Solved papers for Chhattisgarh PMT Chhattisgarh PMT Solved Paper-2011

Chhattisgarh PMT Solved Paper-2011 Total Questions - 200

1) The equation of a wave is given by \[y=\]A\[\sin \,\omega \left( \frac{x}{v}=k \right),\]where \[\omega \] is angular velocity, v be linear velocity. Then dimension off c is

A)

\[\left[ LT \right]\]

B)

\[\left[ T \right]\]

C)

\[\left[ {{T}^{1}} \right]\]

D)

\[\left[ {{T}^{2}} \right]\]

View Answer
2) The units of modulus of rigidity are

A)

N-m

B)

N/m

C)

N-m2

D)

N/m2

View Answer
3) One car moving on a straight road covers one-third of the distance with 20 km/h and the rest with 60 km/h. The average speed is

A)

40 km/h

B)

80 km/h

C)

46 2 km/h

D)

36 km/h

View Answer
4) The velocity at the maximum height of a projectile is half its initial velocity of projection \[u\] Its range on the horizontal plane is

A)

\[\frac{\sqrt{3}{{u}^{2}}}{2g}\]

B)

\[\frac{{{u}^{2}}}{3g}\]

C)

\[\frac{3{{u}^{2}}}{2g}\]

D)

\[\frac{3{{u}^{2}}}{g}\]

View Answer
5) Three masses\[{{m}_{1}},{{m}_{2}},{{m}_{3}}\] are joined from weightless string and are kept on frictionless table. They are pulled by a force \[{{T}_{3}}\] of 40 N. If \[{{\text{m}}_{\text{1}}}\text{=10}\,\text{kg,}\]\[{{\text{m}}_{2}}\text{=6}\,\text{kg,}\,\]\[{{\text{m}}_{3}}\text{=}\,\text{4}\,\text{kg,}\,\] Then, value of \[{{T}_{2}}\] will be

A)

20 N

B)

40 N

C)

10N

D)

32 N

View Answer
6) A ship of mass \[3\times {{10}^{7}}kg\] initially at rest is pulled by a force of \[5\times {{10}^{4}}N\] through a distance of 3 m. Assuming that the resistance due to water is negligible. The speed of the ship will be

A)

0.1 m/s

B)

1.5 m/s

C)

5 m/s

D)

60 m/s

View Answer
7) A body of mass m moving with velocity v makes a head on collision with another body of mass 2m which is initially at rest. The loss of kinetic energy of the colliding body (mass m) is

A)

\[\frac{1}{2}\]of its initial kinetic energy

B)

\[\frac{1}{9}\]of its initial kinetic energy

C)

\[\frac{8}{9}\]of its initial kinetic energy

D)

\[\frac{1}{4}\]of its initial kinetic energy

View Answer
8) If momentum is increased by 20%, then the kinetic energy will increase by

A)

40%

B)

44%

C)

66%

D)

50%

View Answer
9) The moment of inertia of uniform thin rod of length L and mass M about an axis passing through a point at a distance \[\frac{L}{3}\] from one of its ends and perpendicular to the rod is

A)

\[\frac{7M{{L}^{2}}}{48}\]

B)

\[\frac{M{{L}^{2}}}{9}\]

C)

\[\frac{M{{L}^{2}}}{12}\]

D)

\[\frac{M{{L}^{2}}}{3}\]

View Answer
10) Ratio of moment of inertia of two rings is 2 : 1 and ratio of their diameters is 2 : 1. Then, the ratio of their mass will be

A)

2 : 1

B)

1 : 2

C)

1 : 4

D)

1 : 1

View Answer
11) A solid sphere is rotating about a diameter at an angular velocity \[\omega \] If it cools so that its radius reduces two\[\frac{1}{n}\] of its original value, its angular velocity becomes

A)

\[\frac{\omega }{n}\]

B)

\[\frac{\omega }{{{n}^{2}}}\]

C)

\[n\omega \]

D)

\[{{n}^{2}}\omega \]

View Answer
12)   The escape velocity of an object from the earth depends upon the mass of the earth \[\text{(}{{\text{M}}_{\text{e}}}\text{),}\] its mean density \[\text{( }\!\!\rho\!\!\text{ ),}\] its radius \[\text{(}{{\text{R}}_{e}}\text{),}\] and the gravitational constant \[\text{(G),}\] Thus, the formula for escape velocity is

A)

\[{{v}_{es}}={{R}_{e}}\sqrt{\frac{8\pi }{3}\text{G }\!\!\rho\!\!\text{ }}\]

B)

\[{{v}_{es}}=M\sqrt{\frac{8\pi }{3}\text{G}{{\text{R}}_{e}}}\]

C)

\[{{v}_{es}}=\sqrt{2GM{{R}_{e}}}\]

D)

\[{{v}_{es}}=\sqrt{\frac{2GM}{R_{e}^{2}}}\]

View Answer
13) Orbital velocity of an artificial satellite does not depend upon

A)

mass of the earth

B)

mass of the satellite

C)

radius of the earth

D)

acceleration due to gravity

View Answer
14) The cyclotron frequency of an electron gyrating in a magnetic field of 1 T is approximately

A)

28MHz

B)

280MHz

C)

2.8 GHz

D)

28 GHz

View Answer
15) When the potential energy of a particle executing SHM is one-fourth of its maximum value   during   the   oscillation,   the displacement of the particle from the equilibrium position in terms of its amplitude a is

A)

\[\frac{a}{4}\]

B)

\[\frac{a}{3}\]

C)

\[\frac{a}{2}\]

D)

\[\frac{2a}{3}\]

View Answer
16) For a particle-executing SHM. Which of the following statements is not correct?

