brass wire of 1.0 m long of diameter 0.25 m are loaded as shown. Calculate, the elongation of the brass wire.

A)

\[1.1\times {{10}^{-4}}m\]

B)

\[1.3\times {{10}^{-4}}m\]

C)

\[1.5\times {{10}^{-4}}m\]

D)

\[1.7\times {{10}^{-4}}m\]

View Answer
51) Which one of the following is an example of \[{{3}^{o}}\] amide?

A)



B)

C)



D)



View Answer
52) End product of the following reaction is

A)



B)



C)



D)



View Answer
53) The major product of the reaction of with electrophile, \[{{E}^{+}}\], is

A)



B)

C)



D)



View Answer
54) End product of the following sequence of reaction is

A)



B)



C)



D)



View Answer
55) Which one is least reactive towards nucleophilic substitution reaction?

A)

o-aminochlorobenzene

B)

Chlorobenzene

C)

o-nitrochlorobenzene

D)

2, 4-dinitrochlorobenzene

View Answer
56) A liquid which decomposes at its boiling point can be purified by

A)

distillation at atmospheric pressure

B)

distillation under reduced pressure

C)

fractional distillation

D)

steam distillation

View Answer
57) Which of the following compounds undergoes nitration more readily?

A)

Benzene

B)

Benzoic acid

C)

Nitrobenzene

D)

Toluene

View Answer
58) Enthalpy of combustion of carbon to \[C{{O}_{2}}\] is -393.5 kJ \[mo{{l}^{-1}}\]. What amount of heat will be released upon formation of 35.2 g of \[C{{O}_{2}}\] from carbon and oxygen gas?

A)

214.8kJ

B)

314.8kJ

C)

414.8kJ

D)

514.8kJ

View Answer
59) One mole of an ideal gas at 300 K is expanded isothermally from initial volume of 1 L to 10 L. The \[\Delta E\] for this process is (R = 2 cal\[mo{{l}^{-1}}{{K}^{-1}}\])

A)

163.7 cal

B)

zero

C)

138.1 cal

D)

9 L atom

View Answer
60) For a certain process, and \[\Delta H=178\,kJ\]\[\Delta S=160\,J/K\]. What is the minimum temperature at which the process is spontaneous (assuming that \[\Delta H\] and \[\Delta S\] do not vary with temperature)

A)

2112.3 K

B)

136.7K

C)

275.8 K

D)

1112.5K

View Answer
61) A person inhales 640 g of \[{{O}_{2}}\] per day. If all \[{{O}_{2}}\]is used for converting sugar into \[C{{O}_{2}}\] and\[{{H}_{2}}O\], how much sucrose \[({{C}_{12}}{{H}_{22}}{{O}_{11}})\] is consumed in the body in one day and what is the heat evolved? \[\Delta H\] for combustion of sucrose \[=-5645\,kJ\,mo{{l}^{-1}}\]

A)

530 g, 9403.34 kJ

B)

570 g, 9408.34 kJ

C)

500 g, 9402.27 kJ

D)

520 g, 9435.21 kJ

View Answer
62) Copper crystallises in a face centred cubic lattice with a unit cell length of 361 pm. What is the radius of copper atom in pm?

A)

157

B)

181

C)

108

D)

128

View Answer
63) For the set of reactions,(i) \[A+BC\,;\] (ii) \[C+B\xrightarrow[{}]{{{k}_{3}}}D,\]\[{{k}_{1}}\,[A][B]-{{k}_{2}}[C]-{{k}_{3}}[C][B]\] is equal to

A)

\[\frac{-d\,[A]}{dt}\]

B)

\[\frac{-d\,[B]}{dt}\]

C)

\[\frac{d\,[C]}{dt}\]

D)

\[\frac{d\,[D]}{dt}\]

E)

None of the above

View Answer
64) For the reaction, \[2{{N}_{2}}{{O}_{5}}\xrightarrow{{}}4N{{O}_{2}}+{{O}_{2}};\] the rate is directly proportional to \[[{{N}_{2}}{{O}_{5}}]\]. At\[{{45}^{o}}C\], 90% of the \[{{N}_{2}}{{O}_{5}}\] reacts in 3600 seconds. The value of the rate constant is

A)

\[3.2\times {{10}^{-4}}{{s}^{-1}}\]

B)

\[6.4\times {{10}^{-4}}{{s}^{-1}}\]

C)

\[8.5\times {{10}^{-4}}{{s}^{-1}}\]

D)

\[12.8\times {{10}^{-4}}{{s}^{-1}}\]

View Answer
65) What happens in a steady state?

