Solved papers for CET Karnataka Medical CET - Karnataka Medical Solved Paper-2013

CET - Karnataka Medical Solved Paper-2013 Total Questions - 180

1) When an additional charge of 2C is given to a capacitor, energy stored in it is increased by 21%. The original charge of the capacitor is

A)

\[30C\]

B)

\[40C\]

C)

\[10C\]

D)

\[20C\]

View Answer
2) When a potential difference of \[{{10}^{3}}V\]is applied between A and B, a charge of 0.75 mC is stored in the system of capacitors as shown. The value of C is ( in \[\mu F\])

A)

\[\frac{1}{2}\]

B)

\[2\]

C)

\[2.5\]

D)

\[3\]

View Answer
3) See the diagram. Area of each plate is \[2.0{{m}^{2}}\]and \[d=2\times {{10}^{-3}}m\]. A charge of \[8.85\times {{10}^{-8}}C\]is given to Q. Then the potential 2d of Q becomes

A)

\[13V\]

B)

\[10V\]

C)

\[6.67V\]

D)

\[8.825V\]

View Answer
4) Three conductors draw currents of 1 A, 2 A and 3 A respectively, when connected in turn across a battery. If they are connected in series and the combination is connected across the same battery, the current drawn will be

A)

\[\frac{2}{7}A\]

B)

\[\frac{3}{7}A\]

C)

\[\frac{4}{7}A\]

D)

\[\frac{5}{7}A\]

E)

None of the Above

View Answer
5) In the circuit, \[{{R}_{1}}={{R}_{2}}\]. The value of E and \[{{R}_{1}}\] are ____ (E - EMF, \[{{R}_{1}}\]- resistance)

A)

\[180V,60\Omega ~\]

B)

\[120V,60\Omega ~\]

C)

\[180V,10\Omega ~\]

D)

\[120V,10\Omega ~\].

E)

None of the Above

View Answer
6) Masses of three wires of copper are in the ratio of \[1:3:5\]and their lengths are in the ratio of \[5:3:1\]. The ratio of their electrical resistances is

A)

\[1:3:5\]

B)

\[5:3:1\]

C)

\[1:15:125\]

D)

\[125:15:1\]

View Answer
7) For a transformer, the turns ratio is 3 and its efficiency is 0.75. The current flowing in the primary coil is 2 A and the voltage applied to it is 100 V. Then the voltage and the current flowing in the secondary coil are _____ respectively.

A)

\[150V,1.5A\]

B)

\[300V,0.5A\]

C)

\[300V,1.5A\]

D)

\[150V,0.5\text{ }A\]

View Answer
8) A proton and helium nucleus are shot into a magnetic field at right angles to the field with same kinetic energy. Then the ratio of their radii is

A)

\[1:1\]

B)

\[1:2\]

C)

\[2:1\]

D)

\[1:4\]

View Answer
9) Two identical circular coils A and B are kept on a horizontal tube side by side without touching each other. If the current in the coil A increases with time, in response, the coil B

A)

is attracted by A

B)

remains stationary

C)

is repelled

D)

rotates

View Answer
10) In the diagram, are the strength of the currents in the loop and straight conductors respectively. OA=OB=R. The net magnetic field at the canter O is zero. Then the ratio of the currents in the loop and the straight conductors is

A)

\[\pi \]

B)

\[2\pi \]

C)

\[\frac{1}{\pi }\]

D)

\[\frac{1}{2\pi }\]

View Answer
11) Two tangent galvanometers, which are identical except in their number of turns are connected in parallel. he ratio of their resistances of the coils is \[1:3\]. If the deflections in the two tangent galvanometers are \[{{30}^{o}}\]and \[{{60}^{o}}\] respectively, then the ratio of their number of turns is

A)

\[1:1\]

B)

\[3:1\]

C)

\[1:2\]

D)

\[1:6\]

E)

None of the Above

View Answer
12) A charged particle with a velocity \[2\times {{10}^{3}}m{{s}^{-1}}\] passes unelected through electric field and magnetic fields in mutually perpendicular directions. The magnetic field is 1.5 T. The magnitude of electric field will be

A)

\[1.5\times {{10}^{3}}N{{C}^{-1}}\]

B)

\[2\times {{10}^{3}}N{{C}^{-1}}\]

C)

\[8\times {{10}^{3}}N{{C}^{-1}}\]

D)

\[1.33\times {{10}^{3}}N{{C}^{-1}}\]

View Answer
13) In R-L-C series circuit, the potential differences across each element is 20 V. Now the value of the resistance alone is doubled, then P.D. across R, L and C respectively

A)

\[20V,10V,10V\]

B)

\[20V,20V,20V\]

C)

\[20V,40V,40V\]

D)

\[10V,20V,20V\]

View Answer
14) A rectangular coil of 100 turns and size\[0.1m\times 0.05m\] is placed perpendicular to a magnetic field of 0.1 T. If the field drops to 0.05 T in 0.05 second, the magnitude of the e.m.f. induced in the coil is

A)

\[\sqrt{2}\]

B)

\[\sqrt{3}\]

C)

\[\sqrt{0.6}\]

D)

\[\sqrt{6}\]

E)

None of the Above

View Answer
15) In the circuit diagram, heat produces in R, 2R and 1.5R are in the ratio of

A)

\[4:2:3\]

B)

\[8:4:27\]

C)

\[2:4:3\]

D)

\[27:8:4\]

View Answer
16) A series combination of resistor (R), capacitor is connected to an A.C. source of angular frequency W. Keeping the voltage same, if the frequency is changed to\[\frac{\omega }{3}\], the current becomes half of the ; original current. Then the ratio of the capacitive reactance and resistance at the former frequency is

A)

\[\sqrt{0.6}\]

B)

\[\sqrt{3}\]

C)

\[\sqrt{2}\]

D)

\[\sqrt{6}\]

View Answer
17) Pick out the correct statement from the following:

A)

Mercury vapour lamp produces line emission spectrum.

B)

Oil flame produces line emission spectrum.

C)

Band spectrum helps us to study molecular structure.

D)

Sunlight spectrum is an example for line absorption spectrum.

View Answer
18) Light emitted during the de excitation of electron from \[n=3\] to \[n=2\], when incident on a metal, photoelectrons are just emitted from that metal. In which of the following dexcitations photoelectric effect is not possible?

A)

From \[n=2\] to \[n=1\]

B)

From \[n=3\] to \[n=1\]

C)

From \[n=5\] to \[n=2\]

D)

From \[n=4\] to \[n=3\]

View Answer
19) The additional energy that should be given to an electron to reduce its de-Broglie wavelength from nm to 0.5 nm is

A)

2 times the initial kinetic energy

B)

3 times the initial kinetic energy

C)

0.5 times the initial kinetic energy

D)

4 times the initial kinetic energy

View Answer
20) The ionisation energy of an electron in the ground state of helium atom is 24.6 eV. The energy required to remove both the electron is

A)

\[51.8eV\]

B)

\[79\text{ }eV\]

C)

\[38.2eV\]

D)

\[49.2\text{ }eV\]

View Answer
21)

____________ \[3E\]

____________ \[5E/3\]

____________ \[E\]

The figure shows the energy level of certain atom. When the electron deexcites from \[3E\] to\[E\], an electromagnetic wave of wavelength \[\lambda \] is emitted. What is the wavelength of the electromagnetic wave emitted when the electron de excites from \[\frac{5E}{3}\]to E?