A)

The total energy of the particle always remains the same

B)

The restoring force is always directed towards a fixed point

C)

The restoring force is maximum at the extreme positions

D)

The acceleration of the particle is maximum in the equilibrium position

View Answer
17) Period of oscillation of mass attached to a spring and performing SHM is T. The spring is now cut into four equal pieces and the same mass attached to one piece. Now, the period of its simple harmonic oscillations is

A)

\[2T\]

B)

\[\frac{T}{4}\]

C)

\[\frac{T}{2}\]

D)

\[T\]

View Answer
18) Two wires made of same material having lengths \[L\]and \[2L\] and radii \[r\] and \[2r\] respectively are clamped rigidly at their one end and are stretched by applying forces equal to F and 2F respectively. If extension in length of first wire is I, the extension in second wire is

A)

\[l\]

B)

\[2l\]

C)

\[\frac{1}{2}l\]

D)

\[4l\]

View Answer
19) A metal bar of length L and area of cross-section A is clamped between two rigid supports. Its Young's modulus for the material of the rod is Y and coefficient of linear expansion is a. If the temperature of the rod is increased by \[\Delta t{}^\circ C\] the force exerted by the rod on the supports is

A)

\[YAL\Delta t\]

B)

\[YA\alpha \Delta t\]

C)

\[\frac{YA\alpha \Delta t}{A}\]

D)

\[Y\alpha A\Delta t\]

View Answer
20) The temperature of the hydrogen at which the average rms speed of its molecules is equal to that of oxygen molecules at a temperature of \[31{}^\circ C\] is

A)

\[-216{}^\circ C\]

B)

\[-235{}^\circ C\]

C)

\[-254{}^\circ C\]

D)

\[-264{}^\circ C\]

View Answer
21) At \[27{}^\circ C\], the average kinetic energy of gas is \[6.25\times {{10}^{-21}}J\] At \[227{}^\circ C\] its average kinetic energy will be

A)

\[52.2\times {{10}^{-21}}\text{J}\]

B)

\[5.22\times {{10}^{-21}}\text{J}\]

C)

\[10.42\times {{10}^{-21}}\text{J}\]

D)

\[11.35\times {{10}^{-21}}\text{J}\]

View Answer
22) . An ideal gas is expanded adiabatically at an initial temperature of 300 K. So, that its volume is doubled. The final temperature of the hydrogen gas is\[\text{( }\!\!\gamma\!\!\text{ }\,\text{=1}\text{.40)}\]

A)

227.36 K

B)

500.30 K

C)

454.76 K

D)

\[-47{}^\circ C\]

View Answer
23) For a diatomic gas, change in internal energy for unit change in temperature at constant pressure and constant volume is \[{{U}_{1}}\] and \[{{U}_{2}}\] respectively. \[{{U}_{1}}:{{U}_{2}}\] is

A)

5 : 3

B)

3 : 5

C)

1:1

D)

7 : 5

View Answer
24) Figure shows three pV diagrams. In which case   work done is minimum?

A)

\[\text{I}\]

B)

\[\text{II}\]

C)

\[\text{III}\]

D)

Cannot say

View Answer
25) Maximum wavelength of emitted radiation is \[4\mu m\] at 2000 K. Then, maximum wavelength at 2400 K is

A)

\[3.33\mu m\]

B)

\[0.66\mu m\]

C)

\[1\mu m\]

D)

\[1m\]

View Answer
26) A solid cube and a solid sphere have equal surface areas. Both are at the same temperature of \[120{}^\circ C\]. Then

A)

both of them will cool down at the same rate

B)

the cube will cool down faster than the sphere

C)

the sphere will cool down faster than the cube

D)

whichever of the two is heavier will cool down faster

View Answer
27) The time period of rotation of the sun is 25 days and its radius \[7\times {{10}^{8}}m.\] The Doppler shift for the light of wavelength \[6000\,\overset{\text{o}}{\mathop{\text{A}}}\,\] emitted from the surface of the sun will be

A)

\[0.04\,\overset{\text{o}}{\mathop{\text{A}}}\,\]

B)

\[0.40\,\overset{\text{o}}{\mathop{\text{A}}}\,\]

C)

\[4.00\,\overset{\text{o}}{\mathop{\text{A}}}\,\]

D)

\[40.0\,\overset{\text{o}}{\mathop{\text{A}}}\,\]

View Answer
28) A transverse wave is described by the equation \[y=a\,\sin \,2\pi \left( nt-\frac{x}{\lambda } \right)\]The maximum particle velocity will be equal to four times the wave velocity, if

A)

\[\lambda =\frac{\pi a}{4}\]

B)

\[\lambda =\frac{\pi a}{2}\]

C)

\[\lambda =\pi a\]

D)

\[\lambda =2\pi a\]

View Answer
29) In Young's double slit experiment, when wavelength used is \[6000\,\overset{\text{o}}{\mathop{\text{A}}}\,\] and the screen is 40 cm from the slits, the fringes are 0.012 cm apart. What is the distance between the slits?

A)

0.024cm

B)

2.4cm

C)

0.24cm

D)

0.2cm

View Answer
30) Two coherent sources must have the same

A)

amplitude

B)

phase difference

C)

frequency

D)

Both [b] and [c]

View Answer
31) On a glass plate a light wave is incident at an angle of \[60{}^\circ C\]. If the reflected and the refracted waves are mutually perpendicular, the refractive index of material is

A)

\[\frac{\sqrt{3}}{2}\]

B)

\[\sqrt{3}\]

C)

\[\frac{3}{2}\]

D)

\[\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}\]

View Answer
32) An object placed 10 cm in front of lens has an image 20 cm behind the lens. What is the power of the lens (in diopter)?

A)

1.5 D

B)

3.0 D

C)

-15 D

D)

+15D

View Answer
33) A ray passes through a prism of angle \[60{}^\circ C\] in minimum deviation position and suffers a deviation of \[30{}^\circ \]. What is the angle of incidence on the prism?

