Solved papers for DUMET Medical DUMET Medical Solved Paper-2009

DUMET Medical Solved Paper-2009 Total Questions - 200

1) A raindrop with radius 1.5 mm falls from a cloud at a height 1200 m from ground. The density of water is 1000 \[kg{{m}^{-3}}\] and density of air is 1.2\[kg{{m}^{-3}}\]. Assume the drop was spherical throughout the fall and there is no air drag. The impact speed of the drop will be

A)

27 \[km{{s}^{-1}}\]

B)

550 \[km{{s}^{-1}}\]

C)

zero

D)

129 \[km{{s}^{-1}}\]

View Answer
2) A man is standing on an international space station, which is orbiting earth at an altitude 520 km with a constant speed 7.6 \[km{{s}^{-1}}\]. If the mans weight is 50 kg, his acceleration is

A)

7.6 \[km{{s}^{-2}}\]

B)

7.6 \[km{{s}^{-2}}\]

C)

8.4 \[km{{s}^{-2}}\]

D)

10 \[km{{s}^{-2}}\]

View Answer
3) A rope of mass 0.1 kg is connected at the same height of two opposite walls. It is allowed to hang under its own weight. At [he contact point between the rope and the wall, the rope makes an angle \[\theta ={{10}^{o}}\] with respect to horizontal. The tension in the rope at its midpoint between the walls is

A)

2.78 N

B)

2.56 N

C)

2.82 N

D)

2.71 N

View Answer
4) A boat crosses a river from port A to port B, which are just on the opposite sides. The speed of the water is \[{{v}_{W}}\] and that of boat is Vg relative to water. Assume \[{{v}_{B}}=2{{v}_{W.}}\] What is the time taken by the boat, if it has to cross the river directly on the AB line?

A)

\[\frac{2D}{{{v}_{B}}\sqrt{3}}\]

B)

\[\frac{\sqrt{3}D}{2{{v}_{B}}}\]

C)

\[\frac{D}{{{v}_{B}}\sqrt{2}}\]

D)

\[\frac{D\sqrt{2}}{{{v}_{B}}}\]

View Answer
5) Raindrops are falling from a certain height. Assume all raindrops are spherical and have same drag coefficient. The impact speed of large raindrops compared to that of small raindrops is

A)

greater

B)

smaller

C)

same

D)

depends on height

View Answer
6) Top of the stratosphere has an electric field E (in units of \[V{{m}^{-1}}\]) nearly equal to

A)

0

B)

10

C)

100

D)

1000

View Answer
7) The surface charge density (in \[C{{m}^{-2}}\]) of the earth is about

A)

\[{{10}^{-9}}\]

B)

\[-{{10}^{-9}}\]

C)

\[{{10}^{-9}}\]

D)

\[-{{10}^{-9}}\]

View Answer
8) Gausss law is valid for

A)

any closed surface

B)

only regular closed surfaces

C)

any open surface

D)

only irregular open surfaces

View Answer
9) One of the following is not a property of field lines

A)

field lines are continuous curves without any breaks

B)

two field lines cannot cross each other

C)

field lines start at positive charges and end at negative charges

D)

they form closed loops

View Answer
10) Nichrome or Manganin is widely used in wire bound standard resistors because of their

A)

temperature independent resistivity

B)

very weakly temperature dependent resistivity

C)

strong dependence of resistivity with temperature

D)

mechanical strength

View Answer
11) A galvanometer coil has a resistance of \[10\,\,\Omega \]and the meter shows full scale deflection for a current of 1 mA. The shunt resistance required to convert the galvanometer into an ammeter of range 0-100 mA is about

A)

\[10\,\,\Omega \]

B)

\[1\,\,\Omega \]

C)

\[0.1\,\,\Omega \]

D)

\[0.01\,\,\Omega \]

View Answer
12) The current (in ampere) drawn from a 12 V supply by the infinite network shown in the following figure is

A)

\[2.7\]

B)

\[3.3\]

C)

\[4.4\]

D)

\[5.2\]

View Answer
13) A long straight wire of a circular cross-section (radius\[a\]) carries a steady current\[I\]and the current\[I\]is uniformly distributed across this cross-section. Which of the following plots represents the variation of magnitude of magnetic field B with distance r from the centre of the wire?

A)

B)

C)

D)

View Answer
14) The gyromagnetic ratio of an electron of charge e and mass m is equal to

A)

\[\frac{{{e}^{2}}}{2m}\]

B)

\[\frac{{{e}^{2}}}{2{{m}^{2}}}\]

C)

\[\frac{e}{4m}\]

D)

\[\frac{e}{2m}\]

View Answer
15) The figure below shows the various positions (labelled by subscripts) of small magnetized needles P and Q. The arrows show the direction of their magnetic moment. Which configuration corresponds to the lowest potential energy of all the configurations show?

A)

\[P{{Q}_{3}}\]

B)

\[P{{Q}_{4}}\]

C)

\[P{{Q}_{5}}\]

D)

\[P{{Q}_{6}}\]

View Answer
16) Which of the following figures correctly depicts the Lenzs law? The arrows show the movement of the labelled pole of a bar magnet into a closed circular loop and the arrows on the circle show the direction of the induced current

A)



B)



C)



D)



View Answer
17) An AC voltage is applied to a pure inductor L, drives a current in the inductor. The current in the inductor would be

A)

ahead of the voltage by \[\pi /2\]

B)

lagging the voltage by \[\pi /2\]

C)

ahead of the voltage by \[\pi /4\]

D)

lagging the voltage by \[3\pi /4\]

View Answer
18) The radiation pressure (in\[N{{m}^{-2}}\]) of the visible light is of the order of

A)

\[{{10}^{-2}}\]

B)

\[{{10}^{-4}}\]

C)

\[{{10}^{-6}}\]

D)

\[{{10}^{-8}}\]

View Answer
19) The critical angle for total internal reflection in diamond is \[{{24.5}^{o}}\]. The refractive index of the diamond is

A)

2.45

B)

1.41

C)

2.59

D)

1.59

View Answer
20) When a glass lens with n = 1.47 is immersed in a trough of liquid, it looks to be disappeared. The liquid in the trough could be

A)

water

B)

kerosene

C)

glycerine

D)

alcohol

View Answer
21) In Youngs double slit experiment, two slits are made 5 mm apart and the screen is placed 2 m away. What is the fringe separation when light of wavelength 500 nm is used?

