Solved papers for J & K CET Medical J & K - CET Medical Solved Paper-2006

J & K - CET Medical Solved Paper-2006 Total Questions - 225

1) Vector which is perpendicular to a cos\[\theta \hat{i}\]+ b sin \[\theta \hat{j}\] is:

A)

\[b\sin \theta \hat{i}-a\cos \theta \hat{j}\]

B)

\[\frac{1}{2}\sin \theta \hat{i}-\frac{1}{b}\cos \theta \hat{j}\]

C)

\[5k\]

D)

all of the above

View Answer
2) Which of the following statements is true?

A)

When the co-ordinate axes are translated the component of a vector in a plane changes

B)

When the co-ordinate axes are rotated through some angle components of the vector change but the vector?s magnitude remains constant

C)

Sum of \[\vec{a}\] and \[\vec{b}\] is \[\vec{R}\] If the magnitude of\[\vec{a}\] alone is increased angle between \[\vec{b}\] and\[\vec{R}\] decreases

D)

The cross product of 3 \[\vec{i}\] and 4\[\vec{j}\] is 12

View Answer
3) From a balloon rising vertically upwards as 5 m/s a stone is thrown up at 10 m/s relative to the balloon. Its velocity with respect to ground after 2 s is (assume\[g=10\text{ }m/{{s}^{2}}\]) :

A)

zero

B)

5 m/s

C)

10 m/s

D)

20 m/s

View Answer
4) Two bodies arc projected from ground with equal speed 20 m/s from the same position in the same vertical plane to have equal range but at different angles above the horizontal. If one of the angle is 30° the sum of their maximum heights is (assume \[g=10\text{ }m/{{s}^{2}}\]) :

A)

400 m

B)

20 m

C)

30 m

D)

40 m

View Answer
5) Which of die following quantities measured from different inertial reference frames are same?

A)

Force

B)

Velocity

C)

Displacement

D)

Kinetic energy

View Answer
6) Two particles of equal mass arc connected to a rope AB of negligible mass, such that one is at end A and the other dividing the length of the rope in the ratio 1 : 2 from B. The rope is rotated about end B in a horizontal plane. Ratio of the tensions in the smallei part to the other is (ignore effect of gravity) :

A)

4:3

B)

1 : 4

C)

1: 2

D)

1 : 3

View Answer
7) Angle of banking tor a vehicle speed of 10 m/s for a radius of curvature 10 m is (assume\[g=10\text{ }m/{{s}^{2}}\]) :

A)

\[30{}^\circ \]

B)

\[{{\tan }^{-1}}\left( \frac{1}{2} \right)\]

C)

\[60{}^\circ \]

D)

\[45{}^\circ \]

View Answer
8) A body of mass 2 kg is projected at 20 m/s at an angle \[60{}^\circ \] above the horizontal. Power due to the gravitational force at its highest point is :

A)

200 W

B)

100\[\sqrt{3}\]W

C)

50 W

D)

zero

View Answer
9) A block of mass 2 kg rests on a horizontal surface. If a horizontal force of 5 N is applied on the block the frictional force on, it is: (\[{{\mu }_{k}}=0.4,{{\mu }_{s}}=0.5\])

A)

5N

B)

10 N

C)

8 N

D)

zero

View Answer
10) Three identical spheres of mass M each are placed at the corners of an equilateral triangle of side 2m. Taking one of the comer as the origin, the position vector of the centre of mass is :

A)

\[\sqrt{3}(\hat{i}-\hat{j})\]

B)

\[\frac{{\hat{i}}}{\sqrt{3}}+\hat{j}\]

C)

\[\frac{\hat{i}+\hat{j}}{3}\]

D)

\[\hat{i}+\frac{{\hat{j}}}{\sqrt{3}}\]

View Answer
11) A shell initially at rest explodes into two pieces of equal mass, the two pieces will:

A)

move with different velocities in different directions

B)

move with the same velocity in opposite directions

C)

move with the same velocity in the same direction

D)

be at rest

View Answer
12) Impulse is :

A)

a scalar

B)

equal to change in the momentum of a body

C)

equal to rate of change of momentum of a body

D)

a force

View Answer
13) In a head on elastic collision of a very heavy body moving at V with a light body at rest, velocity of heavy body after collision is:

A)

V

B)

2 V

C)

zero

D)

\[\frac{v}{2}\]

View Answer
14) A T joint is formed by two identical rods A and B each of mass m and length L in the XY plane as shown. Its moment of inertia about axis coinciding with A is :

A)

\[\frac{2m{{L}^{2}}}{3}\]

B)

\[\frac{m{{L}^{2}}}{12}\]

C)

\[\frac{m{{L}^{2}}}{6}\]

D)

none of these

View Answer
15) A disc of moment of inertia 5 kg-m is acted upon by a constant torque of 40 Nm. Starting from rest the time taken by it to acquire an angular velocity of 24 rad/s is:

A)

3 s

B)

4 s

C)

2.5 s

D)

120 s

View Answer
16) If the angular momentum of a rotating body about a fixed axis is increased by 10%. Its kinetic energy will be increased by :

A)

10%

B)

20%

C)

21%

D)

5%

View Answer
17) If the earth were to spin faster, acceleration due to gravity at the poles :

A)

increases

B)

decreases

C)

remains the same

D)

depends on how fast it spins

View Answer
18) The time period of an artificial satellite in a circular orbit is independent of:

A)

the mass of the satellite

B)

radius of the orbit

C)

mass of the earth and radius of the earth

D)

none of the above

View Answer
19) Angle of contact of a liquid with a solid depends on:

A)

solid only

B)

liquid only

C)

both on solid and liquid

D)

orientation of the solid surface in liquid

View Answer
20) If longitudinal strain for a wire is 0.03 and its Poisson?s ratio is 0.5, then its lateral strain is :

A)

0.003

B)

0.0075

C)

0.015

D)

0.4

View Answer
21) When the temperature increases, the viscosity of:

A)

gase decreases and liquid increases

B)

gase increases and liquid decreases

C)

gase and liquid increases

D)

gase and liquid decreases

View Answer
22) Water flows steadily through a horizontal pipe of variable cross-section. If the pressure of water is P at a point where flow speed is v, the pressure at another point where the flow of speed is 2 v, is (take density of water as \[\rho \]) :

A)

\[p-\frac{3\rho {{v}^{2}}}{2}\]

B)

\[p-\frac{\rho {{v}^{2}}}{2}\]

C)

\[p-\frac{3\rho {{v}^{2}}}{4}\]

D)

\[p-\rho {{v}^{2}}\]

View Answer
23) Which of the following statements is true?

A)

Internal energy of a gas depends only on the state of the gas

B)

In an isothermal process change in internal energy is maximum

C)

Area under pressure, volume graph equals heat supplied in any process

D)

Work done is state dependent but not path dependent

View Answer
24) A gas\[\left( \gamma =\frac{5}{3} \right)\]expands isobarically. The percentage of heat supplied that increases thermal energy and that involved in doing work for expansion is :

A)

40 : 60

B)

60 : 40

C)

50 : 50

D)

25 : 30

View Answer
25) A perfect black body is one whose emissive power is :

A)

maximum

B)

zero

C)

unity

D)

minimum

View Answer
26) A black body at a temperature T radiates energy at E. It the temperature falls to\[\frac{T}{2},\] the radiated energy will be :

A)

\[\frac{E}{4}\]

B)

\[\frac{E}{2}\]

C)

\[2E\]

D)

\[\frac{E}{16}\]

View Answer
27) If the units of mass, length and time, are doubled unit of angular momentum will be :

A)

doubled

B)

tripled

C)

quadrupled

D)

8 timer the original value

View Answer
28) Which of the following graphs shows variation of potential energy (U) with position x?