A)

\[30{}^\circ \]

B)

\[45{}^\circ \]

C)

\[60{}^\circ \]

D)

\[90{}^\circ \]

View Answer
34) A total charge +Q is located at the centre of a cubical box. The total flux going out through one wall of the box is

A)

\[Q/{{\varepsilon }_{0}}\]

B)

\[Q/3{{\varepsilon }_{0}}\]

C)

\[Q/4{{\varepsilon }_{0}}\]

D)

\[Q/6{{\varepsilon }_{0}}\]

View Answer
35) The capacitance of an air capacitor is \[15\mu F\] and the separation between the parallel plates is 6 mm. A copper plate of 3 mm thickness is introduced symmetrically between the plates. The capacitance now becomes

A)

\[5\text{ }\mu F\]

B)

\[7.5\text{ }\mu F\]

C)

\[22.5\mu F\]

D)

\[30\text{ }\mu F\]

View Answer
36) Kirchhoffs law regarding the algebraic sum of currents at any junction in a circuit is based on the law of conservation of

A)

charge

B)

energy

C)

momentum

D)

mass

View Answer
37) The material of wire of potentiometer is made of

A)

copper

B)

steel

C)

manganin

D)

aluminium

View Answer
38) A current of 1.6 A is flowing through a copper voltameter. The number of \[C{{u}^{2+}}ions\] deposited per minute on the cathode is (Given, \[e=1.6\times {{10}^{-19}}C\])

A)

\[3.0\times {{10}^{20}}\]

B)

\[1.5\times {{10}^{20}}\]

C)

\[1.6\times {{10}^{19}}\]

D)

\[3.2\times {{10}^{19}}\]

View Answer
39) For electroplating of a spoon it is kept in voltameter at

A)

place of anode

B)

place of cathode

C)

between anode and cathode

D)

at anyplace in electrolyte solution

View Answer
40) Field inside a solenoid is

A)

directly proportional to its length

B)

directly proportional to the current

C)

inversely proportional to total number of turns

D)

inversely proportional to current

View Answer
41) Two parallel wires carrying currents in the same direction attract each other because of

A)

potential difference between them

B)

mutual inductance between them

C)

electric force between them

D)

magnetic force between them

View Answer
42) Two lines of force due to a bar magnet

A)

intersect at the neutral point

B)

intersect near the poles of the magnet

C)

intersect on the equatorial axis of the magnet

D)

do not intersect at all

View Answer
43) A transformer is an appliance for converting

A)

high current at low voltage to small current at high voltage

B)

large current at low voltage to high current at high voltage

C)

small current at high voltage to small current at low voltage

D)

large current at high voltage to small current at low voltage

View Answer
44) The power factor of a good choke coil is

A)

nearly zero

B)

exactly zero

C)

nearly one

D)

exactly one

View Answer
45) Penetrating power of X-rays depends on

A)

current flowing in the filament

B)

applied potential difference

C)

nature of the target

D)

All of the above

View Answer
46) A proton moving with velocity v is acted upon by electric field E and magnetic field B. The proton will move undetected, if

A)

E is perpendicular to B

B)

E is parallel to v and perpendicular to B

C)

E, B and v are mutually perpendicular and \[v=\frac{E}{B}\]

D)

E and B both are parallel to v

View Answer
47) In terms of Rydberg's constant R, the wave number of the first Balmer line is

A)

\[R\]

B)

\[\frac{3R}{4}\]

C)

\[\frac{5R}{36}\]

D)

\[\frac{8R}{9}\]

View Answer
48) Ratio of the wavelength of first line Lyman series and first line of Balmer series is

A)

1:3

B)

27 : 5

C)

5 : 27

D)

4:9

View Answer
49) The mass number of an atomic nucleus

A)

is always greater than the atomic number

B)

is always less than the atomic number

C)

is always equal to the atomic number

D)

can be sometimes equal to and sometimes greater than the atomic number

View Answer
50) The rate of disintegration of fixed quantity of a radioactive element can be increased by

A)

increasing temperature

B)

increasing the pressure

C)

chemical reaction

D)

it is not possible

View Answer
51) When chlorine reacts with dil. \[NaOH\]under cold conditions, the oxidation state of chlorine changes from zero to

A)

\[-1\] and \[+5\]

B)

\[+1\] and \[+4\]

C)

\[+5\] and \[+3\]

D)

\[-1\] and \[+1\]

View Answer
52) The catalyst used in the manufacture of ammonia is

A)

\[{{V}_{2}}{{O}_{5}}\]

B)

\[Pt\]

C)

\[Fe\]

D)

\[Ni{{(CO)}_{4}}\]

View Answer
53) The unit is of the rate of a second order reaction is

A)

\[tim{{e}^{-1}}\]

B)

\[mol\text{ }{{L}^{-1}}\text{ }tim{{e}^{-1}}\]

C)

\[L\text{ }mo{{l}^{-1}}\text{ }tim{{e}^{-1}}\]

D)

\[{{L}^{2}}\text{ }mo{{l}^{-2}}\text{ }tim{{e}^{-1}}\]

View Answer
54) Maximum lowering of vapour pressure is observed in the case of

A)

\[0.1\text{ }M\text{ }glucose\]

B)

\[0.1\text{ }M\text{ }BaC{{l}_{2}}\]

C)

\[0.1\text{ }M\text{ }MgS{{O}_{4}}\]

D)

\[0.1\text{ }NaCl\]

View Answer
55) A solution containing 4g of polyvinyl chloride polymer in 1 L of dioxane was found to have an osmotic pressure of \[4.1\times {{10}^{-4}}\] atm at\[{{27}^{o}}C\] The approximate molecular weight of the polymer is

A)

\[1500\]

B)

\[10000\]

C)

\[2.4\times {{10}^{5}}\]

D)

\[2\times {{10}^{12}}\]

View Answer
56) The molarity of pure water is

A)

\[100\]

B)

\[50\]

C)

\[18\]

D)

\[55.55\]

View Answer
57) The scientist who proposed the atomic model based on the quantization of energy for the first time is

A)

Max Planck

B)

Niels Bohr

C)

de-Broglie

D)

Heisenberg

View Answer
58) Dichloroacetic acid is a stronger acid than acetic acid. This is due to the occurrence of

A)

mesomeric effect

B)

hyper conjugation

C)

inductive effect

D)

steric effect

View Answer
59) Which of the following species does not exert a resonance effect?