A)

0.002 mm

B)

0.02 mm

C)

0.2mm

D)

2mm

View Answer
22) For what distance is ray optics a good approximation when the aperture is 4 mm wide and the wavelength is 500 nm?

A)

32m

B)

64m

C)

16m

D)

8m

View Answer
23) Which of the following metal thermionically emit an electron at a relatively lowest temperature among them?

A)

Platinum

B)

Copper

C)

Aluminium

D)

Molybdenum

View Answer
24) Among the following four spectral regions, the photon has the highest energy in

A)

infrared

B)

violet

C)

red

D)

blue

View Answer
25) Which of these particles (having the same kinetic energy) has the largest de-Broglie wavelength?

A)

Electron

B)

Alpha particle

C)

Proton

D)

Neutron

View Answer
26) The radius of an electron orbit in a hydrogen atom is of the order of

A)

\[{{10}^{-8}}\,\,m\]

B)

\[{{10}^{-9}}\,\,m\]

C)

\[{{10}^{-11}}\,\,m\]

D)

\[{{10}^{-10}}\,\,m\]

View Answer
27) The size of the nucleus of an atom of mass number A is proportional to

A)

\[{{A}^{3/4}}\]

B)

\[{{A}^{2/3}}\]

C)

\[{{A}^{1/3}}\]

D)

\[{{A}^{5/3}}\]

View Answer
28) A radioactive isotope has a half-life of 2 yr. How long will it take the activity to reduce to 3% of its original value?

A)

4.8 yr

B)

7 yr

C)

10 yr

D)

9.6 yr

View Answer
29) A p-n photodiode is fabricated from a semiconductor with band gap of\[2.8eV\]. Which of the following wavelength it can detect?

A)

950 nm

B)

820 nm

C)

580 nm

D)

440 nm

View Answer
30) A n-p-n transistor having AC, current gain of 50 is to be used to make an amplifier of power gain of 300. What will be the voltage gain of the amplifier?

A)

8.5

B)

6

C)

4

D)

3

View Answer
31) A water molecule has an electric dipole moment \[6.4\times {{10}^{-30}}Cm\] when it is in vapour state. The distance in metre between the centre of positive and negative charge of the molecule is

A)

\[4\times {{10}^{-10}}\]

B)

\[4\times {{10}^{-11}}\]

C)

\[4\times {{10}^{-12}}\]

D)

\[4\times {{10}^{-13}}\]

View Answer
32) The radius of the rear wheel of bicycle is twice that of the front wheel. When the bicycle is moving, the angular speed of the rear wheel compared to that of the front is

A)

greater

B)

smaller

C)

same

D)

exact double

View Answer
33) A uniform rod of length \[L\] and mass 18 kg is made to rest on two measuring scale at its two ends. A uniform block of mass 2.7 kg is placed on the rod at a distance \[L/4\] from the left end. The force experienced by the measuring scale on the right end is

A)

18 N

B)

96 N

C)

29 N

D)

45 N

View Answer
34) You drive a car at a speed of \[70\,\,km{{h}^{-1}}\] in a straight road for 8.4 km, and then the car runs out of petrol. You walk for 30 min to reach a petrol pump at a distance of 2 km. The average velocity from the beginning of your drive till you reach the petrol pump is

A)

16.8 \[km{{h}^{-1}}\]

B)

35 \[km{{h}^{-1}}\]

C)

64 \[km{{h}^{-1}}\]

D)

18.6 \[km{{h}^{-1}}\]

View Answer
35) Two iron blocks of equal mass but with double surface area slide down an inclined plane with friction coefficient \[\mu .\] If the first block with surface area A experiences a frictional force\[f\] then the second block with surface area 2 A will experience a frictional force

A)

\[\frac{f}{2}\]

B)

\[f\]

C)

\[2f\]

D)

\[4f\]

View Answer
36) A point mass m is placed inside a spherical shell of radius R and mass M at a distance \[\frac{R}{2}\]from the centre of the shell. The gravitational force exerted by the shell on the point mass is

A)

\[\frac{GMm}{{{R}^{2}}}\]

B)

\[\frac{GMm}{{{R}^{2}}}\]

C)

zero

D)

\[\frac{4GMm}{{{R}^{2}}}\]

View Answer
37) The motion of a particle executing SHM in one dimension is described by \[x=-0.5\,\,\,\sin \,(2t+\pi /4),\] where \[x\] is in metre and t in second. The frequency of oscillation in Hz is

A)

\[2\]

B)

\[\pi \]

C)

\[\pi /2\]

D)

\[1/\pi \]

View Answer
38) Two stars of mass \[{{m}_{1}}\] and \[{{m}_{2}}\] are parts of a binary star system. The radii of their orbits are \[{{r}_{1}}\] and \[{{r}_{2}}\] respectively, measured from the centre of mass of the system. The magnitude of gravitational force \[{{m}_{1}}\] exerts on m, is

A)

\[\frac{{{m}_{1}}{{m}_{2}}G}{{{({{r}_{1}}+{{r}_{2}})}^{2}}}\]

B)

\[\frac{{{m}_{1}}G}{{{({{r}_{1}}+{{r}_{2}})}^{2}}}\]

C)

\[\frac{{{m}_{2}}G}{{{({{r}_{1}}+{{r}_{2}})}^{2}}}\]

D)

\[\frac{({{m}_{1}}+{{m}_{2}})}{{{({{r}_{1}}+{{r}_{2}})}^{2}}}\]

View Answer
39) On the centre of a frictionless table a small hole is made, through which a weightless string of length \[2l\] is inserted. On the two ends of the string two balls of the same mass m are attached. Arrangement is made in such a way that half of the string is on the table top and half is hanging below. The ball on the table top is made to move in a circular path with a constant speed v. What is the centripetal acceleration of the moving ball?