A)

Heat is evolved

B)

The concentration of an intermediate is constant

C)

Product is being formed faster than reactants are regenerated

D)

None of the above

View Answer
66) Nitrogen gas is physically adsorbed on iron at \[{{190}^{o}}C\] but chemisorbed to form a nitride at

A)

                \[{{250}^{o}}C\]

B)

                \[{{300}^{o}}C\]

C)

\[{{500}^{o}}C\]

D)

\[{{190}^{o}}C\]

View Answer
67) In the equilibrium, \[{{N}_{2}}{{O}_{4}}(g)2N{{O}_{2}}(g)\]the \[{{N}_{3}}{{O}_{4}}\] is fifty per cent dissociated at \[{{60}^{o}}C\]. What will be the value of \[{{K}_{p}}\] at this temperature and one atmosphere?

A)

0.33 atm

B)

1.33 atm

C)

2.33 atm

D)

3.33 atm

View Answer
68) 28 g of \[{{N}_{2}}\] and 6 g of \[{{H}_{2}}\] were mixed. At equilibrium, 17 g \[N{{H}_{3}}\] was produced. The weights of \[{{N}_{2}}\] and \[{{H}_{2}}\] at equilibrium are respectively

A)

11 g, 0 g

B)

1 g, 3 g

C)

14 g, 3 g

D)

11 g, 3 g

View Answer
69) The equilibrium constant for the reaction\[2G+JD+2T\] is \[1.5\times {{10}^{3}}\]. When 1.0 mole of G, 2.0 mole of J and 0.5 mole of D are put in a 1.0 L flask and allowed to reach equilibrium, then the equilibrium concentration of T is

A)

0.039

B)

0.078

C)

2

D)

5

E)

None of the above

F)

View Answer
70) The value of the equilibrium constant for the reaction, \[{{N}_{2}}+2{{O}_{2}}2N{{O}_{2}}\] is 100. The equilibrium constant for the reaction \[N{{O}_{2}}\frac{1}{2}{{N}_{2}}+{{O}_{2}}\] will be

A)

100

B)

0.010

C)

0.10

D)

1000

View Answer
71) Predict the effect of increased pressure on the following reaction equilibrium, \[2S{{O}_{2}}(g)+{{O}_{2}}(g)2S{{O}_{3}}(g)\]

A)

Equilibrium shift to the right

B)

Equilibrium shift to the left

C)

No effect on equilibrium

D)

Reaction stops

View Answer
72) What mass of \[{{N}_{2}}{{H}_{4}}\] can be oxidised to \[{{N}_{2}}\] by\[24.0\,g\,{{K}_{2}}C{{r}_{2}}{{O}_{7}}\], which is reduced to \[Cr(OH)_{4}^{-}\]?

A)

194.2 g

B)

2.97 g

C)

2.40 g

D)

32 g

E)

None of these above

View Answer
73) Given the reaction for the discharge of a cobalt-cadmium battery \[2Co{{(OH)}_{3}}+Cd+2{{H}_{2}}O\xrightarrow{{}}\]\[2Co{{(OH)}_{2}}+Cd{{(OH)}_{2}}\] What species is oxidised during the discharge of the battery?

A)

\[C{{o}^{3+}}\]

B)

\[C{{o}^{2+}}\]

C)

Cd

D)

\[C{{d}^{2+}}\]

View Answer
74) What is the oxidation number of vanadium in\[R{{b}_{4}}Na[H{{V}_{10}}{{O}_{28}}]\]?

A)

+8

B)

+5

C)

+3

D)

+1

View Answer
75) The compound not acting as reducing agent is

A)

                \[S{{O}_{2}}\]

B)

                \[Se{{O}_{2}}\]

C)

\[Te{{O}_{2}}\]

D)

All of these

View Answer
76) Choose the correct alternative for the compounds: \[[Ni{{(CO)}_{4}}]\]and \[{{[Ni{{(CN)}_{4}}]}^{2-}}\]

A)

Tetrahedral, Paramagnetic                         Tetrahedral, Diamagnetic

B)

Tetrahedral, Diamagnetic                            Square planar, Diamagnetic

C)

Square planar, Diamagnetic                        Square planar, Paramagnetic

D)

