Solved papers for J & K CET Medical J & K - CET Medical Solved Paper-2008

J & K - CET Medical Solved Paper-2008 Total Questions - 225

1) A solid cylinder is rolling down on an inclined plane of angle\[\theta \]. The coefficient of static friction between the plane and cylinder \[{{\mu}_{s}}\]. Then condition for the cylinder not to slip is

A)

\[\tan \theta \ge 3{{\mu }_{s}}\]

B)

\[\tan \theta >3{{\mu }_{s}}\]

C)

\[\tan \theta \le 3{{\mu }_{s}}\]

D)

\[\tan \theta <3{{\mu }_{s}}\]

View Answer
2) The moment of inertia of a circular ring of mass kg about an axis passing through its centre and perpendicular to its plane is \[4\text{ }kg-{{m}^{2}}.\] The diameter of the ring is

A)

2 m

B)

4 m

C)

5 m

D)

6 m

View Answer
3) If g is the acceleration due to gravity on the surface of earth, its value at a height equal to double the radius of earth is

A)

g

B)

\[\frac{g}{2}\]

C)

\[\frac{g}{3}\]

D)

\[\frac{g}{9}\]

View Answer
4) On bombardment of \[{{U}^{235}}\]by slow neutrons, 200 MeV energy is released. If the power output of atomic reactor is 1.6 MW, then the rate of fission will be

A)

\[5\times {{10}^{16}}{{/}_{s}}\]

B)

\[10\times {{10}^{16}}{{/}_{s}}\]

C)

\[15\times {{10}^{16}}{{/}_{s}}\]

D)

\[20\times {{10}^{-16}}{{/}_{s}}\]

View Answer
5) A stress of \[3.18\times {{10}^{8}}N-{{m}^{-2}}\] is applied to a steel rod of length 1 m along its length. Its Youngs modulus is \[2\times {{10}^{11}}\text{ }N-{{m}^{-2}}.\] Then, the elongation produced in the rod (in mm) is

A)

3.18

B)

6.36

C)

5.18

D)

1.59

View Answer
6) A liquid is allowed into a tube of truncated cone shape. Identify the correct statement from the following.

A)

The speed is high at the wider end and low at the narrow end

B)

The speed is low at the wider end and high at the narrow end

C)

The speed is same at both ends in a stream line flow

D)

The liquid flows with uniform velocity in the tube

View Answer
7) A sphere of radius R is gently dropped into liquid of viscosity \[\eta \] in a vertical uniform tube. It attains a terminal velocity v. Another sphere of radius 2 R when dropped into the same liquid, will attain its terminal velocity

A)

v

B)

2v

C)

4v

D)

9v

View Answer
8) The excess pressure in a bubble of radius R of a gas in a liquid of surface tension S is

A)

\[\frac{2S}{R}\]

B)

\[\frac{2R}{S}\]

C)

\[\frac{2S}{{{R}^{2}}}\]

D)

\[\frac{2{{R}^{2}}}{S}\]

View Answer
9) The average kinetic energy of a gas molecule is

A)

Proportional to pressure of gas

B)

inversely proportional to volume of gas

C)

inversely proportional to absolute temperature of gas

D)

directly proportional to absolute temperature of gas

View Answer
10) Ideal gas undergoes an adiabatic change in its state from \[({{p}_{1}},{{V}_{1}},{{T}_{1}})\]to \[({{p}_{2}},{{V}_{2}},{{T}_{2}}).\] The work done (W) in the process is (\[\mu \] = number of molecules, \[{{C}_{p}}\]and \[{{C}_{v}}\]are molar specific heats of gas)

A)

\[w=\mu {{C}_{p}}({{T}_{1}}-{{T}_{2}})\]

B)

\[w=\mu {{C}_{v}}({{T}_{1}}-{{T}_{2}})\]

C)

\[w=\mu {{C}_{p}}({{T}_{1}}+{{T}_{2}})\]

D)

\[w=\mu {{C}_{v}}({{T}_{1}}+{{T}_{2}})\]

View Answer
11) For an ideal gas

A)

\[{{C}_{p}}\]is less than\[{{C}_{v}}\]

B)

\[{{C}_{p}}\]is equal to \[{{C}_{v}}\]

C)

\[{{C}_{p}}\]is greater than\[{{C}_{v}}\]