A)

\[mvl\]

B)

\[g\]

C)

zero

D)

\[2\,mvl\]

View Answer
40) Tom and Dick are running forward with the same speed. They are throwing a rubber ball to each other at a constant speed v as seen by the thrower. According to Sam who is standing on the ground the speed of ball is

A)

same as v

B)

greater than v

C)

less than v

D)

None of these

View Answer
41) A ball moves in a frictionless inclined table without slipping. The work done by the table surface on the ball is

A)

positive

B)

negative

C)

zero

D)

None of these

View Answer
42) A synchronous satellite goes around the earth once in every 24 h. What is the radius of orbit of the synchronous satellite in terms of the earths radius?   (Given   mass   of   the   earth, \[{{m}_{e}}=5.98\times {{10}^{24}}\,kg,\] radius of the earth, \[{{r}_{e}}=6.37\times {{10}^{6}}\,m,\]   Universal   constant   of gravitation, \[G=6.67\times {{10}^{-11}}N-{{m}^{2}}k{{g}^{-2}})\]

A)

\[2.4\,{{r}_{e}}\]

B)

\[3.6\,{{r}_{e}}\]

C)

\[4.8\,{{r}_{e}}\]

D)

\[6.6\,{{r}_{e}}\]

View Answer
43) Two cylinders of equal size are filled with equal amount of ideal diatomic gas at room temperature. Both the cylinders are fitted with pistons. In cylinder A the piston is free to move, while in cylinder B the piston is fixed. When same amount of heat is supplied to both the cylinders, the temperature of the gas in cylinder A raises by 20 K. What will be the rise is temperature of the gas in cylinder B?

A)

28 K

B)

20 K

C)

15 K

D)

10 K

View Answer
44) An ideal gas is made to go through a cyclic thermodynamical process in four steps. The amount of heat involved are \[{{Q}_{1}}=600\,J,\] \[{{Q}_{2}}=-400\,J,\,\,\,\,\,{{Q}_{3}}=-300\,J\] and \[{{Q}_{4}}=-300\,J\] respectively. The corresponding works involved are \[{{W}_{1}}=300\,J,\,\,\,{{W}_{2}}=-200\,J,\,\,\,{{W}_{3}}=-150\,J\] and , \[{{W}_{4}}\]What is the value of \[{{W}_{4}}\]?

A)

\[-20\,J\]

B)

\[100\,J\]

C)

\[150\,J\]

D)

\[50\,J\]

View Answer
45) The angle subtended by a coin of radius 1 cm held at a distance of 80 cm from your eyes is

A)

\[{{1.43}^{o}}\]

B)

\[{{0.72}^{o}}\]

C)

\[{{0.0125}^{o}}\]

D)

\[{{0.025}^{o}}\]

View Answer
46) The three initial and final position of a man on the x-axis are given as

(i) (8 m, 7 m)

(ii) (7 m, 3 m) and

(iii) (7 m, 3 m)

Which pair gives the negative displacement?

A)

(i)

B)

(ii)

C)

(iii)

D)

(i) and (iii)

View Answer
47)  A bird flies from \[(-3\,m,\,4m,\,-3\,m)\] to \[(7\,m,\,-2\,m,\,-3\,m)\] in xyz coordinates. The birds S displacement in unit vectors is given by

A)

\[(4\mathbf{\hat{i}}+2\mathbf{\hat{j}}-6\mathbf{\hat{k}})\]

B)

\[(10\mathbf{\hat{i}}-6\mathbf{\hat{j}})\]

C)

\[(4\mathbf{\hat{i}}-2\mathbf{\hat{j}})\]

D)

\[(10\mathbf{\hat{i}}+6\mathbf{\hat{j}}-6\mathbf{\hat{k}})\]

View Answer
48) A coastguard ship locates a pirate ship at a distance 560 m. It fires a cannon ball with an initial speed 82 \[m{{s}^{-1}}\]. At what angle from horizontal the ball must be fired so that it hits the pirate ship?

A)

\[{{54}^{o}}\]

B)

\[{{125}^{o}}\]

C)

\[{{27}^{o}}\]

D)

\[{{18}^{o}}\]

View Answer
49) An object moves at a constant speed along a circular path in horizontal XY plane, with the centre at the origin. When the object is a\[x=-2m,\] its velocity is \[(-4m{{s}^{-1}})\mathbf{\hat{j}}.\] What is the objects acceleration when it is \[y=2\,m\]?

A)

\[-(8\,m{{s}^{-2}})\,\hat{j}\]

B)

\[(8\,m{{s}^{-2}})\,\hat{i}\]

C)

\[(-4\,m{{s}^{-2}})\,\hat{j}\]

D)

\[(4\,m{{s}^{-2}})\,\hat{i}\]

View Answer
50) A block is lying static on the floor. The maximum value of static frictional force on the block is 10 N. If a horizontal force of 8 N is applied to the block, what will be the frictional force on the block?

A)

2N

B)

18 N

C)

8N

D)

10 N

View Answer
51) Chlorobenzene is ...... reactive than benzene towards electrophilic substitution and directs the incoming electrophile to the ...... position.

A)

more, ortho/para

B)

less, ortho/para

C)

more, meta

D)

less, meta

View Answer
52) When acetyl chloride reacts with sodium propionate/the product formed is

A)

acetic anhydride

B)

acetic propionic anhydride

C)

n-propyl acetate

D)

pent-2,4-dione

View Answer
53) In the reaction below, X is \[{{C}_{6}}{{H}_{5}}MgBr+C{{H}_{3}}OH\xrightarrow{{}}\,\,\,X\]

A)

\[{{C}_{6}}{{H}_{6}}\]

B)

\[{{C}_{6}}{{H}_{6}}OH\]

C)

\[{{C}_{6}}{{H}_{5}}OC{{H}_{3}}\]

D)

\[C{{H}_{3}}COOH\]

View Answer
54) Which of the following compounds will show geometrical isomerism?

A)

Cyclohexene

B)

2 hexene

C)

3 -hexyne

D)

1,1-diphenylethylene

View Answer
55) Which of the following reactions involves carbon-carbon bond formation?

A)

Reimer-Tiemann reaction

B)

Hydroboration-oxidation

C)

Cannizaro reaction

D)

Reaction of primary alcohols with PCC

View Answer
56) Aldol condensation does not occur between

A)

two different aldehydes

B)

two different ketones

C)

an aldehyde and a ketone

D)

an aldehyde and an ester

View Answer
57) Which of the following statements is not true?

A)

Pheromones are secreted outside the body by the insects

B)

Aspirin is analgesic and anti-pyretic

C)

Sucrose is a dipeptide commonly known as aspartame

D)

The DNA assists in the synthesis of RNA molecules

View Answer
58) In which of the following reactions, the product obtained is chiral?

A)

\[C{{H}_{3}}COC{{H}_{3}}\xrightarrow{NaB{{H}_{4}}}\]

B)

\[C{{H}_{3}}COCl\xrightarrow{Resonmund\text{ }reduction}\]

C)

\[C{{H}_{3}}C{{H}_{2}}COC{{H}_{2}}C{{H}_{3}}\xrightarrow{Sn,\,HCl}\]

D)

\[C{{H}_{3}}C{{H}_{2}}COC{{H}_{3}}\xrightarrow{LiAl{{H}_{4}}}\]

View Answer
59) Which of the following compounds gives blood red colouration when its Lassaignes extract is treated with acid and ferric chloride?