A)

B)

C)

D)

View Answer
29) Choose the correct statement:

A)

Time period of a simple pendulum depends on amplitude

B)

Time shown by a spring watch varies with acceleration due to gravity

C)

In a simple pendulum time period varies linearly with the length of the pendulum

D)

The graph between length of the pendulum and time period is a parabola

View Answer
30) Time period of a spring mass system is T. If this spring is cut into two parts whose lengths are in the ratio 1: 3 and the same mass is attached to the longer pan, the new time period will be :

A)

\[\sqrt{\frac{3}{2}}\,T\]

B)

\[\frac{T}{\sqrt{3}}\]

C)

\[\frac{\sqrt{3}T}{2}\]

D)

\[\sqrt{3}T\]

View Answer
31) Equation of progressive wave is \[y=A\sin \left( 10\pi x+11\pi t+\frac{\pi }{3} \right):\]

A)

its wavelength is 2 units

B)

it is travelling in the positive x-direction

C)

wave velocity is 1.5 units

D)

time period of SHM is 1 s

View Answer
32) The phenomenon of sound propagation in air is :

A)

isothermal process

B)

isobaric process

C)

adiabatic process

D)

none of the above

View Answer
33) The second overtone of an open pipe is in resonance with the first overtone of a dosed pipe of length 2 m. Length of the open pipe is:

A)

4 m

B)

2 m

C)

8 m

D)

1 m

View Answer
34) Choose the correct statement:

A)

Beats are due to destructive interference

B)

Maximum beat frequency audible to a human being is 20

C)

Beats are as a result of Doppler's effect

D)

Beats are due to superposition of two waves of nearly equal frequencies

View Answer
35) A motor car is approaching towards a crossing with a velocity of 72 km/h. The frequency of sound of its horn as heard by a policeman standing on the crossing is 260 Hz. The frequency of horn is:

A)

200 Hz

B)

244 Hz

C)

150 Hz

D)

80 Hz

View Answer
36) Forces exerted by a uniform electric field on an electron having mass me and proton of mass mp are represented as Fe and Fp respectively are related as:

A)

\[{{F}_{p}}={{F}_{e}}\]

B)

\[\frac{{{F}_{e}}}{{{F}_{p}}}=\frac{{{m}_{e}}}{{{m}_{p}}}\]

C)

\[\frac{{{F}_{e}}}{{{F}_{p}}}=\frac{{{m}_{e}}}{{{m}_{p}}}\]

D)

\[\frac{{{F}_{e}}}{{{F}_{p}}}=\frac{m_{e}^{2}}{m_{p}^{2}}\]

View Answer
37) Electric field strength due to a dipole at a point on the axial line of dipole is :

A)

from positive charge to negative charge

B)

from negative charge to positive charge

C)

along the equatorial line

D)

at an angle to axial line

View Answer
38) Potential and field strength at a certain distance from a point charge are 600 V and 200 N/C. Distance of the point from the charge is:

A)

2 m

B)

4 m

C)

8 m

D)

3 m

View Answer
39) Two identical spheres with charges 4q, - 2q kept some distance apart exert a force F on each other. If they are made to touch each other and replaced at their old positions, the force between them will be :

A)

\[\frac{1}{9}F\]

B)

\[\frac{1}{8}F\]

C)

\[\frac{9}{8}F\]

D)

\[\frac{8}{9}F\]

View Answer
40) Two capacitors each of capacity 2 \[\mu \]F are connected in parallel. If they are connected to 100 V battery, then energy stored in them is :

A)

0.02 J

B)

0.04 J

C)

0.01 J

D)

200 J

View Answer
41) Which factor is immaterial for the wire used in electric fuse?

A)

Length

B)

Radius

C)

Material

D)

Current

View Answer
42) A battery of emf 2 V and internal resistance 0.1 \[\Omega \] is being charged by a current of 5 A. The potential difference between the terminals of the battery is :

A)

2.5 V

B)

1.5 V

C)

0.5 V

D)

IV

View Answer
43) An electric bulb is rated at 220 V, 200 W. Power consumed by it when operated at 110 V is:

A)

25 W

B)

50 W

C)

75 W

D)

90 W

View Answer
44) Two cells having emf 4 V, 2 V and internal resistances 1 \[\Omega \], 1\[\Omega \] are connected as shown in figure below. Current through 6\[\Omega \] resistance is :

A)

\[\frac{1}{3}A\]

B)

\[\frac{2}{3}A\]

C)

\[1A\]

D)

\[\frac{2}{9}A\]

View Answer
45) For a given thermocouple neutral temperature:

A)

is a constant

B)

depends on cold junction temperature

C)

depends on inversion temperature

D)

double that of cold junction temperature

View Answer
46) A charged particle enters a uniform magnetic field with a certain speed at right angles to it. In the magnetic field a change could occur in its:

A)

kinetic energy

B)

angular momentum

C)

linear momentum

D)

speed

View Answer
47) A coil having 500 turns of square shape each of side 10 cm is placed normal to a magnetic field which is increasing at 1 T/s. The induced emf is :

A)

0.1 V

B)

0.5 V

C)

IV

D)

5 V

View Answer
48) A galvanometer has a resistance 50 Q. A resistance of 5\[\Omega \] is connected parallel to it. Fraction of the total current flowing through galvanometer is :

A)

\[\frac{1}{10}\]

B)

\[\frac{1}{11}\]

C)

\[\frac{1}{50}\]

D)

\[\frac{2}{15}\]

View Answer
49) A wire oriented in the east-west direction carries a current eastward. Direction of the magnetic field at a point to the south of the wire is:

A)

vertically down

B)

vertically up

C)

north-east

D)

south-east

View Answer
50) An inductor is connected to an AC source. When compared to voltage, the current in the lead wires :

A)

is ahead in phase by\[\pi \]

B)

lags in phase by \[\pi \]

C)

is ahead in phase by\[\frac{\pi }{2}\]

D)

lags in phase by \[\frac{\pi }{2}\]

View Answer
51) Curie temperature is the one above which :

A)

paramagnetic substance changes to ferromagnetic

B)

paramagnetic changes to diamagnetic

C)

diamagnetic changes to paramagnetic

D)

ferromagnetic changes to paramagnetic

View Answer
52) Energy in a current carrying coil is stored in the form of:

A)

electric field

B)

magnetic field

C)

heat

D)

none of the above

View Answer
53) Graph of force per unit length between two long parallel currents carrying conductor and the distance between them is :

A)

straight line

B)

parabola

C)

ellipse

D)

rectangular hyperbola

View Answer
54) A bar magnet is held at right angles to a uniform magnetic field. The couple acting on the magnet is to be halved by rotating it from this position. The angle of rotation is :

A)

\[60{}^\circ \]

B)

\[45{}^\circ \]

C)

\[30{}^\circ \]

D)

\[75{}^\circ \]

View Answer
55) A point source of light is kept below the surface of water in a pond :

A)

light emerges from every point of the surface of the pond

B)

no light is transmitted from the surface of the pond

C)

all the light emitted by the source emerges from a circular region of the pond

D)

some of the light emitted by the source emerges from a circular region of the pond

View Answer
56) If white light is used in Young?s double slit experiment:

A)

no interference pattern is formed

B)

white fringes are formed

C)

central bright fringe is white

D)

central bright fringe is coloured

View Answer
57) Electromagnetic waves can be deflected by :

A)

electric fields only

B)

magnetic fields only

C)

both and

D)

none of the above

View Answer
58) Maximum lateral displacement of a ray of light incident on a slab of thickness t is :