D)

\[{{C}_{p}}={{C}_{v}}=0\]

View Answer
12) For a gas molecule with 6 degrees of freedom the law of equipartition of energy gives the following relation between the molecular specific heat \[({{C}_{v}})\] and gas constant (R)

A)

\[{{C}_{v}}=\frac{R}{2}\]

B)

\[{{C}_{v}}=R\]

C)

\[{{C}_{v}}=2R\]

D)

\[{{C}_{v}}=3R\]

View Answer
13) Wiens displacement law for emission of radiation can be written as

A)

\[{{\lambda }_{\max }}\] is proportional to absolute temperature (T)

B)

\[{{\lambda }_{\max }}\] is proportional to square of absolute temperature \[({{T}^{2}})\]

C)

\[{{\lambda }_{\max }}\] is inversely proportional to absolute temperature (T)

D)

\[{{\lambda }_{\max }}\] is inversely proportional to square of absolute temperature \[({{T}^{2}})\] (\[{{\lambda }_{\max }}\] = wavelength whose energy density is greatest)

View Answer
14) The frequency of the fundamental note in a wire stretched under tension T is f. If the tension is increased to 25 T, then the frequency of the fundamental note will be

A)

25f

B)

5f

C)

10f

D)

f

View Answer
15) The frequency of fundamental note in an organ pipe is 240 Hz. On blowing air, frequencies 720 Hz and 1200 Hz are heard. This indicates that organ pipe is

A)

a pipe closed at one end

B)

a pipe open at both ends

C)

closed at both ends

D)

having holes like flute

View Answer
16) If \[{{L}_{1}}\]and \[{{L}_{2}}\]are the lengths of the first and second resonating air columns in a resonance tube, then the wavelength of the note produced is

A)

\[2({{L}_{2}}+{{L}_{1}})\]

B)

\[2({{L}_{2}}-{{L}_{1}})\]

C)

\[2\left( {{L}_{2}}-\frac{{{L}_{1}}}{2} \right)\]

D)

\[2\left( {{L}_{2}}+\frac{{{L}_{1}}}{2} \right)\]

View Answer
17) Beats are produced by frequencies \[{{f}_{1}}\]and \[{{f}_{2}}\left( {{f}_{1}}>{{f}_{2}} \right).\]The duration of time between two successive maxima or minima is equal to

A)

\[\frac{1}{{{f}_{1}}+{{f}_{2}}}\]

B)

\[\frac{2}{{{f}_{1}}-{{f}_{2}}}\]

C)

\[\frac{2}{{{f}_{1}}+{{f}_{2}}}\]

D)

\[\frac{2}{{{f}_{1}}-{{f}_{2}}}\]

View Answer
18) If a body is executing simple harmonic motion, then

A)

at extreme positions, the total energy is zero

B)

at equilibrium position, the total energy is in the form of potential energy

C)

at equilibrium position, the total energy is in the form of kinetic energy

D)

at extreme position, the total energy is infinite

View Answer
19) An electric dipole has a pair of equal and opposite point charges q and - q separated by a distance 2x. The axis of the dipole is defined as

A)

direction from positive charge to negative charge

B)

direction from negative charge to positive charge

C)

perpendicular to the line joining the two charges drawn at the centre and pointing upward direction

D)

perpendicular to the line joining the two charges drawn at the centre and pointing downward direction

View Answer
20) The dipole moment of a dipole in an uniform external field E is P. Then, the torque (x) acting on the dipole is

A)

\[\vec{t}=\vec{p}\times \vec{E}\]

B)

\[\vec{t}=\vec{p}.\vec{E}\]

C)

\[\vec{t}=2(\vec{p}+\vec{E})\]

D)

\[\vec{t}=(\vec{p}+\vec{E})\]

View Answer
21) The electric flux through a closed surface area S enclosing charge Q is \[\phi .\] If the surface area is doubled, then the flux is

A)

\[2\phi \]

B)

\[\phi /2\]

C)

\[\phi /4\]

D)

\[\phi \]

View Answer
22) Consider a thin spherical shell of radius R consisting of uniform surface charge density 0. The electric field at a point of distance x from its centre and outside the shell is

A)

inversely proportional to\[\sigma \]

B)

directly proportional to \[{{x}^{2}}\]

C)

directly proportional to \[\sigma \]

D)

inversely proportional to \[{{x}^{2}}\]