Trigonal pyramidal          Square pyramidal

View Answer
77) There are no S?S bond in

A)

\[{{S}_{2}}O_{4}^{2-}\]

B)

\[{{S}_{2}}O_{5}^{2-}\]

C)

\[{{S}_{2}}O_{3}^{2-}\]

D)

\[{{S}_{2}}O_{7}^{2-}\]

View Answer
78) The correct order of acid strength

A)

\[C{{l}_{2}}{{O}_{7}}>S{{O}_{2}}>{{P}_{4}}{{O}_{10}}\]

B)

\[C{{O}_{2}}>{{N}_{2}}{{O}_{5}}>S{{O}_{3}}\]

C)

\[N{{a}_{2}}O>,MgO>A{{l}_{2}}{{O}_{3}}\]

D)

\[{{K}_{2}}O>CaO>MgO\]

View Answer
79) Which of the following compound is expected to be coloured?

A)

\[A{{g}_{2}}S{{O}_{4}}\]

B)

\[Cu{{F}_{2}}\]

C)

\[Mg{{F}_{2}}\]

D)

CuCI

View Answer
80) Which one of the following exhibits the maximum covalent character?

A)

\[FeC{{l}_{2}}\]

B)

\[AlC{{l}_{3}}\]

C)

\[MgC{{l}_{2}}\]

D)

\[SnC{{l}_{2}}\]

View Answer
81) Which one of the following is paramagnetic? I

A)

NO

B)

\[N{{O}^{+}}\]

C)

\[N{{O}^{-}}\]

D)

\[{{N}_{2}}\]

View Answer
82) Zr (Z = 40) and Hf (Z = 72) have similar atomic and ionic radii because of

A)

both belong to same group

B)

diagonal relationship

C)

lanthanide contraction

D)

having similar chemical properties

View Answer
83) In a square planar complex of the type [Mabcx], the number of geometrical isomers can be

A)

no geometrical isomer

B)

three

C)

two

D)

four

View Answer
84) First noble gas compound prepared by Neil Bartlett is

A)

\[O_{2}^{+}PtF_{6}^{-}\]

B)

\[O_{3}^{+}PtF_{6}^{-}\]

C)

\[X{{e}^{+}}PtF_{6}^{-}\]

D)

\[Xe{{F}_{2}}\]

View Answer
85) Holmes signal uses chemical compound

A)

calcium carbide

B)

calcium phosphide

C)

calcium carbide and calcium phosphide

D)

calcium carbide and aluminium carbide

View Answer
86) Ultimate product is obtained on heating \[{{B}_{2}}{{H}_{6}}\]with \[N{{H}_{3}}\] is

A)

\[{{B}_{3}}{{N}_{3}}{{H}_{6}}\]

B)

\[{{(B-N)}_{3}}\]

C)

\[{{N}_{2}}{{H}_{4}}\]

D)

\[BH_{4}^{-}\]

View Answer
87) Which is least stable compound?

A)

\[BC{{l}_{3}}\]

B)

\[GaC{{l}_{3}}\]

C)

\[\ln C{{l}_{3}}\]

D)

\[TIC{{l}_{3}}\]

View Answer
88) A commercial sample of \[{{H}_{2}}{{O}_{2}}\] marked as 100 volume hydrogen peroxide, it means that

A)

\[1\,mL\,{{H}_{2}}{{O}_{2}}\] will give \[100\,mL\,{{O}_{2}}\] at STP

B)

1 L of \[{{H}_{2}}{{O}_{2}}\] will give \[100\,mL\,{{O}_{2}}\] at STP

C)

1 L of \[{{H}_{2}}{{O}_{2}}\] will give 22.4 L \[{{O}_{2}}\] at STP

D)

1 mL of \[{{H}_{2}}{{O}_{2}}\] will give 1 mole of \[{{O}_{2}}\] at STP

View Answer
89) Find wrong statement

A)

\[N{{a}_{2}}C{{O}_{3}}\] is used in glass industry

B)

\[KHC{{O}_{3}}\] is acidic salt

C)

\[{{K}_{2}}C{{O}_{3}}\] can be prepared by Solvay process

D)

\[N{{a}_{2}}C{{O}_{3}}\] is used for metal refining

View Answer
90) Which of the following facts about the complex \[[Cr{{(N{{H}_{3}})}_{6}}]C{{l}_{3}}\] is wrong?