A)

\[\frac{t}{2}\]

B)

\[\frac{t}{3}\]

C)

\[\frac{t}{4}\]

D)

t

View Answer
59) Mercury vapour lamp gives :

A)

continuous spectrum

B)

line spectrum

C)

band spectrum

D)

absorption spectrum

View Answer
60) Pick the correct statement from tne following:

A)

Primary rainbow is a virtual image and secondary rainbow is a real image

B)

Primary rainbow is a real image and secondary rainbow is a virtual image

C)

Both primary and secondary rainbows are virtual images

D)

Both primary and secondary rainbows are real images

View Answer
61) The refractive index of water, glass and diamond are 1.33, 1.50, 2.40 respectively. The refractive index of diamond relative to water and of glass relative to diamond, respectively are nearly:

A)

1.80, 0.625

B)

0.554, 0.625

C)

1.80, 1.6

D)

0.554, 1.6

View Answer
62) In the diffraction pattern of a single slit:

A)

all bands are uniformly bright

B)

all bands are uniformly wide

C)

central band is narrower

D)

central band is wider

View Answer
63) A radioactive substancc has a half-life of four months. Three-fourth of the substance will decay in :

A)

3 months

B)

4 months

C)

8 months

D)

12 months

View Answer
64) Electrons in the atom are held to the nucleus by:

A)

Coulomb's forces

B)

nuclear forces

C)

van der Waal's forces

D)

gravitational forces

View Answer
65) Mass of the nucleons together in a heavy nucleus is :

A)

greater than mass of nucleus

B)

equal to mass of nucleus

C)

same as mass of nucleus

D)

none of the above

View Answer
66) Ratio of the radii of the nuclei with mass numbers 8 and 27 would be :

A)

27/8

B)

8/27

C)

2/3

D)

3/2

View Answer
67) Stopping potential required to reduce the photoelectric current to zero :

A)

is directly proportional to the wavelength of the incident radiation

B)

increases uniformly with wavelength of the incident radiation

C)

is directly proportional to the frequency of the incident radiation

D)

decreases uniformly with the frequency of the incident radiation

View Answer
68) The first member of the Balmer?s series of the hydrogen has a wavelength a, the wavelength of the second member of its series is :

A)

\[\frac{27}{20}\lambda \]

B)

\[\frac{20}{27}\lambda \]

C)

\[\frac{27}{20}\lambda \]

D)

none of these

View Answer
69) The photoelectric threshold frequency of a metal is v. When light of frequency 4v is incident on the metal. The maximum kinetic energy of the emitted photoelectrons is :

A)

4 hv

B)

3 hv

C)

5 hv

D)

\[\frac{5}{2}hv\]

View Answer
70) The shortest wavelength in Lyman series is 91.2 nm. The longest wavelength of the series is:

A)

121.6 nm

B)

182.4 nm

C)

243.4 nm

D)

364.8 nm

View Answer
71) Energy gap of a semiconductor is of the order of:

A)

1 eV

B)

10 eV

C)

0.1 eV

D)

none of these

View Answer
72) Majority charge carriers in p-type material are:

A)

holes

B)

electrons

C)

both and

D)

none of the above

View Answer
73) Resistance of a semiconductor:

A)

increases with increase in temperature

B)

decreases with increase in temperature

C)

is not affected by change in temperature

D)

increases for germanium and decreases for silicon

View Answer
74) Semiconductor material having fewer free electrons than pure germanium or silicon is:

A)

p-type

B)

n-type

C)

both and

D)

none of the above

View Answer
75) The concentrations of impurities in a transistor are :

A)

equal for the emitter, base and collector regions

B)

least for the emitter region

C)

largest for the emitter region

D)

least for the base region

View Answer
76) At\[{{25}^{o}}C,\]the total pressure of an ideal solution obtained by mixing 3 moles of "A" and 2 moles of "B", is 184 torr. What is the vapour pressure (in torr) of pure "B" at the same temperature? (vapour pressure of pure "A" at \[{{25}^{o}}C,\] is 200 torr):

A)

180

B)

160

C)

16

D)

100

View Answer
77) Relative lowering of vapour pressure of a dilute solution is 0.2. What is the mole fraction of the non-volatile solute?

A)

0.8

B)

0.5

C)

0.3

D)

0.2

View Answer

78) Match the following:

List A	List B
(1) \[PhC{{O}_{2}}C{{H}_{3}}\]	(A) 2, 4-DNP
(2) \[{{C}_{6}}{{H}_{5}}C{{H}_{2}}C{{O}_{2}}H\]	(B) Amdt-Eister synthesis
(3) \[{{C}_{6}}{{H}_{5}}CHO\]	(C) Hydrolysis

Correct answer is:

1-A, 2-B, 3-C

1-B, 2-C, 3-A

1-C, 2-B, 3-A

1-B, 2-A, 3-C

View Answer

79) 2-pentanone and 3-methyl-2-butanone are a pair of ....... isomers:

A)

functional

B)

chain

C)

positional

D)

stereo

View Answer
80) What are the units of entropy?

A)

cal K

B)

\[cal\,{{K}^{-1}}\]

C)

\[cm\text{ }{{K}^{-1}}\]

D)

cm K

View Answer
81) Calculate\[\Delta H\](in Joules) for, C (graphite)\[\to \]C (diamond), from the following data \[C(graphite)+{{O}_{2}}(g)\to C{{O}_{2}}(g);\] \[\Delta H=-393.5kJ\] \[C(diamond)+{{O}_{2}}\to C{{O}_{2}}(g);\] \[\Delta H=-395.4\text{ }kJ\]

A)

1,900

B)

\[-788.9\times {{10}^{3}}\]

C)

1,90,000

D)

\[+788.9\times {{10}^{3}}\]

View Answer
82) \[C{{H}_{3}}Br+\overline{O}H\xrightarrow{{}}C{{H}_{3}}OH+B{{r}^{-}}\]reaction proceeds by \[{{S}_{N}}2-\]mechanism. Its rate is dependent on the concentration of:

A)

\[C{{H}_{3}}Br,\overline{O}H\]

B)

\[C{{H}_{3}}Br\]only

C)

OH only

D)

\[C{{H}_{3}}Br,C{{H}_{3}}OH\]

View Answer
83) The end products in the Cannizaro reaction of benzaldehyde is:

A)

\[PhC{{O}_{2}}H,\text{ }PhC{{H}_{2}}OH\]

B)

\[PhC{{O}_{2}}H,\text{ }PhC{{H}_{2}}C{{O}_{2}}H\]

C)

\[PhC{{H}_{2}}OH,\text{ }PhCOC{{H}_{3}}\]

D)

\[PhC{{O}_{2}}H,\text{ }PhCOC{{H}_{3}}\]

View Answer
84) For a chemical reaction, the free energy change\[(\Delta G)\]is negative. The reaction is:

A)

a spontaneous reaction

B)

an equilibrium reaction

C)

a non-spontaneous reaction

D)

characterised by\[{{r}_{f}}={{r}_{b}}\](where\[{{r}_{f}}\]and\[{{r}_{b}}\]are rates of forward and backward reactions respectively)

View Answer
85) In which of the following reactions, the heat liberated is known as "heat of combustion"?

