Solved papers for J & K CET Medical J & K - CET Medical Solved Paper-2004

J & K - CET Medical Solved Paper-2004 Total Questions - 225

1) The sound wave produced in a gas is always :

A)

longitudinal

B)

transverse

C)

stationary

D)

electromagnetic

View Answer
2) Source of sound and the observer are mutually at rest. If the speed of sound is changed, then the frequency of sound heard by the observer will appear to be:

A)

increased

B)

decreased

C)

unchanged

D)

decreasing exponentially

View Answer
3) With what velocity should an observer approach stationary sound source, so that the apparent frequency of sound appear to be double of the initial frequency? (given velocity of sound = v)

A)

\[{{v}_{0}}=\frac{v}{2}\]

B)

\[{{v}_{0}}=3v\]

C)

\[{{v}_{0}}=2v\]

D)

\[{{v}_{0}}=v\]

View Answer
4) A charge q is lying at mid-point of the line joining the two similar charges Q. The system will be in equilibrium, if the value of q is:

A)

\[\frac{Q}{2}\]

B)

\[-\frac{Q}{2}\]

C)

\[\frac{Q}{4}\]

D)

\[-\frac{Q}{4}\]

View Answer
5) Charges 2q, -q and - q lie at the vertices of a triangle. The value of E and V at the centroid of equilateral triangle will be :

A)

\[E\ne 0andV\ne 0\]

B)

\[E=0andV=0\]

C)

\[E\ne 0andV=0\]

D)

\[E=0andV\ne 0\]

View Answer
6) Infinite charges of magnitude q each are lying at x = 1, 2, 4, 8, ... metre on X-axis. The value of intensity of electric field at point x = 0 due to these charges will be :

A)

\[12\times {{10}^{9}}q\text{ }N/C\]

B)

zero

C)

\[6\times {{10}^{9}}q\text{ }N/C\]

D)

\[4\times {{10}^{9}}q\text{ }N/C\]

View Answer
7) The capacity of parallel plate capacitor in air and on immersing it into oil is 50\[\mu \]F and 110\[\mu \]F respectively. The dielectric constant of oil is :

A)

0.45

B)

0.55

C)

1.10

D)

2.20

View Answer
8) The energy stored in a condenser is in the form of:

A)

kinetic energy

B)

potential energy

C)

elastic energy

D)

magnetic energy

View Answer
9) On increasing the plate separation of a charged condenser, the energy :

A)

increases

B)

decreases

C)

remains unchanged

D)

becomes zero

View Answer
10) The ratio of electric fields on the axis and at equator of an electric dipole will be :

A)

1 : 1

B)

2 : 1

C)

4 : 1

D)

1 : 4

View Answer
11) Some electric bulbs are connected in series across a 220 V supply in a room. If one bulb is fused, then remaining bulbs are connected again in series across the same supply. The illumination in the room will be :

A)

increase

B)

decrease

C)

remain the same

D)

not continuous

View Answer
12) If one junction of thermocouple is kept at 0°C and its emf is given by \[e=at+b{{t}^{2}},\] then the neutral temperature will be :

A)

\[\frac{a}{b}\]

B)

\[-\frac{a}{b}\]b

C)

\[\frac{a}{2b}\]

D)

\[-\frac{a}{2b}\]

View Answer
13) A cube is constructed from 12 identical wires. Current enters one corner of the cube and it leaves the opposite corner. If the resistance of each wire is r, then equivalent resistance will be :

A)

\[\frac{6r}{5}\]

B)

\[\frac{5r}{6}\]

C)

\[\frac{5r}{12}\]

D)

\[\frac{12r}{5}\]

View Answer
14) A source of emf E = 15 V and having negligible internal resistance, is connected to a variable resistance, so that the current in the circuit increases with time as 1 = 1.2t + 3. Then, the total charge that will flow in first 5 s will be:

A)

10C

B)

20 C

C)

30 C

D)

40 C

View Answer
15) The magnetic induction at the centre of a current carrying circular of radius r, is :

A)

directly proportional to r

B)

inversely proportional to r

C)

directly proportional to r2

D)

inversely proportional to r2

View Answer
16) A current carrying conductor produces :

A)

only electric field

B)

only magnetic field

C)

both electric and magnetic fields

D)

neither electric nor magnetic field

View Answer
17) A proton of energy 8 eV is moving in a circular path in a uniform magnetic field. The energy of an alpha particle moving in the same magnetic field and along the same path will be :

A)

4 eV

B)

2 eV

C)

8 eV

D)

6 eV

View Answer
18) Aim long wire is lying at right angles to the magnetic field. A force of 1 kg wt. is acting on it in a magnetic field of 0.98 T. The current flowing in it will be :

A)

100 A

B)

10 A

C)

1 A

D)

zero

View Answer
19) The resultant magnetic moment of neon atom will be :

A)

infinity

B)

\[{{\mu }_{B}}\]

C)

zero

D)

\[\frac{{{\mu }_{B}}}{2}\]

View Answer
20) The temperature at which ferromagnetic material becomes paramagnetic is called a :

A)

neutral temperature

B)

Curie temperature

C)

inversion temperature

D)

critical temperature

View Answer
21) The ultimate individual unit of magnetism in any magnet is called :

A)

north pole

B)

south pole

C)

dipole

D)

quadruple

View Answer
22) The power loss in AC circuit will be minimum when :

A)

resistance is high, inductance is high

B)

resistance is high, inductance is low

C)

resistance is low, inductance is low

D)

none of the above

View Answer
23) At high frequency, the capacitor offer :

A)

more reactance

B)

less reactance

C)

zero reactance

D)

infinite reactance

View Answer
24) The quantity that remain unchanged in transformer is :

A)

voltage

B)

current

C)

frequency

D)

none of these

View Answer
25) A piece of plane glass is placed on a word with letters of different colours. The letters which appear minimum raised are :

A)

red

B)

green

C)

yellow

D)

violet

View Answer
26) When light waves suffer reflection at the interface between air and glass, the change of phase of the reflected wave is equal to :

A)

zero

B)

\[\frac{\pi }{2}\]

C)

\[\pi \]

D)

\[2\pi \]

View Answer
27) If the wavelength of light is \[4000\overset{\text{o}}{\mathop{\text{A}}}\,\], then the number of waves in 1 mm length will be :

A)

25

B)

0.25

C)

\[0.25\times 104\]

D)

\[25\times 104\]

View Answer
28) The wave theory of light was given by :

A)

Maxwell

B)

Planck

C)

Huygen

D)

Young

View Answer
29) In Young?s double slit experiment the amplitudes of two sources are 3a and a respectively. The ratio of intensities of bright and dark fringes will be :

A)

3 : 1

B)

4 : 1

C)

2 : 1

D)

9:1

View Answer
30) The diffraction effect can be observed in :

A)

only sound waves

B)

only light waves

C)

only ultrasonic waves

D)

sound as well as light waves

View Answer
31) At what distance from a convex lens of focal length 30 cm, an object should be placed, so that the size of the image both of the object?