A)

Thiourea

B)

Diphenyl sulphide

C)

Phenyl hydrazine

D)

Benzamide

View Answer
60) Which of the following statements is not correct?

A)

Allergic conditions are cured by anti-histamines

B)

Hormones are continuously produced but not stored in the body

C)

The function of the white blood cells is to protect the body against infections

D)

Catabolism involves degradation of molecules

View Answer
61) m-bromoaniline can be prepared by

A)

\[{{C}_{6}}{{H}_{6}}\xrightarrow[{{H}_{2}}S{{O}_{4}}]{HN{{O}_{3}}}\,\,\,\xrightarrow[2.\,\,NaOH,\,\,{{H}_{2}}O]{1.\,\,Sn-HCl}\xrightarrow[{{H}_{2}}O]{B{{r}_{2}}}\]

B)

\[{{C}_{6}}{{H}_{6}}\xrightarrow[FeB{{r}_{3}}]{B{{r}_{2}}}\,\xrightarrow[{{H}_{2}}S{{O}_{4}}]{HN{{O}_{3}}}\xrightarrow[Pt]{{{H}_{2}}}\]

C)

\[m-Br{{C}_{6}}{{H}_{4}}COOH\xrightarrow{SOC{{l}_{2}}}\xrightarrow{N{{H}_{3}}}\]\[\xrightarrow[{{H}^{+}}]{B{{r}_{2}},\,\,NaN{{H}_{2}}}\]

D)

\[{{C}_{6}}{{H}_{5}}N{{H}_{2}}\xrightarrow[C{{u}_{2}}B{{r}_{2}}]{NaN{{O}_{2}},HCl}\xrightarrow{NaN{{H}_{2}}}\]

View Answer
62) In the reaction below, X is Neo-pentyl alcohol \[\xrightarrow{{{H}_{2}}S{{O}_{4}}}\,\,X\]

A)

2-methylpentane

B)

2-methylpent-2-ene

C)

2-methylbut-2-ene

D)

neo-pentane

View Answer
63) The configuration of the chiral centre and the geometry of the double bond in the following molecule can be described by

A)

R and E

B)

S and E

C)

R and Z

D)

S and Z

View Answer
64) Which polymers occur naturally?

A)

Starch and nylon

B)

Starch and cellulose

C)

Proteins and nylon

D)

Proteins and PVC

View Answer
65) Calculate the work done when 1 mol of an ideal gas is compressed reversibly from 1.0 bar to 4.00 bar at a constant temperature of 300 K.

A)

4.01 kJ

B)

-8.02 kJ

C)

18.02 kJ

D)

-14.01 kJ

View Answer
66) The enthalpy of neutralisation of oxalic acid by a strong base is -25.4 kcal \[mo{{l}^{-1}}\]. The enthalpy of neutralisation of strong acid and strong base is -13.7 kcal \[equi{{v}^{-1}}\]. The enthalpy of dissociation of \[{{H}_{2}}{{C}_{2}}{{O}_{2}}\rightleftharpoons \,2{{H}^{+}}+{{C}_{2}}O_{4}^{2-}\] is

A)

1.0 kcal \[mo{{l}^{-1}}\]

B)

2.0 kcal \[mo{{l}^{-1}}\]

C)

18.55 kcal \[mo{{l}^{-1}}\]

D)

11.7 kcal \[mo{{l}^{-1}}\]

View Answer
67) At the equilibrium of the reaction\[2X(g)+Y(g)\xrightarrow{{}}{{X}_{2}}Y(g)\], the number of moles of \[{{X}_{2}}Y\]at equilibrium is affected by the

A)

temperature and pressure

B)

temperature only

C)

pressure only

D)

temperature, pressure and catalyst used

View Answer
68) For a first order reaction, the time required for 99.9% of the reaction to take place is nearly

A)

10 times that required for half of the reaction

B)

100 times that required for two-third of the reaction

C)

10 times that required for one-fourth of the reaction

D)

20 times that required for half of the reaction

View Answer
69) An endothermic reaction has a positive internal energy change AE. In such a case, what is the minimum value that the activation energy can have?

A)

\[\Delta E\]

B)

\[\Delta E=\Delta H+\Delta {{n}_{g}}RT\]

C)

\[\Delta E=\Delta H-\Delta {{n}_{g}}RT\]

D)

\[\Delta E={{E}_{a}}+RT\]

View Answer
70) A compound contains two types of atoms X and Y. It crystallizes in a cubic lattice with atoms X at the comers of the unit cell and atoms Y at the body centres. The simplest possible formula of this compound is

A)

\[{{X}_{3}}Y\]

B)

\[{{X}_{2}}Y\]

C)

\[XY\]

D)

\[X{{Y}_{8}}\]

View Answer
71) Which of the following halogens does not exhibit a positive oxidation number in its compounds?

A)

I

B)

Br

C)

\[Cl\]

D)

F

View Answer
72) Among the following, the strongest conjugate base is

A)

\[NO_{3}^{-}\]

B)

\[C{{l}^{-}}\]

C)

\[SO_{4}^{2-}\]

D)

\[C{{H}_{3}}CO{{O}^{-}}\]

View Answer
73) Determine the pH of the solution that results from the addition of 20.00 mL of 0.01 M\[Ca{{(OH)}_{2}}\] to \[30.00\,\,mL\] of 0.001 M HCl

A)

11.30

B)

10.53

C)

2.70

D)

8.35

View Answer
74) Adsorption is an exothermic process. The amount of substance adsorbed should

A)

increase with decrease in temperature

B)

increase with increase in temperature

C)

decrease with decrease in temperature

D)

decrease with increase in temperature

View Answer
75) Fog is a colloidal solution of

A)

liquid particles dispersed in gas

B)

gaseous particles dispersed in a liquid

C)

solid particles dispersed in a liquid

D)

solid particles dispersed in gas

View Answer
76) The correct set of quantum numbers for the unpaired electron of a chlorine atom is

A)

2, 0, 0, + 1/2

B)

2, 1, -1, +1/2

C)

3, 1, -1, \[\pm \] 1/2

D)

3, 0, 0, \[\pm \] ½

View Answer
77) The temperature at which real gases obey the ideal gas laws over a wide range of pressures is called

A)

critical temperature

B)

inversion temperature

C)

Boyle temperature

D)

reduced temperature

View Answer
78) Common salt obtained from sea-water contains 95% NaCI by mass. The approximate number of molecules present in 10.0 g of the salt is

A)

1021

B)

1022

C)

1023

D)

1024

View Answer
79) In the redox reaction, \[xKMn{{O}_{4}}+yN{{H}_{3}}\xrightarrow{{}}KN{{O}_{3}}+Mn{{O}_{2}}\]\[+KOH+{{H}_{2}}O\]x and y are

A)

\[x=4,\,y=6\]

B)

\[x=3,\,y=8\]

C)

\[x=8,\,y=6\]

D)

\[x=8,\,y=3\]

View Answer
80) Which of the following aqueous solutions has the highest boiling point?