View Answer
23) The work done in bringing at a unit positive charge from infinity distance to a point at distance X from a positive charge Q is W. Then, the potential \[^{\phi }\] at that point is

A)

\[\frac{wQ}{x}\]

B)

\[w\]

C)

\[\frac{w}{Q}\]

D)

\[wQ\]

View Answer
24) The capacitance C of a capacitor is

A)

independent of the charge and potential of the capacitor

B)

dependent on the charge and independent of potential

C)

independent of the geometrical configuration of the capacitor

D)

independent of the dielectric medium between the two conducting surfaces of the capacitor

View Answer
25) Four capacitors are connected in a circuit as shown in the following figure. Calculate the effective capacitance between the points A and B.

A)

\[\frac{4}{3}\mu F\]

B)

\[\frac{24}{5}\mu F\]

C)

\[9\mu F\]

D)

\[5\mu F\]

View Answer
26) Metals have

A)

zero resistivity

B)

high resistivity

C)

low resistivity

D)

infinite resistivity

View Answer
27) The electric potential inside a conducting sphere

A)

increases from centre to surface

B)

decreases from centre to surface

C)

remains constant from centre to surface

D)

is zero at every point inside

View Answer
28) Electron of mass m and charge e in external field E experiences acceleration

A)

\[\frac{e}{mE}\] in the opposite direction to the field

B)

\[\frac{eE}{m}\] in the direction of the field m

C)

\[\frac{em}{E}\], in the direction of the field

D)

\[\frac{eE}{m}\], in the opposite direction of the field m

View Answer
29) Kirchhof Ps second law for the analysis of circuit is based on

A)

conservation of charge

B)

conservation of energy

C)

conservation of both charge and energy

D)

conservation of momentum of electron

View Answer
30) In circuit shown below, the resistances are given in ohm and the battery is assumed ideal with emf equal to 3 V. The voltage across the resistance \[{{R}_{4}}\] is

A)

0.4 V

B)

0.6V

C)

1.2 V

D)

1.5 V

View Answer
31) The direction of induced magnetic field d \[\mathbf{\vec{B}}\] due to current element id \[\vec{L}\] at a point of distance r from it, when a current i passes through a long conductor is in the direction

A)

of position vector \[\vec{r}\] of the point

B)

of current element d \[\vec{L}\]

C)

perpendicular to both d \[\vec{L}\]and \[\vec{r}\]

D)

perpendicular to d \[\vec{L}\] only

View Answer
32) The magnetic force on a charged particle moving in the field does not work, because

A)

kinetic energy of the charged particle does not change

B)

the charge of the particle remains same

C)

the magnetic force is parallel to velocity of the particle

D)

the magnetic force is parallel to magnetic field

View Answer
33) To convert a moving coil galvanometer (MCG) into a voltmeter

A)

a high resistance R is connected in parallel with MCG

B)

a low resistance r is connected in parallel with MCG

C)

a low resistance r is connected in series with MCG

D)

a high resistance R is connected in series with MCG

View Answer
34) Identify the correct statement from the following.

A)

Cyclotron frequency is dependent on speed of the charged particle

B)

Kinetic energy of charged particle in cyclotron does not dependent on its mass

C)

Cyclotron frequency does not depend on speed of charged particle

D)

Kinetic energy of charged particle in cyclotron is independent of its charge

View Answer
35) Consider two straight parallel conductors A and B separated by a distance x and carrying individual currents and iB respectively. If the two conductors attract each other, it indicates that

A)

the two currents are parallel in direction

B)

the two currents are anti-parallel in direction

C)

the magnetic lines of induction are parallel

D)

the magnetic lines of induction are parallel to length of conductors

View Answer
36) The magnetic susceptibility of paramagnetic materials is

A)

positive, but very high

B)

negative, but small

C)

negative but very high

D)

positive, but small

View Answer
37) According to Lenzs law of electromagnetic induction

A)

the induced emf is not in the direction opposing the change in magnetic flux

B)

the relative motion between the coil and magnet produces change in magnetic flux

C)

only the magnet should be moved towards coil

D)

only the coil should be moved towards magnet

View Answer
38) According to phenomenon of mutual inductance

A)

the mutual inductance does not dependent on geometry of the two coils involved

B)

the mutual inductance depends on the intrinsic magnetic property, like relative permeability of the material