A)

30 cm

B)

60 cm

C)

15 cm

D)

90 cm

View Answer
32) Two coherent sources of intensity ratio 1 : 4 produce an interference pattern. The fringe visibility will be :

A)

1

B)

0.8

C)

0.4

D)

0.6

View Answer
33) The specific charge of an electron is :

A)

\[1.6\times {{10}^{-19}}C\]

B)

\[4.8\times {{10}^{-19}}stat-C\]

C)

\[1.76\times {{10}^{-11}}C/kg\]

D)

\[1.76\times {{10}^{11}}C/kg\]

View Answer
34) The colour of the second line of Balmer series is :

A)

blue

B)

yellow

C)

red

D)

violet

View Answer
35) If elements with principal quantum number n > 4 were not allowed in nature, the number of possible elements would be :

A)

60

B)

32

C)

4

D)

64

View Answer
36) The energy of incident photons corresponding to maximum wavelength of visible light is :

A)

3.2 eV

B)

7 eV

C)

1.55 eV

D)

1 eV

View Answer
37) If the work function of potassium is 2 eV, then its photoelectric threshold wavelength is :

A)

310 nm

B)

620 nm

C)

6200 nm

D)

3100 nm

View Answer
38) Threshold wavelength for a metal 5200 A. The photo electrons will be ejected, if it is irradiated by light from:

A)

50 W infrared lamp

B)

1 W infrared lamp

C)

50 W ultraviolet lamp

D)

0.5 W infrared lamp

View Answer
39) An electron and a proton are accelerated through the same potential difference. The ratio of their de-Broglie wavelength will be :

A)

\[{{\left( \frac{{{m}_{p}}}{{{m}_{e}}} \right)}^{1/2}}\]

B)

\[\frac{{{m}_{e}}}{{{m}_{p}}}\]

C)

\[\frac{{{m}_{p}}}{{{m}_{e}}}\]

D)

1

View Answer
40) A particle with rest mass zero is moving with speed c. The de-Broglie wavelength associated with it:

A)

zero

B)

infinity

C)

\[\frac{hv}{c}\]

D)

\[\frac{{{m}_{0}}c}{h}\]

View Answer
41) The nearest distance between two atoms in case of a bcc lattice is equal to :

A)

\[\frac{a\sqrt{2}}{3}\]

B)

\[\frac{a\sqrt{3}}{2}\]

C)

\[a\sqrt{3}\]

D)

\[\frac{a}{\sqrt{2}}\]

View Answer
42) Which of the following is an amorphous substance?

A)

Gold

B)

Silver

C)

Copper

D)

Glass

View Answer
43) The maximum efficiency of full wave rectifier is :

A)

100%

B)

25.20%

C)

40.6%

D)

81.2%

View Answer
44) In a npn-transistor, the collector current is 10 mA. If 90% of the electrons emitted reach the collector, then the emitter current will be :

A)

9 mA

B)

11 mA

C)

1 mA

D)

0.1 mA

View Answer
45) The given truth table is of :

A B X

0 0 0

0 1 1

1 0 1

1 1 1

A)

OR gate

B)

AND gate

C)

NOT gate

D)

XOR gate

View Answer
46) If force (F), length (I) and time (T) are assumed to be the fundamental units, then the dimensional formula of the mass will be :

A)

\[[F{{L}^{-1}}{{T}^{2}}]\]

B)

\[[F{{L}^{-1}}{{T}^{-2}}]\]

C)

\[[F{{L}^{-1}}{{T}^{-1}}]\]

D)

\[[F{{L}^{2}}{{T}^{2}}]\]

View Answer
47) The horizontal range of a projectile is \[4\sqrt{3}\]times its maximum height. Its angle of projection will be:

A)

\[45{}^\circ \]

B)

\[60{}^\circ \]

C)

\[90{}^\circ \]

D)

\[30{}^\circ \]

View Answer
48) Two balls of same size but the density of one is greater than that of the other are dropped from the same height, then which ball will reach the earth first (air resistance is negligible)?

A)

Heavy ball

B)

Light ball

C)

Both simultaneously

D)

Will depend upon the density of the balls

View Answer
49) A person moves 30 m north and then 20 m towards east and finally \[4\text{ }m/{{s}^{2}}\]in south-west direction. The displacement of the person from the origin will be :

A)

10 m along north

B)

10 m along south

C)

10 m along west

D)

zero

View Answer
50) If the velocity of a particle is given by \[v={{(180-16\times )}^{1/2}}m/s,\] then its acceleration will be :

A)

zero

B)

\[8m/{{s}^{2}}\]

C)

\[-8\text{ }m/{{s}^{2}}\]

D)

\[4\text{ }m/{{s}^{2}}\]

View Answer
51) Neglecting the air resistance, the time of flight of a projectile is determined by :

A)

\[{{U}_{vertical}}\]

B)

\[{{U}_{horizontal}}\]

C)

\[U=\mathsf{U}_{vertical}^{2}+\mathsf{U}_{horizontal}^{2}\]

D)

\[U={{(\mathsf{U}_{vertical}^{2}+\mathsf{U}_{horizontal}^{2})}^{{}^{1}/{}_{2}}}\]

View Answer
52) A train is moving towards east and a car is along north, both with same speed. The observed direction of car to the passenger in the train is :

A)

east-north direction

B)

west-north direction

C)

south-east direction

D)

none of the above

View Answer
53) A body moving with velocity v has momentum and kinetic energy numerically equal. What is the value of v?