A)

The complex is paramagnetic

B)

The complex is an outer orbital complex

C)

The complex gives white precipitate with silver nitrate

D)

The complex involves \[{{d}^{2}}s{{p}^{3}}\] hybridisation and is octahedral in shape

View Answer
91) In the given reaction, the compound A is

A)

B)

C)

D)

View Answer
92) What reagent(s) can be used to convert 2 methyl pentan-1-ol into 2-methyl pentanal?

A)

\[N{{a}_{2}}C{{r}_{2}}{{O}_{7}}\]

B)

\[LiAl{{H}_{4}}\]

C)

\[Cr{{O}_{3}}\]-pyridine

D)

\[KMn{{O}_{4}}\]

View Answer
93) Which one of the following is most reactive towards nucleophilic substitution reaction?

A)



B)



C)



D)

View Answer
94) Which of the following names does not fit a real name?

A)

3-methyl-3-hexanone

B)

4-methyl-S-hexanone

C)

3-methyl-3-hexanol

D)

2-methyl cyclohexanone

View Answer
95) Major product of the reaction is \[{{(C{{H}_{3}})}_{2}}C=C{{H}_{2}}\xrightarrow{ICI}A\]

A)

2-chloro-1-iodo-2-methyl propane

B)

1 -chloro-2-iodo-2-methyl propane

C)

1, 2-dichloro-2-methyS propane

D)

1, 2-diiodo-2-methyl propane

View Answer
96) The source of nitrogen in Gabriel synthesis of primary amines is

A)

potassium cyanide

B)

potassium phthaiimide

C)

sodium azide

D)

sodium nitrite

View Answer
97) The correct increasing order of basic strength for the following compound is

A)

\[III<I<II\]

B)

\[III<II<I\]

C)

\[I<II<III\]

D)

\[II<I<III\]

View Answer
98) Which of the following reactions involves the formation of a methyl ester from a carboxylic acid?

A)

Hell-Volhard-Zeiinsky reaction

B)

Hunsdiecker reaction

C)

Reaction with ammonia

D)

Reaction with diazomethane

View Answer
99) An ether solution of \[PhC{{H}_{3}}(I),\,PhN{{H}_{2}}(II)\]and \[PhOH(III)\] is extracted with aqueous\[NaOH\]. The ether layer will contain what compound(s) after the extraction?

A)

Only III

B)

I + II

C)

II + III

D)

I + III

View Answer
100) Final major product of the following reactions is

A)



B)

C)



D)



View Answer
101) Nistch was able to get strawberries of different shapes by

A)

splitting the ovary

B)

removing the perianth

C)

selectively removing some carpels

D)

inserting an alcohol dipped needle into the ovary

View Answer
102) Plants can be made disease resistant through

A)

colchicine treatment

B)

X-ray treatment

C)

breeding with wild relatives

D)

hormone treatment

View Answer
103) Yeast is used for commercial production of

A)

methanol

B)

ethanol

C)

butanol

D)

citric acid

View Answer
104) Microbe used as clot buster during myocardial infraction

A)

Penicillium notatum

B)

Clostridium butyl icum

C)

Streptococcus

D)

Acetobacter aceti

View Answer
105) ICBN stands for

A)

Indian Council of British Nature

B)

International Code for Biological Nomenclature

C)

International Code for Botanical Nomenclature

D)

Indian Code for Biological Nomenclature

View Answer
106) Which pair of plants placed in the family- Solanaceae?

A)

Datura and Petunia

B)

Datura and Asphodelus

C)

Petunia and Sesbania

D)

Petunia and Pisum

View Answer
107) Which of the following statements is correct?

A)

Species diversity, in general, increases from poles to the equator

B)

Conventional taxonomic methods are equally suitable for higher plants and microorganisms

C)

Indias share of global species diversity is about 18%.

D)

There are about 25000 known species of plants in India

View Answer
108) PAE stands for

A)

Photosynthetically Adaptable Radiation

B)

Photosynthetically Accessible Radiation

C)

Photosynthetic Activity Radiometry

D)

Photosynthetically Active Radiation

View Answer
109) Which of the following is the largest taxon among plants in terms of the number of species?

A)

Algae

B)

Mosses

C)

Ferns

D)

Fungi

View Answer
110) Which of the following processes will be most adversely affected if microorganisms are removed from a forest ecosystem?