A)

\[3\lambda \]

B)

\[2\lambda \]

C)

\[5\lambda \]

D)

\[\frac{3\lambda }{5}\]

View Answer
22) Maximum velocity of the photoelectron emitted by a metal is \[1.8\times {{10}^{6}}m{{s}^{-1}}\]. Take the value of specific charge of the electron is \[1.8\times {{10}^{11}}C\,k{{g}^{-1}}\]. Then the stopping potential in volt is

A)

\[1\]

B)

\[3\]

C)

\[9\]

D)

\[6\]

View Answer
23) \[{{\lambda }_{1}}\] and \[{{\lambda }_{2}}\] are used to illuminate the slits. \[{{\beta }_{1}}\] and \[{{\beta }_{2}}\] are the corresponding fringe widths. The wavelength \[{{\lambda }_{1}}\] can produce photoelectric effect when incident on a metal. But the wavelength \[{{\lambda }_{2}}\] cannot produce photoelectric effect. The correct relation between \[{{\beta }_{1}}\] and \[{{\beta }_{2}}\] is

A)

\[{{\beta }_{1}}<{{\beta }_{2}}\]

B)

\[{{\beta }_{1}}={{\beta }_{2}}\]

C)

\[{{\beta }_{1}}>{{\beta }_{2}}\]

D)

\[{{\beta }_{1}}\ge {{\beta }_{2}}\]

View Answer
24) Pick out the correct statement/s from the following. (1) Electron emission during p-decay is always accompanied by neutrino. (2) Nuclear force is charge independent. (3) Fusion is the chief source of stellar energy.

A)

(1), (2) are correct

B)

(1), (3) are correct

C)

Only (1) is correct

D)

(2), (3) are correct

View Answer
25) A nucleus \[_{Z}{{X}^{A}}\] emits an a-particle with velocity v. The recoil speed of the daughter nucleus is

A)

\[\frac{A-4}{4v}\]

B)

\[\frac{4v}{A-4}\]

C)

\[v\]

D)

\[\frac{v}{4}\]

View Answer
26) A radioactive substance emits 100 beta particles in the first 2 seconds and 50 beta particles in the next 2 seconds. The mean life of the sample is

A)

4 seconds

B)

2 seconds

C)

\[\frac{2}{0.693}\]seconds

D)

\[2\times 0.693\] seconds

View Answer
27) In which of the following statements, the obtained impure semiconductor is of\[p-type\]?

A)

Germanium is doped with bismuth

B)

Silicon is doped with antimony

C)

Germanium is doped with gallium

D)

Silicon is doped with phosphorus

View Answer
28) The width of the depletion region in a P-N junction diode is

A)

increased by reverse bias

B)

increased by forward bias

C)

decreased by reverse bias

D)

independent of the bias voltage -

View Answer
29) When the transistor is used as an amplifier

A)

Emitter-base junction must be reverse biased, Collector-base junction must be forward biased.

B)

Emitter-base junction must be forward biased, Collector-base junction must be forward biased.

C)

Emitter-base junction must be reverse biased, Collector-base junction must be reverse biased.

D)

Emitter-base junction must be forward biased, Collector-base junction must be reverse biased.

View Answer
30) Which of the following is not made by quarks?

A)

Neutron

B)

Positron

C)

Proton

D)

\[\pi \]-meson

View Answer
31) Which one of the following is NOT correct?

A)

In forward biased condition diode conducts.

B)

If the packing fraction is negative, the element is stable.

C)

Binding energy is the energy equivalent to mass defect.

D)

Radioactive element can undergo spontaneous fission.

View Answer
32) The output of an OR gate is connected to both the inputs of a NAND gate. The combination will serve as

A)

AND gate

B)

NOT gate

C)

NAND gate

D)

NOR gate

View Answer
33)  A and B are the two radioactive elements. The mixture of these elements show a total activity of 1200 disintegrations/minute. The half life of A is 1 day and that of B is 2 days. What will be the total activity after 4 days? Given: The initial number of atoms in A and B are equal.

A)

200dis/min

B)

250 dis/min

C)

500 dis/min

D)

150 dis/min

View Answer
34) The binding energy/nucleon of deuteron \[{{(}_{1}}{{H}^{2}})\]and the helium atom \[{{(}_{2}}H{{e}^{4}})\] are \[1.1MeV\]and \[7MeV\]respectively. If the two deuteron atoms fuse to form a single helium atom, then the energy released is

A)

\[26.9\text{ }MeV\]

B)

\[25.8\text{ }MeV\]

C)

\[23.6\text{ }MeV\]

D)

\[12.9\text{ }MeV\]

View Answer
35) Which one of the following is NOT correct?

A)

Dimensional formula of thermal conductivity \[\left( K \right)\] is \[{{M}^{1}}{{L}^{1}}{{T}^{-3}}{{K}^{-1}}\].

B)

Dimensional formula of potential \[\left( V \right)\], \[{{M}^{1}}{{L}^{1}}{{T}^{-2}}{{A}^{-1}}\].

C)

Dimensional formula of permeability of free space \[({{\mu }_{0}})\] is \[{{M}^{1}}{{L}^{1}}{{T}^{-2}}{{A}^{-2}}\]

D)

Dimensional formula of \[RC\]is \[{{M}^{0}}{{L}^{0}}{{T}^{-1}}\].

View Answer
36) In a lift moving up with an acceleration of \[5m{{s}^{-2}}\], a ball is dropped from a height of 1.25 m. The time taken by the ball to reach the floor of the lift is ......(nearly) (g \[=10m{{s}^{-2}}\])

A)

0.3 second

B)

0.2 second

C)

0.16 second

D)

0.4 second

View Answer
37) A gun fires a small bullet with kinetic energy K. Then kinetic energy of the gun while recoiling is

A)

K

B)

more than K

C)

less than K

D)

\[\sqrt{K}\]

View Answer
38) From a fixed support, two small identical spheres arc suspended   by means of strings of length 1 m each. They are pulled aside as shown and then released. B is the mean position. Then the two spheres collide,

A)

at B after 0.25 second

B)

at B after 0.5 second

C)

on the right side of B after some time

D)

on the right side of B when the strings are inclined at \[{{15}^{o}}\] with B

View Answer
39) A truck accelerates from speed v to 2v. Work done in during this is

A)

three times as the work done in accelerating it from rest to v.

B)

. same as the work done in accelerating it from rest to v.

C)

four times as the work done in accelerating it from rest to v.

D)

less than the work done in accelerating it from rest to v.