A)

\[0.1\,M\,KN{{O}_{3}}\]

B)

\[0.1\,M\,N{{a}_{3}}P{{O}_{4}}\]

C)

\[0.1\,M\,BaC{{l}_{2}}\]

D)

\[0.1\,M\,{{K}_{2}}S{{O}_{4}}\]

View Answer
81) The values of electronegativity of atoms A and are 1.2 and 4.0 respectively. The per cent ionic character of the A - B bond is

A)

50%

B)

72.24%

C)

55.3%

D)

43%

View Answer
82) 100 mL of \[P{{H}_{3}}\] on heating forms P and \[{{H}_{2}}\], the volume change in the reaction is

A)

an increase of 50 mL

B)

an increase of 100 mL

C)

an increase of 150 mL

D)

a decrease of 50 mL

View Answer
83) The common features among the species\[C{{N}^{-}}\], CO and \[N{{O}^{+}}\] are

A)

bond order three and iso-electronic

B)

bond order three and weak-field ligands

C)

bond order two and \[\pi \]-acceptor

D)

iso-electronic and weak-field ligands

View Answer
84) The magnitude of crystal field stabilization energy (CFSE or A^) in tetrahedral complexes is considerably less than in the octahedral field, because

A)

there are only four ligands instead of six, so the ligand field is only 2/3 the size, hence the \[{{\Delta }_{t}}\] is only 2/3 the size

B)

the direction of the orbitals does not coincide with the direction of the ligands. This reduces the crystal field stabilisation energy \[({{\Delta }_{t}})\] by further 2/3

C)

both points a and b are correct

D)

both points a and b are wrong

View Answer
85) The role of phosphate in detergent powder is to

A)

control pH level of the detergent water mixture

B)

remove \[C{{a}^{2+}}\] and \[M{{g}^{2+}}\] ions from the water that causes the hardness of water

C)

provide whiteness to the fabrics

D)

form solid detergent as phosphate-less detergents are liquid in nature

View Answer
86) If \[{{I}_{2}}\] is dissolved in aqueous KI, the intense yellow species, \[I_{3}^{-}\], is formed. The structure of \[I_{3}^{-}\] ion is

A)

square pyramidal

B)

trigonal bipyramidal

C)

octahedral

D)

pentagonal bipyramidal

View Answer
87) In the change of ]^0+ to NO, the electron is added to the

A)

\[\sigma \] orbital

B)

\[\pi \] orbital

C)

\[{{\sigma }^{*}}\] orbital

D)

\[{{\pi }^{*}}\] orbital

View Answer
88) Iron has an oxidation number of +3, in which of the following compounds?

A)

\[Fe{{(N{{O}_{3}})}_{2}}\]

B)

\[Fe{{C}_{2}}{{O}_{4}}\]

C)

\[[Fe{{({{H}_{2}}O)}_{6}}]\,C{{l}_{3}}\]

D)

\[{{(N{{H}_{4}})}_{2}}S{{O}_{4}}\,\,FeS{{O}_{4}}\,\,6{{H}_{2}}O\]

View Answer
89) The expected spin-only magnetic moments for \[{{[Fe{{(CN)}_{6}}]}^{4-}}\] and \[{{[Fe{{F}_{6}}]}^{3-}}\] are

A)

1.73 and 1.73 BM

B)

1.73 and 5.92 BM

C)

0.0 and 1.73 BM

D)

0.0 and 5.92 BM

View Answer
90) The crystal field stabilization energy (CFSE) is the highest for

A)

\[{{[Co{{F}_{4}}]}^{2-}}\]

B)

\[{{[Co{{(NHS)}_{4}}]}^{2-}}\]

C)

\[{{[Co{{(N{{H}_{3}})}_{6}}]}^{3+}}\]

D)

\[{{[CoC{{l}_{4}}]}^{2-}}\]

View Answer
91) Which of the following reactions will not give the anhydrous\[AlC{{l}_{3}}\]?

A)

By heating \[AlC{{l}_{3}}\,\,6{{H}_{2}}O\]

B)

By passing dry \[HCl\] gas on heated aluminium powder

C)

By passing dry chlorine gas on heated aluminium powder

D)

By passing dry chlorine gas over a heated mixture of alumina and coke

View Answer
92) A metallic ion \[{{M}^{2+}}\]has an electronic configuration of 2, 8, 14 and the ionic weight is 56 u. The number of neutrons in its nucleus are

A)

30

B)

32

C)

34

D)

42

View Answer
93) Which of the following has the highest value of radioactivity?

A)

1 g of Ra

B)

1 g of Ra \[S{{O}_{4}}\]

C)

1 g of Ra \[B{{r}_{2}}\]

D)

1 g of Ra \[(HP{{O}_{4}})\]

View Answer
94) It is believed that atoms combine with each other such that the outermost shell acquires a stable configuration of 8 electrons. If stability were attained with 6 electrons rather than 8; what would be the formula of the stable fluoride ion?

A)

\[{{F}^{-}}\]

B)

\[{{F}^{+}}\]

C)

\[{{F}^{2+}}\]

D)

\[{{F}^{3+}}\]

View Answer
95) When two ice cubes are pressed over each other, they unite to form one cube. Which of the following forces is responsible to hold them together?

A)

Dipole forces

B)

van der Waals forces

C)

Covalent forces

D)

Hydrogen bond forces

View Answer
96) In which of the following reactions, there is no change in valency?