A)

Solar energy fixation and nutrient cycling

B)

Decomposition of organic matter and photosynthesis

C)

Nitrogen-fixation and decomposition of organic matter

D)

Carbon assimilation and nitrogen-fixation

View Answer
111) Residual, persistent nucellus present in some seeds is known as

A)

scutellum

B)

perisperm

C)

tapetum

D)

coleoptile

View Answer
112) Adventitious buds at the leaf notches help to propagate the plant of

A)

potato

B)

Agave

C)

Bryophyllum

D)

Cactus

View Answer
113) Gametogenesis refers to the process of

A)

fusion of two gametes

B)

fusion of two gametangia

C)

formation of two types of gametes

D)

formation of male gamete only

View Answer
114) Stilt roots are found in

A)

Rhizospora

B)

maize

C)

banyan

D)

Colocasia

View Answer
115) In a monocot leaf stomata are present

A)

only on abaxial surface

B)

only on adaxial surface

C)

on both the surfaces

D)

more on abaxial surface

View Answer
116) The inflorescence in which sessile flowers are borne acropetally on an elongated rachis, it is called

A)

raceme

B)

spike

C)

catkin

D)

corymb

View Answer
117) Ring-like secondary cell wall thickening is referred to as

A)

spiral

B)

helical

C)

scalariform

D)

annular

View Answer
118) Aspergillus niger is used for commercial and industrial production of

A)

acetic acid

B)

butyric acid

C)

citric acid

D)

lactic acid

View Answer
119) Statin, a blood-cholesterol lowering agent, is commercially obtained from

A)

Trichoderma polysporum

B)

Acetobacter aceti

C)

Clostridium butyricum

D)

Monascus purpureus

View Answer
120) Adenylic acid is a / an

A)

nitrogen base

B)

nucleoside

C)

nucleotide

D)

amino acid

View Answer
121) That plants could be grown to maturity in a defined nutrient solution was for the first time demonstrated by

A)

Priestley

B)

Van Sacchs

C)

Ingenhausz

D)

Van Niel

View Answer
122) In purple and green bacteria, oxygen is not evolved during photosynthesis because hydrogen donor is

A)

\[{{H}_{2}}O\]

B)

\[{{H}_{2}}S\]

C)

\[N{{H}_{3}}\]

D)

\[C{{H}_{4}}\]

View Answer
123) In PS-I, the reaction centre chlorophyll a has an absorption peak at

A)

650 nm

B)

660 nm

C)

680 nm

D)

700 nm

View Answer
124) The idea of two pigment systems in light reaction of photosynthesis was given by

A)

Arnon

B)

Hill

C)

Blackman

D)

None of these

View Answer
125) In respiration, more than one R.Q. value results from the use of

A)

glucose

B)

sucrose

C)

fat

D)

organic acid

View Answer
126) In lactic acid fermentation, the number of ATP formed by the oxidation of NADH is

A)

eight

B)

six

C)

three

D)

Nil

View Answer
127) During aerobic respiration, acetyl Co-A is synthesized in

A)

cytosol

B)

mitochondrial matrix.

C)

glyoxysomal matrix

D)

perichondrial space

View Answer
128) The cell attaining their maximal size in terms of wall thickening and protoplasmic modification belong to

A)

meristematic phase of growth

B)

elongation phase of growth

C)

maturation phase of growth

D)

None of the above

View Answer
129) Spraying sugarcane crop with a plant hormone increases the length of the stem, thus increasing the yield by as much as 20 tonnes per acre. The plant hormone is

A)

gibberellin ensymes

B)

auxin

C)

cytokinin

D)

abscisic acid

View Answer
130) The principal function of Golgi apparatus is

A)

producing enzymes

B)

protein synthesis

C)

synthesis of lipids

D)

packaging materials

View Answer
131) A scorpioid cyme having all the flowers in the same plane is

A)

rhipidium

B)

bostryx

C)

cincinnus

D)

dreponium

View Answer
132) Colletrotrichum is an example of

A)

Basidiomycetes

B)

Deuteromycetes

C)

Ascomycetes

D)

Phycomycetes

View Answer
133) A nitrogenous base is linked to the pentose sugar through

A)

hydrogen bond

B)

glycosidic bond

C)

phosphate diester bond

D)

peptide bond

View Answer
134) A mechanism that can cause a gene to move from one linkage group to another is

A)

translocation

B)

inversion

C)

crossing-over

D)

duplication

View Answer
135) Cell cycle includes the sequence

A)

\[S,{{G}_{1}},{{G}_{2}},M\]

B)

\[S,M,{{G}_{1}},{{G}_{2}}\]

C)

\[{{G}_{1}},S,{{G}_{2}},M\]

D)

\[M,{{G}_{1}},{{G}_{2}},S\]

View Answer
136) When the concentration of the solutes is low in plant cell, absorption of water is

A)

retarded

B)

increased

C)

normal

D)

absent

View Answer
137) A citizen group called Friends of the Arcata Marsh (FOAM) basically belongs to

A)

Germany

B)

USA

C)

Canada

D)

UK

View Answer
138) Which of the following is an example of alien species invading a new ecosystem resulting in biodiversity losses?