A)

\[{{H}^{+}}(aq)+O{{H}^{-}}(aq)\to {{H}_{2}}O(l)+heat\]

B)

\[C(graphite)+\frac{1}{2}{{O}_{2}}(g)\to CO(g)+heat\]

C)

\[C{{H}_{4}}(g)+2{{O}_{2}}(g)\to C{{O}_{2}}(g)+2{{H}_{2}}O(l)\]\[+heat\]

D)

\[{{H}_{2}}S{{O}_{4}}(aq)+{{H}_{2}}O(l)\to {{H}_{2}}S{{O}_{4}}(aq)+heat\]

View Answer
86) The number of chiral centres in (+) -glucose:

A)

4

B)

3

C)

2

D)

1

View Answer
87) Aniline on oxidation with\[N{{a}_{2}}C{{r}_{2}}{{O}_{7}}\]and\[{{H}_{2}}S{{O}_{4}}\] gives:

A)

benzoic acid

B)

m-amino benzoic acid

C)

Schiff?s base

D)

p-benzoquinone

View Answer
88) What are the units of equivalent conductivity of a solution?

A)

\[mho\text{ }c{{m}^{-1}}\]

B)

\[ohm\text{ }c{{m}^{-1}}g\text{ }equi{{v}^{-1}}\]

C)

\[mho\text{ }c{{m}^{-2}}g\text{ }equi{{v}^{-1}}\]

D)

\[mho\text{ }c{{m}^{2}}g\text{ }equi{{v}^{-1}}\]

View Answer
89) What is the cell reaction occurring in Daniel cell (Galvanic cell)?

A)

\[Cu(s)+ZnS{{O}_{4}}(aq)\to CuS{{O}_{4}}(aq)+Zn(s)\]

B)

\[Zn(s)+CuS{{O}_{4}}(aq)\to Cu(s)+ZS{{O}_{4}}(aq)\]

C)

\[Ni(s)+ZnS{{O}_{4}}(aq)\to NiS{{O}_{4}}(aq)+Zn(s)\]

D)

\[2Na(s)+CdS{{O}_{4}}(aq)\to N{{a}_{2}}S{{O}_{4}}(aq)\] \[+Cd(s)\]

View Answer
90) n-propylamine yields a volatile compound\[\underline{X}\] on warming with ale. alkali and chloroform. \[\underline{X}\]has an offensive odour. The structure of\[\underline{X}\]is:

A)

\[C{{H}_{3}}C{{H}_{2}}C{{H}_{2}}CN\]

B)

\[{{(C{{H}_{3}})}_{2}}CHCN\]

C)

\[C{{H}_{3}}C{{H}_{2}}C{{H}_{2}}NC\]

D)

\[{{(C{{H}_{3}})}_{2}}CHNC\]

View Answer
91) The molecular formula of benzonitrile:

A)

\[{{C}_{6}}{{H}_{5}}CN\]

B)

\[{{C}_{6}}{{H}_{5}}NC\]

C)

\[{{C}_{6}}{{H}_{5}}CNO\]

D)

\[{{C}_{6}}{{H}_{5}}NCO\]

View Answer
92) Which of the following statements (or equation) is correct?

A)

The units of cell emf are\[V.\text{ }c{{m}^{-1}}\]

B)

\[\Delta G=-\frac{nF}{{{E}_{ccell}}}\]

C)

In Galvanic cell, chemical energy is transformed into electrical energy

D)

Oxidation state of Mn in potassium permanganate is + 6

View Answer
93) Which of the following metal can be obtained by the electrolysis of the aqueous solution of their salts?

A)

Cu

B)

Na

C)

Mg

D)

K

View Answer
94) The magnetic moment (in BM) of\[Z{{n}^{2+}}\]ion according to spin-only formula is:

A)

zero

B)

1.73

C)

2.84

D)

3.87

View Answer
95) The 3d-block element that exhibits maximum number of oxidation states in:

A)

Sc

B)

Ti

C)

Mn

D)

Zn

View Answer
96) Which of the following molecule in its valence shell has three bond pairs of electrons and one lone pair of electrons?

A)

\[N{{H}_{3}}\]

B)

\[{{H}_{2}}O\]

C)

\[B{{F}_{3}}\]

D)

\[C{{O}_{2}}\]

View Answer
97) Which of the following set of properties belong to\[PC{{l}_{5}}\]?

A)

\[s{{p}^{3}},\]tetrahedral, 4 valence shell pairs of electrons

B)

\[s{{p}^{3}}d,\]trigonal bipyramidal, 5 valence shell pairs of electrons

C)

\[s{{p}^{3}}{{d}^{2}},\]octahedral, 6 valence shell pairs of electrons

D)

\[s{{p}^{3}}d,\]square planar, 4 valence shell pairs of electrons

View Answer
98) The metal ion in complex A has EAN identical to the atomic number of krypton. A is: (At. no. of\[Cr=24,\text{ }Fe=\text{ }26,\text{ }Pd=46\]):

A)

\[[Pd{{(N{{H}_{3}})}_{6}}]C{{l}_{4}}\]

B)

\[[Co{{(N{{H}_{3}})}_{6}}]C{{l}_{3}}\]

C)

\[N{{a}_{4}}[Fe{{(CN)}_{6}}]\]

D)

\[[Cr{{(N{{H}_{3}})}_{4}}C{{l}_{2}}]Cl\]

View Answer
99) The complex that does not given a precipitate with \[AgN{{O}_{3}}\]solution:

A)

\[[Co{{(N{{H}_{3}})}_{3}}C{{l}_{3}}]\]

B)

\[[Co{{(N{{H}_{3}})}_{5}}Cl]S{{O}_{4}}\]

C)

\[[Ag{{(N{{H}_{3}})}_{2}}]Cl\]

D)

\[[Cr{{(N{{H}_{3}})}_{4}}C{{l}_{2}}]Cl\]

View Answer
100) According to bond order concept, the correct order of stability of\[{{O}_{2}},O_{2}^{+}\]and\[O_{2}^{-}\]is:

A)

\[{{O}_{2}}>O_{2}^{+}>O_{2}^{-}\]

B)

\[O_{2}^{-}>{{O}_{2}}>O_{2}^{+}\]

C)

\[{{O}_{2}}>O_{2}^{-}>O_{2}^{+}\]

D)

\[O_{2}^{+}>{{O}_{2}}>O_{2}^{-}\]

View Answer
101) Zero dipole moment is possessed by:

A)

\[PC{{l}_{3}}\]

B)

\[B{{F}_{3}}\]

C)

\[Cl{{F}_{3}}\]

D)

\[N{{H}_{3}}\]

View Answer
102) The number of moles of ions given on complete ionization of one mole of:

A)

4

B)

3

C)

2

D)

1

View Answer
103) The co-ordination number in an ........ complex may increase to 8:

A)

cobalt

B)

osmium

C)

nickel

D)

iron

View Answer
104) The radius ratio\[\left( \frac{{{r}^{+}}}{{{r}^{-}}} \right)\]of an ionic solid\[({{A}^{+}}{{B}^{-}})\]is 0.69. What is the coordination number of\[{{B}^{-}}\]?

A)

6

B)

8

C)

2

D)

10

View Answer
105) A, B and C are ideal gases. Their molecular weights are 2, 4 and 28 respectively. The rate of diffusion of these gases follow the order:

A)

\[C>A>B\]

B)

\[C>B>A\]

C)

\[A=B=C\]

D)

\[A>B>C\]

View Answer
106) Among the following ions (hydrated), the colorless metal ion:

A)

\[C{{u}^{+}}\]

B)

\[C{{u}^{2+}}\]

C)

\[F{{e}^{2+}}\]

D)

\[M{{n}^{2+}}\]

View Answer
107) German silver is an alloy of:

A)

\[Cu,Zn\]

B)

\[Cu,\text{ }Ni,\text{ }Zn\]

C)

\[Cu,\text{ }Sn,\text{ }Zn\]

D)

\[Cu,\text{ }Zn\]

View Answer
108) Which of the following statements is not correct?