A)

\[{{C}_{6}}{{H}_{5}}N{{H}_{2}}\]

B)

\[{{C}_{6}}{{H}_{5}}\overset{+}{\mathop{N}}\,{{H}_{2}}\]

C)

\[{{C}_{6}}{{H}_{5}}OH\]

D)

\[{{C}_{6}}{{H}_{5}}Cl\]

View Answer
60) Which one of the following monoenes does not exhibit geometric isomerism?

A)

\[{{C}_{4}}{{H}_{8}}\]

B)

\[{{C}_{3}}{{H}_{6}}\]

C)

\[{{C}_{5}}{{H}_{10}}\]

D)

\[{{C}_{8}}{{H}_{16}}\]

View Answer
61) Which of the following diacid readily gives anhydride on heating?

A)

Fumaric

B)

Maleic acid

C)

Malic acid

D)

Terephthalic acid

View Answer
62) Decomposition of benzene diazonium chloride by using \[C{{u}_{2}}C{{l}_{2}}/HCl\]to form chlorobenzene is

A)

Raschig's reaction

B)

Sandmeyer's reaction

C)

Kolbe's reaction

D)

Cannizzaro's reaction

View Answer
63) The latent heat of fusion of ice at \[{{0}^{o}}C\]is \[80~\,cal/g\].   Entropy   change \[(\Delta S)\]accompanying the melting of \[1\text{ }g\]of ice at \[{{0}^{o}}C\]would be (units: \[cal/g/K\])

A)

\[273\]

B)

\[8.0\]

C)

\[0.0\]

D)

\[0.293\]

View Answer
64) Which one of the following is a non-polar molecule?

A)

\[CC{{l}_{4}}\]

B)

\[CHC{{l}_{3}}\]

C)

\[C{{H}_{2}}C{{l}_{2}}\]

D)

\[C{{H}_{3}}Cl\]

View Answer
65) The   stoichiometry   of the   following reaction is \[{{K}_{2}}{{S}_{2}}{{O}_{8}}(aq)+2KI(aq)\to \]\[2{{K}_{2}}S{{O}_{4}}(aq)+{{I}_{2}}(aq)\]

A)

\[2:2\]

B)

\[1:1\]

C)

\[1:2\]

D)

\[2:1\]

View Answer
66) The volume-temperature graphs of a given mass of an ideal gas at constant pressures are shown below. What is the correct order of pressures?

A)

\[{{P}_{1}}>{{P}_{3}}>{{P}_{2}}\]

B)

\[{{P}_{1}}>{{P}_{2}}>{{P}_{3}}\]

C)

\[{{P}_{2}}>{{P}_{3}}>{{P}_{1}}\]

D)

\[{{P}_{2}}>{{P}_{1}}>{{P}_{3}}\]

View Answer
67) 1-butyne on hydration gives

A)

butan-1, 2-diol

B)

butan-1-ol

C)

butan-2-ol

D)

butan-2-one

View Answer
68) Conversion of chlorobenzene to phenol involves

A)

electrophilic substitution

B)

nucleophilic substitution

C)

free radical substitution

D)

electrophilic addition

View Answer
69) An alkyl halide reacts with alcoholic ammonia in a sealed tube, the product formed will be

A)

a primary amine

B)

a secondary amine

C)

a tertiary amine

D)

a mixture of all the three

View Answer
70) Which one of the following is the set of correct quantum numbers of an electron in 3d-orbital?

A)

\[n=3,l=0,m=0,\,s=-1/2\]

B)

                \[n=2,l=3,m=0,\,s=+1/2\]

C)

                \[n=3,l=1,m=0,\,s=-1/2\]

D)

                \[n=3,l=2,m=1,\,s=+1/2\]

View Answer
71) The number of beta particles emitted in the radioactive decay series from \[^{238}{{U}_{92}}\] to \[^{206}{{U}_{82}}\] is

A)

\[10\]

B)

\[8\]

C)

6

D)

\[2\]

View Answer
72) What happens to the yield on application of high pressure in the Haber's synthesis of ammonia?

A)

Increases

B)

Decreases

C)

Unaffected

D)

Reaction stops

View Answer
73) Hydroxyl ion concentration of \[{{10}^{-2}}\text{ }M\]\[HCl\] is

A)

\[1\times {{10}^{1}}\text{ }mol\text{ }d{{m}^{-3}}\]

B)

\[1\times {{10}^{-12}}\text{ }mol\text{ }d{{m}^{-3}}\]

C)

\[1\times {{10}^{-1}}\text{ }mol\text{ }d{{m}^{-3}}\]

D)

\[1\times {{10}^{-14}}\text{ }mol\text{ }d{{m}^{-3}}\]

View Answer
74) In the ionic equation;\[BiO_{3}^{-}+6{{H}^{+}}+x{{e}^{-}}\xrightarrow{{}}B{{i}^{3+}}+3{{H}_{2}}O,\] the values of x is

A)

\[6\]

B)

\[2\]

C)

\[4\]

D)

\[3\]

View Answer
75) Which of the following metal oxides is most basic?

A)

\[ZnO\]

B)

\[A{{l}_{2}}{{O}_{3}}\]

C)

\[A{{s}_{2}}{{O}_{3}}\]

D)

\[{{K}_{2}}O\]

View Answer
76) The number of unpaired electrons in the square planar \[{{[Pt{{(CN)}_{4}}]}^{2-}}\] ion is

A)

\[2\]

B)

\[1\]

C)

\[0\]

D)

\[3\]

View Answer
77) In case of condensation of polymers

A)

high molecular weight polymers are formed all at once

B)

lower molecular weight polymers are formed all at once

C)

molecular weight of polymer rises throughout the reaction

D)

have no specific relation to their molecular weight

View Answer
78) The \[\alpha \]-amino acid which does not give purple colour in the ninhydrin test is

A)

proline

B)

glycine

C)

lysine

D)

aspartic acid

View Answer
79) Amylopectin is the polymer of

A)

\[\beta -D-glucose\]

B)

\[\alpha -D-glucose\]

C)

\[\beta -D-fructose\]

D)

\[\alpha -D-fructose\]

View Answer
80) Which of the products is formed when acetone is reacted with barium hydroxide solution?