A)

2m/s

B)

42 m/s

C)

1 m/s

D)

0.2 m/s

View Answer
54) If the kinetic energy of a body becomes four times, then its momentum will be :

A)

\[{{p}_{new}}=3{{p}_{initial}}\]

B)

\[{{p}_{new}}=4{{p}_{initial}}\]

C)

\[{{p}_{new}}=2{{p}_{initial}}\]

D)

\[{{p}_{new}}={{p}_{initial}}\]

View Answer
55) A block of mass 2 kg is lying on an inclined plane, inclined to the horizontal at 30°. If the coefficient of friction between the block and the plane is 0.7, then magnitude of frictional force acting on the block will be :

A)

11.9 N

B)

1.19 N

C)

0.19 N

D)

1109 N

View Answer
56) A ring of mass m and radius r is melted and then moulded into a sphere. The moment of inertia of the sphere will be :

A)

more than that of the ring

B)

less than that of the ring

C)

equal to that of the ring

D)

none of the above

View Answer
57) A solid sphere and a hollow sphere of the same material and of a same size can be distinguished without weighing :

A)

by determining their moments of inertia about their coaxial axes

B)

by rolling them simultaneously on an inclined plane

C)

by rotating them about a common axis of rotation

D)

by applying equal torque on them

View Answer
58) Point masses 1, 2, 3 and 4 kg are lying at the point (0, 0, 0), (2, 0, 0), (0, 3, 0) and (-2, - 2, 0) respectively. The moment of inertia of this system about x-axis will be :

A)

\[43kg-{{m}^{2}}\]

B)

\[34kg-{{m}^{2}}\]

C)

\[27\text{ }kg-{{m}^{2}}\]

D)

\[72kg-{{m}^{2}}\]

View Answer
59) The radius of gyration of a body about an axis at a distance 6 cm from its centre of mass is 10 cm. Then its radius of gyration about a parallel axis through its centre of mass will be:

A)

80 cm

B)

8 cm

C)

0.8 cm

D)

80 m

View Answer
60) Two planets of radii in the ratio 2 : 3 are made from the material of density in the ratio 3 : 2. Then, the ratio of acceleration due to gravity\[\frac{{{g}_{1}}}{{{g}_{2}}}\] at the surface of the two planets will be :

A)

1

B)

2.25

C)

4/9

D)

0.12

View Answer
61) If the radius of the earth contracts to half of its present day value without change in mass, then the length of the day will be :

A)

24 h

B)

48 h

C)

6 h

D)

12 h

View Answer
62) A person will get more quantity of matter in kg-wt at:

A)

poles

B)

at latitude of 60°

C)

equator

D)

satellite

View Answer
63) The unit of the coefficient of viscosity in SI system is :

A)

\[m/kg-s\]

B)

\[m-s/k{{g}^{2}}\]

C)

\[kg/m-{{s}^{2}}\]

D)

\[kg/m-s\]

View Answer
64) If the excess pressure inside a soap bubble is balanced by oil column of height 2 mm, then the surface tension of soap solution will be : (r = 1 cm and density d = 0.8 g/ cc)

A)

\[3.9\text{ }N/m\]

B)

\[3.9\times {{10}^{-1}}N/m\]

C)

\[3.9\times {{10}^{-2}}N/m\]

D)

\[3.9\text{ }dyne/m\]

View Answer
65) 50.          A vessel, whose bottom has round holes with diameter of 1 mm is filled with water. Assuming that surface tension acts only at holes. Then, the maximum height to which the water can be filled in vessel without leakage is : (surface tension of water is \[75\times {{10}^{-3}}N/m\]and \[g=10\text{ }m/{{s}^{2}}\])

A)

3 cm

B)

0.3 cm

C)

3 mm

D)

3 m

View Answer
66) For which of the two pairs, the angle of contact is same?

A)

Water and glass, glass and mercury

B)

Pure water and glass, glass and alcohol

C)

Silver and water, mercury and glass

D)

Silver and chromium, water and chromium

View Answer
67) At what temperature the rms velocity of helium molecules will be equal to that of hydrogen moelcules at NTP?

A)

844 K

B)

64 K

C)

\[273{}^\circ C\]

D)

273 K

View Answer
68) Which of the following is unique function of initial and final states?

A)

dQ

B)

dW

C)

dU

D)

AQ and AW

View Answer
69) If the initial temperatures of metallic sphere and disc of same radius and nature are equal, then the ratio of their rate of cooling will be :

A)

1 : 4

B)

4 : 1

C)

1 : 2

D)

2 : 1

View Answer
70) What will be the ratio of temperatures of sun and moon, if the wavelengths of their maximum emission radiations rates are 140 A and \[4200\overset{\text{o}}{\mathop{\text{A}}}\,\] respectively?

A)

1 : 30

B)

30 : 1

C)

42 : 14

D)

14 : 42

View Answer
71) A bar magnet is oscillating in the earth?s magnetic field with time period T. If its mass is increased four times, then its time period will be :

A)

4T

B)

2T

C)

T

D)

\[\frac{T}{2}\]

View Answer
72) The time period of a simple pendulum, when it is made to oscillate on the surface of moon :

A)

increases

B)

decreases

C)

remains unchanged

D)

becomes infinite

View Answer
73) A condenser of capacity 20\[\mu \]F is first charged and then discharged through a 10 mH inductance. Neglecting the resistance of the coil, the frequency of the resulting vibrations will be :

A)

\[356\text{ }cycle/h\]

B)

\[356\text{ }cycle/s\]

C)

\[356\times {{10}^{3}}cycle/s\]

D)

\[3.56\text{ }cycle/s\]

View Answer
74) Infinite springs with force constants k, 2k, 4/c and 8 k ... respectively are connected in series. The effective force constant of the spring will be :

A)

2k

B)

k

C)

\[\frac{k}{2}\]

D)

2048

View Answer
75) The intensity of sound gets reduced by 10% on passing through a slab. The reduction in intensity on passage through three consecutive slabs is :

A)

30%

B)

27.1%

C)

20%

D)

36%

View Answer
76) The hydrogen electrode is dipped in a solution of\[pH=3\]at\[{{25}^{o}}C\]. The potential of the cell would be (the value of 2.303 RT/E is 0.059 V)

A)

0.177V

B)

0.087V

C)

\[-0.177V\]

D)

0.059V

View Answer
77) Specific conductivity of a solution:

A)

increases with dilution

B)

decreases with dilution

C)

remains unchanged with dilution

D)

depends on mass of electrolyte

View Answer
78) 1 mol of\[{{H}_{2}}S{{O}_{4}}\]is mixed with 2 moles of\[NaOH\]. The heat evolved will be:

A)

57.3 kJ

B)

\[2\times 57.3kJ\]

C)

57.3/2kJ

D)

cannot be predicted

View Answer
79) In a reversible process,\[\Delta {{S}_{system}}+\Delta {{S}_{surrounding}}\]is:

A)

\[>0\]

B)

\[<0\]

C)

\[\ge 0\]

D)

\[=0\]

View Answer
80) For the reaction,\[{{N}_{2}}+3{{H}_{2}}2N{{H}_{3}};\Delta H=?\]

A)

\[\Delta E+2RT\]

B)

\[\Delta E-2RT\]

C)

\[\Delta E+RT\]

D)

\[\Delta E-RT\]

View Answer
81) One mole of a perfect gas expands isothermally to ten times its original volume. The change in entropy is:

A)

0.1 R

B)

2.303 R

C)

10.0 R

D)

100.0 R

View Answer
82) Which of the following solutions will have the highest boiling point?

