Solved papers for Haryana PMT Haryana PMT Solved Paper-2002

Haryana PMT Solved Paper-2002 Total Questions - 250

1) A body floats with one third of its volume outside water and three fourth of its volume. outside another liquid. The density of another liquid is:

A)

\[\frac{9}{4}gm/c{{m}^{3}}\]

B)

\[4.9\text{ }gm/c{{m}^{3}}\]

C)

\[\frac{8}{3}gm/c{{m}^{3}}\]

D)

\[\frac{3}{8}~gm/c{{m}^{3}}\]

View Answer
2) A tangential force F acts along the rim of a ring of radius R and displaces the ring through an angle \[\theta \]. The work done by the force is:

A)

\[F{{R}^{2}}\theta \]

B)

\[\frac{FR}{\theta }\]

C)

\[\frac{FR}{2}\theta \]

D)

\[FR\,\theta \]

View Answer
3) For a certain mass of gas the isothermal curves between P and V at \[{{T}_{1}}\] and \[{{T}_{2}}\] temperature are 1 and 2 as shown in fig. Then:

A)

\[{{T}_{1}}={{T}_{2}}\]

B)

\[{{T}_{1}}<{{T}_{2}}\]

C)

\[{{T}_{1}}>{{T}_{2}}\]

D)

nothing can be predicted

View Answer
4) In simple harmonic motion, when the    displacement is one half of the amplitude,           what fraction of the total energy is kinetic :

A)

zero

B)

\[\frac{1}{2}\]

C)

\[\frac{1}{4}\]

D)

\[\frac{3}{4}\]

View Answer
5) Two bodies M and N of equal masses are suspended from two separate massless          springs of spring constants \[{{k}_{1}}\] and \[{{k}_{2}}\]     respectively. If the two bodies oscillate                 vertically such that their maximum velocities             are equal, the ratio of the amplitude of                 vibrations of M to that of N is :

A)

\[\frac{{{k}_{1}}}{{{k}_{2}}}\]

B)

\[\sqrt{\frac{{{k}_{1}}}{{{k}_{2}}}}\]

C)

\[\frac{{{k}_{2}}}{{{k}_{1}}}\]

D)

\[\sqrt{\frac{{{k}_{2}}}{{{k}_{1}}}}\]

View Answer
6) The displacement time graph of a moving            particle is shown below. The instantaneous         velocities of the particle is negative at a point:

A)

A

B)

B

C)

C

D)

D

View Answer
7) A.10 kg mass moves 3.0 m against a retarding     force shown in fig. If the force is                                 zero at the begining. How much kinetic energy is changed ?

A)

+6J

B)

-6J

C)

12J

D)

-12J

View Answer
8) A reference frame attached to the earth :

A)

is an inertial frame by definition

B)

Cannot be an inertial frame because the              earth is revolving around the sun

C)

is an inertial frame because Newtons laws          are applicable in this frame

D)

Cannot be an inertial frame because the              earth is rotating about its own axis

View Answer
9) An iron piece fall from a height of 1 km on the ground. If all the energy is converted into heat the rise of temperature of the iron piece will be (specific heat of iron = 0.1 k cal/kg° C)

A)

\[0.233{}^\circ C\]

B)

\[2.33{}^\circ C\]

C)

\[23.8{}^\circ C\]

D)

\[233{}^\circ C\]

View Answer
10) The electrical cable of copper has just one wire of radius 9 mm its resistance is 10\[\Omega \]. This single copper wire is replaced by 3 different well insulated copper wires each of radius 3 mm. The total resistance of the cable will now be equal to :

A)

90 \[\Omega \]

B)

45 \[\Omega \]

C)

30 \[\Omega \]

D)

15 \[\Omega \]

View Answer
11) The distance between two consecutive crests in a wave train produced in string is 5 cm. If two complete waves pass through any point per second, the velocity of wave is:

A)

2.5 cm/s

B)

5 cm/sec

C)

10 cm/sec

D)

15 cm/sec

View Answer
12) A charged particle moves along the axis of a current carrying selenoid. It experience :

A)

an accelerating force

B)

a retarding force

C)

a radial force

D)

no force

View Answer
13) A straight section \[PQ\] of a circuit lies along x- axis at \[x=-\frac{a}{2}to\,x-+\frac{a}{2}\] and carries a steady current (\[i\]), the magnetic field due to section \[PQ\] at a point \[x=+a\] will be :

A)

proportional to \[a\]

B)

proportional to\[{{a}^{2}}\]

C)

proportional to \[\frac{1}{a}\]

D)

equal to zero

View Answer
14) A coil has induced en-if 0.5 V produced when     current is changing at the rate of 5 \[\text{A/s}\text{.}\] The      self-inductance of the coil is :

A)

0.1 H

B)

0.1 mH

C)

10 mH

D)

10H

View Answer
15) A part of circuit is shown in the given fig. The      wire A is a thick copper wire and wire B and C     are identical wires of manganin. The currents                in wires A, B, C will be respectively :

A)

1 A, 1A, 2A

B)

0, 2A, 2A

C)

2A, 0, 2A

D)

2A, 2A, 2A

View Answer
16) The magnifying power of compound      microscope is 32. If the magnifying power of       the objective is 8, then the magnifying power           of the eye peice is :

A)

4

B)

16

C)

24

D)

80

View Answer
17) The large aperture of objective of reflecting telescope is used to get:

A)

least spherical aberration

B)

high resolving power

C)

low dispersive power

D)

high magnification

View Answer
18) The focal length of the objective of a      compound microscope is 2 cm and that of eye peice of microscope is 5 cm. These two lenses             are separated by a distance of 25 cm. when        the microscope is focused for the minimum                 distance of distinct vision, the magnification        will be :

A)

5

B)

30

C)

56.5

D)

125

View Answer
19) The magnifying power of an astronomical            telescope for normal vision with usual notations is :

A)

\[\frac{fo}{fe}\]

B)

\[-fo\times fe\]

C)

\[\frac{-fe}{fo}\]

D)

\[-fo+fe\]

View Answer
20) On making grid voltage more negative the           plate resistance \[{{R}_{p}}:\]

A)

increases

B)

decreases

C)

does not change

D)

changes erratically

View Answer
21) If the pressure amplitude in sound wave is          tripled, then the intensity of sound is     increased by a factor of :

A)

3

B)

6

C)

9

D)

\[\sqrt{3}\]

View Answer
22) A long cylindrical copper rod carries a direct current, the magnetic field associated with the rod will be :

A)

inside the rod only

B)

outside the rod only

C)

both inside and outside

D)

neither inside nor outside the rod

View Answer
23) The moment of inertia of two equal masses        each of mass m at seperation \[L\] connected    by a rod of mass \[M\], about an axis passing       through centre and perpendicular to length of rod is :

A)

\[\frac{(m+3m){{L}^{2}}}{12}\]

B)

\[\frac{(M+6m){{L}^{2}}}{12}\]

C)

\[\frac{M{{L}^{2}}}{4}\]

D)

\[\frac{M{{L}^{2}}}{12}\]

View Answer
24) The escape velocity from a spherical planet is     \[{{u}_{es.}}\]What is the escape velocity            corresponding to another planet of twice the        radius and half the mean density ?