View Answer
40) Earth is moving around the Sun in elliptical orbit as shown. The ratio of OB and OA is R. Then ratio of Earth at A and B is

A)

\[{{R}^{-1}}\]

B)

\[\sqrt{R}\]

C)

\[R\]

D)

\[{{R}^{2/3}}\]

E)

None of the Above

View Answer
41) A projectile is projected at \[10\text{ }m{{s}^{-1}}\]cby making at an angle \[{{60}^{o}}\] to the horizontal. After some time its velocity makes an angle of \[{{30}^{o}}\] to the horizontal. Its speed at this instant is

A)

\[\frac{10}{\sqrt{3}}\]

B)

\[10\sqrt{3}\]

C)

\[\frac{5}{\sqrt{3}}\]

D)

\[5\sqrt{3}\]

View Answer
42) For which combination of working temperatures of source and sink, the efficiency of Carnots heat engine is maximum?

A)

\[600K,400K\]

B)

\[400K,200K\]

C)

\[500K,300K\]

D)

\[300K,100K\]

View Answer
43) A solid cylinder of radius R made of a material of thermal conductivity \[{{K}_{1}}\] is surrounded by a cylindrical shell of inner radius R and outer radius 1R made of a material of thermal conductivity\[{{K}_{2}}\]. The two ends of the combined system are maintained at two different temperatures. Then there is no loss of heat across the cylindrical surface and the system is in steady state. The effective thermal conductivity of the system is

A)

\[{{K}_{1}}+{{K}_{2}}\]

B)

\[\frac{{{K}_{1}}{{K}_{2}}}{{{K}_{1}}+{{K}_{2}}}\]

C)

\[\frac{3{{K}_{1}}+{{K}_{2}}}{4}\]

D)

\[\frac{{{K}_{1}}+3{{K}_{2}}}{4}\]

View Answer
44) Two stars A and B radiate maximum energy at the wavelengths of 360 nm and 480 nm respectively. Then the ratio of the surface temperatures of A and B is

A)

\[3:4\]

B)

\[81:256\]

C)

\[4:3\]

D)

\[256:81\]

View Answer
45) Two solids P and Q float in water. It is observed that P floats with half of its volume immersed and Q floats with \[\frac{{{2}^{rd}}}{3}\] of its volume is immersed. The ratio of densities of P and Q is

A)

\[\frac{4}{3}\]

B)

\[\frac{3}{4}\]

C)

\[\frac{2}{3}\]

D)

\[\frac{3}{2}\]

View Answer
46) The equation of a transverse wave is given by \[y=0.05\sin \pi (2t-0.02x)\], where x, y are in metre and t is in second. The minimum distance of separation between two particles which are in phase and the wave velocity are respectively ____

A)

\[50m,50m{{s}^{-1}}\]

B)

\[100m,100m{{s}^{-1}}\]

C)

\[50m,100m{{s}^{-1}}\]

D)

\[100m,50m{{s}^{-1}}\]

View Answer
47) The frequency of the second overtone of the open pipe is equal to the frequency of first overtone of the closed pipe. The ratio of the lengths of the open pipe and the closed pipe is

A)

\[2:1\]

B)

\[1:2\]

C)

\[1:3\]

D)

\[3:1\]

View Answer
48) A person with vibrating tuning fork of frequency 338 Hz is moving towards a vertical wall with a speed of \[2\text{ }m{{s}^{-1}}\]. Velocity of sound in air is \[340m{{s}^{-1}}\]. The number of beats heard by that person per second is

A)

\[2\]

B)

\[4\]

C)

\[6\]

D)

\[8\]

View Answer
49) Pick out the WRONG statement from the following.

A)

Lateral shift increases as the angle of incidence increases.

B)

Lateral shift increases as the value of refractive index increases.

C)

Normal shift decreases as the value of refractive index increases.

D)

Both normal shift and lateral shift are directly proportional to the thickness of the medium.

View Answer
50) The refraction through the prisms are as shown. Pick out the WRONG statement from the following. Path of the light ray in

A)

(i) is correct if \[{{n}_{2}}>{{n}_{1}}\] and \[{{n}_{2}}>{{n}_{3}}\]

B)

(ii) is correct if \[{{n}_{1}}={{n}_{2}}\] and \[{{n}_{2}}>{{n}_{3}}\]

C)

(iii) is correct if \[{{n}_{2}}>{{n}_{1}}\] and \[{{n}_{2}}={{n}_{3}}\]

D)

(iv) is correct if \[{{n}_{1}}>{{n}_{2}}\] and \[{{n}_{2}}<{{n}_{3}}\]

View Answer
51) The distance between an object and its real image produced by a converging lens is 0.72 m. The magnification is 2. What will be the magnification when the object is moved by 0.04 m towards the lens?

A)

2

B)

4

C)

3

D)

6

View Answer
52) The speed of light in media \[{{M}_{1}}\]and \[{{M}_{2}}\] are \[1.5\times {{10}^{8}}m{{s}^{-1}}\] and \[2\times {{10}^{8}}m{{s}^{-1}}\]respectively. A ray travels from medium \[{{M}_{1}}\] to the medium \[{{M}_{2}}\] with an angle of incidence \[\theta \]. The ray suffers total internal reflection. Then the value of the .angle of incidence \[\theta \] is

A)

\[>{{\sin }^{-1}}\left( \frac{3}{4} \right)\]

B)

\[<{{\sin }^{-1}}\left( \frac{3}{4} \right)\]

C)

\[={{\sin }^{-1}}\left( \frac{4}{3} \right)\]

D)

\[\le {{\sin }^{-1}}\left( \frac{4}{3} \right)\]

View Answer
53) Which of the following phenomena support the wave theory of light?

1. Scattering

2. Interference

3.Diffraction

4. Velocity of light in a denser medium is less than the velocity of light in the rarer medium

A)

\[1,2,3\]

B)

\[1,2,4\]

C)

\[2,3,4\]

D)

\[1,3,4\]

View Answer
54) White light reflected from a soap film (Refractive index = 1.5) has a maxima at 600 nm and a minima at 450 nm with no minimum in between. Then the thickness of the film is ____\[\times {{10}^{-7}}m\].

A)

1

B)

2

C)

3

D)

4

View Answer
55) A cylindrical tube of length 0.2 m and radius R with sugar solution of concentration C produce a rotation of \[\theta \] in the plane of vibration of a plane polarized light. The same sugar solution is transferred to another tube of length 0.3 m of same radius. The remaining gap is filled by distilled water. Now the optical rotation produced is

A)

\[\theta \]

B)

\[2\frac{\theta }{3}\]

C)

\[3\frac{\theta }{2}\]

D)

\[9\frac{\theta }{4}\]

View Answer
56) Radii of curvature of a converging lens are in the ratio \[1:2\]. Its focal length is 6 cm and refractive index is 1.5. Then its radii of curvature are ____respectively.