A)

The units of surface tension are dynes\[c{{m}^{-1}}\]

B)

The units of viscosity coefficient of a liquid are "poise"

C)

\[CsCl\]crystallizes in body centred cubic type of lattice

D)

The co-ordination number of\[{{S}^{2-}}\]in\[ZnS\]is 6

View Answer
109) Which of the following is not a method of preparation of colloidal solution?

A)

Electrical dispersion

B)

Peptization

C)

Coagulation

D)

Mechanical dispersion

View Answer
110) Pauling's equation for determining the electronegativity of an element:

A)

\[{{X}_{A}}-{{X}_{B}}=0.208\sqrt{\Delta }\]

B)

\[{{X}_{A}}+{{X}_{B}}=0.208\sqrt{\Delta }\]

C)

\[{{X}_{A}}-{{X}_{B}}={{\Delta }^{2}}\]

D)

\[{{X}_{A}}-{{X}_{B}}=\sqrt{\Delta }\]

View Answer
111) The ionic radii \[(\overset{\text{o}}{\mathop{\text{A}}}\,)\] of \[{{C}^{4-}}\] and \[{{O}^{2-}}\] respectively are 2.60 and 1.40. The ionic radius of the isoelectronic ion \[{{N}^{3-}}\] would be:

A)

2.6

B)

1.71

C)

1.4

D)

0.95

View Answer
112) The gold numbers of some colloidal solutions are given below:

Colloidal solution Gold number

A 0.01

B 2.5

C 20

The protective nature of these colloidal solutions follow the order:

A)

\[C>B>A\]

B)

\[A>B>C\]

C)

\[A=B=C\]

D)

\[B>A>C\]

View Answer
113) Which of the following leaction is an example for homogeneous catalysis?

A)

\[2{{H}_{2}}{{O}_{2}}(l)\xrightarrow{Mn{{O}_{2}}(s)}2{{H}_{2}}O(l)+{{O}_{2}}(g)\]

B)

\[2S{{O}_{2}}(g)+{{O}_{2}}(g)2S{{O}_{3}}(g)\]

C)

\[2CO(g)+{{O}_{2}}(g)\xrightarrow{NO(g)}2C{{O}_{2}}(g)\]

D)

\[{{H}_{2}}(g)+{{C}_{2}}{{H}_{4}}(g)\xrightarrow{Ni(s)}{{C}_{2}}{{H}_{6}}(g)\]

View Answer
114) Consider the following abbreviations for hydrated alkali ions: \[X={{[Li{{({{H}_{2}}O)}_{n}}]}^{+}}\] \[Y={{[K{{({{H}_{2}}O)}_{n}}]}^{+}}\] \[Z={{[Cs{{({{H}_{2}}O)}_{n}}]}^{+}}\] What is the correct order of size of these hydrated alkali ions?

A)

\[X>Y>Z\]

B)

\[Z>Y>X\]

C)

\[X=Y=Z\]

D)

\[Z>X>Y\]

View Answer
115) What is the product formed when phosphorus trioxide is dissolved in water?

A)

\[HP{{O}_{3}}\]

B)

\[{{H}_{3}}P{{O}_{4}}\]

C)

\[{{H}_{3}}P{{O}_{3}}\]

D)

\[HP{{O}_{2}}\]

View Answer
116) The molecrlar formula of dithionic acid is:

A)

\[{{H}_{2}}{{S}_{2}}{{O}_{4}}\]

B)

\[{{H}_{2}}{{S}_{2}}{{O}_{6}}\]

C)

\[{{H}_{2}}{{S}_{2}}{{O}_{5}}\]

D)

\[{{H}_{2}}{{S}_{2}}{{O}_{7}}\]

View Answer
117) The bond dissociation energy of\[C{{l}_{2}},B{{r}_{2}}\]and \[{{I}_{2}}\]follow the order:

A)

\[C{{l}_{2}}>{{I}_{2}}>B{{r}_{2}}\]

B)

\[{{I}_{2}}>B{{r}_{2}}>C{{l}_{2}}\]

C)

\[{{I}_{2}}=C{{l}_{2}}=B{{r}_{2}}\]

D)

\[C{{l}_{2}}>B{{r}_{2}}>{{I}_{2}}\]

View Answer
118) During the extraction of copper, the impurity \[(FeS)\]is removed as slag by mixing the contaminated copper ore with silica and coke. The molecular formula of slag is:

A)

\[FeSi{{O}_{3}}\]

B)

\[F{{e}_{2}}{{O}_{3}}\]

C)

\[FeSi\](solid)

D)

\[FeSi\](vapour)

View Answer
119) Which of the following is used as indelible ink?

A)

Aqueous\[CuS{{O}_{4}}\]solution

B)

Aqueous\[AgN{{O}_{3}}\]solution

C)

Aqueous\[NaCl\]solution

D)

Aqueous\[NaOH\]solution

View Answer
120) Which of the following ores is an ore of copper?

A)

Argentite

B)

Haematite

C)

Malachite

D)

Calamine

View Answer
121) \[KMn{{O}_{4}}\](mol. wt. = 158) oxidizes oxalic acid in acid medium to\[C{{O}_{2}}\]and water as follows: \[5{{C}_{2}}O_{4}^{2-}+2MnO_{4}^{-}+16{{H}^{+}}\to 10C{{O}_{2}}+2M{{n}^{2+}}\]\[+\text{ }8{{H}_{2}}O\] What is the equivalent weight of\[KMn{{O}_{4}}\]?

A)

158

B)

31.6

C)

39.5

D)

79

View Answer
122) Sodium bicarbonate on heating decomposes to form sodium carbonate,\[C{{O}_{2}}\]and water. If 0.2 moles of sodium bicarbonate is completely decomposed, how many moles of sodium carbonate is formed?

A)

0.1

B)

0.2

C)

0.05

D)

0.025

View Answer
123) What is the energy (in eV) required to excite the electron from\[n=1\]to\[n=2\]state in hydrogen atom? (\[n=\]principal quantum number)

A)

13.6

B)

3.4

C)

17.0

D)

10.2

View Answer
124) According to aufbau principle, the correctorder of energy of 3d, 45 and 4p orbitals is:

A)

\[4p<3d<4s\]

B)

\[4s<4p<3d\]

C)

\[4s<3d<4p\]

D)

\[3d<4s<4p\]

View Answer
125) n-pentane and 2-methylbutane are a pair of:

A)

enantiomers

B)

stereoisomers

C)

diastereomers

D)

constitutional isomers

View Answer
126) Compound can exhibit:

A)

geometrical isomerism

B)

tautomerism

C)

optical isomerism

D)

geometrical and optical isomerism

View Answer
127) The activity of a radioactive nuclide is\[2\times {{10}^{7}}\]disintegrations per minute (dpm). After 23.03 min, its activity is reduced to\[2\times {{10}^{6}}\] dpm. What is the average life (in min) of this nuclide?

A)

100

B)

10

C)

1

D)

0.1

View Answer
128) What is the correct order of velocity of alpha , beta (P) and gamma (y) rays?