A)

\[C{{H}_{3}}-\overset{O}{\mathop{\overset{||}{\mathop{C}}\,}}\,-C{{H}_{2}}-\underset{OH}{\mathop{\underset{|}{\mathop{\overset{C{{H}_{3}}}{\mathop{\overset{|}{\mathop{C}}\,}}\,}}\,}}\,-C{{H}_{3}}\]

B)

\[C{{H}_{3}}-\overset{O}{\mathop{\overset{||}{\mathop{C}}\,}}\,-\underset{C{{H}_{3}}}{\mathop{\underset{|}{\mathop{C}}\,}}\,H-\underset{OH}{\mathop{\underset{|}{\mathop{C}}\,}}\,H-C{{H}_{3}}\]

C)

\[C{{H}_{3}}-\overset{O}{\mathop{\overset{||}{\mathop{C}}\,}}\,-\underset{OH}{\mathop{\underset{|}{\mathop{C}}\,}}\,H-\underset{C{{H}_{3}}}{\mathop{\underset{|}{\mathop{C}}\,}}\,H-C{{H}_{3}}\]

D)

\[C{{H}_{3}}-\underset{C{{H}_{3}}}{\mathop{\underset{|}{\mathop{\overset{OH}{\mathop{\overset{|}{\mathop{C}}\,}}\,}}\,}}\,-\underset{C{{H}_{3}}}{\mathop{\underset{|}{\mathop{\overset{OH}{\mathop{\overset{|}{\mathop{C}}\,}}\,}}\,}}\,-C{{H}_{3}}\]

View Answer
81) In metal carbonyl (organometallic) complexes, the \[M-C\]bond is

A)

ionic

B)

covalent with ionic character

C)

covalent

D)

coordinate covalent

View Answer
82) In the brown ring test, the brown colour of the ring is due to

A)

ferrous nitrate

B)

ferric nitrate

C)

a mixture of \[NO\]and \[N{{O}_{2}}\]

D)

nitrosoferrous\[-I\] sulphate

View Answer
83) If one mole of ammonia and one mole of hydrogen chloride are mixed in a closed container to form ammonium chloride gas, then

A)

\[\Delta H>\Delta U\]

B)

\[\Delta H=\Delta U\]

C)

\[\Delta H<\Delta U\]

D)

there is no relationship

View Answer
84) The volume of 10 N and 4 N \[HCl\]required to make \[1\text{ }L\]of \[7\text{ }N\]\[HCl\] are

A)

\[0.50\text{ }L\]of \[10\text{ }N\text{ }HCl\] and \[0.50\text{ }L\]of \[4\text{ }N\text{ }HCl\]

B)

\[0.60\text{ }L\]of \[10\text{ }N\]\[HCl\] and \[0.40\text{ }L\]of \[4\text{ }N\text{ }HCl\]

C)

\[0.80\text{ }L\]\[10\text{ }N\] \[HCl\]of and \[0.20\text{ }L\]of \[4\text{ }N\text{ }HCl\]

D)

\[0.75\text{ }L\]of \[10\text{ }N\] \[HCl\] and \[0.25\text{ }L\]of \[4\text{ }N\text{ }HCl\]

View Answer
85) If to a solution of acetic acid, sodium acetate is added, then

A)

\[[{{H}^{+}}]\] increases

B)

\[[C{{H}_{3}}CO{{O}^{-}}]\]in decreases

C)

Ionisation of \[C{{H}_{3}}COOH\]is suppressed

D)

Ionisation constant of \[C{{H}_{3}}COOH\] decreases

View Answer
86) Which of the following is not correct?

A)

Nuclei of atoms participate in nuclear reactions

B)

\[_{20}C{{a}^{40}}\]and \[_{18}A{{r}^{40}}\] are isotones

C)

1 amu of mass defect is approximately equal to \[931.5\text{ }MeV\]

D)

Uranium \[({{U}^{238}})\] series is known as \[(4n+2)\] series

View Answer
87) The order of electron affinity of halogens is

A)

\[F>Cl>Br>I\]

B)

\[Cl>F>Br>I\]

C)

\[Cl>F>I>Br\]

D)

\[Br>Cl>F>I\]

View Answer
88) The metallurgical process in which a metal is obtained in a fused state is called

A)

smelting

B)

roasting

C)

calcination

D)

froth floatation

View Answer
89) Identify the reaction that does not take place in a blast furnace.

A)

\[CaC{{O}_{3}}\xrightarrow{{}}CaO+C{{O}_{2}}\]

B)

\[CaO+Si{{O}_{2}}\xrightarrow{{}}CaSi{{O}_{3}}\]

C)

\[2F{{e}_{2}}{{O}_{3}}+3C\xrightarrow{{}}4Fe+3C{{O}_{2}}\]

D)

\[C{{O}_{2}}+C\xrightarrow{{}}2CO\]

View Answer
90) The product formed when hydroxylamine condenses with a carbonyl compound is called

A)

hydrazide

B)

oxime

C)

hydrazine

D)

hydrazine

View Answer
91) \[C{{H}_{3}}C{{H}_{2}}OH\xrightarrow[step\,I]{C{{l}_{2}}}C{{H}_{3}}CHO\xrightarrow[step\,II]{3C{{l}_{2}}}C{{l}_{3}}CCHO\] In above reactions, the role of \[C{{l}_{2}}\]in step I and step II respectively is

A)

oxidation, chlorination

B)

reduction, chlorination

C)

oxidation, addition

D)

reduction, substitution

View Answer
92) During a redox titration involving a solution containing \[F{{e}^{2+}}\] ions against \[MnO_{4}^{-}\] in the presence of excess of \[{{H}^{+}}\] ions, the number of electrons that gets transferred is

A)

\[6\]

B)

\[5\]

C)

\[4\]

D)

\[2\]