A)

\[\sqrt{2}{{u}_{es.}}\]

B)

\[\frac{{{u}_{es}}}{\sqrt{2}}\]

C)

\[2{{u}_{es}}\]

D)

\[{{4}_{ue}}\]

View Answer
25) The angle between the two following vectors    is : \[\text{\vec{A}=3\vec{j}+4\vec{j}+5\vec{k},}\,\text{\vec{B}=3\vec{j}+4\vec{j}+5\vec{k}:}\]

A)

\[90{}^\circ \]

B)

\[0{}^\circ \]

C)

\[180{}^\circ \]

D)

\[45{}^\circ \]

View Answer
26) Four identical pieces of copper are painted with different types of paints. Which one would you expect to lose heat most rapidly, if these are all heated to same temperature and allowed to cool in vacuum?

A)

painted rough black

B)

painted rough white

C)

painted shiny white

D)

painted shiny black

View Answer
27) A wire of length \[L\] carries a current \[I.\] it is                 bent in the form of a circle. The magnetic             moment of current loop (in amp-m ) is :

A)

\[\frac{I{{L}^{2}}}{4{{\pi }^{2}}}\]

B)

\[I\pi {{L}^{2}}\]

C)

\[\frac{I{{L}^{2}}}{4\pi }\]

D)

\[4\pi I{{L}^{2}}\]

View Answer
28) In an atom bomb, a temperature of about 10     million degrees is developed at the moment      of explosion. In what region of the spectrum do the wavelength corresponding to      maximum energy density lie if the light source is in the atom bomb?

A)

ultravoilet region

B)

visible region

C)

infrared region

D)

X-ray region

View Answer
29) The more rapidly fissionable isotope of curanium has an atomic mass of :

A)

234

B)

235

C)

236

D)

238

View Answer
30) Wave of frequency 100 Hz travels along a string towards its fixed end. When this wave travels back, after reflection a node is formed at a distance of 10 cm from the fixed end. The speed of the wave (incident and reflected) is :

A)

5 m/s

B)

10 m/s

C)

20 m/s

D)

40 m/s

View Answer
31) In Youngs double slit experiment, the slits are    0.5 mm apart and interference pattern is observed on a screen placed at a distance of 1m from the place containing the slits. If wavelength of the incident light is \[6000\overset{\text{o}}{\mathop{\text{A}}}\,\] then the separation between the third bright fringe and central maxima is :

A)

4mm

B)

3.6 mm

C)

3 mm

D)

2.5 mm

View Answer
32) The part of a transistor, which is heavily                doped to produce a large number of majority    carriers is :

A)

base

B)

emitter

C)

collector

D)

none of these

View Answer
33) The least count of an instrument is 0.01 cm.        Taking all precautions, the most probable             error in the measurement can be :

A)

0.005 cm

B)

0.01 cm

C)

0.05 cm

D)

0.02 cm

View Answer
34) The time period of a mass spring system having mass 2.5 kg and spring of. Force               constant 10 N/m, is :

A)

\[\pi \]

B)

2\[\pi \]

C)

4\[\pi \]

D)

8\[\pi \]

View Answer
35) A particle of mass 50 g executes SHM with a        time period of 0.18 sec. The amplitude of             vibration is 10 cm, the maximum force on the particle is around :

A)

10 N

B)

6 N

C)

30 N

D)

35 N

View Answer
36) A Youngs double slit setup for interference is shifted from air to within water, then the fringe width :

A)

becomes infinite

B)

decreases

C)

increases

D)

remains unchanged

View Answer
37) The absolute temperature of a gas is      increased 3 times. The root mean square             velocity of the molecules will become :

A)

3 times

B)

9 times

C)

\[\frac{1}{3}\] times

D)

\[\sqrt{3}\] times

View Answer
38) The position \[x\] of a particle varies with time \[t\,as\,x=a{{t}^{2}}-b{{t}^{3}}.\]The acceleration of the                 particle will be zero at time ( equal to :

A)

\[\frac{2a}{3b}\]

B)

\[\frac{1}{b}\]

C)

\[\frac{a}{3b}\]

D)

\[0\]

View Answer
39) A bucket has oil of relative density 1.2 up to a     height of 3 cm. On top of the oil there is a            water column of height of 10 cm. If the    relative density of mercury is 13.6, the pressure at the bottom of the beaker is :

A)

1 cm of Hg

B)

5 cm of Hg

C)

13 cm of Hg

D)

15 cm of Hg

View Answer
40) The moselay law is :

A)

\[{{u}^{2}}=z(a-b)\]

B)

\[{{u}^{{}}}=\sqrt{a}z\]

C)

\[u=a{{(z-a)}^{2}}\]

D)

\[\sqrt{u}=a(z-b)\]

View Answer
41) The mean distance of jupiter from the sun is      nearly 5.2 times the corresponding earth-sun     distance. According to Kepler? law, the               period of revolution of Jupiter in its orbit will      be :

A)

5 year

B)

7.5 year

C)

12 year

D)

25 year

View Answer
42) The equation of a transverse wave is given by    \[y\] = 20 sin\[\pi \] (\[0.02x-2t\]) where \[x\] and \[y\] are        in cms and \[t\] is in seconds. The wavelength in cm will be :

A)

90

B)

100

C)

200

D)

5

View Answer
43) A proton and an \[\alpha \] particle enter a uniform magnetic field with the same velocities. The time period of rotation of \[\alpha \] -particle will be :

A)

two times as that of proton

B)

half as that of proton

C)

four times as that of proton

D)

same as that of proton

View Answer
44) If 2 % of the main current is to be passed              through the galvanometer of resistance G,          the resistance of the shunt required is :

A)

\[\frac{G}{49}\]

B)

\[\frac{G}{50}\]

C)

\[49\,G\]

D)

\[50\,G\]

View Answer
45) The wire of a potentiometer has a resistance     20 and length 10 m. A battery of emf 3V is            connected across the wire. The potential          gradient is :

A)

0.3 V/m

B)

0.03 V/m

C)

3V/m

D)

6 V/m

View Answer
46) Core of transformer is made laminated to :

A)

increase permeability

B)

increase power

C)

increase sensitivity

D)

avoid eddy current loss

View Answer
47) The velocity-time graph of a moving particle is shown in fig. The acceleration is maximum for    part :

A)

AB

B)

BC

C)

CD

D)

equal for all parts

View Answer
48) The diameter of the objective of the telescope is 0.1 m and the wavelength of the light is \[6000\overset{\text{o}}{\mathop{\text{A}}}\,\]. Resolving limit of the telescope will be :

A)

\[6\times {{10}^{-5}}rad\]

B)

\[6\times {{10}^{-4}}rad\]

C)

\[6\times {{10}^{-3}}rad\]

D)

\[6\times {{10}^{-6}}rad\]

View Answer
49) The half-life of radium is 1620 year and its            atomic weight is 226 gm/mole. The number of atoms that will decay from its 1g sample per second is :

A)

\[3.61\times {{10}^{10}}\]

B)

\[3.6\times {{10}^{12}}\]

C)

\[3.1\times {{10}^{15}}\]

D)

\[31.1\times {{10}^{15}}\]

View Answer
50) If the coefficient of linear expansion of a solid    is 0.00009. Its coefficient of volume expansion is :

A)

0.009

B)

0.02

C)

0.03

D)

0.00027

View Answer
51) Which of the following is most stable among \[C{{u}^{+}},F{{e}^{+}},F{{e}^{2+}}\]and \[F{{e}^{3+}}\]?