A)

\[\alpha >\beta >\gamma \]

B)

\[\alpha >\gamma >\beta \]

C)

\[\gamma >\alpha >\beta \]

D)

\[\gamma >\beta >\alpha \]

View Answer
129) The isomers which are interconverted through rotation around a single bond are:

A)

conformers

B)

diastereomers

C)

enantiomers

D)

position isomers

View Answer
130) The major product in the reaction of 2-butyne with Li/liq.\[N{{H}_{3}}\]is:

A)

B)

C)

\[C{{H}_{3}}C{{H}_{2}}C{{H}_{2}}C{{H}_{3}}\]

D)

\[{{H}_{2}}C=CH-C{{H}_{2}}-C{{H}_{3}}\]

View Answer
131) What is\[\underline{X}\]in the following nuclear reaction? \[_{11}N{{a}^{23}}{{+}_{0}}{{n}^{1}}{{\to }_{11}}N{{a}^{24}}+\underline{X}\]

A)

\[_{1}{{H}^{1}}\]

B)

\[_{2}H{{e}^{4}}\]

C)

\[_{1}{{H}^{2}}\]

D)

\[\gamma -\]ray (gamma ray)

View Answer
132) HA is a weak acid. The pH of 0.1 M HA solution is 2. What is the degree of dissociation\[(\alpha )\]of HA?

A)

0.5

B)

0.2

C)

0.1

D)

0.301

View Answer
133) In the following reaction, A and B, respectively are: \[\underline{A}\xrightarrow[{}]{HBr}{{C}_{2}}{{H}_{5}}Br,\xrightarrow[{}]{B}\underline{A}\]

A)

\[{{C}_{2}}{{H}_{4}},alc\,KOH/\Delta \]

B)

\[{{C}_{2}}{{H}_{5}}Cl,aq\,KOH/\Delta \]

C)

\[C{{H}_{3}}OH,aq\,KOH/\Delta \]

D)

\[{{C}_{2}}{{H}_{2}},\,PB{{r}_{3}}\]

View Answer
134) The reagent(s) used in the preparation of aspirin from salicylic acid:

A)

\[SOC{{l}_{2}},\]pyridine

B)

\[{{(C{{H}_{3}}CO)}_{2}}O,{{H}^{+}}\]

C)

\[C{{H}_{3}}C{{O}_{2}}H,HCl\]

D)

\[C{{H}_{3}}Cl,AlC{{l}_{3}}\]

View Answer
135) The equilibrium reaction that is not influenced by volume change at constant temperature is:

A)

\[{{H}_{2}}(g)+{{I}_{2}}(g)2HI(g)\]

B)

\[{{N}_{2}}(g)+3{{H}_{2}}(g)2N{{H}_{3}}(g)\]

C)

\[{{N}_{2}}{{O}_{4}}(g)2N{{O}_{2}}(g)\]

D)

\[2NO(g)+{{O}_{2}}2N{{O}_{2}}(g)\]

View Answer
136) Consider the following solutions of equal concentrations: \[A=N{{H}_{4}}Cl\]                          \[B=C{{H}_{3}}COONa\] \[C=N{{H}_{4}}OH\]      \[D=C{{H}_{3}}COOH\] A buffer solution can be obtained by mixing equal volumes of:

A)

C and D

B)

A and B

C)

A and C

D)

C and D

View Answer
137) In the following reaction, X and Y respectively are: \[{{C}_{2}}{{H}_{5}}OH\xrightarrow[{}]{KMn{{O}_{4}}/{{H}^{+}}}\underline{X}\xrightarrow[{{H}_{2}}S{{O}_{4}}/\Delta ]{Y}C{{H}_{2}}C{{O}_{2}}{{C}_{2}}{{H}_{5}}\]

A)

\[C{{H}_{3}}OH,{{C}_{2}}{{H}_{5}}OH\]

B)

\[C{{H}_{3}}CHO,C{{H}_{3}}OH\]

C)

\[C{{H}_{3}}C{{O}_{2}}H,{{C}_{2}}{{H}_{5}}OH\]

D)

\[{{C}_{2}}{{H}_{4}},C{{H}_{3}}C{{O}_{2}}H\]

View Answer
138) The reaction conditions used for converting 1, 2-dibromopropane to propylene are:

A)

KOH, alcohol\[/\Delta \]

B)

KOH, water\[/\Delta \]

C)

Zn, alcohol \[/\Delta \]

D)

Na, alcohol\[/\Delta \]

View Answer
139) Which of the following is a Lewis acid?

A)

\[AlC{{l}_{3}}\]

B)

\[C{{l}^{-}}\]

C)

\[CO\]

D)

\[{{C}_{2}}{{H}_{2}}\]

View Answer
140) If "a" and\[''{{t}_{1/2}}''\]are initial concentration of reactant and half-life of a zero order reaction respectively, which of the following is correct?

A)

\[{{t}_{1/2}}\propto \frac{1}{a}\]

B)

\[{{t}_{1/2}}\propto a\]

C)

\[{{t}_{1/2}}\propto \frac{1}{{{a}^{2}}}\]

D)

\[{{t}_{1/2}}\propto {{a}^{2}}\]

View Answer
141) All monosaccharides ....... Tollen's reagent:

A)

oxidises

B)

condense with

C)

reduces

D)

add to

View Answer
142) The product formed in the reaction of glycine with benzoyl chloride 4- aq\[NaOH\]:

A)

\[PhCOC{{H}_{2}}N{{H}_{2}}\]

B)

\[PhC{{H}_{2}}N{{H}_{2}}\]

C)

\[PhCONHC{{H}_{3}}\]

D)

\[PhCONHC{{H}_{2}}C{{O}_{2}}H\]

View Answer
143) The rate constant of a reaction is found to be\[3\times {{10}^{-3}}mol.\text{ }{{L}^{-1}}mi{{n}^{-1}}\]. The order of the reaction is:

A)

zero

B)

1

C)

2

D)

1.5

View Answer
144) What is the two third life of a first order reaction having\[k=5.48\times {{10}^{-14}}{{s}^{-1}}\]:

A)

\[2.01\times {{10}^{11}}s\]

B)

\[2.01\times {{10}^{13}}s\]

C)

\[8.08\times {{10}^{13}}s\]

D)

\[16.04\times {{10}^{11}}s\]

View Answer
145) Which of the following solvents are aprotic? \[N{{H}_{3}}\]                                  \[S{{O}_{2}}\] \[C{{H}_{3}}CN\]                              \[C{{H}_{3}}C{{O}_{2}}H\]

A)

A, B, C

B)

A, C, D

C)

B, C

D)

A, C

View Answer
146) Chlorobenzene is o, p-directing in electrophilic substitution reaction. The directing influence is explained by:

A)

+ M of\[Ph\]

B)

\[+I\] of\[Cl\]

C)

+M of\[Cl\]

D)

\[-I\] of\[Ph\]

View Answer
147) 5 L of a solution contains 25 mg of\[CaC{{O}_{3}}\]. What is its concentration in ppm?(mol. wt. of \[CaC{{O}_{3}}\]is 100):

A)

25

B)

1

C)

5

D)

2500

View Answer
148) Observe the following abbrevations: \[{{\pi }_{obs}}=\]observed colligative property \[{{\pi }_{cal}}=\]theoretical colligative property assuming normal behaviour of solute. van't Hoff factor (i) is given by:

A)

\[i={{\pi }_{obs}}\times {{\pi }_{cal}}\]

B)

\[i={{\pi }_{obs}}+{{\pi }_{cal}}\]

C)

\[i={{\pi }_{obs}}-{{\pi }_{cal}}\]

D)

\[i=\frac{{{\pi }_{obs}}}{{{\pi }_{cal}}}\]

View Answer
149) The correct order for homolytic bond dissociation energies (\[\Delta H\]in kcal/Mol) for \[C{{H}_{4}}(A),{{C}_{2}}{{H}_{6}}(B)\]and\[C{{H}_{3}}Br(C),\]under identical experimental conditions:

A)

\[C>B>A\]

B)

\[B>C>A\]

C)

\[C>A>B\]

D)

\[A>B>C\]