View Answer
93) The number of unidentate ligands in the complex ion is called

A)

oxidation number

B)

primary valency

C)

coordination number

D)

RAN

View Answer
94) An element with atomic number 21 is a

A)

halogen

B)

representative element

C)

transition element

D)

alkali metal

View Answer
95) \[2S{{O}_{2}}(g)+{{O}_{2}}(g)\] is an example for

A)

neutralisation reaction

B)

homogeneous catalysis

C)

heterogeneous catalysis

D)

irreversible reaction

View Answer
96) The relationship between Gibb's free energy change \[(\Delta G)\] and emf (E) of a reversible electrochemical cell is given by

A)

\[\Delta G=nFE\]

B)

\[\Delta G=nF/E\]

C)

\[\Delta G=-nFE\]

D)

\[\Delta G=E/nF\]

View Answer
97) Normal aluminium electrode coupled with normal hydrogen electrode gives an emf of \[1.66\text{ }V,\] so the standard potential of \[Al\] is

A)

\[-1.66V\]

B)

\[+1.66V\]

C)

\[-0.83\text{ }V\]

D)

\[+0.83\text{ }V\]

View Answer
98) Which one of the following chlorohydrocarbons readily undergoes solvolysis?

A)

\[C{{H}_{2}}=CHCl\]

B)

C)

D)

View Answer
99) Which of the following reacts with benzene in presence of anhydrous aluminium chloride and forms acetophenone?

A)

\[C{{H}_{3}}Cl\]

B)

\[~C{{H}_{3}}COOH\]

C)

\[C{{H}_{3}}CHO\]

D)

\[C{{H}_{3}}COCl\]

View Answer
100) Hydrolysis of \[NC{{l}_{3}}\]gives \[N{{H}_{3}}\]and X. Which of the following is X?

A)

\[HCl{{O}_{4}}\]

B)

\[HCl{{O}_{3}}\]

C)

\[HOCl\]

D)

\[HCl{{O}_{2}}\]

View Answer
101) Which of the following is a spedes?

A)

Dipnoi

B)

Mammaha

C)

Canis familiaris

D)

Carnivora

View Answer
102) Locomotion does not occur in

A)

Amoeba

B)

Pheretima

C)

Leucosolenia

D)

Maggot of Musca

View Answer
103) On how many criteria living organisms have been classified into five kingdoms?

A)

Two

B)

Four

C)

Five

D)

Three

View Answer
104) Which of the following have more characters in common?

A)

Order

B)

Family

C)

Class

D)

Phylum

View Answer
105) The endoskeleton in the head of cockroach is known as

A)

notum

B)

pleura

C)

apodeme

D)

tentorium

View Answer
106) Which of the following eats its prey?

A)

Leech

B)

Starfish

C)

Sepia

D)

Both [b] and [c]

View Answer
107) Presence of claspers is an important character in

A)

Sphyma

B)

Echeneis

C)

Hippocampus

D)

Exocoetus

View Answer
108) The mammals evolved from the reptile in the

A)

Cretaceous

B)

Triassic

C)

Devonian

D)

Carboniferous

View Answer
109) Palaeolithic age relates to

A)

subman

B)

modem man

C)

backward man

D)

prehistoric man

View Answer
110) For natural selection, the important factor is

A)

disuse

B)

variation

C)

catastrophic

D)

special creation

View Answer
111) Schwann cells are present on which part of a neuron?

A)

Axon

B)

Soma/body

C)

Dendrites

D)

Axon hillock

View Answer
112) A dental disease characterized by mottling of teeth is due to presence of a certain chemical element in drinking water. Which is that element?

A)

Boron

B)

Chlorine

C)

Fluorine

D)

Mercury

View Answer
113) After the expiration of a normal tidal volume, a -person breathes in as much as air possible. The volume of air inspired is the

A)

vital capacity

B)

in spiratory capacity

C)

in spiratory reserve volume

D)

functional residual capacity

View Answer
114) Blood of which vessel in mammals carries least percentage of urea?

A)

Renal vein

B)

Dorsal aorta

C)

Renal artery

D)

Posterior vena cava

View Answer
115) One of the following is not found in mammalian urine.

A)

water

B)

sucrose

C)

ammonium salt

D)

sodium chloride

View Answer
116) Bone dissolving cells are

A)

osteoplasts

B)

osteoclasts

C)

chondroclasts

D)

chondroblasts

View Answer
117) Which one is odd?

A)

Ligament

B)

Pronator

C)

Adductor

D)

Supinator

View Answer
118) Orchidectomy is the removal of

A)

testes

B)

spleen

C)

ovaries

D)

liver

View Answer
119) Acrosome of sperm is formed from

A)

nucleus of spermatid

B)

centrosome of spermatid

C)

Golgi complex

D)

mitochondria of spermatid

View Answer
120) Atretic follicles are found in the

A)

liver

B)

ovary

C)

testis

D)

thymus

View Answer
121) If cells destined to form endoderm in a gastrula are removed, the new individual will be devoid of

A)

heart

B)

brain

C)

kidney

D)

visceral organs

View Answer
122) Which of these promotes growth?

A)

Pineal gland

B)

Anterior pituitary

C)

Adrenal gland

D)

Posterior pituitary

View Answer
123) Which one is the real product of honey bee?

A)

Pollen

B)

Honey

C)

Propolis

D)

Beeswax

View Answer
124) Which one is not transmitted by houseflies?

A)

Cholera

B)

Typhoid

C)

Dysentery

D)

Yellow fever

View Answer
125) The drug 'belladonna' is obtained from

A)

Atropa

B)

Capsicum

C)

Solanum

D)

Rauwolffia

View Answer
126) Sporeine was first developed by

A)

USA

B)

Italy

C)

Germany

D)

France

View Answer
127) The ovum of human female has auto somes

A)

22 pairs

B)

21 pairs

C)

23 pairs

D)

44 pairs

View Answer
128) The central dogma is not applicable in the case of

A)

retroviruses

B)

all prokaryotes

C)

transcription

D)

reverse transcription

View Answer
129) Antiserum is a serum containing

A)

antigens

B)

leucocytes

C)

antibodies

D)

None of these

View Answer
130) Chromosomal imbalance is most frequent during which of the following stages of human development?