A)

Introduction of Nile Perch into Lake Victoria in East Africa

B)

Introduction of Water Hyacinth into India

C)

Introduction of African Catfish into Indian rivers

D)

All of the above

View Answer
139) The prime contaminants in lakes eutrophied by sewage and agricultural wastes are

A)

sulphates and phosphates

B)

nitrates and sulphates

C)

nitrates and phosphates

D)

nitrates and carbonates

View Answer
140) The process of nutrient enrichment of water, and subsequent loss of species diversity is referred to as

A)

bio concentration

B)

bio magnification

C)

eutrophication

D)

nitrification

View Answer
141) In which cell organelles the genome system is autonomous?

A)

Ribosomes and chloroplasts

B)

Mitochondria and chloroplasts

C)

Mitochondria and ribosomes

D)

Golgi bodies and ribosomes

View Answer
142) Who gave the concept that for a double stranded DNA the ratio between A = T and G = C are equal and constant?

A)

Watson and Crick

B)

Wilkins and Franklin

C)

Wilkins and Chargaff

D)

Chargaff

View Answer
143) In a dihybrid cross between two heterozygotes AaBb \[\times \] AaBb, if we get 3 : 1 ratio among the off springs, the reason for this may be

A)

polygenes

B)

linked genes

C)

pleiotropic genes

D)

hypostatic genes

View Answer
144) What result Mendel would have got, had he self-pollinated a tall \[{{F}_{2}}\] -plant?

A)

                TT and Tt

B)

                All Tf

C)

AII TT

D)

All ff

View Answer
145) Which of the antibiotic is not produced by one of the Monera (Streptomyces)?

A)

Erythromycin

B)

Penicillin

C)

Streptomycin

D)

Tetramydn

View Answer
146) Entomophilous flowers are

A)

brightly coloured and produce nector

B)

colourless

C)

inconspicuous

D)

odourless

View Answer
147) Which structural level enables the proteins to function as enzymes?

A)

Primary

B)

Secondary

C)

Tertiary

D)

Quaternary

View Answer
148) A distinguishing feature of latex cells is that they are

A)

single-celled elements with anastomosing (fusing) branches

B)

single-celled elements with non anastomosingi branches

C)

multi-celled elements with anastomosingi branches

D)

multi-celled elements with non anastomosing branches

View Answer
149) An organic non-protein cofactor which is easily separable from the apoenzyme is called

A)

prosthetic group

B)

coenzyme

C)

ailoenzyme

D)

All of these

View Answer
150) An immature male gametophyte differs from a mature male gametophyte in that it

A)

has not yet left the pollen sac

B)

has not yet germinated and its generative cell has not divided into two male gamete

C)

is a microspore that has not yet divided by mitosis

D)

still consist of microsporocyte

View Answer
151) A stretch of DNA consisting of 10-20 bases is| most appropriately be called as

A)

polynucleotide

B)

nucleotides

C)

nucleosides

D)

oligonucleotide

View Answer
152) Which biomolecules other than proteins can be catabolised by humans or apes for the production of uric acid?

A)

                Carbohydrates

B)

                Lipids

C)

Nucleic acids

D)

Vitamins

View Answer
153) The 51 amino acids of insulin are arranged in

A)

single polypeptide

B)

two polypeptide having 20 and 31 amino acids

C)

two polypeptide having 25 and 26 amino acids

D)

two polypeptide having 18 and 33 amino acids

View Answer
154) Substrate of an enzyme is

A)

the reactant of the reaction catalysed by the enzyme

B)

competitive inhibitor of the enzyme

C)

uncompetitive inhibitor of the enzyme

D)

prosthetic group of the enzyme

View Answer
155) Which of the following statements regarding enzymes is not true?