A)

\[C{{u}^{+}}\]

B)

\[F{{e}^{+}}\]

C)

\[F{{e}^{2+}}\]

D)

\[F{{e}^{3+}}\]

View Answer
52) In the ground state of phosphorus total number of unpaired electrons are:

A)

\[3\]

B)

\[5\]

C)

\[8\]

D)

\[9\]

View Answer
53) \[H-O-H\]bond angle in \[{{H}_{2}}O\] is \[{{104.5}^{o}}\]and not \[{{109}^{o}}28\] because of:

A)

lone pair-lone pair repulsion

B)

lone pair-bond pair repulsion

C)

bond pair-bond pair repulsion

D)

high electronegativity of oxygen

View Answer
54) Oxidation state of \[I\] in \[{{H}_{4}}IO_{6}^{-}\] is:

A)

\[-1\]

B)

\[+5\]

C)

\[+6\]

D)

\[+7\]

View Answer
55) Hard water is not fit for washing clothes because:

A)

it contains impurities

B)

it is acidic in nature

C)

it gives precipitate with soap

D)

it contains \[N{{a}_{2}}S{{O}_{4}}\] and \[KCl\]

View Answer
56) The half life of a radioactive isotope is 2.5 our. If the initial mass of the isotope was 16 g, the mass of it remain undecayed after 10 hours will be:

A)

\[32g\]

B)

\[4g\]

C)

\[16g\]

D)

\[1g\]

View Answer
57) Total number of unpaired electrons in \[{{O}_{2}}\] molecule is:

A)

\[0\]

B)

\[1\]

C)

\[2\]

D)

\[3\]

View Answer
58) Conjugate acid of \[{{S}_{2}}{{O}_{8}}^{2-}\] is:

A)

\[{{H}_{2}}{{S}_{2}}{{O}_{8}}\]

B)

\[{{H}_{2}}S{{O}_{4}}\]

C)

\[{{H}_{2}}{{S}_{2}}O_{8}^{-}\]

D)

\[HSO_{_{4}}^{-}\]

View Answer
59) Which of the following element exhibit maximum valency?

A)

\[Cu\]

B)

\[Os\]

C)

\[Pt\]

D)

\[Cs\]

View Answer
60) Which of the following contains maximum ionic radius?

A)

\[{{C}^{4-}}\]

B)

\[{{C}^{3-}}\]

C)

\[{{O}^{2-}}\]

D)

\[M{{g}^{2+}}\]

View Answer
61) Which of the following represents isoelectronic sequence?

A)

\[N,\,O,\,F,\,Ne\]

B)

\[N{{a}^{+}},M{{n}^{2+}},A{{l}^{3+}},S{{i}^{4+}}\]

C)

\[C{{l}^{-}},Ar,C{{a}^{2+}},T{{i}^{4+}}\]

D)

\[Be,M{{g}^{2+}},Ca,S{{i}^{2+}}\]

View Answer
62) The indicator used in the titration of oxalic acid and sodium hydroxide is :

A)

phenolphthalein

B)

methyl orange

C)

methyl red

D)

ammonium hydroxide

View Answer
63) Nitrogen molecule is chemically less active because of the presence of....... between two nitrogen atoms:

A)

single bond

B)

double bond

C)

triple bond

D)

coordinate bond

View Answer
64) To dissolve argentite ore which of the following is used:

A)

\[Na[Ag{{(CN)}_{2}}]\]

B)

\[NaCN\]

C)

\[NaCl\]

D)

\[NaCl\]

View Answer
65) When \[{{H}_{2}}S\] gas is passed through an acidified solution of ...... yellow precipitate is formed?

A)

Curious

B)

\[C{{d}^{2+}}\]ions

C)

\[N{{i}^{2+}}\]ions

D)

Copious

View Answer
66) Which of the following has same number of electrons as in \[C{{a}^{2+}}\]ion?

A)

\[C{{u}^{2+}}\]

B)

\[{{C}_{2}}{{H}_{6}}\]

C)

\[Ne\]

D)

\[M{{g}^{2+}}\]

View Answer
67) Which of the following have highest melting point?

A)

\[NaCl\]

B)

\[NaI\]

C)

\[NaBr\]

D)

\[NaF\]

View Answer
68) Which of the following is not an acid anhydride?

A)

\[C{{O}_{2}}\]

B)

\[CO\]

C)

\[S{{O}_{2}}\]

D)

\[S{{O}_{3}}\]

View Answer
69) \[{{H}_{2}}S\] is more acidic than \[{{H}_{2}}O\] because:

A)

atomic number of sulphur is greater than that of oxygen

B)

oxygen is more electronegative than sulphur

C)

\[H-S\] bond is weaker than \[H-O\] bond

D)

\[H-O\]bond is weaker than \[H-S\] bond

View Answer
70) Which of the following halide of calcium is insoluble in water?

A)

\[CaC{{l}_{2}}\]

B)

\[Ca{{l}_{2}}\]

C)

\[Ca{{F}_{2}}\]

D)

\[CaB{{r}_{2}}\]

View Answer
71) Which of the following sulphur containing species can not act as oxidising agent?