A)

9 cm and 18 cm

B)

6 cm and 12 cm

C)

3 cm and 6 cm

D)

4.5 cm and 9 cm

View Answer
57) A small oil drop of mass \[{{10}^{-6}}kg\] is hanging in at rest between two plates separated by 1 mm having a potential difference of 500 V. The charge on the drop is ____ \[(g=10m{{s}^{-2}})\]

A)

\[2\times {{10}^{-9}}C\]

B)

\[2\times {{10}^{-11}}C\]

C)

\[2\times {{10}^{-6}}C\]

D)

\[2\times {{10}^{-8}}C\]

View Answer
58) A uniform electric field in the plane of the paper as shown. Here A, B, C, D are the points on the circle. \[{{V}_{1}},{{V}_{2}},{{V}_{3}},{{V}_{4}}\] are the potentials at those points respectively. The

A)

\[{{V}_{A}}={{V}_{C}},{{V}_{B}}={{V}_{D}}\]

B)

\[{{V}_{A}}={{V}_{C}},{{V}_{B}}>{{V}_{D}}\]

C)

\[{{V}_{A}}>{{V}_{C}},{{V}_{B}}>{{V}_{D}}\]

D)

\[{{V}_{A}}={{V}_{B}},{{V}_{C}}={{V}_{D}}\]

E)

None of the Above

View Answer
59) Two metal spheres of radii 0.01 m and 0.02 m are given a charge of \[15mC\]and \[45mC\]respectively. They are then connected by a wire. The final charge on the first sphere is ____\[\times {{10}^{-3}}C\]

A)

\[40\]

B)

\[30\]

C)

\[20\]

D)

\[10\]

View Answer
60) Two concentric spheres of radii R and r have positive charges \[{{q}_{1}}\]and \[{{q}_{2}}\] with equal surface charge densities. What is the electric potential at their common center?

A)

\[\frac{\sigma }{{{\varepsilon }_{0}}}(R+r)\]

B)

\[\frac{\sigma }{{{\varepsilon }_{0}}}(R-r)\]

C)

\[\frac{\sigma }{{{\varepsilon }_{0}}}\left( \frac{1}{R}+\frac{1}{r} \right)\]

D)

\[\frac{\sigma }{{{\varepsilon }_{0}}}\left( \frac{R}{r} \right)\]

View Answer
61) Methane can be converted into ethane by the Reactions

A)

chlorination followed by the reaction with alcoholic \[KOH\]

B)

chlorination followed by the reaction with aqueous \[KOH\]

C)

Chlorination followed by Wurtz reaction

D)

Chlorination followed by decarboxylation.

View Answer
62) Intramolecular hydrogen bonding is formed in

A)

\[{{H}_{2}}O\]

B)

salicylaldehyde

C)

\[N{{H}_{3}}\]

D)

benzophenone.

View Answer
63) If 50% of the reactant is converted into a product in a first order reaction in 25 minutes, how much of it would react in 100 minutes?

A)

\[93.75%\]

B)

\[87.5%\]

C)

\[75%\]

D)

\[100%\]

View Answer
64) The number of optical isomers of the compound, \[C{{H}_{3}}-CHBr-CHBr-COOH\] is

A)

\[0\]

B)

\[1\]

C)

\[3\]

D)

\[4\]

View Answer
65) When limestone is heated, \[C{{O}_{2}}\] is given off. The metallurgical operation is

A)

smelting

B)

reduction

C)

calcination

D)

roasting.

View Answer
66) The rate of reaction increases with rise in temperature because of

A)

increase in number of activated molecules

B)

increase in energy of activation

C)

decrease in energy of activation

D)

increase in the number of effective collisions.

View Answer
67) Meso compounds do not show optical activity because

A)

they do not contain chiral carbon atoms

B)

they have non-superimposable mirror images

C)

they contain plane of symmetry

D)

they do not contain plane of symmetry.

View Answer
68) When formic acid is heated with concentrated \[{{H}_{2}}S{{O}_{4}}\], the gas evolved is

A)

only \[C{{O}_{2}}\]

B)

only \[CO\]

C)

a mixture of \[CO\] and \[C{{O}_{2}}\]

D)

a mixture of \[S{{O}_{2}}\]and \[C{{O}_{2}}\]

View Answer
69) Temperature coefficient of a reaction is 2. When temperature is increased from \[{{30}^{o}}C\]to \[{{90}^{o}}C\], the rate of reaction is increased by

A)

60 times

B)

64 times

C)

150 times

D)

400 times

View Answer
70) Conversion of benzene to acetophenone can e brought by

A)

Wurtz reaction

B)

Wurtz-Fittigs reaction

C)

Friedel Crafts alkylation

D)

Friedel Crafts acylation.

View Answer
71) Excess of \[PC{{l}_{5}}\] reacts with concentrated \[{{H}_{2}}S{{O}_{4}}\] giving

A)

chlorosulphuric acid

B)

sulphurous acid

C)

sulphuryl chloride

D)

thionyl chloride.

View Answer
72) An example for a neutral buffer is

A)

ammonium hydroxide and ammonium chloride

B)

acetic acid and sodium acetate

C)

acetic acid and ammonium hydroxide

D)

citric acid and sodium citrate.

View Answer
73) Least energetic conformation of cyclohexane is

A)

chair conformation

B)

boat conformation

C)

cis conformation

D)

E-Z form.

View Answer
74) Which of the following is employed in flash tubes in photography?

A)

\[Ar\]

B)

\[Ne\]

C)

\[Kr\]

D)

\[Xe\]

View Answer
75) Conjugate base of H2P04- is

A)

\[HPO_{4}^{-}\]

B)

\[HPO_{4}^{2-}\]

C)

\[{{H}_{3}}P{{O}_{4}}\]

D)

\[PO_{4}^{3-}\]

View Answer
76) An alkyi bromide (X) reacts with sodium in ether to form 4, 5-diethyloctane, the compound X is

A)

\[C{{H}_{3}}{{(C{{H}_{2}})}_{3}}Br\]

B)

\[C{{H}_{3}}{{(C{{H}_{2}})}_{5}}Br\]

C)

\[C{{H}_{3}}{{(C{{H}_{2}})}_{3}}CH(Br)C{{H}_{3}}\]

D)

\[C{{H}_{3}}-{{(C{{H}_{2}})}_{2}}-CH(Br)-C{{H}_{2}}-C{{H}_{3}}\]

View Answer
77) Which one of the following shows highest magnetic moment?

A)

\[F{{e}^{2+}}\]

B)

\[C{{o}^{2+}}\]

C)

\[C{{r}^{3+}}\]

D)

\[N{{i}^{2+}}\]

View Answer
78) The emf of a galvanic cell constituted with the electrodes \[Z{{n}^{2+}}|Zn(-0.76V)\] and \[F{{e}^{2+}}|Fe\] \[(-0.41V)\] is

A)

\[-0.35V\]

B)

\[+1.17V\]

C)

\[+0.35V\]

D)

\[-1.17V\]

View Answer

79) which of the following pairs are correctly hatched?