View Answer
150) \[RX+{{I}^{-}}\xrightarrow{{}}R-I+{{X}^{-}}\]is an example of ....... reaction:

A)

nucleophilic addition

B)

nucleophilic substitution

C)

electrophilic addition

D)

elimination

View Answer
151) Protista includes:

A)

dinoflagellates, Amoeba, Paramecium

B)

mushroom, Paramecium, Euglena

C)

Hydra, Amoeba, Paramecium

D)

yeast, Euglena, dinoflagellates

View Answer
152) Ranthambore National Park is situated in :

A)

Assam

B)

Jharkhand

C)

Uttaranchal

D)

Rajasthan

View Answer
153) Scientific name of king cobra is :

A)

Naja naja

B)

Bungarus coerulus

C)

Naja hunnah

D)

Viper a russelli

View Answer
154) Select the correct statement:

A)

Birds are poikilothermic

B)

Flatworms are coelomic animals

C)

Earthworm is metamerically segmented

D)

Fishes are radially symmetrical

View Answer
155) Select the correct statement:

A)

cleavage follows gastrulation

B)

yolk content in egg has no role in cleavage

C)

cleavage is repeated mitotic division of zygote

D)

gastrulation and blastulation are followed by each other

View Answer
156) Select the correct set of animals of class mammalia :

A)

lion, hippopotamus, penguin, bat

B)

lion, bat, whale, ostrich

C)

hippopotamus, penguin, whale, kangaroo

D)

whale, bat, kangaroo, hippopotamus

View Answer
157) Select the statement which is not correct:

A)

Polygenic character is controlled by multiple alleles

B)

In case of polygenic inheritance thousands of intermediate phenotypes are found between 2 extreme ones

C)

Height, weight, skin colour are polygenic

D)

Polygenic character is controlled by multiple genes

View Answer
158) Serum is :

A)

blood without corpuscles

B)

blood without fibrinogen

C)

blood without fibrinogen and corpuscles

D)

otherwise called as plasma

View Answer
159) The blood cell involved in production of humoral immunity is :

A)

B-lymphocyte

B)

T-lymphocyte

C)

eosinophil

D)

monocytes

View Answer
160) The difference between blood and lymph is:

A)

blood has RBC and WBC while lymph has no cells

B)

blood has RBC and WBC while lymph only WBC

C)

blood has WBC while lymph has RBC

D)

blood has dissolve salt while lymph has no cells

View Answer
161) The hormone insulin is secreted by :

A)

pancreas

B)

liver

C)

kidney

D)

adrenal gland

View Answer
162) The outermost covering               of brain is:

A)

duramater

B)

arachnoid

C)

piamater

D)

choroid layer

View Answer
163) The primary host of Plasmodium is :

A)

man

B)

male Culex

C)

sheep

D)

female Anopheles

View Answer
164) Characteristic features such as four-chambered heart, feather and pneumatic bone are applicable to which class of vertebrate?

A)

Cyclostomata

B)

Aves

C)

Reptilia

D)

Mammals

View Answer
165) The statement, ?Tiger is in the apex of food chain?, indicates:

A)

tiger has many enemies

B)

tiger has maximum biomass

C)

tiger is omnivorous

D)

tiger is dependent upon large number of herbivores and even more number of trees in forest

View Answer
166) The term test cross refers to a cross between :

A)

\[{{F}_{1}}\] hybird with another \[{{F}_{1}}\]hybrid

B)

\[{{F}_{1}}\]hybrid and a double recessive individual

C)

\[{{F}_{1}}\]hybrid and either of the parents

D)

\[{{F}_{1}}\]hybrid and \[{{F}_{2}}\]individual

View Answer
167) Tusk of elephant is modified :

A)

incisor

B)

canine

C)

premolar

D)

molar

View Answer
168) Water vascular system is characteristic feature of phylum:

A)

Porifera

B)

Colenterata

C)

Mollusca

D)

Echinodermata

View Answer
169) What is cholecystokinin?

A)

Enzyme

B)

Bile-pigement

C)

Gastro-intestinal hormone

D)

Lipid

View Answer
170) Which of the following is correct about mammalian testes?

A)

Graafian follicles, Sertoli cells, Leydig cells

B)

Graafian follicles, Sertoli cells, seminiferous tubules

C)

Sertoli cells, seminiferous tubules, cells

D)

Graafian follicle, Leydig cells seminiferous tubules

View Answer
171) Which is not correct with respect to human kidney?

A)

The peripheral region is called cortex and central medulla

B)

Malpighian capsule are present in the cortex region

C)

Blood enters glomerulus trough efferent arterioles

D)

The concave part of kidney is called hilus

View Answer
172) Which of the following is correct?

A)

Leukemia - skin cancer

B)

Diabetes - sugar free

C)

Rheumatic fever - defective pacemaker

D)

Heart attack - radiation therapy

View Answer
173) Which of the following is exsitu conservation'

A)

Banning of Akhard Sikar in Similipal

B)

Breeding of animals in Nandan Kanaha

C)

Protecting migration of birds in Chilka lake

D)

Protecting fishing in Bhitar Kanika

View Answer
174) Which of the following is not a correct match?

A)

Sex determination - a chromosomal phenomenon

B)

Y chromosome - autosomal

C)

Red green colour blindness in human - a sex linked character

D)

An abnormal chromosome number in each cell - a case of polyploidy

View Answer
175) Which of the following is not a correct pair?

A)

Mesozoic era-age of mammals

B)

Origin of species-Charles Darwin

C)

Study of fossil-Palaeontology

D)

Mutation theory-Hugo de Vries

View Answer
176) Which of the following pyramid of numbers in ecology is rot upright?

A)

Pond ecosystem

B)

Desert ecosystem

C)

Tree ecosystem

D)

Forest ecosystem

View Answer
177) Which of the following sets of characters are applicable in metamorphosis of tadpole larva of frog and toads?

A)

Reabsorption of gills and resorption of tail

B)

Reabsorption of gills and lengthening of tail

C)

Complete development of gills and reabsorption of tail

D)

Complex development of gills and lengthening of tail

View Answer
178) Which of the following is wrongly matched?

A)

Arthropoda-cockroach

B)

Annelida-Hydra

C)

Echinodermata-star fish

D)

Nemathelminthes-Ascaris

View Answer
179) Wuchereria bancrofti 'S :

A)

a Platyhelminthes

B)

only host in man

C)

causing blockage of lymphatic vessel

D)

none of the above

View Answer
180) Middle piece of sperm contains:

A)

mitochondria, Golgi bodies, centriole

B)

axial filament, centriole, Golgi bodies

C)

mitochondria, centriole, axial filament

D)

Golgi bodies, axial filament, centriole

View Answer
181) Statement 1: Cephalochordata bears noto-chord all along the body throughout life. Statement 2 : Urochordate bears vertebral column only in tail throughout the life. Which statement is correct?

A)

Both 1st and 2nd are correct

B)

1st correct, 2nd wrong

C)

1st wrong, 2nd correct

D)

Both 1st and 2nd are wrong

View Answer
182) Secretin hormone is secreted from :

A)

stomach and stimulates gastric gland

B)

duodenum and stimulates liver

C)

thyroid and stimulates thyroid gland

D)

duodenum and stimulates pancreas

View Answer
183) The main point of Darwin?s theory is:

A)

variation

B)

natural selection

C)

enormous fertility

D)

mutation

View Answer
184) Which of the following is discovered by Kendall?