C)

the mutual inductance is independent of the magnetic property of the material

D)

ratio of magnetic flux produced by the coil 1 at the place of the coil 2 and the current in the coil 2 will be different from that of the ratio defined by interchanging the coils

View Answer
39) The natural frequency (\[{{\omega }_{0}}\]) of oscillations in L-C circuit is given by

A)

\[\frac{1}{2\pi }\frac{1}{\sqrt{LC}}\]

B)

\[\frac{1}{2\pi }\sqrt{LC}\]

C)

\[\frac{1}{\sqrt{LC}}\]

D)

\[\sqrt{LC}\]

View Answer
40) In L-C-R series circuit the resonance condition in terms of capacitive reactance \[({{X}_{c}})\] and inductive reactance \[({{X}_{L}})\] is

A)

\[{{X}_{c}}+{{X}_{L}}=0\]

B)

\[{{X}_{c}}=0\]

C)

\[{{X}_{L}}=0\]

D)

\[{{X}_{c}}-{{X}_{L}}=0\]

View Answer
41) In step-up transformer, relation between number of turns in primary \[({{N}_{p}})\] and number of turns in secondary \[({{N}_{s}})\] coils is

A)

\[{{N}_{s}}\]is greater than \[{{N}_{p}}\]

B)

\[{{N}_{p}}\]is greater than \[{{N}_{s}}\]

C)

\[{{N}_{s}}\]is equal to \[{{N}_{p}}\]

D)

\[{{N}_{p}}=\text{ }2{{N}_{s}}\]

View Answer
42) Two light sources are said to be of coherent nature

A)

when they have same frequency and a varying phase difference

B)

when they have same frequency and a constant phase difference

C)

when they have constant phase difference and different frequencies

D)

when they have varying phase difference and different frequencies

View Answer
43) In Youngs double slit interference pattern the fringe width

A)

can be changed only by changing the wavelength of incident light

B)

can be changed only by changing the separation between the two slits

C)

can be changed either by changing the wavelength or by changing the separation between two sources

D)

is a universal constant and hence cannot be changed

View Answer
44) Colours in thin films are due to

A)

diffraction phenomenon

B)

scattering phenomenon

C)

interference phenomenon

D)

polarization phenomenon

View Answer
45) Brewsters angle in terms of refractive index (n) of the medium

A)

\[{{\tan }^{-1}}\sqrt{n}\]

B)

\[{{\sin }^{-1}}n\]

C)

\[{{\sin }^{-1}}\sqrt{n}\]

D)

\[{{\tan }^{-1}}n\]

View Answer
46) The angle of incidence of light is equal to Brewsters angle, then A reflected ray is perpendicular to refracted ray B refracted ray is parallel to reflected ray C reflected light is polarized having its electric vector in the plane of incidence D refracted light is polarized

A)

  and are true

B)

  and are true

C)

  and are true

D)

  and are true

View Answer
47) The working of optical fibres is based on

A)

dispersion of light

B)

total internal reflection

C)

polarization of light

D)

interference of light

View Answer
48) First Bohr radius of an atom with Z = 82 is R. Radius of its third orbit is

A)

9 R

B)

6 R

C)

3 R

D)

R

View Answer
49) The de-Broglie wavelength associated with a particle moving with momentum (p) and mass 56.

A)

\[\frac{h}{p}\]

B)

\[\frac{h}{mp}\]

C)

\[\frac{h}{{{p}^{2}}}\]

D)

\[\frac{{{h}^{2}}}{{{p}^{2}}}\]

View Answer
50) The angular momentum (L) of an electron moving in a stable orbit around mucleus is

A)

half integral multiple of\[\frac{h}{2\pi }\]

B)

integral multiple of h

C)

integral multiple of\[\frac{h}{2\pi }\]

D)

half integral multiple of h

View Answer
51) According to Moseleys law of X-rays the frequency (v) of a particular characteristic X-ray and the atomic number (Z) of the element depend on each other as

A)

\[\sqrt{v}=k{{Z}^{2}}\]

B)

\[\sqrt{v}=\frac{h}{{{Z}^{2}}}\]

C)

\[v=kZ\]

D)

\[\sqrt{v}=kZ\]

View Answer
52) If \[\lambda \] is decay constant and N the number of radioactive nuclei of an element, then the decay rate (R) of that element is