A)

\[{{H}_{2}}S\]

B)

\[{{H}_{2}}S{{O}_{4}}\]

C)

\[S{{O}_{2}}\]

D)

\[{{H}_{2}}S{{O}_{3}}\]

View Answer
72) Compared to the mass of lightest nucleus mass an electron is only:

A)

\[1/80\]

B)

\[1/1800\]

C)

\[1/800\]

D)

\[1/1000\]

View Answer
73) Decreasing order of s-character is \[sp,s{{p}^{2}},s{{p}^{3}}\]-hybrid orbitals:

A)

\[s{{p}^{3}}>s{{p}^{2}}>sp\]

B)

\[sp>s{{p}^{2}}>s{{p}^{3}}\]

C)

\[s{{p}^{3}}>sp>s{{p}^{2}}\]

D)

\[s{{p}^{2}}>sp>s{{p}^{3}}\]

View Answer
74) Silver mirror test is given by:

A)

propanone

B)

propane

C)

propanal

D)

propanol

View Answer
75) Total number of isomers for \[{{C}_{8}}{{H}_{8}}{{O}_{2}}\] will be:

A)

\[2\]

B)

\[3\]

C)

\[4\]

D)

\[5\]

View Answer
76) Aniline on heating with solid \[KOH\] and \[C{{S}_{2}}\] produced:

A)

thiourea

B)

phenol

C)

S-diphenyl thiourea

D)

Schiffs base

View Answer
77) Common name of phosgene is:

A)

carbon tetrachloride

B)

phosphoryl chloride

C)

carbonyl chloride

D)

phosphorus tri chloride

View Answer
78) Which of the following is the strongest acid:

A)

formic acid

B)

acetic acid

C)

trichloroacetic acid

D)

trifluoroacefic acid

View Answer
79) Identify (Y) in the series: \[CH\equiv CH\xrightarrow{{{O}_{3}}/NaOH}(X)\xrightarrow{Zn/C{{H}_{3}}COOH}(Y)\]

A)

\[C{{H}_{3}}OH\]

B)

\[C{{H}_{3}}C{{H}_{2}}COOH\]

C)

\[C{{H}_{3}}C{{H}_{2}}COOH\]

D)

\[C{{H}_{2}}OH-C{{H}_{2}}OH\]

View Answer
80) Which of the following can be sulphonated easily?

A)

Benzene

B)

Toluene

C)

Nitrobenzene

D)

Chlorobenzene

View Answer
81) Benzene diazonium chloride on treatment with hypo phosphorus acid and water in presence of \[C{{u}^{+}}\] catalyst produces :

A)

benzene

B)

toluene

C)

aniline

D)

chlorobenzene

View Answer
82) Butene-1 is isomeric with 2-methyl propene. They can be distinguished by:

A)

\[B{{r}_{2}}\] solution

B)

Tollens reagent

C)

Baeyers reagent

D)

\[{{O}_{3}},{{H}_{2}}O/Zn\]

View Answer
83) Ethyl alcohol exhibits acidic nature on reaction with:

A)

acidic \[{{K}_{2}}C{{r}_{2}}{{O}_{7}}\]

B)

sodium metal

C)

\[HCl\]

D)

\[C{{H}_{3}}COOH\]

View Answer
84) Which of the following cannot be nitrated directly?

A)

aniline

B)

phenol

C)

toluene

D)

benzoic acid

View Answer
85) Adipic acid on heating form:

A)

B)

C)

D)

View Answer
86) The ratio of carbon, hydrogen and oxygen in 2-methyl benzoic acid is:

A)

\[4:2:2\]

B)

\[2:4:1\]

C)

\[4:4:1\]

D)

\[4:4:2\]

View Answer
87) Beckmann thermometer is used for measuring:

A)

boiling point

B)

freezing point

C)

both a and b

D)

elevation in BP or depression in FP

View Answer
88) An equilibrium mixture of the reaction \[2N{{O}_{(g)}}+{{O}_{2(g)}}\] \[2N{{O}_{2}}_{(g)}\] contains \[0.12moles\]of\[N{{O}_{2}}\], \[0.08moles\]of \[NO\]and \[0.64\text{ }moles\]of \[{{O}_{2}}\] in a 4 litre flask at constant    temperature. The value of \[{{K}_{c}}\] this    temperature is:

A)

\[7\]

B)

\[14\]

C)

\[28\]

D)

\[24\]

View Answer
89) A solution of \[NaCl\] in contact with     atmosphere has pH of about:

A)

\[3.2\]

B)

\[5.4\]

C)

\[7\]

D)

\[14\]

View Answer
90) A \[0.01M\]ammonia solution is 5% ionised. , Its pH will be:

A)

\[11.80\]

B)

\[10.69\]

C)

\[7.22\]

D)

\[12.24\]

View Answer
91) Equal volumes of \[0.02M\,CaC{{l}_{2}}\]and \[0.0004M\] \[N{{a}_{2}}S{{O}_{4}}\]are mixed. If \[{{K}_{sp}}\] for\[CaS{{O}_{4}}=2.4\times {{10}^{-5}}\], whether there would be any precipitation?

A)

Yes

B)

No

C)

Unpredictable

D)

None of these

View Answer
92) If the vapour pressure of pure solvent is \[{{P}_{0}}\] and the vapour pressure of dilute solution of non-volatile solute is P, then the lowering in vapour pressure is:

A)

\[+ve\]

B)

\[-ve\]

C)

\[P/{{P}_{0}}\]

D)

\[{{P}_{0}}/P\]

View Answer
93) If \[\Delta H\] is the change in enthalpy and \[\Delta E\] is the change in internal energy, then:

A)

\[\Delta H<\Delta E\], only if the number of moles of gaseous products is greater than the number of moles of gaseous reactants

B)

\[\Delta H<\Delta E\], only if the number of moles of gaseous products is less than the number of moles of gaseous reactants

C)

\[\Delta H\] is always greater than \[\Delta E\]

D)

\[\Delta H\] is always less than \[\Delta E\]

View Answer
94) If the concentration of \[M{{g}^{2+}}\] is \[0.01M\], the electrode potential of \[M{{g}^{2+}}/Mg\]electrode will be (Given that \[{{E}^{o}}M{{g}^{2+}},\,Mg=-2.36V\]):

A)

\[+2.80\]

B)

\[-2.80\]

C)

\[4-2.41\]

D)

\[-2.41\]

View Answer
95) The rate of a chemical reaction doubles for every \[{{10}^{o}}C\]increase in temperature, if the temperature of reaction is-increased from \[{{30}^{o}}C\]to \[{{80}^{o}}C\]. The rate of reaction increases:

A)

\[16\]

B)

\[32\]

C)

\[64\]

D)

\[4\]

View Answer
96) A chemical system is in equilibrium. The addition of a catalyst would result is:

A)

increase the amount of heat evolved in the reaction

B)

a new reaction pathway to reaction

C)

increase in the rate of reverse reaction

D)

increase in the rate of forward reaction

View Answer
97) Number of moles occupied by \[22.4\text{ }litres\]of \[He\] gas at \[{{30}^{o}}C\]and one atmospheric pressure are:

A)

\[0.20\]

B)

\[1.46\]

C)

\[0.90\]

D)

\[2.62\]

View Answer
98) What maximum amount of \[BaS{{O}_{4}}\] get precipitated if \[0.5mole\]of \[BaC{{l}_{2}}\] is mixed with \[1\text{ }mole\]of \[{{H}_{2}}S{{O}_{4}}\]?