A)

\[S{{O}_{2}}+2{{H}_{2}}S\xrightarrow{{}}2{{H}_{2}}O+3S\]

B)

\[2Na+{{O}_{2}}\xrightarrow{{}}N{{a}_{2}}{{O}_{2}}\]

C)

\[N{{a}_{2}}O+{{H}_{2}}S{{O}_{4}}\xrightarrow{{}}N{{a}_{2}}S{{O}_{4}}+{{H}_{2}}{{O}_{2}}\]

D)

\[4KCl{{O}_{3}}\xrightarrow{{}}3KCl{{O}_{4}}+KCl\]

View Answer
97) If helium is allowed to expand in vacuum, it liberates heat because

A)

helium is an inert gas

B)

helium is an ideal gas

C)

the critical temperature of helium is very low

D)

helium is one of the lightest gases

View Answer
98) Compound A undergoes Cannizaro reaction and B undergoes positive iodoform test. Therefore,

A)

A = acetaldehyde B = 1-pentanal

B)

\[A={{C}_{6}}{{H}_{5}}C{{H}_{2}}CHO\] B = 3-pentanone

C)

A = formaldehyde B = 2-pentanone

D)

A = propionaldehyde B = 1-pentanol

View Answer
99) Arrange the following free radicals in order of decreasing stability Methyl (I), Vinyl (II), Allyl (III), Benzyl (IV)

A)

\[I>II>III>IV\]

B)

\[III>II>I>IV\]

C)

\[II>I>IV>III\]

D)

\[IV>III>I>II\]

View Answer
100) Which isomer of hexane has only two different sets of structurally equivalent hydrogen atoms?

A)

2,2-dimethylbutane

B)

2-methylpentane

C)

3-methylpentane

D)

2,3-dimethylbutane

View Answer
101) An example for symbiotic bacteria

A)

Erwinia amylovora

B)

Rhizobium leguminosarum

C)

Xanthomonas campestris

D)

Agrobacterium tumefaciens

View Answer
102) In which plant, the fruit is a drupe, seed coat is thin, embryo is inconspicuous and endosperm is edible?

A)

Groundnut

B)

Wheat

C)

Apple

D)

Coconut

View Answer
103) Somaclonal variation appears in plants

A)

growing in polluted soil or water

B)

exposed to gamma rays

C)

raised in tissue culture

D)

transformed by recombinant DNA technology

View Answer
104) In a monoecious plant

A)

male and female sex organs are on different individuals

B)

male and female gametes are of two morphologically distinct types

C)

male and female sex organs are on the same individual

D)

all the stamens are fused to form one unit

View Answer
105) Which one of the following are intracellular obligate parasites?

A)

Bacteria

B)

Viruses

C)

Slime moulds

D)

Blue-green algae

View Answer
106) Pineapple fruit develops from

A)

unilocular polycarpellary flower

B)

multipistillate syncarpus flower

C)

multilocular monocarpellary flower

D)

a cluster of compactly born flowers on an axis

View Answer
107) A sewage treatment process in which a part of decomposer bacteria present in the waste is recycled into the starting of the process is called

A)

cyclic treatment

B)

activated sludge treatment

C)

primary treatment

D)

tertiary treatment

View Answer
108) Which of following mineral-nutrients plays an important role in biological nitrogen fixation?

A)

Zinc

B)

Iron

C)

Molybdenum

D)

Magnesium

View Answer
109) Which of the following is true?

A)

Vessels are unicellular and with narrow lumen

B)

Vessels are multicellular and with wide lumen

C)

Tracheids are unicellular and with wide lumen

D)

Tracheids are multicellular and with arrow Lumen

View Answer
110) In \[{{C}_{4}}\] plants, the bundle sheath cells

A)

have thin walls to facilitate gaseous exchange

B)

have large intercellular spaces

C)

are rich in PEP carboxylase

D)

have a high density of chloroplasts

View Answer
111) Potato spindle tuber disease is caused by

A)

a nematode

B)

a virus

C)

a bacterium

D)

a viroid

View Answer
112) In which of the following, all listed genera belong to the same class of algae?

A)

Chara, Fucus, Polysiphonia

B)

Volvox, Spirogyra, Chlamydomonas

C)

Porphyra, Ectocarpus, Ulothrix

D)

Sargassum, Laminaria, Gracillaria

View Answer
113) In root nodules of legumes, leg-haemoglobin is important because

A)

it transports oxygen to the root nodule

B)

it acts as an oxygen scavenger

C)

it provides energy to the nitrogen fixing bacterium

D)

it acts as a catalyst in transamination

View Answer
114) Darwin judged the fitness of an individual by

A)

ability to defend itself

B)

strategy to obtain food

C)

number of offsprings

D)

dominance over other individuals

View Answer
115) Edolation in plants is caused when

A)

they are grown in dark

B)

they have mineral deficiency

C)

they are grown in intense light

D)

they are grown in blue light

View Answer
116) Calorie is the unit of

A)

sound

B)

temperature

C)

light

D)

heat

View Answer
117) In an annual ring, the light coloured part is known as

A)

early wood

B)

late wood

C)

heartwood

D)

sapwood

View Answer
118) The chief component of the middle lamella in plant cell is

A)

potassium

B)

calcium

C)

magnesium

D)

phosphorus

View Answer
119) Tonoplast is a membrane surrounding the

A)

cytoplasm

B)

vacuole

C)

nucleus

D)

mitochondria

View Answer
120) Polyploidy can be produced artificially by

A)

colchicine

B)

inbreeding

C)

line breeding

D)

self pollination

View Answer
121) Recombination is involved in the process of

A)

cytokinesis

B)

spindle formation

C)

crossing over

D)

chromosome duplication

View Answer
122) A fibrous root system is excellent for

A)

food storage

B)

nitrogen fixation

C)

absorbing water from deeper layer of soil

D)

providing good anchorage for the plant

View Answer
123) If a primary root continues to grow, the type of root system will be known as

A)

secondary

B)

fibrous

C)

tap

D)

stilt

View Answer
124) A horizontal underground stem is a

A)

conn

B)

phylloclade

C)

rhizome

D)

rhizoid

View Answer
125) If global warming continues, the organism which may face more severe threat is

A)

cow

B)

banana

C)

snow leopard

D)

dolphin

View Answer
126) One advantage of cleistogamy is

A)

it leads to greater genetic diversity

B)

seed dispersal is more efficient and widespread

C)

seed set is not dependent on pollinators

D)

each visit of a pollinator results in transfer of hundreds of pollen grains

View Answer
127) Jute fibres are obtained from the

A)

secondary phloem

B)

pith

C)

xylem

D)

endodermis

View Answer
128) A chromosome in which the centromere is situated close to its end so that one arm is very short and the other very long is

A)

acrocentric

B)

metacentric

C)

sub-metacentric

D)

telocentric

View Answer
129) Resin and turpentine are products of

A)

teak

B)

oak

C)

Eucalyptus

D)

pine

View Answer
130) An inexhaustible non-conventional universal source of energy is

A)

wind energy

B)

solar energy

C)

hydrothermal energy

D)

tidal energy

View Answer
131) Which one of the following periods is largely associated with extinction of dinosaurs and the increase in flowering plants and reptiles?