A)

\[\lambda {{N}^{2}}\]

B)

\[\lambda N\]

C)

\[\frac{\lambda }{N}\]

D)

\[{{\lambda }^{2}}N\]

View Answer
53) The ratio of half-life times of two elements A and B is \[\frac{{{T}_{A}}}{{{B}_{B}}}\] The ratio of respective decay constants \[\frac{{{\lambda }_{A}}}{{{\lambda }_{B}}}\]is

A)

\[\frac{{{T}_{B}}}{{{T}_{A}}}\]

B)

\[\frac{{{T}_{A}}}{{{T}_{B}}}\]

C)

\[\frac{{{T}_{A}}+{{T}_{B}}}{{{T}_{A}}}\]

D)

\[\frac{{{T}_{A}}-{{T}_{B}}}{{{T}_{A}}}\]

View Answer
54) For a nuclear to be in critical condition, the value of neutron multiplication factor (k) must be

A)

\[K>1\]

B)

\[K<1\]

C)

\[K=1\]

D)

\[K=0\]

View Answer
55) If nE and nH represent the number of free electrons and holes respectively in a semiconducting material, then for n-type semiconducting material

A)

\[{{n}_{g}}<<{{n}_{H}}\]

B)

\[{{n}_{g}}>>{{n}_{H}}\]

C)

\[{{n}_{E}}={{n}_{H}}\]

D)

\[{{n}_{E}}={{n}_{H}}=0\]

View Answer
56) An intrinsic semiconductor at 0 K temperature behaves like

A)

conductor

B)

p-type semiconductor

C)

n-type semiconductor

D)

insulator

View Answer
57) When a p-n junction diode is connected in forward bias its barrier potential

A)

decreases and less current flows in the circuit

B)

decreases and more current flows in the circuit

C)

increases and more current flows in the circuit

D)

decreases and no current flows in the circuit

View Answer
58) The main cause of zener breakdown is

A)

the base semiconductor being germanium

B)

production of electron-hole pairs due to thermal excitation

C)

low doping

D)

high doping

View Answer
59) The depletion layer in a silicon diode is 1 \[\mu m\] wide and its knee potential is 0.6 V, then the electric field in the depletion layer will be

A)

\[0.6\text{ }V/m\]

B)

\[6\times 104\text{ }V/m\]

C)

\[6\times 105\text{ }V/m\]

D)

zero

View Answer
60) Identify the true statement for OR gate

A)

Output Y will be 1 when input A or B or both are 1

B)

Output Y will be 0 when the either of the inputs A or B is 1

C)

Output Y will be 1 only when both the inputs A and B are 1

D)

Output Y will be 1 only when either of the inputs A and B are 1

View Answer
61) Dimensional formula for force is

A)

\[[M{{L}^{2}}{{T}^{-2}}]\]

B)

\[[ML{{T}^{-2}}]\]

C)

\[[M{{L}^{-1}}{{T}^{-2}}]\]

D)

\[[M{{L}^{2}}{{T}^{-2}}]\]

View Answer
62) \[\vec{A}\] is a vector with magnitude A, then the unit vector \[\vec{a}\]in the direction of vector \[\vec{A}\]is

A)

\[A\,\vec{A}\]

B)

\[\vec{A}\,\,\,\vec{A}\]

C)

\[\vec{A}\times \vec{A}\]

D)

\[\frac{\left| {\vec{A}} \right|}{A}\]

View Answer
63) A body is under the action of two mutually perpendicular forces of 3 N and 4 N. The resultant force acting on the body is

A)

7 N

B)

1 N

C)

5 N

D)

zero

View Answer
64) If the scalar and vector products of two vectors \[\vec{A}\] and \[\vec{B}\]are equal in magnitude, then the angle between the two vectors is

A)

\[45{}^\circ \]

B)

\[90{}^\circ \]

C)

\[180{}^\circ \]

D)

\[360{}^\circ \]

View Answer
65) A body is moving along a straight line path with constant velocity. At an instant of time the distance travelled by it is s and its displacement is D, then

A)

D < s

B)

D > s

C)

D = s

D)

D < s

View Answer
66) A body is projected at an angle 0 with respect to horizontal direction with velocity u. The maximum range of the body is

A)

\[R=\frac{{{u}^{2}}\sin 2\theta }{g}\]