A)

\[0.1\text{ }M\text{ }FeC{{l}_{3}}\]

B)

\[0.1\text{ }M\text{ }BaC{{l}_{2}}\]

C)

\[0.1\text{ }M\text{ }NaCl\]

D)

\[0.1\text{ }M\text{ }urea\]

View Answer
83) Maximum freezing point falls in:

A)

camphor

B)

naphthalene

C)

benzene

D)

water

View Answer
84) Azeotropic mixture of\[HCl\]and water has:

A)

48% \[HCl\]

B)

22.2%\[HCl\]

C)

36% \[HCl\]

D)

20.2%\[HCl\]

View Answer
85) Vapour pressure of dilute aqueous solution of glucose is 750 mm of mercury at 373 K. The mole fraction of solute is:

A)

\[\frac{1}{76}\]

B)

\[\frac{1}{7.6}\]

C)

\[\frac{1}{38}\]

D)

\[\frac{1}{10}\]

View Answer
86) Volume of\[0.1\text{ }M\text{ }{{\text{K}}_{2}}C{{r}_{2}}{{O}_{7}}\] required to oxidize 35 mL of\[0.5\text{ }M\text{ }FeS{{O}_{4}}\]solution is:

A)

29.2 mL

B)

17.5 mL

C)

175 mL

D)

145 mL

View Answer
87) 100 cc of\[0.6\text{ }N\text{ }{{H}_{2}}S{{O}_{4}}\]and 200 cc of\[0.3\text{ }N\text{ }HCl\]were mixed together. The normality of the -solution will be:

A)

0.2 N

B)

0.4 N

C)

0.8 N

D)

0.6 N

View Answer
88) The rate of diffusion of a gas is proportional to:

A)

\[\frac{P}{\sqrt{d}}\]

B)

\[\sqrt{\frac{P}{d}}\]

C)

\[\frac{P}{d}\]

D)

\[\frac{\sqrt{P}}{d}\]

View Answer
89) Molar volume of\[C{{O}_{3}}\]is maximum at:

A)

NTP

B)

\[{{0}^{o}}C\]and 2.0 arm

C)

\[{{127}^{o}}C\]and 1 atm

D)

\[{{273}^{o}}C\]and 2.0 atm

View Answer
90) Number of atoms of oxygen present in 10.6 g of\[N{{a}_{2}}C{{O}_{3}}\]will be:

A)

\[6.02\times {{10}^{23}}\]

B)

\[12.04\times {{10}^{22}}\]

C)

\[1.806\times {{10}^{23}}\]

D)

\[31.80\times {{10}^{28}}\]

View Answer
91) The equilibrium \[{{P}_{4}}(s)+6C{{l}_{2}}(g)4PC{{l}_{3}}(g)\]is attained by mixing equal moles of\[{{P}_{4}}\]and\[C{{l}_{2}}\]in an evacuated vessel. Then at equilibrium is:

A)

\[[C{{l}_{2}}]>[PC{{l}_{3}}]\]

B)

\[[C{{l}_{2}}]>[{{P}_{4}}]\]

C)

\[[{{P}_{4}}]>[C{{l}_{2}}]\]

D)

\[[PC{{l}_{3}}]>[{{P}_{4}}]\]

View Answer
92) The activation energy for most of the reactions is approximately\[50\,kJ\,mo{{l}^{-1}}\]. The value of temperature coefficient for such reactions is:

A)

> 2

B)

> 3

C)

< 1

D)

> 4

View Answer
93) If the mass defect of\[_{4}^{9}X\]is 0.090 amu, then binding energy per nucleon is: (1 amu =931.5 MeV)

A)

9.315 MeV

B)

931.5 MeV

C)

83.0 MeV

D)

8.38 MeV

View Answer
94) 50 mL of\[0.1\text{ }M\text{ }HCl\]and 50 mL of\[0.2\text{ }M\text{ }NaOH\]are mixed. The pH of the resulting solution is:

A)

1.30

B)

4.2

C)

12.70

D)

11.70

View Answer
95) A substance\[{{A}_{x}}{{B}_{y}}\]crystallises in a face centred cubic lattice in which A atom occupies each corner of cube and atom B occupies the centres of each face of the cube. Identify the correct composition of the substance\[{{A}_{x}}{{B}_{y}}\]

A)

\[A{{B}_{3}}\]

B)

\[{{A}_{4}}{{B}_{3}}\]

C)

\[{{A}_{3}}B\]

D)

composition cannot be specified

View Answer
96) In coagulating the colloidal solution of\[A{{s}_{2}}{{S}_{3}}\]which has the maximum coagulating value?

A)

\[NaCl\]

B)

\[KCl\]

C)

\[BaC{{l}_{2}}\]

D)

\[AlC{{l}_{3}}\]

View Answer
97) Which of the following is the strongest oxidising agent?

A)

\[HOCl\]

B)

\[HCl{{O}_{2}}\]

C)

\[HCl{{O}_{3}}\]

D)

\[HCl{{O}_{4}}\]

View Answer
98) In the equation \[4M+8C{{N}^{-}}+2{{H}_{2}}O+{{O}_{2}}\xrightarrow{{}}4{{[M{{(CN)}_{2}}]}^{-}}\] \[+4O{{H}^{-}}\]Identify the metal M. It is

A)

copper

B)

iron

C)

silver

D)

zinc

View Answer
99) The formula of azurite is:

A)

\[CuC{{O}_{3}}-Cu{{(OH)}_{2}}\]

B)

\[2CuC{{O}_{3}}-Cu{{(OH)}_{2}}\]

C)

\[CuC{{O}_{3}}-2Cu{{(OH)}_{2}}\]

D)

\[CuS{{O}_{4}}-Cu{{(OH)}_{2}}\]

View Answer
100) The decreasing order of bond angle is:

A)

\[N{{O}_{2}}>NO_{2}^{+}>NO_{2}^{-}\]

B)

\[NO_{2}^{-}>N{{O}_{2}}>NO_{2}^{+}\]

C)

\[NO_{2}^{+}>N{{O}_{2}}>NO_{2}^{-}\]

D)

\[NO_{2}^{+}>NO_{2}^{-}>N{{O}_{2}}\]

View Answer
101) The fresh precipitate can be transformed in colloidal state by:

A)

peptization

B)

coagulation

C)

diffusion

D)

none of these

View Answer
102) Milk is:

A)

fat dispersed in water

B)

fat dispersed in milk

C)

fat dispersed in fat

D)

water dispersed in milk

View Answer
103) Purest form of iron is:

A)

cast iron

B)

pig iron

C)

wrought iron

D)

steel

View Answer
104) Most unstable hydride is:

A)

\[N{{H}_{3}}\]

B)

\[P{{H}_{3}}\]

C)

\[As{{H}_{3}}\]

D)

\[Bi{{H}_{3}}\]

View Answer
105) Out of the following metals that cannot be obtained by electrolysis of the aqueous solution of their salts are:

A)

Ag

B)

Cr

C)

Cu

D)

Mg

View Answer
106) \[KI\]and\[CuS{{O}_{4}}\]solution when mixed gives:

A)

\[Cu{{l}_{2}}+{{K}_{2}}S{{O}_{4}}\]

B)

\[C{{u}_{2}}{{l}_{2}}+{{K}_{2}}S{{O}_{4}}\]

C)

\[K{{ }_{2}}S{{O}_{4}}+C{{u}_{2}}{{I}_{2}}+{{I}_{2}}\]

D)

\[{{K}_{2}}S{{O}_{4}}+Cu{{I}_{2}}+{{I}_{2}}\]

View Answer
107) The strongest reducing agent among the following is:

A)

\[{{F}^{-}}\]

B)

\[C{{l}^{-}}\]

C)

\[B{{r}^{-}}\]

D)

\[{{I}^{-}}\]

View Answer
108) \[Xe{{F}_{6}}\]on complete hydrolysis gives:

A)

\[Xe\]

B)

\[Xe{{O}_{2}}\]

C)

\[Xe{{O}_{3}}\]

D)

\[Xe{{O}_{4}}\]

View Answer
109) The correct name of the compound \[[Cu{{(N{{H}_{3}})}_{4}}]{{(N{{O}_{3}})}_{2}},\]according to IUPAC system is:

A)

cuprammonium nitrate

B)

tetrammine copper (II) dinitrate

C)

tetrammine copper (II) nitrate

D)

tetrammine copper (II) dinitrite

View Answer
110) Which of the following complex species does not involve inner orbital hybridisation?

A)

\[{{[Co{{F}_{6}}]}^{3-}}\]

B)

\[{{[Co{{(N{{H}_{3}})}_{6}}]}^{3+}}\]

C)

\[{{[Fe{{(CN)}_{6}}]}^{3-}}\]

D)

\[{{[Cr{{(N{{H}_{3}})}_{6}}]}^{3+}}\]

View Answer
111) \[_{27}C{{o}^{60}}\]is radioactive because:

A)

its atomic number is high

B)

it has high\[\frac{p}{n}\]ratio

C)

it has high\[\frac{n}{p}\]ratio

D)

none of the above

View Answer
112) The correct order of solubility of the sulphates of alkaline earth metals in water is:

A)

\[Be>Ca>Mg>Ba>Sr\]

B)

\[Mg>Be>Ba>Ca>Sr\]

C)

\[Be>Mg>Ca>Sr>Ba\]

D)

\[Mg>Ca>Ba>Be>Sr\]

View Answer
113) Correct order of radii is:

A)

\[N<Be<B\]

B)

\[{{F}^{-}}<{{O}^{2-}}<{{N}^{3-}}\]

C)

\[Na<Li<K\]

D)

\[F{{e}^{3+}}<F{{e}^{2+}}<F{{e}^{4+}}\]

View Answer
114) A sudden large jump between the values of first and second ionisation energies of elements would be associated with which of the following electronic configurations?

A)

\[1{{s}^{2}}2{{s}^{2}}2{{p}^{6}}3{{s}^{1}}\]

B)

\[1{{s}^{2}}2{{s}^{2}}2{{p}^{6}}3{{s}^{2}}3{{p}^{1}}\]

C)

\[1{{s}^{2}}2{{s}^{2}}2{{p}^{6}}3{{s}^{1}}3{{p}^{2}}\]

D)

\[1{{s}^{2}}2{{s}^{2}}2{{p}^{6}}3{{s}^{2}}\]

View Answer
115) Which one shows most pronounced inert pair effect?

A)

\[Si\]

B)

\[Sn\]

C)

\[Pb\]

D)

\[C\]

View Answer
116) Which of the following will form a colorless complex?

A)

\[N{{i}^{2+}}\]

B)

\[C{{u}^{+}}\]

C)

\[T{{i}^{2+}}\]

D)

\[F{{e}^{3+}}\]

View Answer
117) Silver containing lead as impurity is purified by:

A)

poling

B)

cupellation

C)

lavigation

D)

distillation

View Answer
118) The metal extracted by cyanide process is:

A)

silver

B)

copper

C)

iron

D)

sodium

View Answer
119) On the extraction of iron, the slag produced is:

A)

\[CO\]

B)

\[FeSi{{O}_{3}}\]

C)

\[MgSi{{O}_{3}}\]

D)

\[CaSi{{O}_{3}}\]

View Answer
120) Complex forming tendency is more for:

A)

\[N{{a}^{+}}\]

B)

\[{{K}^{+}}\]

C)

\[L{{i}^{+}}\]

D)

\[R{{b}^{+}}\]

View Answer
121) In the reaction: The major product A is:

A)

B)

C)

D)

View Answer
122) The IUPAC name of the following compound is:

A)

propionic anhydride

B)

dipropanoic anhydride

C)

ethoxy propanoic acid

D)

propanoic anhydride

View Answer
123) Which of the following compounds is not aromatic?

A)

B)

C)

D)

View Answer
124) Which of the following is the most stable cation?

A)

\[{{F}_{3}}C-CH_{2}^{\oplus }\]

B)

\[{{(C{{H}_{3}})}_{2}}C{{H}^{\oplus }}\]

C)

\[CH_{3}^{\oplus }\]

D)

\[CF_{3}^{\oplus }\]

View Answer
125) The product A is:

A)

B)

C)

D)

View Answer
126) Tautomerism is not exhibited by:

A)

B)

C)

D)

View Answer
127) In the compound Configuration at\[{{C}_{2}}\]and\[{{C}_{3}}\]atoms are:

A)

S, S

B)

R, S

C)

S, R

D)

R, R

View Answer
128) The product A is:

A)

B)

C)

D)

View Answer
129) Hinsberg reagent is:

A)

\[{{C}_{6}}{{H}_{5}}S{{O}_{3}}H\]

B)

\[{{C}_{6}}{{H}_{5}}NO\]

C)

\[{{C}_{6}}{{H}_{5}}S{{O}_{2}}Cl\]

D)

\[{{C}_{6}}{{H}_{5}}{{N}_{2}}Cl\]

View Answer
130) Acetaldehyde cannot show:

A)

iodoform test

B)

Lucas test

C)

Benedict's test

D)

Tollen's test

View Answer
131) Ethylbenzene with bromine in presence of \[FeB{{r}_{3}},\]predominantly gives:

A)

B)

C)

D)

View Answer
132) Which of the following will be most readily dehydrated under acidic conditions?