A)

\[0.5\text{ }mol\]

B)

\[1.0\text{ }mol\]

C)

\[1.5\text{ }mol\]

D)

\[2.0\text{ }mol\]

View Answer
99) Sodium metal crystallises at room temperature in a body centered cubic lattice with a cell edge \[a=4.29\overset{\text{o}}{\mathop{\text{A}}}\,\]. The radius of sodium atom is:

A)

\[1.40\]

B)

\[2.65\]

C)

\[1.85\]

D)

\[2.15\]

View Answer
100) The half life of a radioactive element is \[3.8\] days. The time at the end of which 1/20th of     the element will remain undecayed will be:

A)

\[36\text{ }day\]

B)

\[12.86\text{ }day\]

C)

\[24.20\text{ }day\]

D)

\[16.40\]

View Answer
101) Which of the following is a retrovirus?

A)

TMV

B)

HIV

C)

\[{{T}_{2}}-\]phage

D)

\[{{T}_{4}}-\]phage

View Answer
102) PCR can be used for :

A)

DNA amplification

B)

DNA cloning

C)

Point mutation-in DNA

D)

all of these

View Answer
103) On the basis of Human Genome Project report; human genome contains :

A)

30,000 genes

B)

1,00,000 genes

C)

60,000 genes

D)

5,000 genes

View Answer
104) YACs means :

A)

Yeast allanine complexes

B)

Yeast artificial chromosomes

C)

Yeast articulated computer

D)

Yeast amplified syndrome

View Answer
105) The DNA of Ti-plasmid which is obtained from Agrobacterium tumefaciens is used in genetic engineering this DNA is also called :

A)

A-DNA

B)

B-DNA

C)

Z-DNA

D)

T-DNA

View Answer
106) PCR is:

A)

polymerase chain reaction

B)

polycarboxylic reaction

C)

Polynucleotide carbon reagent

D)

none of these

View Answer
107) DNA sequencing can be achieved by which of the following method ?

A)

Dideoxynucleotide chain termination method of Sanger

B)

Chemical degradation method of Maxum and Gilbert

C)

Western blotting method

D)

Both (a) and (b) both

View Answer
108) Ribosomal RNA of eukaryotic cell is transcribed in the nucleolus with the help of enzyme :

A)

RNA polymerase-I

B)

RNA polymerase-II

C)

RNA polymerase-III

D)

DNA polymerase

View Answer
109) Bt-cotton is a transgenic variety which is resistant to herbicide and pesticides due to presence of protoxin protein the genes of this toxic protein has taken from :

A)

Bacillus thuringinesis

B)

Bacillus thennophillus

C)

Bacillus thermophillus

D)

Therinophillus aquaticus

View Answer
110) During transcription RNA polymerase enzyme binds at :

A)

reulator genes

B)

promoter genes

C)

operator genes

D)

structural genes

View Answer
111) Jntrpns and exons are present in the genome of:

A)

bacteria

B)

mycoplasma

C)

yeast

D)

blue-green algae

View Answer
112) The helix of z-DNA is :

A)

right handed

B)

left handed

C)

parallel

D)

single stranded

View Answer
113) Chipko Movement is worlds most known eco development programme started by Sunder Lal Bahuguna (1973). It is related with:

A)

conservation of forests

B)

afforestation

C)

planting

D)

population

View Answer
114) Select the psychedelic drug :

A)

LSD

B)

marijuana

C)

bhang

D)

all of these

View Answer
115) Kranz anatomy is found in :

A)

leaves of \[{{C}_{3}}\] plants

B)

leaves of \[{{C}_{4}}\]plants

C)

stems of \[{{C}_{3}}\]plants

D)

stems of \[{{C}_{3}}\]plants

View Answer
116) \[{{C}_{40}}{{H}_{56}}\] is the empirical formula of :

A)

carotene

B)

chlorophyll-b

C)

xanthophyll

D)

anthocyanin

View Answer
117) The carbondioxide acceptor in \[{{C}_{3}}\]plants is :

A)

ribulose 1, 5-diphosphate (RuBP)

B)

phosphoenol pyruvate (PEP)

C)

phosphoglyceric acid(PGA)

D)

ribulose monophosphate (RuMP)

View Answer
118) Blood pressure is measured by :

A)

electro-cardiogram

B)

stethoscope

C)

phono-cardiogram

D)

sphygmomanometer

View Answer
119) Anaemia is due to deficiency of :

A)

Mg

B)

Ca

C)

Fe

D)

P

View Answer
120) Which one is the most infectious disease ?

A)

AIDS

B)

Hepatitis-B

C)

Malaria

D)

Cough and cold

View Answer
121) Which of the following is a bacterial disease ?

A)

Leprosy

B)

Diabetes

C)

Scurvy

D)

Measles

View Answer
122) Population whose members reproduce sexually are termed as :

A)

panimictic

B)

Ecotype

C)

apomitic

D)

amphimictic

View Answer
123) Genetically adapted population to a particular habitat is :

A)

Ecotone

B)

Ecotype

C)

Ecosphere

D)

Ecology

View Answer
124) Niche of a species in an ecosystem refers to :

A)

centre of origin

B)

competitive ability

C)

place of its occurrence

D)

function at its place of occurrence

View Answer
125) Zonula adherens is another name for :

A)

desmosome

B)

mesosomes

C)

gap junction

D)

terminal bars

View Answer
126) Who gave the electron microscopic structure of chloroplast ?

A)

Mayer

B)

Menke

C)

Michaelis

D)

Meves

View Answer
127) Respiratory quotient of mixed diet is :

A)

0.25

B)

0.85

C)

0.7

D)

1.5

View Answer
128) Measurement of rate of \[{{O}_{2}}\] utilisation by a unit volume of water over a period of time is to measure :

A)

fermentation

B)

bio-gas generation

C)

bio-synthetic pathway

D)

biological oxygen demand

View Answer
129) Increasing skin cancer and high mutation nate are due to :

A)

Co-pollution

B)

\[C{{O}_{2}}\]pollution

C)

Ozone depletion

D)

Acid rain

View Answer
130) Chemical fertilizers pollute :

A)

water resources

B)

soil resources

C)

both water and soil resources

D)

neither water nor soil resources

View Answer
131) Which one is present in the roots of legumes ?

A)

Rhizobium

B)

Nostoc

C)

Anabaena

D)

Azospirillum

View Answer
132) A green manure is :

A)

Sesbania

B)

Wheat

C)

Maize

D)

Rice

View Answer
133) An \[R{{h}^{-}}\] in dividual receives \[R{{h}^{+}}\] blood. The recipient becomes :

A)

sterile

B)

dead

C)

no reaction

D)

iso-immunised

View Answer
134) ADH controls water permeability of :

A)

collecting tube

B)

proximal convoluted tubules

C)

distal convoluted tubules

D)

all of these

View Answer
135) Part of body having a single pair of bones :

A)

vertebral column

B)

pelvic girdle

C)

femur

D)

pectoral girdle

View Answer
136) A dihybrid ratio of 1 : 4 : 6 : 4 :1 is obtained instead of 9 :3 :3 :1. This is an example of:

A)

supplementary genes

B)

complementary genes

C)

polygenic inheritance

D)

pleiotropic genes

View Answer
137) A pleiotropic gene is one which :

A)

affects more than one character

B)

affects one character

C)

supplements the effect of another gene

D)

requires another gene for expression

View Answer
138) In which of the following is 2000 times sweeter than sucrose ?