A)

Foetal

B)

Embryonic

C)

Adult

D)

Childhood

View Answer
131) Genes not located within the nucleus are almost always found in

A)

cytosol

B)

ribosome

C)

cytoskeleton

D)

cell membrane

View Answer
132) A promoter site on DNA

A)

transcribes represser

B)

regulates termination

C)

initiates transcription

D)

code for RNA polymerase

View Answer
133) The chromosome cannot be stained with

A)

eosin

B)

feulgen stain

C)

haematoxylin

D)

acetocarmine

View Answer
134) Synthesized vaccines are also called

A)

first generation vaccines

B)

second and third generation vaccines

C)

monoclonal vaccines

D)

None of the above

View Answer
135) PCR technique is applied for

A)

DNA amplification

B)

DNA synthesis

C)

reverse transcription

D)

gene cloning

View Answer
136) Fusion of lymphocytes with myeloma in hybridoma technology is a classical example of

A)

somatic hybridization

B)

normal hybridization

C)

micro propagation

D)

cryopreservation

View Answer
137) Allergic reactions develop in response to

A)

hirudin

B)

serotonin

C)

heparin

D)

histamine

View Answer
138) Natural silk contains

A)

nitrogen

B)

potassium

C)

magnesium

D)

phosphorus

View Answer
139) Earthworms are not found in

A)

mor humus

B)

mull humus

C)

loams

D)

clay

View Answer
140) The usual shape of growth curve is

A)

linear

B)

zig-zag

C)

sigmoid

D)

bell-shaped

View Answer
141) The bones of old person become brittle due to accumulation of

A)

sodium

B)

calcium

C)

phosphorus

D)

magnesium

View Answer
142) Which can be regenerated in mammals?

A)

Liver

B)

Arms

C)

Teeth

D)

Eye

View Answer
143) In embryo, cleavage brings about

A)

increased size

B)

increased DNA content

C)

change in shape and size

D)

increased mass of protoplasm

View Answer
144) Placental barriers are maximum in

A)

cat

B)

pig

C)

rat

D)

man

View Answer
145) A freshly laid unfertilized egg of hen contains

A)

100 cells

B)

1 cell

C)

109 cells

D)

about a million cells

View Answer
146) Structure of which remain unchanged during metamorphosis in frog's tadpole?

A)

Lungs

B)

Brain

C)

Heart

D)

Intestine

View Answer
147) The presence of RBCs in urine is known as

A)

uraemia

B)

haematuria

C)

alkaptonuria

D)

poly cythaemia

View Answer
148) Which of these genes are mutated frequently in cancer?

A)

Oncogenes

B)

Tumour suppressor genes

C)

Mutator genes

D)

All of the above

View Answer
149) Demography involves

A)

changes in population size

B)

composition of population

C)

distribution of population

D)

All of the above

View Answer
150) Birth rate is the simplest indicator of

A)

mortality

B)

narality

C)

fertility

D)

growth

View Answer
151) Pyrenoids are centre of

A)

fat storage

B)

starch storage

C)

protein formation

D)

enzyme formation

View Answer
152) A component not associated with Golgi bodies is

A)

cisternae

B)

zone of exclusion

C)

acid phosphatase

D)

protein glycosylation

View Answer
153) Which is more important for photosynthesis?

A)

Chloroplast

B)

Chlorophyll

C)

Plastid

D)

Radiant energy

View Answer
154) A plant is kept in dark for few days. The cells of leaves in this plant will show

A)

amyloplast

B)

chromoplast

C)

anthocyanin

D)

etioplast

View Answer
155) In plant cell wall

A)

secondary wall is always present

B)

may be absent

C)

there cannot be intercellular spaces

D)

bear pores through which cytoplasm can pass

View Answer
156) When a plant cell is placed in pure water, it will

A)

become rigid

B)

smell

C)

become flaccid

D)

no change

View Answer
157) How many times does the cytokinesis occur during entire process of meiosis

A)

1

B)

3

C)

2

D)

4

View Answer
158) Germ cells in gonads are produced by

A)

only mitosis

B)

only meiosis

C)

maturation without cell division

D)

Both [a] and [b]

View Answer
159) Where does meiosis occur in blue green algae/bacteria?

A)

Zygote

B)

Zygospore

C)

Akinete

D)

None of these

View Answer
160) In Pinus, number of chromosomes in its leaf cells is 24. What will be the number of chromosome in its endosperm?

A)

24

B)

36

C)

12

D)

6

View Answer
161) Imbibition is always accompanied by swelling or increase in the volume of the imbibant. However, the increase in the volume of the imbibant is

A)

more than die volume of water imbibed

B)

some as the volume of the water imbibed

C)

less than the volume of the water imbibed

D)

it depends upon the type of imbibant

View Answer
162) With the increase in temperature, the process of imbibitions

A)

decreases

B)

increases

C)

remain the same

D)

no effect

View Answer
163) Which of the following has higher water potential?

A)

1 M salt solution

B)

1 M sugar solution

C)

Distilled water

D)

1 M sugar solution with 2-3 bars pressure applied to it

View Answer
164) Cell A has\[{{\text{ }\!\!\Psi\!\!\text{ }}_{\text{W}}}\text{-3}\] bars and cell B has\[{{\text{ }\!\!\Psi\!\!\text{ }}_{\text{W}}}\text{-8}\] bars. The movement of water will be from

A)

cell A to cell B

B)

cell B to cell A

C)

data insufficient

D)

water cannot move in negative value of\[{{\text{ }\!\!\Psi\!\!\text{ }}_{\text{W}}}\]

View Answer
165) The term apoplast signifies

A)

cell wall,   intercellular space and water-filled channels

B)

protoplasts     interconnected     by plasmodesmata

C)

cell wall, cytoplasm and central vacuole

D)

None of the above

View Answer
166) Which factor is most important in regularity transpiration?