	Reactants	Products
I.	\[RX+Ag{{(OH)}_{(eq)}}\]	\[RH\]
II.	\[RX+AgC{{N}_{(alc)}}\]	\[RNC\]
III.	\[RX+KC{{N}_{(alc)}}\]	\[RNC\]
IV.	\[RX+N{{a}_{(ether)}}\]	\[R-R\]

I alone

I and II

II and III

II and IV

View Answer

80) In a transition series, with the increase in atomic number, the paramagnetism

A)

increases gradually

B)

decreases gradually

C)

first increases to a maximum and then decreases

D)

first decreases to a minimum and then increases

View Answer
81) Identify a species which is NOT a Bronsted acid but a Lewis acid.

A)

\[B{{F}_{3}}\]

B)

\[H_{3}^{+}O\]

C)

\[N{{H}_{3}}\]

D)

\[HCl\]

View Answer
82) The compound formed when calcium acetate and   calcium formate is dry distilled.

A)

Acetone

B)

Acetaldehyde

C)

Benz aldehyde

D)

Acetophenone

View Answer
83) \[{{d}^{2}}-s{{p}^{3}}\] hybridisation of the atomic orbitals gives

A)

square planar structure

B)

triangular structure

C)

tetrahedral structure

D)

octahedral structure.

View Answer
84) The pH of \[{{10}^{-8}}HCl\]solution is

A)

8

B)

6.9586

C)

more than 8

D)

slightly more than 7

View Answer
85) Which of the following is strongly acidic?

A)

Phenol

B)

o-cresol

C)

p-nitrophenol

D)

p-cresol

View Answer
86) A group of atoms can function as a ligand only when

A)

it is a small molecule

B)

it has an unshared electron pair

C)

it is a negatively charged ion

D)

it is a positively charged ion.

View Answer
87) Which of the following is NOT a colligative property?

A)

Elevation in boiling point

B)

Depression in freezing point

C)

Osmotic pressure

D)

Lowering of vapour pressure

View Answer
88) Acetone and propanal are

A)

functional isomers

B)

position isomers

C)

geometrical isomers

D)

optical isomers.

View Answer
89) Which of the following is diamagnetic?

A)

\[{{H}^{2+}}\]

B)

\[H{{e}^{2+}}\]

C)

\[{{O}_{2}}\]

D)

\[{{N}_{2}}\]

View Answer
90) \[3g\]of urea is dissolved in \[45g\]of\[{{H}_{2}}O\]. The relative lowering in vapour pressure is

A)

\[0.05\]

B)

\[0.04\]

C)

\[0.02\]

D)

\[0.01\]

View Answer
91) The reagent used to distinguish between acetaldehyde and Benz aldehyde is

A)

Tollens reagent

B)

Fehlings solution

C)

2, 4-dinitrophenylhydrazine

D)

semicarbazide

View Answer
92) Metallic lustre is due to

A)

high density of metals

B)

high polish on the surface of metals

C)

reflection of light by mobile electrons

D)

chemical inertness of metals.

View Answer
93) Which of the following aqueous solution will exhibit highest boiling point?

A)

\[0.01M\]urea

B)

\[0.01M\] \[KN{{O}_{3}}\]

C)

\[0.01M\]\[N{{a}_{2}}S{{O}_{4}}\]

D)

\[0.015M\]\[{{C}_{6}}{{H}_{12}}{{O}_{6}}\]

View Answer
94) Which one of the following gives amine on heating with amide?

A)

\[B{{r}_{2}}\] in aqueous KOH

B)

\[B{{r}_{2}}\] in alcoholic KOH

C)

\[C{{l}_{2}}\] in sodium

D)

Sodium in ether

View Answer
95) The number of antibonding electrons present in \[{{O}_{2}}\] molecular ion is

A)

\[8\]

B)

\[6\]

C)

\[5\]

D)

\[4\]

E)

None of the Above

View Answer
96) The process is spontaneous at the given temperature, if

A)

\[\Delta H\] is \[+ve\] and \[\Delta S\] is -\[-ve\]

B)

\[\Delta H\] is \[-ve\] and \[\Delta S\] is \[+ve\]

C)

\[\Delta H\] is \[+ve\] and \[\Delta S\] is +\[+ve\]

D)

\[\Delta H\] is \[+ve\] and \[\Delta S\] is equal to zero.

View Answer
97) Glucose when reduced with HI and red phosphorus gives

A)

n-hexane

B)

n-heptane

C)

n-pentane

D)

n-octane.

View Answer
98) The stability of a lyophobic colloid is due to

A)

adsorption of covalent molecules on the colloid

B)

the size of the particles

C)

the charge on the particles

D)

Tyndall effect.

View Answer
99) Oils are liquids at room temperature since they contain higher percentage of

A)

oleates

B)

palmitates

C)

stearates

D)

myristates

View Answer
100) Which of the following cations will have minimum flocculation value for arsenic sulphide sol?

A)

\[N{{a}^{+}}\]

B)

\[M{{g}^{2+}}\]

C)

\[C{{a}^{2+}}\]

D)

\[A{{l}^{3+}}\]

View Answer
101) The value of entropy of solar system is

A)

increasing

B)

decreasing

C)

constant

D)

zero

View Answer
102) In face-centred cubic lattice, a unit cell is shared equally by how many unit cells?

A)

\[6\]

B)

\[4\]

C)

\[2\]

D)

\[8\]

View Answer
103) The number of disulphide linkages present in insulin are

A)

\[4\]

B)

\[3\]

C)

\[2\]

D)

\[1\]

View Answer
104) The process of zone refining is used in the purification of

A)

\[Al\]

B)

\[Ge\]

C)

\[Cu\]

D)

\[Ag\]

View Answer
105) The number of water molecules present in a drop of water weighing 0.018 g is

A)

\[6.022\times {{10}^{26}}\]

B)

\[6.022\times {{10}^{23}}\]

C)

\[6.022\times {{10}^{19}}\]

D)

\[6.022\text{ }\times {{10}^{20}}\]

View Answer
106) Empirical formula of a compound is \[C{{H}_{2}}O\] and its molecular mass is 90, the molecular formula of the compound is

A)

\[{{C}_{3}}{{H}_{6}}{{O}_{3}}\]

B)

\[{{C}_{2}}{{H}_{4}}{{O}_{2}}\]

C)

\[{{C}_{6}}{{H}_{12}}{{O}_{6}}\]

D)

\[C{{H}_{2}}O\]

View Answer
107) Hybridised states of carbon in graphite and diamond are respectively

A)

\[s{{p}^{3}},s{{p}^{3}}\]

B)

\[s{{p}^{3}},s{{p}^{2}}\]

C)

\[s{{p}^{2}},s{{p}^{2}}\]

D)

\[s{{p}^{2}},s{{p}^{3}}\]

View Answer
108) The mass of \[112c{{m}^{3}}\]of \[N{{H}_{3}}\]gas at STP is

A)

\[0.085g\]

B)

\[0.850g\]

C)

\[8.500g\]

D)

\[80.500g\]

View Answer
109) IUPAC name of \[C{{H}_{3}}-\underset{OH}{\mathop{\underset{|}{\mathop{C}}\,}}\,H-C{{H}_{2}}-\underset{COOH}{\mathop{\underset{|}{\mathop{C}}\,}}\,H-C{{H}_{3}}\] is

A)

4-hydroxy-l-methyl pentanoic acid

B)

4-hydroxy-2-methyl pentanoic acid

C)

2-hydroxy-4-methyl pentanoic acid

D)

2-hydroxy-2-methyl pentanoic acid

View Answer
110) Alkali metals have negative reduction potential and hence they behave as

A)

oxidising agents

B)

Lewis bases

C)

reducing agents

D)

electrolytes

View Answer
111) Which of the following gases has the highest value of RMS velocity at 298 K?