A)

B)

C)

D)

View Answer
133) Which of the following cannot reduce Fehling solution?

A)

\[HCOOH\]

B)

\[{{H}_{3}}CCOOH\]

C)

\[HCHO\]

D)

\[{{H}_{3}}CCHO\]

View Answer
134) Absolute alcohol is prepared by:

A)

vacuum distillation

B)

azeotropic distillation

C)

steam distillation

D)

none of the above

View Answer
135) Which of the following compounds is resistant to nucleophilic attack by hydroxyl ion?

A)

Methylacetate

B)

Acetonitrile

C)

Acetamide

D)

Diethylether

View Answer
136) Hydrogenation of benzoyl chloride in presence of Pd on\[BaS{{O}_{4}}\]gives:

A)

benzyl alcohol

B)

benzaldehyde

C)

benzoic acid

D)

phenol

View Answer
137) \[Ph-C\equiv C-C{{H}_{3}}\xrightarrow[{}]{H{{g}^{2+}}{{H}^{+}}}A\] The product A is:

A)

B)

C)

D)

View Answer
138) Ethylamine reacts with nitrous acid to form:

A)

\[{{C}_{2}}{{H}_{5}}OH\]

B)

\[{{C}_{2}}{{H}_{5}}OH,{{N}_{2}},{{H}_{2}}O\]

C)

\[{{C}_{2}}{{H}_{5}}N_{2}^{+}C{{l}^{-}}\]

D)

\[{{C}_{2}}{{H}_{5}}NHOH,N{{H}_{3}}\]

View Answer
139) Rice is deficient in:

A)

lysine

B)

alanine

C)

glycine

D)

leucine

View Answer
140) Mutarotation does not occur in:

A)

sucrose

B)

D-glucose

C)

L-glucose

D)

none of-these

View Answer
141) Aldehyde which is formed during photo synthesis of plants is:

A)

methanol

B)

acetaldehyde

C)

propanal

D)

phenylmethanal

View Answer
142) Coupling of diazonium salts of following takes place in the order:

A)

\[IV\text{ }<\text{ }II\text{ }<\text{ }III\text{ }<\text{ }I\]

B)

\[IV\text{ }>\text{ }III\text{ }<\text{ }II\text{ }<\text{ }I\]

C)

\[II\text{ }<\text{ }IV\text{ }<\text{ }I\text{ }<\text{ }III\]

D)

\[I\text{ }<\text{ }II\text{ }<\text{ }III\text{ }<\text{ }IV\]

View Answer
143) Which is decreasing order of strength of bases? \[\overline{O}H.\overline{N}{{H}_{2}},HC\equiv {{C}^{-}}\]and \[C{{H}_{3}}CH_{2}^{-}\]

A)

\[{{H}_{3}}CCH_{2}^{-}>NH_{2}^{-}>HC\equiv {{C}^{-}}>O{{H}^{-}}\]

B)

\[HC\equiv {{C}^{-}}>C{{H}_{3}}CH_{2}^{-}>NH_{2}^{-}>O{{H}^{-}}\]

C)

\[O{{H}^{-}}>NH_{2}^{-}>CH\equiv {{C}^{-}}>{{H}_{3}}CCH_{2}^{-}\]

D)

\[NH_{2}^{-}>HC\equiv {{C}^{-}}>O{{H}^{-}}>{{H}_{3}}CCH_{2}^{-}\]

View Answer
144) The reagent that reacts with nitromethane to form methyl hydroxylamine is:

A)

\[Zn/HCl\]

B)

\[Zn/N{{H}_{4}}Cl\]

C)

\[Zn/NaOH\]

D)

\[Sn/HCl\]

View Answer
145) Which is most basic?

A)

\[{{C}_{6}}{{H}_{5}}N{{H}_{2}}\]

B)

\[{{({{C}_{6}}{{H}_{5}})}_{2}}NH\]

C)

\[C{{H}_{3}}N{{H}_{2}}\]

D)

\[{{(C{{H}_{3}})}_{2}}NH\]

View Answer
146) For d-electron, the orbital angular momentum

A)

\[\frac{\sqrt{6}h}{2\pi }\]

B)

\[\frac{\sqrt{2}h}{2\pi }\]

C)

\[\frac{h}{2\pi }\]

D)

\[\frac{2h}{\pi }\]

View Answer
147) Two nodal planes are present in:

A)

\[{{\pi }^{*}}2{{p}_{x}}\]

B)

\[\sigma 2{{p}_{z}}\]

C)

\[\pi \,2{{p}_{x}}\]

D)

\[\pi \,2{{p}_{y}}\]

View Answer
148) One gram mole of a gas at NTP occupies 22.4 L. This fact was derived from:

A)

law of gaseous volumes

B)

Avogadro's hypothesis

C)

Berzelius hypothesis

D)

Dalton's atomic theory

View Answer
149) At\[{{90}^{o}}C,\]pure water has\[[{{H}_{3}}{{O}^{+}}]={{10}^{-6}}mol/L.\] The value of\[{{K}_{w}}\]at\[{{90}^{o}}C\]is:

A)

\[{{10}^{-6}}\]

B)

\[{{10}^{-8}}\]

C)

\[{{10}^{-12}}\]

D)

\[{{10}^{-14}}\]                 In pure water: \[[{{H}^{+}}]=[O{{H}^{-}}]\] \[{{K}_{w}}=[{{H}^{+}}][O{{H}^{-}}]\] \[{{K}_{w}}={{10}^{-6}}\times {{10}^{-6}}={{10}^{-12}}\]

View Answer
150) The pH of a buffer solution of\[0.1\text{ }M\text{ }N{{H}_{4}}OH\] \[[p{{K}_{b}}=5.0]\]and\[0.01\text{ }M\text{ }N{{H}_{4}}Cl\]is:

A)

1

B)

4

C)

10

D)

13

View Answer
151) In prokaryotic cells:

A)

internal compartments are absent

B)

nucleus is absent

C)

ribosomes are 70S

D)

all of the above

View Answer
152)  Plant cell may be without:

A)

plastids

B)

vacuoles

C)

centrioles

D)

cell        wall

View Answer
153) Middle lamella mainly contains :

A)

Ca

B)

Mg

C)

Na

D)

K

View Answer
154) Which is a component of chlorophyll?