A)

Fructose

B)

Glucose

C)

Monellin

D)

Auspartane

View Answer
139) The basic unit of chitin is :

A)

N-acetyl glucosamine

B)

glucose

C)

galactose

D)

fructose

View Answer
140) Enzymes are absent in :

A)

algae

B)

plants

C)

virus

D)

bacteria

View Answer
141) Vinegar is prepared from alcohol with the help of :

A)

Azotobacter

B)

Lactobacillus

C)

Rhizobhium

D)

Acetobacter

View Answer
142) Fermentation of sugar to yield alcohol is carried out by :

A)

zymase

B)

micro-organisms

C)

decomposition of sugar

D)

raised temperature

View Answer
143) Interferon is a glycoprotein which is an :

A)

anti-bacterial

B)

anti-viral

C)

bacterium

D)

anti-animal cell

View Answer
144) Bio-gas contains :

A)

\[C{{H}_{4}},\text{ }S{{O}_{2}},\text{ }{{H}_{2}}\]

B)

\[C{{O}_{2}},\text{ }{{C}_{2}}{{H}_{5}}OH,\text{ }{{H}_{2}}\]

C)

\[C{{H}_{4}},\text{ }C{{O}_{2}},\text{ }{{H}_{2}}\]

D)

\[{{C}_{2}}{{H}_{6}}CO,\text{ }{{H}_{2}}\]

View Answer
145) Petroleum can be replaced by :

A)

propanol

B)

ethanol

C)

lactic acid

D)

acetic acid

View Answer
146) Fuel wood required per person per day is :

A)

30 Kg

B)

3 Kg

C)

4 Kg

D)

5 Kg

View Answer
147) Gasohal contains :

A)

10-15% alcohol

B)

20-25% alcohol

C)

30-35% alcohol

D)

70-80% alcohol

View Answer
148) Haemophilic man marries a carrier women percentage   of   daughters   becoming haemophilic shall be :

A)

0%

B)

50%

C)

75%

D)

100%

View Answer
149) Which genotype will indicate colour blindness in male ?

A)

\[{{X}^{c}}Y\]

B)

\[{{X}^{c}}\]

C)

\[{{X}^{c}}{{Y}^{c}}\]

D)

\[X{{Y}^{c}}\]

View Answer
150) The prothallus of Pteris is mostly :

A)

dioecious

B)

monoecious

C)

Synoecious

D)

protogynous

View Answer
151) A tree fern is :

A)

Adiantum

B)

Dryopteris

C)

Cyathaea

D)

Asplenium

View Answer
152) Maiden hair fern is :

A)

Pteris

B)

Dryopteris

C)

Adiantum

D)

Masilea

View Answer
153) Common between bryophytes and pteridophytes is:

A)

absence of sporophyte

B)

gametophyte dependent on sporophyte

C)

sporophyte dependent on gametophyte

D)

multicellular sex organs with sterile jacket

View Answer
154) In mammals the lower jaw is made tip of :

A)

maxilla

B)

dentary

C)

mandible

D)

ethmoid

View Answer
155) The potential, difference across the membrane of nerve fibre when it does not show any physiological activity is called resting potential. It is about :

A)

- 60 mv

B)

- 80 mv

C)

+ 60 mv

D)

+ 90 mv

View Answer
156) Turners syndrome is represented by :

A)

XYY

B)

XO

C)

XXX

D)

XXY

View Answer
157) Number of barr bodies in XXXX female would be:

A)

4

B)

3

C)

2

D)

1

View Answer
158) Find out the mismatch :

A)

Klinefelters syndrome-XO

B)

Haemophilia-sex-linked

C)

Downs syndrome autosomal aneuploidy

D)

Turners syndrome-females with retarded sexual development

View Answer
159) Traits controlled by genes present on X-chromosomes are called :

A)

sex-influenced

B)

sex-linked

C)

sex-limited

D)

autosomal

View Answer
160) Human female reaches menopause at the age of about :

A)

25 years

B)

35 years

C)

50 years

D)

70 years

View Answer
161) Correct sequence of hormone secretion from beginning of menstruation is :

A)

FSH, progesterone, estrogen

B)

estrogen, FSH, progesterone

C)

FSH, estrogen, progesterone

D)

estrogen, progesterone, FSH

View Answer
162) Homologous organs are :

A)

wings of Butter fly, flying fish and bird

B)

paddle of Whale, front legs of Horse and arms of humans

C)

legs of Duck, hind limbs of Pig, hind limbs of Kangaroo

D)

tails of Bird, Monkey and Scorpion

View Answer
163) Mammals are believed to have evolved from reptiles in :

A)

Triassic

B)

Jurassic

C)

Permian

D)

Cretaceous

View Answer
164) Origin of first mammals occured :

A)

500 million years

B)

220 million years

C)

1600 million years

D)

over 1600 million years ago

View Answer
165) Female gametophyte of angiosperms is represented by :

A)

embryo sac

B)

ovule

C)

nucellus

D)

megaspore mother cell

View Answer
166) The tissue which attaches the ovules inside the ovary is :

A)

placenta

B)

chalaza

C)

funicle

D)

hilum

View Answer
167) The point of attachment of funicle with the body of ovule is :

A)

nucellus

B)

chalaza

C)

micropyle

D)

hilum

View Answer
168) The female gametophyte of a typical dicot (Polygonum) at the time of fertilization is :

A)

8 nucleated and 8 called

B)

4 nucleated and 4 celled

C)

7 nucleated 8 celled

D)

8 nucleated and 7 celled

View Answer
169) End product of anaerobic respiration is :

A)

pyruvic acid

B)

lactic acid

C)

phosphoglyceric acid

D)

glyceraldehyde phosphate

View Answer
170) Number of wate molecules produced per molecule of glucose during aerobic respiration is:

A)

12

B)

8

C)

6

D)

10

View Answer
171) Alcoholic fermentation is carried out by :

A)

Saccharomyces

B)

Lactobacillus

C)

Clostrdium

D)

Asprgillus

View Answer
172) Anaerobic respiration of yeast produces :

A)

\[{{N}_{2}}\]

B)

\[{{C}_{2}}\]

C)

\[{{H}_{2}}O\]

D)

\[C{{O}_{2}}\]

View Answer
173) Dee-geo-woo-gen reported in Taiwan is a dwarf gene of :

A)

Sugarcane

B)

Sugar beet

C)

Wheat

D)

Rice

View Answer
174) The father of green revolution in India is :

A)

M.S. Swaminathan

B)

B.P. Pal

C)

P. Maheswari

D)

Y.P.S. Bajaj

View Answer
175) Prehistoric man was :

A)

food producer

B)

food gatherer

C)

food exporter

D)

food importer

View Answer
176) Thalidomide intake by a pregnant lady leads to one of the following abnormalities in the foetus:

A)

vaginal carcinoma

B)

microcephaly

C)

phocomedia

D)

virilism

View Answer
177) Which of the following is least effective in photosynthesis?