A)

FSH and LH

B)

Corticotrophin

C)

Thyroxine

D)

Insulin

View Answer
185) Reserpine is obtained from :

A)

Asafoetida

B)

Rauwolfia serpentine

C)

Curcuma longa

D)

Papaver somniferum

View Answer
186) The coiling of tendril around some base in response to touch is called :

A)

hydrotaxis

B)

chemotaxis

C)

thigmotropism

D)

geotaxis

View Answer
187) Sperm enters from which part of egg :

A)

any where in unfertilized egg from animal pole

B)

from animal pole in unfertilized egg

C)

in unfertilized egg from vegetai pole

D)

none of the above

View Answer
188) Seed coat is derived from :

A)

pericarp

B)

epicarp

C)

integuments of ovule

D)

nucellus

View Answer
189) 6 molecules glucose + 6 molecules of \[{{O}_{2}}\] and 38 ADP combined to form \[6{{H}_{2}}O,\text{ }6C{{O}_{2}}\] and :

A)

38 molecules of ATP

B)

28 ATP

C)

38 ADP

D)

28 ADP

View Answer
190) A characteristic feature of ovary of Brassica campestris is:

A)

presence of feplum

B)

axile placentation

C)

epignous

D)

multilocular nature

View Answer
191) One of the characteristic of Hydra is :

A)

predation

B)

metamerism

C)

hibernation

D)

mimicry

View Answer
192) Where does exoerythrocytic cycle take place in life cycle of Plasmodium?

A)

RLC of human

B)

Human liver

C)

Stomach of Anopheles mosquito

D)

Salivary gland of Anopheles mosquito

View Answer
193) Primary acceptor of \[C{{O}_{2}}\] in photosynthesis is:

A)

phosphoric acid

B)

ribulose phosphate

C)

glucose

D)

ribulose 1, 5 biphosphate

View Answer
194) If Hydra is cut transversely in three equal parts then :

A)

all three parts will die

B)

regeneration will occur in all the three parts

C)

regeneration will occur only in anterior

D)

regeneration occurs only in middle part

View Answer
195) Which of the following pair lack the unit membrane?

A)

Nucleus and ER

B)

Mitochondria and chloroplast

C)

Ribosome and nucleolus

D)

Golgi body and lysosome

View Answer
196) Which of the following statement is correct ?

A)

In Cycas, megasporophyll produce pollen grains

B)

In Agaricus, gills produce basidiospores

C)

In Aspergillus, fruiting body is perithecium

D)

In Funaria, capsule represents gametophytic generation

View Answer
197) The number of DNA is chromosome at \[{{G}_{2}}\]stage:

A)

one

B)

two

C)

four

D)

eight

View Answer
198) How many egg are found in egg chamber of female cockroach ?

A)

2

B)

4

C)

8

D)

16

View Answer
199) Which of the following is a disaccharide?

A)

Glucose

B)

Fructose

C)

Sucrose

D)

Galactose

View Answer
200) If all the peptide bonds of protein are broken, then the remaining part is :

A)

amide

B)

oligosaccharide

C)

polypeptide

D)

amino acid

View Answer
201) Periplaneta has no respiratory pigment in its blood because:

A)

air is conducted directly to the body tissues

B)

it has haemocoelom

C)

it has anaerobic respiration

D)

it lacks blood cell in blood

View Answer
202) Which is correct for meiotic metaphase-I?

A)

Bivalents are arranged at equator

B)

Univalents are arranged at equator

C)

Non-homologous chromosomes forms pair

D)

Spindle fibres are attached at chromomere

View Answer
203) Hydrolysis of lipid yields :

A)

fats

B)

fatty acids and glycerol

C)

mannose and glycerol

D)

maltose and fatty acid

View Answer
204) In the following how the sap wood is converted into heart wood?

A)

By degeneration of protoplast of living cells

B)

Tylosis formation

C)

By deposition of resins, oil, gums etc

D)

All of the above

View Answer
205) In which of the following animal cleavage divisions are restricted to a small part of cytoplasm and nucleus in animal pole of egg?

A)

Cockroach

B)

Frog

C)

Chick

D)

Rabbit

View Answer
206) Exception of Mendel?s law is:

A)

independent assortment

B)

linkage

C)

purity of gametes

D)

none of the above

View Answer
207) What type of gametes will form by genotype RrYy ?

A)

RY, Ry, rY, ry

B)

RY, Ry, ry, ry

C)

Ry, Ry, Yy, ry

D)

Rr, RR, Yy, YY

View Answer
208) The position of protoxylem in leaf is :

A)

adaxial

B)

abaxial

C)

surrounded by metaxylem

D)

lateral

View Answer
209) In Pheretima, locomotion occurs with the help of:

A)

circular muscles

B)

longitudinal muscles and setae

C)

circular, longitudinal muscles and setae

D)

parapodia

View Answer
210) The difference in phloem of gymnosperms and angiosperms is due to :

A)

parenchyma

B)

sieve cell

C)

companion cell

D)

fibres

View Answer
211) A type of life cycle in which plasmogamy, karyogamy, haplodization takes place but not at specific place in life cycle of an organism is called as:

A)

parasexuality

B)

heterozygosity

C)

homozygosity

D)

asexuality

View Answer
212) In Amoeba which controls the cytoplasmic osmality:

A)

nucleus

B)

ectoplasm

C)

biurets

D)

contractile vacuole

View Answer
213) Branched, aseptate. coenocytic mycelium present in :

A)

Aspergillus

B)

Albugo

C)

Penicillium

D)

Erysiphe

View Answer
214) In which of the following aestivation sepal?s/ petal's one margin covers the other and its margin is covered by previous one?

A)

Valvate

B)

Twisted

C)

Imbricate

D)

Quincuncial

View Answer
215) In Cockroach vision is due to :

A)

one compound eye

B)

only two compound eyes

C)

two simple eyes

D)

two compound and two simple eyes

View Answer
216) The economically important plant of Malvaceae :

A)

Gossypium kirsutum

B)

Hibiscus cannabis

C)

Abelmoschus esculentum

D)

All of the above

View Answer
217) The cells without nuclei are present in :

A)

vascular cambium

B)

root hair

C)

companion cell

D)

members of sieve tube

View Answer
218) Which of the following is not correctly matched ?

A)

Rhinoncephalon-olfactory

B)

Hypothalamus-pituitary

C)

Cerebellum-balance

D)

Medulla oblongata-temperature regulation

View Answer
219) Pyruvic acid is the end product of which process?

A)

Krebs cycle

B)

Calvin cycle

C)

Pentose phosphate pathway

D)

Glycolysis

View Answer
220) The nutritive layer of microsporangia of cypsella:

A)

endothecium

B)

exothecium

C)

sporogenous tissue

D)

tapetum

View Answer
221) The scientist who was awarded Nobel prize in 1959 for in vitro synthesis of polyribonucleotide :

A)

Kornberg

B)

Calvin

C)

Khorana

D)

Ochoa

View Answer
222) Which of the following have sunken stomata?

A)

Nerium

B)

Mangifera

C)

Hydrilla

D)

Zea mays

View Answer
223) Heterocercal tail is found in :

A)

cartilaginous fishes

B)

bony fishes

C)

whale

D)

amphibians

View Answer
224) When a plasmolysed cells is placed in a hypotonic solution then water will move inside the cell. Which force causes this?

A)

DPD

B)

OP

C)

WP

D)

None of these

View Answer
225) Dormancy of seed is broken by :

A)

auxin

B)

gibberellins

C)

ethylene

D)

cytokinin

View Answer

Study Package

Buy Now

Colloidal solution	Gold number
A	0.01
B	2.5
C	20

Solved papers for J & K CET Medical J & K - CET Medical Solved Paper-2006

done J & K - CET Medical Solved Paper-2006 Total Questions - 225

Study Package

J & K - CET Medical Solved Paper-2006 Total Questions - 225