A)

Enzymes lower the activation energy of a reaction

B)

Enzymes speed up the attainment of equilibrium of the reaction

C)

Enzyme change the value of equilibrium constant of the reaction

D)

All of the above

View Answer
156) Mitochondrial porins are located in

A)

the outer membrane

B)

the inner membrane

C)

inter-membrane space

D)

Both outer and inner membranes

View Answer
157) Of the total number of genes estimated in human genome, nearly 10 percent are contained in

A)

chromosome 11

B)

chromosome 21

C)

Y-chromosome

D)

chromosome 1

View Answer
158) Human haemoglobin contains

A)

secondary structure

B)

tertiary structure

C)

quaternary structure

D)

All of the above

View Answer
159) Which of the following is correct?

A)

Population change = (Birth + immigration) - (death + emigration)

B)

Population change = (Birth + immigration) + (death + emigration)

C)

Population change = (Birth + emigration) + (death - inmigration)

D)

Population change = (Birth - immigration) - (death + emigration)

View Answer
160) In order to lessen the suffering of phenylketonurics their diet should have

A)

no phenylalanine and no tyrosine

B)

low phenylalanine and normal requirement of tyrosine

C)

normal recommended amount of phenylalanine

D)

normal recommended amount of both phenylalanine and tyrosine

View Answer
161) The technique of DNA fingerprinting relies on

A)

repetitive DNA

B)

mini-satellite DNA

C)

Both (a) and (b)

D)

None of these

View Answer
162) During polynucleotide synthesis by the following enzymes, in which case elongation occurs in \[5\to 3\] direction?

A)

DNA polymerase

B)

RNA polymerase

C)

Reverse transcriptase

D)

All of the above

View Answer
163) Which of the following types of RNA act as adapter molecule

A)

RNA

B)

rRNA

C)

mRNA

D)

pre-mRNA

View Answer
164) In DNA fingerprinting, the process of DNA hybridisation with the help of specific DNA probe is described as

A)

Western blotting

B)

Northern blotting

C)

Southern blotting

D)

All of the above

View Answer
165) In order to induce the bacterial uptake of plasmids, the bacteria are made competent by first treating with

A)

sodium chloride

B)

potassium chloride

C)

magnesium chloride

D)

calcium chloride

View Answer
166) HIV, responsible for AIDS in human is a

A)

ss DNA virus

B)

ds DNA virus

C)

ss RNA virus

D)

ds RNA virus

View Answer
167) Heterogeneous nuclear RNA (hnRNA) is converted to wRNA by

A)

splicing

B)

capping

C)

tailing .

D)

All of the above

View Answer
168) The immunoglobulin disulfides do not join

A)

two heavy chains

B)

light chains with heavy chains

C)

two light chains

D)

All of the above

View Answer
169) Which of the following techniques is most widely employed to check the progress of a restriction enzyme digestion

A)

Agarose gel electrophoresis

B)

Centrifugation

C)

Polyacrylamide gel electrophoresis

D)

PCR

View Answer
170) The sticky ends on each of the two strands of a DNA generated by treatment with restriction enzymes facilitate the action of enzyme

A)

DNA ligase

B)

endonuclease

C)

exonuclease

D)

DNA polymerase

View Answer
171) Protein encoded by gene cry I Ab controls the infestation of which of the following insects

A)

                cotton bollworm

B)

                Anopheles mosquito

C)

corn borer

D)

Aedes mosquito

View Answer
172) The first antibody to appear in the serum following stimulation by antigen is

A)

IgM

B)

IgG

C)

IgA

D)

IgE

View Answer
173) Which of the following components are involved in allergic reaction

A)

IgE and mast cells

B)

IgG and mast cells

C)

IgA and mast cells

D)

IgG and basophiles

View Answer
174) The location where B-lymphocytes differentiate and mature is in the

A)

bone marrow

B)

bursa of fabric us

C)

Both (a) and (b)

D)

thymus

View Answer
175) My asthenia gravis is an example of

A)

viral diseases

B)

immune deficient diseases

C)

auto-immune diseases

D)

allergic reactions

View Answer
176) Binomial nomenclature means

A)

one name given by two taxonomists

B)

two names, the Latinized, other of a person

C)

two names, one scientific, other local

D)

two word names, the first indicates genus, and other species

View Answer
177) Which of the following are not eukaryotes?