A)

\[C{{H}_{4}}\]

B)

\[CO\]

C)

\[C{{l}_{2}}\]

D)

\[C{{O}_{2}}\]

View Answer
112) Cycloalkane formed when 1,4-dibroinopentane is heated with sodium is

A)

methyl cyclobutane

B)

cyclopentane

C)

cyclobutane

D)

methyl cyclopentane.

View Answer
113) In the reaction, \[2FeS{{O}_{4}}+{{H}_{2}}S{{O}_{4}}+{{H}_{2}}{{O}_{2}}\to F{{e}_{2}}{{(S{{O}_{4}})}_{3}}+2{{H}_{2}}O\] the oxidizing agent is

A)

\[FeS{{O}_{4}}\]

B)

\[{{H}_{2}}S{{O}_{4}}\]

C)

\[{{H}_{2}}{{O}_{2}}\]

D)

both \[{{H}_{2}}S{{O}_{4}}\]and \[{{H}_{2}}{{O}_{2}}\]

View Answer
114) For the thermochemical equation, \[2{{H}_{2(g)}}+{{O}_{2(g)}}\to 2{{H}_{2}}{{O}_{(l)}};\,\Delta H=-571.6kJ\] Heat of decomposition of water is

A)

\[-571.6\text{ }kJ\]

B)

\[+571.6\text{ }kJ\]

C)

\[-1143.2\text{ }kJ\]

D)

\[+285.8kJ\]

View Answer
115) In Buna-S, the symbol Bu stands for

A)

1-butene

B)

n-butene

C)

2-butene

D)

butadiene.

View Answer
116) The electronic configuration of \[C{{u}^{2+}}\] ion is

A)

\[[Ar]\,3{{d}^{8}}\,4{{s}^{1}}\]

B)

\[[Ar]\,3{{d}^{9}}\,4{{s}^{0}}\]

C)

\[[Ar]\,3{{d}^{7}}\,4{{s}^{2}}\]

D)

\[[Ar]\,3{{d}^{8}}\,4{{s}^{0}}\]

View Answer
117) The yield of the products in the reaction, \[{{A}_{2(g)}}+2{{B}_{(g)}}\rightleftharpoons {{C}_{(g)}}+Q\,kJ\] would be higher at

A)

high temperature and high pressure

B)

high temperature and low pressure

C)

low temperature and high pressure

D)

low temperature and low pressure.

View Answer
118) Mesomeric effect involves

A)

delocalisation of \[\pi \]-electrons

B)

delocalisation of \[\sigma \]-electrons

C)

partial displacement of electrons

D)

delocalisation of\[\pi \] and \[\sigma \]-electrons.

View Answer
119) Which one of the following sets of ions represents the collection of isoelectronic species?

A)

\[{{K}^{+}},C{{l}^{-}},M{{g}^{2+}},S{{c}^{3+}}\]

B)

\[N{{a}^{+}},C{{a}^{2+}},S{{c}^{3+}},{{F}^{-}}\]

C)

\[{{K}^{+}},C{{a}^{2+}},S{{c}^{3+}},C{{l}^{-}}\]

D)

\[N{{a}^{+}},M{{g}^{2+}},A{{l}^{3+}},C{{l}^{-}}\]

View Answer
120) Adsorption theory is applicable for

A)

homogeneous catalysis

B)

heterogeneous catalysis

C)

autocatalysis

D)

induced catalysis.

View Answer

121) Match the following list of animals with their level of organization and choose the correct sequence.

Column I	Column II
A. Organ level	(p) Pheretima
B. Cellular aggregate level	(q) Fasciola
C. Tissue level	(r) Spongilla
D. Organ system level	(s) Obelia

\[A-(s),B-(r),C-(p),D-(q)\]

\[A-(s),B-(q),C-(r),D-(p)\]

\[A-(q),B-(s),C-(r),D-(p)\]

\[A-(q),B-(r),C-(s),D-(p)\]

View Answer

122) Oxidative decarboxylation occurs during the formation of

A)

cirtic acid and succinic acid

B)

citric acid and oxaloacetic acid

C)

acetyl CoA and succinyl CoA

D)

oxaloacetic acid and oxalosuccinic acid.

View Answer
123) The edible part of the fruit of apple is

A)

endocarp

B)

thalamus

C)

pericarp

D)

perianth.

View Answer
124) Given below is an electron acceptor. Mention its status, which is labelled as A. \[Cy{{t}^{++}}\xrightarrow{2{{e}^{-}}}Cy{{t}^{+++}}\bigcirc A\]

A)

Oxidized

B)

Reduced

C)

Phosphorylated

D)

Hydrated

View Answer
125) The floral formula is that of

A)

Hibiscus

B)

Banana

C)

Tulip

D)

Vinca

View Answer
126) Interferoris are the protein molecules produced from the

A)

normal cells

B)

infected host cells

C)

macrophages

D)

B lymphocytes.

View Answer
127) Tikka is a

A)

fungal disease

B)

viral disease

C)

bacterial disease

D)

protozoan disease.

View Answer
128) Which of the following statements is correct?

A)

Each back cross is a test cross.

B)

Each test cross is a back cross.

C)

Crossing \[{{F}_{2}}\] with \[{{F}_{1}}\] is a test cross.

D)

Crossing \[{{F}_{2}}\] with \[{{P}_{1}}\] is called a test cross.

View Answer
129) Amrithmahal is a/an

A)

dual purpose breed

B)

exotic breed

C)

crossbreed

D)

draught breed.

View Answer
130) Gynaecomastia is the symptom of

A)

Klinefelters syndrome

B)

Downs syndrome

C)

Turners syndrome

D)

cri-du-chat syndrome.

View Answer
131) The branch of biology that deals with study of fossil animals is known as

A)

parabiology

B)

phylogeny

C)

paleontology

D)

parazoology.

View Answer
132) A colourblind man marries the daughter of another colourblind man whose wife has a normal genotype for colour vision. In their progeny

A)

all the children would be colourblind

B)

all their sons are colourblind

C)

none of the daughters would be colourblind

D)

half of their sons and half of their daughters would be colourblind.