A)

Red light

B)

Sun light

C)

Blue light

D)

Green light

View Answer
178) The isotope of carbon used extensively for studies in photosynthesis is :

A)

\[^{13}C\]

B)

\[^{14}C\]

C)

\[^{15}C\]

D)

\[^{16}C\]

View Answer
179) The first step in photosynthesis is the :

A)

ionization of water

B)

formation of ATP

C)

excitation of chlorophyll

D)

attachment of \[C{{O}_{2}}\] to carbon sugar

View Answer
180) Ovule is straight with funiculus, embryo sac chalaza and micropryle lying on one straight line. It is :

A)

anatropous

B)

orthotropous

C)

amphitropous

D)

campylotropous

View Answer
181) The archesporium of ovule is :

A)

single celled lateral

B)

single celled hypodermal

C)

single celled central

D)

single celled terminal

View Answer
182) Anthesis means :

A)

dehiscence of anthers

B)

opening of floral buds

C)

emergence of anthers

D)

growth of pollen tube inside the carpel.

View Answer
183) For energy earth is :

A)

closed system

B)

open as well as closed system

C)

open system

D)

neither open nor closed system

View Answer
184) Pearls of valuable jewellaly are of from :

A)

Pinctada

B)

Nacetihis

C)

Octopus

D)

Water mussel

View Answer
185) The chemical which causes damage to WBC, bone marrow, spleen, lymph nodes and lungs is:

A)

iodine-131

B)

strontium-90

C)

iodine-127

D)

calcium

View Answer
186) Pithecanthropus was discovered in :

A)

Java

B)

China

C)

Africa

D)

Germany

View Answer
187) Fir was used for cooking and protection first by :

A)

Cro-magnon man

B)

Peking man

C)

Neanderthal man

D)

Modern man

View Answer
188) Bipedal locomotion is advantageous becuause it:

A)

reduces body weight

B)

increases weight

C)

releases for limbs for other purposes

D)

increases speed

View Answer
189) Heart pumps blood more force fully in order persons than younger ones due to :

A)

increase in elasticity of arteries

B)

deccrease in \[{{O}_{2}}\] content of blood

C)

decrease in eleasticity of arteries

D)

fall in nutrient content of blood

View Answer
190) Blood circulation in humans is :

A)

open

B)

closed

C)

semi-closed

D)

both (a) and (b)

View Answer
191) Study of protozoans is called :

A)

Parazoology

B)

Protozoology

C)

Zoology

D)

None of these

View Answer
192) Select an anadromous fish :

A)

Hippocampus

B)

Petromyzon

C)

Exocoetus

D)

Anabas

View Answer
193) Which sound producing organ is found in birds ?

A)

Pharynx

B)

Larynx

C)

Syrinx

D)

Trachea

View Answer
194) Treatment of cancer by X-rays or gamma rays is:

A)

radio-therapy

B)

chemo-therapy

C)

hormone-therapy

D)

immuno-therapy

View Answer
195) Leprosy is also called :

A)

Hansens disease

B)

Infantile paralysis

C)

Kochs disease

D)

Pertussis

View Answer
196) Which pollution causes jaundice ?

A)

Air

B)

Water

C)

Land

D)

Thermal

View Answer
197) Bio-degradable pollutant is :

A)

Sewage

B)

Mercury

C)

Plastic

D)

Asbestos

View Answer
198) Disease caused by eating fish found in water contaminated with industrial waste having mercury is :

A)

Brights disease

B)

Minimata disease

C)

Osteosclerosis

D)

Hashimotos disease

View Answer
199) The longest phase in meiotic division is :

A)

prophase-I

B)

metaphase-I

C)

anaphase-I

D)

telophase-I

View Answer
200) Two kingdom system of classification was given by :

A)

Linnaeus

B)

John Ray

C)

Copeland

D)

Whittaker

View Answer
201) Binomial nomenclature was mentioned for the first time in book :

A)

Systema Nature

B)

Philosophic Zoologique

C)

Historia Plantarum

D)

None of these

View Answer
202) Oxidative phosphorylation occurs during :

A)

respiration

B)

protein synthesis

C)

\[{{C}^{2}}\] photosynthesis

D)

lipid synthesis

View Answer
203) Iron porphyrin occurs in :

A)

phytochrome

B)

FAD

C)

cytochrome

D)

anthocyanin

View Answer
204) Cytochrome is :

A)

metauoflavo protein

B)

lipid

C)

Fe-containg porphyrin pigment

D)

glycoprotein

View Answer
205) For their functioning, cytochromes possess:

A)

Mn

B)

Mg

C)

Fe

D)

Na

View Answer
206) At high altitude, RBCs of human blood will :

A)

increase in number

B)

decrease in number

C)

decrease in size

D)

increase in size

View Answer
207) Compound double in water which does not impede oxygen transporation is :

A)

\[S{{O}_{2}}\]

B)

\[S{{O}_{3}}\]

C)

CO

D)

NO

View Answer
208) Which of the following has least urea ?

A)

Pulmonary vein

B)

Hepatic vein

C)

Hepatic portal vein

D)

Renal vein

View Answer
209) Bio-fertilizers include :

A)

nitrogen fixing cyanobacteria

B)

nitrogen fixing bacteria

C)

cyanobacteria, bacteria and mycorrhizal fungi

D)

all of these

View Answer
210) VAM is:

A)

ecto-mycorrhiza

B)

endo-mycorrhiza

C)

bio-herbicide

D)

bio-insecticide

View Answer
211) Mycorrhiza is a symbiotic association between :

A)

fungi and roots of higher plants

B)

algae and fungi

C)

fungi and bacteria

D)

blue-green algae and roots of higher plants

View Answer
212) Genetics deals with :

A)

heredity

B)

mutations

C)

variation

D)

both (a) and (c)

View Answer
213) A genetic clone is :

A)

hybrid produced by sexual reproduction

B)

plants produced by asexual reproduction-

C)

heterozygous plant produced by sexual reproduction

D)

homozygous plant produced by sexual reproduction .

View Answer
214) Milk is changed into curd by :

A)

Lactobacillus

B)

Acrtobacter aceti

C)

Bacillus megatherium

D)

None of these

View Answer
215) Restriction enzyme was discovered by :

A)

Waksman

B)

Flemming

C)

Berger

D)

Smith and Nathans

View Answer
216) Enzyme diastase was identified by :

A)

Hansen

B)

Reamur

C)

Payen and Persoz

D)

Dubrun Faut

View Answer
217) Heat killed pathogenic pneumonia like cells and live non-pathogenic cells are mixed and injected into mice. The result would be :

A)

mice develop disease and die

B)

mice die without developing disease

C)

mice remains healthy

D)

50% mice develop disease and die

View Answer
218) Non genetic RNA is of :

A)

two types

B)

three types

C)

four types

D)

one types

View Answer
219) Which is the source of latex containing liquid hydrocarbons ?