A)

Monera

B)

Protista

C)

Animals

D)

Plants

View Answer
178) Name of a disease caused by a bacterium

A)

plague

B)

mumps

C)

dengue

D)

sleeping sickness

View Answer
179) DPT vaccine, a combination vaccine, is effective in humans against

A)

Diabetes, Polio and Tetanus

B)

Diphtheria, Plague and Tetanus

C)

Diphtheria, Pertussis and Typhoid

D)

Diphtheria, Pertussis and Tetanus

View Answer
180) The pathogen Haemophilus influenzae is responsible for the disease

A)

influenza

B)

pneumonia

C)

plague

D)

diphtheria

View Answer
181) Ringworm, a common infectious disease in man causing dry scaly lesions on the skin and scalp, is caused by

A)

bacteria

B)

roundworms

C)

filarial worms

D)

fungi

View Answer
182) The sound producing organ of bird is called as

A)

syrinx

B)

larynx

C)

trachea

D)

glottis

View Answer
183) According to IUCN Red list, during the last two decades, the maximum increase in the number of threatened species is among

A)

amphibians

B)

reptiles

C)

birds

D)

mammals

View Answer
184) Appropriate term for the grafting of tissues/organs between the individuals of different species is known as

A)

allograft

B)

isograft

C)

xenograft

D)

transgraft

View Answer
185) Sexual reproduction does not occur in

A)

Ascomycetes

B)

Deuteromycetes

C)

Basidiomycetes

D)

Phycomycetes

View Answer
186) A type of metamorphosis in insects with four developmental stages, i.e., eggs, larva, pupa and adult is

A)

hemimetabolous

B)

paurometabolous

C)

holometabolous

D)

ametabolous

View Answer
187) Which of the following genetic code has a dual functions-coding Met and acts as initiator codon

A)

UAA

B)

AUG

C)

UUU

D)

UAG

View Answer
188) The process of conversion of nitrogen to ammonia by the microbes is described as

A)

nitrification

B)

denitrification

C)

nitrogen-fixation

D)

Habers process

View Answer
189) The type of transport taking place across the bio-membranes without the help of proteins is

A)

facilitated diffusion

B)

active transport

C)

simple diffusion

D)

diffusion via symport

View Answer
190) 70 S ribosomes occur in

A)

bacteria

B)

mitochondria

C)

chloroplasts

D)

All of the above

View Answer
191) Which of the following are not ureotelic?

A)

Mammals

B)

Terrestrial amphibians

C)

Aquatic insects

D)

Birds

View Answer
192) The hissardale is a breed of sheep developed by crossing between

A)

Bikaneri ewes and Marino rams

B)

Marino ewes and Bikaneri rams

C)

Deccani ewes and Bikaneri rams

D)

Marino ewes and Apennine rams

View Answer
193) In habitual alcohol drinkers liver gets damaged because of

A)

accumulation of excess glycogen

B)

accumulation of excess fat

C)

excess detoxification

D)

excess deamination

View Answer
194) Which is the hormonal method of birth control?

A)

Pill

B)

IUD

C)

Vasectomy

D)

Femidom

View Answer
195) Sex determination by chromosomal difference in man and Drosophila is by mechanism called

A)

XX-XY

B)

XX-XO

C)

                ZZ-ZW

D)

                Both (a) and (b)

View Answer
196) Which of the following set of syndromes show 47 chromosomes in their genetic make up

A)

Downs syndrome, Pataus syndrome, Edwards syndrome

B)

Turners syndrome, Edwards syndrome, Klinefelters syndrome

C)

Klinefelters syndrome, Turners syndrome, Edwards syndrome

D)

All of the above

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197) The following is/are removed during hemodialysis

A)

urea

B)

glucose

C)

amino acid

D)

All of these

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198) Genetic disorder hemophilia is characterized by excessive loss of blood. Which of the following statement is not true in relation to this disease?

A)

It is an autosomal disease

B)

It is a X-linked disease

C)

Any of the factor VIII or IX may be absent

D)

It is a lethal disease

View Answer
199) Observe the two structural formulae shown below are

A)

isomers

B)

epimers

C)

anomers

D)

All of these

View Answer
200) Fish proteins are considered nutritionally superior to most vegetable proteins because they are rich in

A)

all the 20 amino acids

B)

essential amino acids

C)

peptide bonds

D)

polypeptides

View Answer

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Solved papers for AMU Medical AMU Solved Paper-2014

done AMU Solved Paper-2014 Total Questions - 200

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AMU Solved Paper-2014 Total Questions - 200