B)

\[R=\frac{{{u}^{2}}{{\sin }^{2}}\theta }{2g}\]

C)

\[R=\frac{{{u}^{2}}}{g}\]

D)

\[R={{u}^{2}}\sin \theta \]

View Answer
67) A body moving along a circular path of radius R with velocity v, has centripetal acceleration a. If its velocity is made equal to 2v, then its centripetal acceleration is

A)

4a

B)

2 a

C)

\[\frac{a}{4}\]

D)

\[\frac{a}{2}\]

View Answer
68) A cyclist is travelling with velocity v on a banked curved road of radius R. The angle 0 through which the cyclist leans inwards is given by

A)

\[\tan \theta =\frac{Rg}{{{v}^{2}}}\]

B)

\[\tan \theta ={{v}^{2}}Rg\]

C)

\[\tan \theta =\frac{{{v}^{2}}g}{R}\]

D)

\[\tan \theta =\frac{{{v}^{2}}}{Rg}\]

View Answer
69) A body starts from rest and moves with uniform acceleration. Which of the following graphs represent its motion ?

A)

B)



C)



D)



View Answer
70) A gun fires N bullets per second, each of mass m with velocity v. The force exerted by the bullets on the gun is

A)

\[vNm\]

B)

\[\frac{mv}{N}\]

C)

\[mv{{N}^{2}}\]

D)

\[\frac{m{{v}^{2}}}{N}\]

View Answer
71) The rate of mass of the gas emitted from rear of a rocket is initially 0.1 kg/s. If the speed of the gas relative to the rocket is 50 m/s and mass of the rocket is 2 kg, then the acceleration of the rocket (in\[m/{{s}^{2}}\]) is

A)

5

B)

5.2

C)

2.5

D)

25

View Answer
72) The area under the displacement-force curve gives

A)

distance travelled

B)

total force

C)

momentum

D)

work done

View Answer
73) Identify the correct statement for the rotational motion of a rigid body.

A)

Individual particles of the body do not undergo accelerated motion

B)

The centre of mass of the body remains unchanged

C)

The centre of mass of the body moves uniformly in a circular path.

D)

Individual particles and centre of mass the body undergo an accelerated motion

View Answer
74) The moment of inertia about an axis of a body which is rotating with angular velocity 1 rad/s is numerically equal to

A)

one-fourth of its rotational kinetic energy

B)

half of the rotational kinetic energy

C)

rotational kinetic energy

D)

twice the rotational kinetic energy

View Answer
75) The moment of inertia of a circular disc of radius 2 m and mass 2 kg, about an axis passing through its centre of mass is \[2\text{ }kg-{{m}^{2}}.\] Its moment of inertia about an axis parallel to this axis and passing through its edge (in \[2\text{ }kg-{{m}^{2}}.\]) is

A)

10

B)

8

C)

6

D)

4

View Answer
76) The phenomenon observed when a beam of light is passed through a colloidal solution, is

A)

cataphoresis

B)

delectrophoresis

C)

coagulation

D)

Tyndall effect

View Answer
77) In case of condensation of polymers

A)

high molecular weight polymers are formed all at once

B)

lower molecular weight polymers are formed all at once

C)

molecular weight of polymer rises throughout the reaction

D)

have no specific relation to their molecular weight

View Answer
78) The element with the lowest ionization potential is

A)

Na

B)

K

C)

Rb

D)

Cs

View Answer
79) Differentiating electron in inner transition elements enters the ......... orbital.

A)

\[s\]

B)

\[p\]

C)

\[d\]

D)

\[f\]

View Answer
80) Which one of the following is a non-polar molecule?

A)

\[CC{{l}_{4}}\]

B)

\[CHC{{l}_{3}}\]

C)

\[C{{H}_{2}}C{{l}_{2}}\]

D)

\[C{{H}_{3}}Cl\]

View Answer
81) The nature of the bond in diamond is

A)

ionic

B)

covalent

C)

metallic

D)

coordinate covalent

View Answer
82) According to VSEPR theory the repulsion between different pair (lone or bond) of electrons obey the order

A)

\[lp-bp>lp-lp>bp-bp\]

B)

\[lp-bp>bp-bp>lp-lp\]

C)

\[lp-lp>lp-bp>bp-bp\]

D)

\[bp-bp>lp-lp>lp-bp\]

View Answer
83) From the molecular orbital theory, one can show that the bond order in molecule as

A)

2

B)

1

C)

3

D)

4

View Answer
84) Which of the following metal oxides is most basic?