A)

Mg

B)

Mn

C)

Fe

D)

Zn

View Answer
155) Chemical nature of cellulose is :

A)

polypeptide

B)

polysaccharide

C)

polynucleotide

D)

disaccharide

View Answer
156) Cilia are :

A)

short (5-10 \[\mu \]m) hair like narrow protoplasmic processes

B)

with sweeping or pendular movements

C)

more numerous

D)

all of the above

View Answer
157) Which is not properly paired?

A)

Golgi apparatus-breaking of complex macromolecules

B)

Endoplasmic reticulum-protein synthesis

C)

Chloroplast-photosynthesis

D)

Mitochondria-oxidative phosphorylation

View Answer
158) What is true about fluid mosaic model?

A)

Phospholipid layer is sandwiched between two protein layers

B)

Phospholipid monolayer is present on the top of a protein layer

C)

Phospholipid bilayer is present on the top of a protein layer

D)

Proteins as embedded at places in the phospholipid bilayer

View Answer
159) Besides proteins ribosomes contain :

A)

DNA

B)

RNA

C)

both (a) and (b)

D)

lipids

View Answer
160) Which of the following is a correct statement?

A)

Orchids has palmate fleshy roots

B)

Pandanus has stilt roots

C)

Sweet potato has root tubers

D)

All of the above

View Answer
161) Phylloclades are :

A)

green, photosynthetic, succulent stems of indefinite growth

B)

one internode long stems

C)

leaf modifications

D)

none of the above

View Answer
162) The bladders of Utricularia and pitchers of Nepenthes are modification of :

A)

stems

B)

leaves

C)

roots

D)

flowers

View Answer
163) Intercalary meristem occurs in :

A)

mint

B)

grasses

C)

both (a) & (b)

D)

none of these

View Answer
164) Vascular cambium of stem is :

A)

partly primary and partly secondary meristem

B)

primary meristem

C)

secondary meristem

D)

intercalary meristem

View Answer
165) A tree grows at the rate of 0.5 m per year. What will be the height of the board fixed at 1.5 m above the base five years ago?

A)

4.0 m

B)

3.5 m

C)

1.5 m

D)

4.5 m

View Answer
166) Fibres associated with phloem are fibres.

A)

hard

B)

wood

C)

surface

D)

bast

View Answer
167) Which of the following statements is correct?

A)

DPD = OP ? WP

B)

DPD = OP + WP

C)

DPD = WP ? OP

D)

DPD = TP + OP

View Answer
168) Which of the following are responsible for opening and closing of stomata?

A)

Rise in pH of guard cells causes hydrolysis of starch

B)

Cytokinin and cyclic AMP are required

C)

Abscisic acid promotes closure

D)

All of the above

View Answer
169) Passive absorption of mineral salts is not dependent of:

A)

diffusion

B)

osmosis

C)

donnan equilibrium

D)

ionic exchange

View Answer
170) In \[{{C}_{4}}\] plants synthesis of sugars/final \[C{{O}_{2}}\] fixation occurs in :

A)

epidermis cells

B)

spongy cells

C)

undifferentiated mesophyll cells

D)

bundle sheath cells

View Answer
171) Dichlorophenyl dimethyl urea (DCMU) :

A)

inhibits \[{{O}_{2}}\] evolution and non-cyclic photophosphyorylation

B)

promotes \[{{O}_{2}}\]evolution and non-cyclic photophosphorylation

C)

both (a) and (b)

D)

none of the above

View Answer
172) Auxins promote :

A)

cell growth and enlargement

B)

cambial activity

C)

apical dominance

D)

all of the above

View Answer
173) Tendrils exhibit:

A)

thigmotropism

B)

seismonasty

C)

heliotropism

D)

diageotropism

View Answer
174) Chlamydomonas nivalis is responsible for :

A)

red snow

B)

red rust of tea

C)

yellow snow

D)

brown snow

View Answer
175) The hyphae of Rhizopus are :

A)

unbranched, aseptate and uninucleate

B)

branched, aseptate and muitinucleate

C)

branched, septate and uninucleate

D)

unbranched, septate and coenocytic

View Answer
176) Dryopteris differs from Funaria in having :

A)

an independent gametophyte

B)

an independent sporophyte

C)

swimming antherozoids

D)

archegonia

View Answer
177) The number of integuments in the seeds of Pinus is :

A)

one

B)

two

C)

three

D)

four

View Answer
178) A flower which can be divided into equal vertical halves by more than one plane of division is :

A)

actinomorphic

B)

zygomorphic

C)

heteromorphic

D)

cyclic

View Answer
179) Which of the following pairs is not correct ?

A)

Corymb-candytuft

B)

Capitulum-sunflower

C)

Catkin-mulberry

D)

Raceme-wheat

View Answer
180) Devices for self-pollination are :

A)

dicliny or unisexuality

B)

dichogamy

C)

heterostyly

D)

none of the above

View Answer
181) In mango-(Mangifera indica) the edible portion of fruit is :

A)

mesocarp

B)

epicarp

C)

endocarp

D)

thalamus

View Answer
182) In pea, castor and maize the number of cotyledons are :

A)

2, 2 and 1 respectively

B)

1, 2 and 2 respectively

C)

2, 1 and 2 respectively

D)

1,2 and 1 respectively

View Answer
183) Colchicine brings about :

A)

chromosome aberrations

B)

duplication of chromosomes

C)

gene mutations

D)

quick replication

View Answer
184) Which one of the following is correct?

A)

Herbicides kill .paint mostly by blocking PS-11 (photolysis of water) and occasionally phloem transport

B)

Insecticides kill insects mostly through impairment of nerve conduction and sometimes through respiratory arrest

C)

both (a) and (b)

D)

None of the above

View Answer
185) Which of the following is free living aerobic and non-photosynthetic nitrogen fixing bacterium ?

A)

Azotobacter

B)

Rhizobium

C)

Anabaena

D)

Clostridium

View Answer
186) Leu. ca. ena leucocephala is :

A)

called subabul

B)

a small leguminous tree with edible fruits and seeds

C)

a fodder plant as its pods and leaves are consumed by cattle

D)

all of the above

View Answer
187) Which of the following is not paired correctly?

A)

Winged bean-wood used for timber purposes

B)

Jojoba-seeds yields liquid wax

C)

Guayule-yields latex, which can be converted to rubber

D)

Leucaena-wood is a source of timber, paper pulp and rayon

View Answer
188) When number of chromosomes is already reduced to half in the first reductional division of meiosis, where is the neccessity of second meiotic division?