A)

Asclepiadaceae

B)

Euphorbiaceae

C)

Apocynaceae and Compositae

D)

All of these

View Answer
220) Which wood is most suitable as fuel wood ?

A)

Monocot

B)

Dicot

C)

Gymnosperm

D)

None of these

View Answer
221) Leucaena leucocephala, a new plant for social forestry is recommended for :

A)

fodder

B)

fire wood

C)

bio-fertilizer

D)

hedge plant

View Answer
222) A good fire wood is that which is not :

A)

resionous

B)

smoky

C)

highly combustible

D)

easy to dry

View Answer
223) Segregation of Mendelian factors (no linkage, no crossing over) occurs during :

A)

anaphase-I

B)

anaphase-II

C)

diplotene

D)

metaphase-I

View Answer
224) Gametes are never hybrid It is a statement of law of :

A)

dominance

B)

segregation

C)

independent assortment

D)

random fertilization

View Answer
225) Pollen grain wings of Finns are out growths of :

A)

exine

B)

intine

C)

exo-intine

D)

sporangial wall

View Answer
226) Sago of Cycas is given to patients with stomach disorders because it is :

A)

with high nutritive value

B)

tastier

C)

easily digestible with less starch

D)

cheap

View Answer
227) Gymnosperms have a mode of pollination celled:

A)

anemophily

B)

zoophily

C)

entomophily

D)

hydrophily

View Answer
228) Arbor vitae is composed of :

A)

Grey matter

B)

White matter

C)

Neuroglia cells

D)

All of these

View Answer
229) Jacobsons organ is found in :

A)

nose

B)

eye

C)

kidney

D)

ear

View Answer
230) Oxytocin hormone is produced by :

A)

pituitary

B)

adrenals

C)

hypothalamus

D)

thyroid

View Answer
231) Queen Victoria of England was :

A)

Haemophilic carrier

B)

Colour blind

C)

AIDS patient

D)

deaf

View Answer
232) Distance between two linked genes is measured in map units that depict :

A)

ratio of crossing over between them

B)

crossing over value

C)

number of genes between them

D)

both (b) and (c)

View Answer
233) Extra 18th autosomal chromosome results in:

A)

Edwards syndrome

B)

Pataus syndrome

C)

Downs syndrome

D)

None of the above

View Answer
234) Male sex is determined in human zygote by :

A)

nutrition of mother

B)

strength of father

C)

chromosome composition of egg

D)

chromosome composition of sperm

View Answer
235) When the discovery is made by accident and unexpectedly the phenomenon is called :

A)

mutation

B)

serendipity

C)

recombination

D)

linkage

View Answer
236) Thermostate of human body is :

A)

hypothalamus

B)

pituitary

C)

thyroid

D)

muscle

View Answer
237) Recently discovered only proteinous pathogenic particle is called :

A)

virion

B)

protovirus

C)

prion

D)

protoprotein

View Answer
238) Study of the fossils comes under :

A)

Paleontology

B)

Palaeogeography

C)

Herpetology

D)

Organic evolution

View Answer
239) Fossils are dated by :

A)

radioactive carbon content

B)

amount of calcium

C)

association with mammals

D)

stratigraphic age

View Answer
240) Evolution is :

A)

development of DNA from nucleotides

B)

development of organism through time

C)

development of a cell from chemicals

D)

cloning

View Answer
241) Direction: Each of the question below consists of two statements an Assertion (A) and a Reason (R) mark the appropriate response as under: A : Penicillin was discovered by Sir Alexander Flemming R : Discovery of penicillin in an example of serendipity

A)

If both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

B)

If both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A

C)

A is true but R is false

D)

Both A and R are false

View Answer
242) Direction: Each of the question below consists of two statements an Assertion (A) and a Reason (R) mark the appropriate response as under: A : Cytochrome c and haemoglobin help in transporting oxygen R : Both have high affinity for oxygen.

A)

If both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

B)

If both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A

C)

A is true but R is false

D)

Both A and R are false

View Answer
243) Direction: Each of the question below consists of two statements an Assertion (A) and a Reason (R) mark the appropriate response as under: A : In a DNA molecule, the total quantity of purines equal to the total quantity of pyrimidines. R : Adenine pairs with thymine and cytosine pairs with guanine.

A)

If both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

B)

If both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A

C)

A is true but R is false

D)

Both A and R are false

View Answer
244) Direction: Each of the question below consists of two statements an Assertion (A) and a Reason (R) mark the appropriate response as under: A : Electron microscope has very high resolving power. R : It has powerful magnetic lenses.

A)

If both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

B)

If both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A

C)

A is true but R is false

D)

Both A and R are false

View Answer
245) Direction: Each of the question below consists of two statements an Assertion (A) and a Reason (R) mark the appropriate response as under: A : Pepsin is a conjugated enzyme. R : It requires Mg^ as prosthetic group for its activity.

A)

If both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

B)

If both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A

C)

A is true but R is false

D)

Both A and R are false

View Answer
246) Direction: Each of the question below consists of two statements an Assertion (A) and a Reason (R) mark the appropriate response as under: A : Fruits soften as these ripen R : The lignin of the cell wall is hydrolysed

A)

If both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

B)

If both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A

C)

A is true but R is false

D)

Both A and R are false

View Answer
247) Direction: Each of the question below consists of two statements an Assertion (A) and a Reason (R) mark the appropriate response as under: A : Workers prior to Mendel could not work out the principles of inheritance R : They considered the individual as a whole complex of characters.

A)

If both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

B)

If both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A

C)

A is true but R is false

D)

Both A and R are false

View Answer
248) Direction: Each of the question below consists of two statements an Assertion (A) and a Reason (R) mark the appropriate response as under: A : Histones ate basic proteins. R : These interact with DNA and neutralize negatively charged phosphate groups.

A)

If both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

B)

If both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A

C)

A is true but R is false

D)

Both A and R are false

View Answer
249) Direction: Each of the question below consists of two statements an Assertion (A) and a Reason (R) mark the appropriate response as under: A : Lac operon model is applicable to E coli. R : E. coli is a prokaryote.

A)

If both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

B)

If both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A

C)

A is true but R is false

D)

Both A and R are false

View Answer
250) Direction: Each of the question below consists of two statements an Assertion (A) and a Reason (R) mark the appropriate response as under: A : Eiiglena shows mixotrophic life style. R : Eiiglena is autotrophic in sunlight and heterotrophic in the absence of sunlight.

A)

If both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

B)

If both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A

C)

A is true but R is false

D)

Both A and R are false

View Answer

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done Haryana PMT Solved Paper-2002 Total Questions - 250

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Haryana PMT Solved Paper-2002 Total Questions - 250