A)

Temperature

B)

Humidity

C)

Light

D)

Wind

View Answer
167) If concentration of \[C{{O}_{3}}\] in atmosphere is increased, the stomata are closed in

A)

dark

B)

light

C)

Both [a] and [b]

D)

None of the above

View Answer
168) Tea yellow is a disease of tea plants produced due to the deficiency of

A)

phosphorus

B)

sulphur

C)

potassium

D)

nitrogen

View Answer
169) White-bud condition in maize is produced due to the deficiency of

A)

iron

B)

molybdenum

C)

zinc

D)

boron

View Answer
170) Root of which plant contains a red pigment that has affinity for oxygen?

A)

Carrot

B)

Soybean

C)

Mustard

D)

Radish

View Answer
171) Who proved that oxygen evolved in photosynthesis comes from water?

A)

Mayer

B)

Calvin

C)

Ruben

D)

Hill

View Answer
172) If an angiosperm is kept at compensation point

A)

it will die after sometime

B)

its growth will be normal

C)

its growth will be faster

D)

its growth will stop but it will not die

View Answer
173) Crassulacean acid metabolism operates in

A)

succulents

B)

non-succulents

C)

mesophytes

D)

hydrophytes

View Answer
174) When a tall plant with rounded seeds (TTRR) is crossed with a dwarf plant with wrinkled seeds (ttrr), the \[{{F}_{1}}\] generation consists of tall plants with rounded seeds? How many types of gametes an \[{{F}_{1}}\]plant would produce.

A)

One

B)

Three

C)

Four

D)

Eight

View Answer
175) The Nobel Prize for the discovery of TCA cycle and ATP biosynthesis was awarded to

A)

Hans Krebs

B)

Lipman

C)

Krebs and Lipman jointly

D)

Vishniae and Ochoa

View Answer
176) The process of deriving glucose from fats and proteins is called

A)

glycogenolysis

B)

gluconeogenesis

C)

glycogenesis

D)

glycolysis

View Answer
177) One turn of Krebs' cycle for the oxidation of 1 mole of sucrose produce. How many ATP molecules.

A)

12

B)

24

C)

22

D)

11

View Answer
178) Respiratory substrate fielding maximum number of ATP molecules is

A)

ketogenic amino acid

B)

glucose

C)

amylase

D)

glycogen

View Answer
179) Fermentation is

A)

anaerobic respiration

B)

aerobic respiration

C)

incomplete oxidation of carbohydrates

D)

anaerobic complete oxidation of carbohydrates

View Answer
180) Cyanide resistant respiration is found in

A)

plants

B)

bacteria

C)

viruses

D)

animals

View Answer
181) Which of the following chemical is used in Ganong's respire meter to determine RQ?

A)

10%KOH

B)

10%NaOH

C)

1% \[N{{H}_{4}}OH\]

D)

1% \[Ca{{(OH)}_{2}}\]

View Answer
182) Two seeds are germinated, A in light and B in dark. Which grows taller in initial stage?

A)

A > B

B)

B > A

C)

A = B

D)

No growth in either case

View Answer
183) Excess amount of \[C{{O}_{2}}\]

A)

retards growth

B)

accelerates growth

C)

affects growth shortly

D)

does not effect growth

View Answer
184) Legume seeds exhibit dormancy due to

A)

undeveloped embryo

B)

absence of cytokinins

C)

hard seed coat

D)

absence of \[G{{A}_{3}}\]

View Answer
185) Morphogenesis is controlled by an interaction between

A)

auxins and gibberellins

B)

auxins and cytokinins

C)

gibberellins and cytokinins

D)

None of the above

View Answer
186) Rhizophore of Selaginella is

A)

root

B)

stem

C)

leaf

D)

organ sui generis

View Answer
187) Endosperm in gymnosperms is

A)

haploid

B)

triploid

C)

diploid

D)

tetraploid

View Answer
188) Coralloid roots in Cycas have a symbiotic blue green alga that forms an algal zone in such roots. This alga is

A)

Aulosira

B)

Anabaena

C)

Oscillatoria

D)

Chlorella

View Answer
189) If Gnetum is not in flowering it may be mistaken for a

A)

tree fern

B)

monocot plant

C)

dicot plant

D)

None of these

View Answer
190) A plant which is first terrestrial and then? becomes epiphyte (space parasite)

A)

Vanda

B)

Cuscuta

C)

Rafflesia

D)

Santalum

View Answer
191) Endogenous and exogenous spores both can be traced in

A)

Mucor

B)

Agaricus

C)

Pemcillium

D)

Rhizopus

View Answer
192) Yeast is a good source of

A)

protein

B)

riboflavin (vitamin\[-{{B}_{2}}\])

C)

sugar

D)

ascorbic acid (vitamin-C)

View Answer
193) Witches broom of legume is caused by

A)

virus

B)

bacteria

C)

fungus

D)

mycoplasma

View Answer
194) In angiosperm, the archegonium is replaced by

A)

egg cell

B)

female gametophyte

C)

pollars and egg apparatus

D)

synergids

View Answer
195) Which of the following statements is correct?

A)

Producers produce energy

B)

Consumers consume energy

C)

Decomposers decompose energy

D)

Producers transform energy

View Answer
196) Browning of cauliflower is a

A)

fungal disease

B)

bacterial disease

C)

physiological disease

D)

viral disease

View Answer
197) Best biofertilizer for paddy fields is

A)

Rhizobium

B)

Azolla

C)

Anthoceros

D)

Bacillus polymyxa

View Answer
198) First man made cereal is

A)

Secale cereale

B)

Triticale

C)

Triticum aestivum

D)

maximum dwarf, high yield wheat

View Answer
199) In which of the following fruits, the edible part is aril?

A)

Apple

B)

Pomegranate

C)

Orange

D)

Litchi

View Answer
200) Breeding of crops with high levels of minerals, vitamins and proteins is called

A)

somatic hybridization

B)

bio fortification

C)

bio magnifications

D)

micro propagation

View Answer

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