View Answer
133) The plant which has antidiabetic properties is

A)

Ocimum sanctum

B)

Gymnema sylvestre

C)

Adhatoda vasica

D)

Phyllanthus emblica

View Answer
134) Deforestation means

A)

growing plants and trees in an area where there is no forest

B)

growing plants and trees in an area where the forest is removed

C)

growing plants and trees in a pond

D)

removal of plants and trees.

View Answer
135) Lysosomes are produced by

A)

Golgi complex

B)

mitochondria

C)

endoplasmic reticulum

D)

leucoplasts.

View Answer
136) Kokkarebellur Bird Sanctuary is located in

A)

Mandya

B)

Mysore

C)

Chamarajnagar

D)

Hassan.

View Answer
137) Which one of the following is also called Sewall Wright effect?

A)

Isolation

B)

Gene pool

C)

Genetic drift

D)

Gene flow

View Answer
138) Oran is a

A)

sacred grove

B)

sacred landscape

C)

sacred animal

D)

endangered animal.

View Answer
139) Put the following parts of a reflex arc in the correct order beginning with the sensory receptor. A. Motor neuron B. Interneuron C. Effector D. Sensory neuron E. Sensory receptor.

A)

\[E,D,B,A,C\]

B)

\[E,D,A,B,C\]

C)

\[A,B,C,D,E\]

D)

\[A,E,D,B,C\]

View Answer
140) The trachea terminates into

A)

bronchial tree

B)

atrium

C)

bronchi

D)

alveoli.

View Answer
141) Match the entries in Column - I with those of Column - II and choose the correct answer given below.

Column - I Column - II

A. FSH p. Normal growth

B. GH q. Ovulation

C. Prolactin r. Parturition

D. Oxytocin s. Water diuresis

t. Milk secretion

A)

\[A-(q),B-(p),C-(t),D-(r)\]

B)

\[A-(q),B-(p),C-(t),D-(s)\]

C)

\[A-(p),B-(t),C-(r),D-(q)\]

D)

\[A-(q),B-(t),C-(s),D-(r)\]

View Answer
142) Formation of activation calyx in the egg takes place

A)

before fertilization

B)

after fertilization

C)

at the time of cleavage

D)

at the time of amphimixis.

View Answer
143) Which of the following part of cockroach leg is attached to thorax ventrally?

A)

Trochanter

B)

Claw

C)

Femur

D)

Coxa

View Answer

144) Match the entries in Column - I with those of Column - II and choose the correct answer given below.

Column - I	Column - II
[A] Cytokinins	(p) Stress hormone
[B] Auxins .	(q) Ripening of fruits
[C] Abscisic acid	(r) Apical dominance
Ethylene	(s) Bolting
	(t) Richmond Lang effect

\[A-(t),B-(r),C-(p),D-(q)\]

\[A-(t),B-(r),C-(t),D-(s)\]

\[A-(r),B-(s),C-(q),D-(p)\]

\[A-(q),B-(q),C-(t),D-(r)\]

View Answer

145) Left auricle receives pure blood from the

A)

pulmonary veins

B)

pulmonary artery

C)

superior venacava

D)

Inferior venacava.

View Answer
146) The semi-digested food that moves down the oesophagus is known as

A)

bolus

B)

chyme

C)

rugae

D)

protein .

View Answer
147) During the transportation of gases, to maintain the ionic balance, chloride ions shift from

A)

RBCs to plasma

B)

plasma to RBCs

C)

lungs to blood

D)

blood to lungs.

View Answer
148) Read the statements A and B and select the correct option Statement A: Atherosclerosis is a disease characterized by the thickening of arterial walls Statement B : Deposition of cholesterol and triglycerides in the arterial walls causes atherosclerosis.

A)

Statement A is correct, B is incorrect.

B)

Both the statements are correct but not related to each other.

C)

Both the statements are correct and B is the reason for A.

D)

Both the statements are incorrect.

View Answer
149) Juxtaglomerular cells secrete A when there is a fall in \[\underline{B}\] ion concentration. Choose the correct pair labelled as A and B.

A)

A: Renin B : Chloride

B)

A: Carbonic anhydrase B : Sodium

C)

A: ATPase B : Potassium

D)

A: Renin B : Sodium

View Answer
150) Ileocaecal valve is present in between

A)

colon and large intestine

B)

colon and small intestine

C)

stomach and small intestine

D)

cardiac, stomach and fundus.

View Answer
151) The diagram given below denotes the various parts of a typical flower. Identify the labelled parts A, B, C and D and choose the correct option.

A)

A - Petals, B - Sepals, C - Stamens, D - Pistil

B)

a - Sepals, B - Pistil, C - Petals, D - Stamens

C)

A - Sepals, B - Pistil, C - Stamens, D - Petals

D)

A - Sepals, B - Petals, C - Pistil, D - Stamens

View Answer
152) Read the statements A and B and identify the correct choice from those given below.

Statement A: The egg of frog is moderately telolecithal.

Statement B: Sooner or later the cleavage pattern becomes irregular.

A)

Statement A is correct, B is incorrect.

B)

Statement B is correct, A is incorrect.

C)

Both the statements A and B are correct.

D)

Statement A is the reason-for statement B.

View Answer
153) The most unstable RNA is

A)

messenger RNA

B)

soluble RNA

C)

ribosomal RNA

D)

heterogeneous nuclear RNA.

View Answer
154) Choose the right one which denotes genetic diversity.

A)

Chromosomes\[\to \] Nucleotides \[\to \] Genes \[\to \] Individuals \[\to \] Populations

B)

Populations \[\to \] Individuals \[\to \] Chromosomes\[\to \]Nucleotides \[\to \] Genes

C)

Genes \[\to \] Nucleotides \[\to \]Chromosomes \[\to \]Individuals \[\to \]Populations

D)

Nucleotides \[\to \] Genes \[\to \] Chromosome\[\to \] Individuals \[\to \]Populations

View Answer
155) The portion of an eukaryotic gene which is transcribed but not translated is

A)

exon

B)

intron

C)

cistron

D)

codon.

View Answer
156) The appearance of chancre/rashes all over the body are the symptoms of

A)

gonorrhoea

B)

AIDS

C)

syphilis

D)

fever.

View Answer
157) Read the statements A and B and select the correct option. Statement A: Synthesis of mRNA takes place in 5- 3 direction. Statement B: Reading of mRNA is always in 3 - 5 direction.

A)

Both the statements are incorrect.

B)

Statement A is incorrect, B is correct.

C)

Statement B is incorrect, A is correct.

D)

Both the statements A and B are correct.

View Answer
158) Assimilatory power is

A)

\[NADP{{H}_{2}}\]

B)

\[ATP\]

C)

\[ATP\] and \[NADP{{H}_{2}}\]

D)

\[NAD{{H}_{2}}\]

View Answer
159) Eco RI cleaves the DNA strands to produce

A)

blunt ends

B)

sticky ends

C)

satellite ends

D)

ori replication end.