A)

The division is required for the formation of four gametes

B)

Division ensures equal distribution of halpoid chromosomes

C)

Division ensures equal distribution of genes on chromosomes

D)

Division is required for segregation of replicated chromosomes

View Answer
189) Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV) is comprised of a protein coat and genetic material, which is :

A)

single stranded DNA

B)

single stranded RNA

C)

double stranded RNA

D)

double stranded DNA

View Answer
190) Plasmids are extra-chromosomal circular DNA molecules :

A)

which have their own point of replication and can replicate independently

B)

which have their own point of replicant but cannot replicate independently

C)

which do not have their own point of replication and cannot replicate indepen dent of bacterial chromosomal DNA

D)

none of the above

View Answer
191) Which one of the following codons is not a termination codon ?

A)

UAG

B)

UGA

C)

UAA

D)

AUG

View Answer
192) Operon model for regulation of transcription was proposed by :

A)

Meselon and Stahl in 1998

B)

Jacob and Monod in 1961

C)

Watson and Crick in 1951

D)

None of the above

View Answer
193) Clover leaf secondary structure of t-RNA has anticodon arm, which :

A)

contains in us loop three nucleotides of the codon

B)

contains in its loop three nucleotides of the anticodon

C)

contains in its no nucleotides

D)

both (a) and (b)

View Answer
194) A person with XXY sex chromosomes is diagonosed as suffering from :

A)

Turner?s syndrome

B)

Down?s syndrome

C)

Klinefelter?s syndrome

D)

Addison?s syndrome

View Answer
195) Bacteriophages are :

A)

viruses that infect bacteria

B)

bacteria that infect virus

C)

bacteria that infect other bacteria

D)

none of the above

View Answer
196) Schleiden and Schwann proposed :

A)

phenomenon of Brownian movement

B)

Cell theory or cell doctrine

C)

protoplasm as a physical basis of life

D)

none of the above

View Answer
197) Inner lining of stomach and intestine is formed of:

A)

squamous epithelium

B)

columnar epithelium

C)

cuboidal epithelium

D)

none of the above

View Answer
198) One molecule of haemoglobin can carry as much as :

A)

just one molecule of oxygen

B)

two molecules of oxygen

C)

three molecules of oxygen

D)

four molecules of oxygen

View Answer
199) Coagulation of blood in blood vessels in living body is prevented by :

A)

prothrombin

B)

heparin

C)

prothrombin and calcium together

D)

plasminogen and calcium together

View Answer
200) Ornithine cycle removes :

A)

\[C{{O}_{2}}\] and ammonia from blood in liver

B)

ammonia and urea from blood in liver

C)

\[C{{O}_{2}}\]and urea from blood in liver

D)

ammonia and uric acid from blood in liver

View Answer
201) Human cranium has ?? bones.

A)

8

B)

14

C)

20

D)

none of these

View Answer
202) Functional unit of skeletal muscle is called :

A)

sarcomere

B)

twitch

C)

Z-band

D)

none of these

View Answer
203) Choroid plexus functions to produce :

A)

lymph

B)

endolymph

C)

cerebrospinal fluid

D)

all of these

View Answer
204) Which is the largest endocrine gland ?

A)

Thyroid gland

B)

Adrenal gland

C)

Thymus

D)

Pituitary gland

View Answer
205) Which one of the following pituitary hormones does not have a target organ to act upon?

A)

Thyrotrophin

B)

Gonadotrophin

C)

Adrenocorticotrophin

D)

Somatotrophin

View Answer
206) Oral contraceptives are prescribed in females to check :

A)

entry of sperms in vagina

B)

implantation

C)

ovulation

D)

fertilization

View Answer
207) Which one of the following systems is not mesodermal in origin?

A)

Circulatory system

B)

Muscular system

C)

Nervous system

D)

None of the above

View Answer
208) Cerebellum of brain is responsible for:

A)

the maintenance of equilibrium and posture

B)

olfactory functions

C)

controlling optic functions

D)

all of the above

View Answer
209) Malarial parasite is introduced into the blood of man as a :

A)

metacryptozoite

B)

schizont'

C)

oocyte

D)

sporozoite

View Answer
210) Coelom is a space between :

A)

ectoderm and endoderm

B)

mesoderm and ectoderm

C)

splitted mesoderms

D)

mesoderm and body wall

View Answer
211) Match the correct combination :

A)

Leishmania donovam-Sleeping sickness

B)

Wuchereria bancrofti-Filariasis

C)

Amoeba proteus-Kala azar

D)

Anopoheles maculipennis-Malaria

View Answer
212) Silk is obtained from :

A)

Bombyx mori

B)

Laccifera lacca

C)

Apis melifera

D)

None of these

View Answer
213) Bat belongs to order

A)

chiroptera

B)

lagmorpha

C)

urodela

D)

hymenoptera

View Answer
214) Which one of the following is not a bird?

A)

Magpie

B)

Albastross

C)

Himalayan quail

D)

Bufo

View Answer
215) Earth originated approximately :

A)

4,500 million years ago

B)

3,600 million years ago

C)

between 1,600-2,600 million years ago

D)

2.5 million years ago

View Answer
216) Organs having similar functions, but different origin and development are known as :

A)

vestigial organs

B)

analogous organs

C)

homologous organs

D)

metalogous organs

View Answer
217) Dinosaurs were abundant during :

A)

Jurassic period

B)

Pleistocene period

C)

Devonian period

D)

None of the above

View Answer
218) Archaeopteryx is a connecting link between :

A)

reptiles and amphibians

B)

mammals and birds

C)

reptiles and birds

D)

reptiles and mammals

View Answer
219) Who developed vaccine against smallpox?

A)

Louis Pasture

B)

Selman Waksman

C)

Edward Jenner

D)

Alexander Flemming

View Answer
220) Hybridoma technology has been successfully used in :

A)

production of somatic hybrids

B)

synthesis of monoclonal antibodies

C)

synthesis of haemoglobin

D)

production of alcohol in bulk

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221) Which of the following is a bacterial disease?

A)

Measles

B)

Chicken pox

C)

Rabies

D)

Tuberculosis

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222) Insecticides usually act upon :

A)

digestive system

B)

nervous system

C)

circulatory system

D)

muscular system

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223) Which of the following is not an air pollutant ?

A)

\[N{{O}_{3}}\]

B)

\[S{{O}_{2}}\]

C)

Hydrocarbons

D)

\[C{{O}_{2}}\]

View Answer
224) Which one of the following diseases is a sexually transmitted disease ?

A)

Cancer

B)

Syphilis

C)

Diphtheria

D)

Myocarditis

View Answer
225) Malaria is a common disease caused by :

A)

bacterium

B)

virion

C)

sporozoan

D)

helminth

View Answer