A)

Jurassic

B)

Triassic

C)

Cretaceous

D)

Permian

View Answer
132) Lime is added to the soil which is too

A)

sandy

B)

salty

C)

alkaline

D)

acidic

View Answer
133) Which type of water is used by the plants?

A)

Gravitational water

B)

Capillary water

C)

Hygroscopic water

D)

Bound water

View Answer
134) Electroporation involves

A)

promotion of seed germination by induced imbibition of water with electric current

B)

making transient pores in cell membrane to facilitate entry of gene constructs

C)

purification of saline water with the help of an artificial membrane

D)

passage of sucrose through sieve pores by electro-osmosis

View Answer
135) One of the following acts as secondary pollutant

A)

\[B{{r}_{2}}\]

B)

\[C{{l}_{2}}\]

C)

\[N{{O}_{2}}\]

D)

\[HN{{O}_{3}}\]

View Answer
136) Cuticle is absent in

A)

mesophytes

B)

young roots

C)

mature stems

D)

leaves

View Answer
137) Sunflower belongs to the family

A)

Liliaceae

B)

Asteraceae

C)

Cruciferae

D)

Fabaceac

View Answer
138) The least porous soil among the following is a

A)

loamy soil

B)

silty soil

C)

clayey soil

D)

peaty soil

View Answer
139) In higher plants, the shape of the chloroplast is

A)

discoid

B)

cup-shaped

C)

girdle-shaped

D)

reticulate

View Answer
140) Which of the following statements is false?

A)

TMV has a double-stranded RNA molecule

B)

Most plant viruses are RNA viruses

C)

The bacteriophage has a double-stranded DNA molecule

D)

Most animal viruses are DNA viruses

View Answer
141) A kingdom common to unicellular animals and plants is

A)

Monera

B)

Plantae

C)

Fungi

D)

Protista

View Answer
142) Which of the following is a rootless aquatic plant, in which a portion of the leaf forms a tiny sac for trapping insects?

A)

Nepenthes

B)

Drosera

C)

Utricularia

D)

Dionaea

View Answer
143) The greatest problem of water conservation is to reduce the amount of

A)

precipitation

B)

run-off water

C)

groundwater

D)

evaporation

View Answer
144) Enzymes that catalyse inter-conversion of optical, geometrical or positional isomers are

A)

ligases

B)

lyases

C)

hydrolases

D)

is omerases

View Answer
145) According to abiogenesis life originate from

A)

non-living

B)

pre-existing life

C)

chemicals

D)

extra-terrestrial matter

View Answer
146) External fertilization occurs in majority of

A)

algae

B)

fungi

C)

liverworts

D)

mosses

View Answer
147) The final stable community in ecological succession is

A)

pioneers

B)

sere

C)

climax

D)

carnivores

View Answer
148) Which of the following combinations of characters is true for slime moulds?

A)

Parasitic, plasmodium with true walls, spores dispersed by air currents

B)

Saprophytic, plasmodium without walls, spores dispersed by water

C)

Parasitic, plasmodium without walls, spores dispersed by water

D)

Saprophytic, plasmodium without walls, spores dispersed by air currents

View Answer
149) Which is an organic compound found in most cells?

A)

Glucose

B)

Water

C)

Sodium chloride

D)

Oxygen

View Answer
150) Taxonomic hierarchy refers to

A)

stepwise arrangement of all tegories for classification of plants and animal:

B)

a group of senior taxonomists who decide the nomenclature of plants and animals

C)

a list of botanists or zoologists who have worked on taxonomy of a species or group

D)

classification of a species based on fossil record

View Answer
151) Reproductive isolation between segments of a single population is termed

A)

sympatry

B)

allopatry

C)

population divergence

D)

disruptive divergence

View Answer
152) Steroid hormones easily pass through the plasma membrane by simple diffusion because they

A)

are water soluble

B)

contain carbon and hydrogen

C)

enter through pores

D)

are lipid soluble

View Answer
153) Industrial melanism is an example of

A)

defensive adaptation of skin against UV radiations

B)

drug resistance

C)

protective resemblance with the surrounding

D)

darkening of skin due to industries

View Answer
154) The larva of Bombyx mori is known as

A)

nymph

B)

trochophore

C)

cocoon

D)

caterpillar

View Answer
155) Ampullae of Lorenzini are present in

A)

fish

B)

lizard

C)

frog

D)

rabbit

View Answer
156) Which of the following is a viviparous fish?

A)

Exocoetus

B)

Gambusia

C)

Clarias

D)

Labeo

View Answer
157) Fluidity of bio-membranes can be shown by

A)

electron microscope

B)

tissue culture

C)

phase-contrast microscope

D)

fluorescence microscope

View Answer
158) The cutaneous plexus and the papillary plexus consist of

A)

a network of nerves to provide dermal sensation

B)

a network of arteries to provide dermal supply

C)

specialized cells for cutaneous sensations

D)

gland cells that release cutaneous secretions

View Answer
159) The function of vagus nerve innervating the heart is to

A)

initiate the heart beat

B)

reduce the heart beat

C)

accelerate the heart beat

D)

maintain constant heart beat

View Answer
160) The size of pupil is controlled by the

A)

ciliary muscles

B)

suspensory ligaments

C)

cornea

D)

iris muscles

View Answer
161) Largest single mass of lymphatic tissue in the body is

A)

lung

B)

spleen

C)

liver

D)

kidney

View Answer
162) HIV is classified as a retrovirus because its genetic information is carried in

A)

DNA instead of RNA

B)

DNA

C)

R.NA instead of DNA

D)

protein coat

View Answer
163) Lung tuberculosis is caused by

A)

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

B)

Mycobacterium tuberculosis

C)

Streptococcus pneumoniae

D)

Escherichia coli

View Answer
164) Vomiting centre is located in the

A)

stomach and sometimes in duodenum

B)

gastro-intestinal tract

C)

hypothalamus

D)

medulla oblongata

View Answer
165) Pellagra is caused by deficiency of

A)

pyridoxine

B)

niacin

C)

folic acid

D)

biotin

View Answer
166) Sickle cell anaemia is

A)

autosomal dominant inheritance

B)