View Answer
160) Read the statements A and B and identify the correct choice from those given. Statement A: Women are at the peak of conception on the 14th day of menstrual cycle. Statement B: Vasectomy is the method normally employed to avoid conception in females.

A)

Statement A is incorrect, B is correct.

B)

Statement A is correct, B is incorrect.

C)

Both the statements are correct.

D)

Both the statements are incorrect.

View Answer
161) The sequence of nitrogenous bases in one strand of DNA are \[3TAC\text{ }GCG\text{ }ACG\text{ }5.\]The complementary DNA strand should have

A)

\[5\,AUG\,\,CGC\,\,\,TGC\,3\]

B)

\[3ATG\,\,CGC\,\,TGC\,5~\] .

C)

5UAC GCG ACG 3

D)

\[5ATG\text{ }CGC\text{ }TGC\text{ }3\]

View Answer
162) Which one of the following statements is correct regarding spinal cord?

A)

It is composed of outer grey matter and inner white matter.

B)

It is composed of outer white matter and inner grey matter.

C)

It is composed of outer grey matter and inner colorless matter.

D)

It is composed of grey matter only.

View Answer

163) Match the entries in Column - I with those of Column - II and choose the correct answer.

Column -1	Column - II
[A] Restriction endonucteases	(p) Kohler and Milstein
[B] Poly merase chain	(q) Alee Jeffreys Reaction
[C] DNA fingerprinting	(r) Arber
[D] Monoclonal antibodies	(s) Karry Mullis

\[A-(r),B-(s),C-(q),D-(p)\]

\[A-(r),B-(q),C-(s),D-(p)\]

\[A-(q),B-(r),C-(s),D-(p)\]

\[A-(q),B-(s),C-(r),D-(q)\]

View Answer

164) Which taxonomic term may be suggested for any rank in the classification?

A)

Class

B)

Order

C)

Species

D)

Taxon

View Answer
165) In one of the techniques of recombinant insulin production the genes for a and P polypeptides were inserted into the plasmid by the side of

A)

antibiotic resistance gene

B)

lac z promoter gene

C)

\[\beta \]- galactosidase gene

D)

ori site

View Answer
166) Which one site of the following does not belong to Kingdom Monera?

A)

Slime moulds

B)

Mycoplasma

C)

Eubacteria

D)

Archaebacteria

View Answer
167) The diagram given below represents the T.S. of a monocot leaf. Identify the parts labelled as A, B, C and D, identify their functions and choose the correct option from those given below.

A)

A: Motor action

B: Photosynthesis

C: Conduction

D: Transpiration

B)

A: Motor action

B: Conduction

C: Photosynthesis

D: Transpiration

C)

A: Transpiration

B: Photosynthesis

C: Conduction

D: Transpiration

D)

A: Transpiration

B: Conduction

C: Photosynthesis

D: Motor action

View Answer
168) Which of the following tissues is not a component of any complex tissue?

A)

Parenchyma

B)

Collenchyma

C)

Sclerenchyma

D)

Tracheids

View Answer
169) Mosses and ferns are

A)

Thallophytes of plant kingdom

B)

Angiosperms of plant kingdom

C)

Gymnosperms of plant kingdom

D)

Amphibians of plant kingdom

View Answer
170) Plasmodesmata are usually observed between

A)

sieve tubes and bast fibres

B)

trachea and phloem fibres

C)

xylem parenchyma and xylem fibres

D)

sieve tubes and companion cells.

View Answer
171) The embryo sac of an angiosperm is made up of

A)

8 cells

B)

7 cells and 8 nuclei

C)

8 nuclei

D)

8 cells and 7 nuclei.

View Answer
172) Cork cambium of dicot stem originates from

A)

dedifferentiated parenchyma cells of cortex

B)

dedifferentiated collenchyma cells of cortex

C)

parenchyma cells of medullary ray

D)

parenchyma cells of pericycle.

View Answer

173) Match the Column -1 with Column - II and choose the correct answer from those given below.

Column - I	Column - II
[A] Algae	(p) Gymnosperms
[B] Riccia	(q) Pond scum
[C] Spirogym	(r) Autotrophic
[D] Gnetum	(s) Liverwort

ln the original paper, the word monocot is misprinted as dicot

\[A-(r),B-(s),C-(q),D-(p)\]

\[A-(p),B-(s),C-(q),D-(r)\]

\[A-(s),B-(p),C-(r),D-(q)\]

\[A-(r),B-(q),C-(s),D-(p)\]

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174) The opening and closing of stomata is controlled by the activity of

A)

guard cells

B)

epidermal cells

C)

mesophyll cells

D)

lenticels.

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175) In which of the following phyla the adult shows radial symmetry, while the larva shows bilateral symmetry?

A)

Annelids

B)

Arthropods

C)

Molluscs

D)

Echinodermata

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176) A thin film of water covering the soil particles and held strongly by attractive forces is called

A)

run away

B)

hygroscopic

C)

gravitational

D)

capillary.

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177) Which one of the following groups of 3 animals each is correctly matched with their one characteristic morphological features?

A)

Animals Morphological features

Centipede, Prawn, Sea urchin                  - Jointed appendages

B)

Animals Morphological features

Cockroach, Locust Taenia     Metameric segmentation

C)

Animals Morphological features

Scorpion, Spider Cockroach Ventral solid nerve cord

D)

Animals Morphological features

Liver fluke, Sea anemone. Sea cucumber   Bilateral symmetry

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178) Consider the following statements and select the correct option.

Statement A: Pure water has maximum water Potential

Statement B: The osmotic potential is zero in pure water.

A)

Both statements are correct and B is not the reason for A.

B)

Both statements are incorrect.

C)

Both statements are correct and B is the reason for A.

D)

Both statements are correct.

View Answer
179) A bivalent of meiosis I consists of

A)

four chromatids and two centromeres

B)

two chromatids and one centromere

C)

two chromatids and two centromeres

D)

four chromatids and four centromeres.

View Answer
180) Electrons from excited chlorophyll molecules photosystem II are .accepted first by

A)

ferredoxin

B)

pheophytin

C)

cytochrome b

D)

cytochrome f.

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Column - I	Column - II
A. FSH	p. Normal growth
B. GH	q. Ovulation
C. Prolactin	r. Parturition
D. Oxytocin	s. Water diuresis
	t. Milk secretion

Animals	Morphological features
Centipede, Prawn, Sea urchin	- Jointed appendages

Animals	Morphological features
Cockroach, Locust Taenia	Metameric segmentation

Animals	Morphological features
Scorpion, Spider Cockroach	Ventral solid nerve cord

Animals	Morphological features
Liver fluke, Sea anemone. Sea cucumber	Bilateral symmetry

Solved papers for CET Karnataka Medical CET - Karnataka Medical Solved Paper-2013

done CET - Karnataka Medical Solved Paper-2013 Total Questions - 180

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CET - Karnataka Medical Solved Paper-2013 Total Questions - 180