X-linked recessive inheritance

C)

autosomal recessive inheritance

D)

X-linked dominant inheritance

View Answer
167) Skeletal muscles are controlled by

A)

sympathetic nerves

B)

parasympathetic nerves

C)

somatic nerves

D)

autonomic nerves

View Answer
168) Niche is defined as the

A)

position of species in a community in relation to other species

B)

place where organism lives

C)

place where organism lives and performs its duty

D)

place where population perform their duties

View Answer
169) Erythropoiesis starts in

A)

kidney

B)

liver

C)

spleen

D)

red bone marrow

View Answer
170) In an aquatic ecosystem, the trophic level equivalent to cows in grasslands is

A)

phytoplankton

B)

zooplankton

C)

nekton

D)

benthos

View Answer
171) Oxidative phosphorylation refers to

A)

anaerobic production of ATP

B)

the citric acid cycle production of ATP

C)

production of ATP by chemiosmosis

D)

alcoholic fermentation

View Answer
172) Centrum of 8th vertebra of frog is

A)

procoelous

B)

acoelous

C)

amphicoelous

D)

amphiplatyan

View Answer
173) Downs syndrome is due to

A)

linkage

B)

sex-linked inheritance

C)

crossing over

D)

non-disjunction of chromosome

View Answer
174) Which one of the following mammals is not an odd-toed ungulate?

A)

Rhinoceros

B)

Camel

C)

Zebra

D)

Horse

View Answer
175) All flat worms differ from all round worms in having

A)

triploblastic body

B)

solid mesodenn

C)

bilateral symmetry

D)

metamorphosis in the life history

View Answer
176) Deserts, grasslands, forests and tundra are the examples of

A)

biomes

B)

biogeographical regions

C)

ecosystems

D)

biospheres

View Answer
177) Standing on tip toe is an example of

A)

elevation

B)

flexion

C)

extension

D)

retraction

View Answer
178) Which of the following is a free living nitrogen fixing bacterium present in the soil?

A)

Nitrosomonas

B)

Rhizobium

C)

Assotobacter

D)

Pseudomonas

View Answer
179) Aedes aegypti is a vector for

A)

both dengue and yellow fever

B)

dengue fever

C)

yellow fever

D)

Japanese encephalitis

View Answer
180) Inadequate protein intake leads to kwashiorkor. The subsequent edema is most closely related to inadequate synthesis of which protein?

A)

Gamma globulin

B)

Glucagon

C)

Insulin

D)

Albumin

View Answer
181) The lock and key model of enzyme action illustrates that a particular enzyme molecule

A)

may be destroyed and resynthesised several times

B)

interacts with q specific type of substrate molecule

C)

reacts at identical rates under all conditions

D)

forms a permanent enzyme-substrate complex

View Answer
182) If the pituitary gland of an adult rat is surgically removed, which of the following endocrine glands will be less affected?

A)

Adrenal cortex

B)

Adrenal medulla

C)

Thyroid

D)

Gonads

View Answer
183) If one litre of water is introduced in human blood, then

A)

BMR increases

B)

RBC collapses and urine production increases

C)

RBC collapses and urine production decreases

D)

BMR decreases

View Answer
184) Beadle and Tatum showed that each kind of mutant bread mould they studied lacked a specific enzyme. Their experiments demonstrated that

A)

cells needs specific enzymes in order to function

B)

genes are made of DNA

C)

enzymes are required to repair damage

D)

genes carry information for making proteins

View Answer
185) mRNA directs the building of proteins through a sequence of

A)

exons

B)

introns

C)

codons

D)

anticodons

View Answer
186) Carbon dioxide is called green-house gas because it is

A)

used in green-house to increase plant growth

B)

transparent to heat but traps sunlight

C)

transparent to sunlight but traps heat

D)

transparent to both sunlight and heat

View Answer
187) The hormone that increases the blood calcium level and decreases its excretion by kidney is

A)

parathormone

B)

calcitonin

C)

thyroxine

D)

insulin

View Answer
188) Signaling between cells usually results in the activation of protein

A)

lipases

B)

kinases

C)

proteases

D)

nucleases

View Answer
189) Estrogen and testosterone are steroid hormones, and are most likely bind to

A)

membrane ions channels

B)

enzyme-linked membrane receptors

C)

G-protein linked membrane receptors

D)

cytoplasmic receptors

View Answer
190) Which of the following is unique to mitosis and not a part of meiosis?

A)

Homologous chromosomes behave independently

B)

Chromatids are separated during anaphase

C)

Homologous chromosomes pair and form bivalents

D)

Homologous chromosomes crossover

View Answer
191) Heating milk at \[{{65}^{o}}C\] followed by sudden cooling is known as

A)

sterilization

B)

preservation

C)

pasteurization

D)

fermentation

View Answer
192) Osteomalacia is due to deficiency of

A)

vitamin-A

B)

vitamin-C

C)

vitamin-E

D)

vitamin-D

View Answer
193) Which of the following hormones regulates growth and metamorphosis in insect?

A)

Juvenile hormone

B)

Brain hormone

C)

Ecdyson

D)

Prothoracicotropic hormone

View Answer
194) Glycosuria is the condition, where a man

A)

eats more sugar

B)

excretes sugar in urine

C)

sugar is excreted in faeces

D)

has low sugar level in blood

View Answer
195) Diploid cells have

A)

two chromosomes

B)

one set of chromosomes

C)

two pairs of homologous chromosomes

D)

two sets of chromosomes

View Answer
196) The anti-parallel nature of DNA refers to

A)

its charged phosphate groups

B)

the formation of hydrogen bonds between bases from opposite strands

C)

the opposite direction of the two strands

D)

the pairing of bases on one strand with bases on the other strand

View Answer
197) Mass extinction at the end of mesozoic era was probably due to

A)

continental drift

B)

the collision of earth with large meteorites

C)

massive glaciations

D)

change in earths orbit

View Answer
198) In hurdle race, which of the following is accumulated in the leg muscle?

A)

Performed ATP

B)

Glycolysis

C)

Lactate

D)

Oxidative metabolism

View Answer
199) Tachyglossus is a connecting link between

A)

reptiles and birds

B)

amphibians and reptiles

C)

birds and mammals

D)

reptiles and mammals

View Answer
200) The effectiveness of an enzyme is affected least by

A)

temperature

B)

concentration of the substrate

C)

original activation energy of the system

D)

concentration of the enzyme

View Answer