A)

\[ZnO\]

B)

\[A{{l}_{2}}{{O}_{3}}\]

C)

\[As{{p}^{3}}\]

D)

\[{{K}_{2}}O\]

View Answer
85) In the laboratory\[{{H}_{2}}S\]gas is prepared by using black lumps and dil.\[{{H}_{2}}S{{O}_{4}}\]The black lumps are

A)

\[FeS{{O}_{4}}\]

B)

\[Mn{{O}_{2}}\]

C)

\[FeS\]

D)

\[FeS{{O}_{3}}\]

View Answer
86) The order of electron affinity of halogens is

A)

\[F>Cl>Br>I\]

B)

\[Cl>F>Br>I\]

C)

\[Cl>F>I>Br\]

D)

\[Br>Cl>F>I\]

View Answer
87) When chlorine reacts with dil.\[NaOH\]under cold conditions, the oxidation state of chlorine changes from zero to

A)

- 1 and + 5

B)

+ 1 and + 4

C)

+ 5 and + 3

D)

- 1 and + 1

View Answer
88) The highest oxidation state exhibited by transition metals is

A)

+7

B)

+ 8

C)

+6

D)

+5

View Answer
89) Which one of the following statements is not true with regard to transition elements?

A)

They readily form complex compounds

B)

They show variable oxidation states

C)

All their ions are colorless

D)

Their ions contain partially filled d-electrons

View Answer
90) The catalyst used in the manufacture of ammonia is

A)

\[{{V}_{2}}{{O}_{5}}\]

B)

\[Pt\]

C)

\[Fe\]

D)

\[Ni{{(CO)}_{4}}\]

View Answer
91) The most stable oxidation state of lanthanides is

A)

+2

B)

+4

C)

0

D)

+ 3

View Answer
92) The number of ions formed when hexamine copper (II) sulphate is dissolved in water is

A)

1

B)

2

C)

4

D)

6

View Answer
93) The number of unpaired electrons in the square planar\[{{[pt{{(CN)}_{4}}]}^{2-}}\]ion is

A)

2

B)

1

C)

0

D)

3

View Answer
94) In metal carbonyl (organometallic) complexes, the M-C bond is

A)

ionic

B)

covalent with ionic character

C)

covalent

D)

coordinate covalent

View Answer
95) The complexes\[[ptC{{l}_{2}}{{(N{{H}_{3}})}_{4}}]B{{r}_{2}}\]and \[[ptB{{r}_{2}}{{(N{{H}_{3}})}_{4}}]C{{l}_{2}}\]are examples for isomerism

A)

geometrical

B)

optical

C)

ionisation

D)

linkage

View Answer
96) The metallurgical process in which a metal is obtained in a fused state is called

A)

smelting

B)

roasting

C)

calcination

D)

froth floatation

View Answer
97) Metallic silver may be obtained from\[AgCl\]by

A)

heating it in the current of Ha

B)

fusing it with sand

C)

treating with carbon monoxide

D)

fusing it with\[N{{a}_{2}}C{{O}_{3}}\]

View Answer
98) Which one of the following metals is extracted by a carbon reduction process?

A)

Copper

B)

Iron

C)

Aluminium

D)

Magnesium

View Answer
99) IUPAC name of\[C{{H}_{3}}\underset{\begin{smallmatrix} | \\ Cl \end{smallmatrix}}{\mathop{CH}}\,C{{H}_{2}}CHO\]is

A)

3-chlorobutanol

B)

3-chlorobutanaldehyde

C)

3-chlorobutanal

D)

2-chlorobutanol

View Answer
100) Di-chloroacetic acid is a stronger acid than acetic acid. This is due to occurrence of

A)

mesomeric effect

B)

hyperconjugation

C)

inductive effect

D)

steric effect

View Answer
101) Dehydration of alcohol is an example of which type of reaction?

A)

Substitution

B)

Elimination

C)

Addition

D)

Rearrangement

View Answer
102) Number of monochloro derivatives obtained when neo-pentane is chlorinated, is

A)

one

B)

two

C)

three

D)

four

View Answer
103) Which of the following alkenes gives only acetaldehyde on ozonolysis?

A)

Ethene

B)

Propene

C)

1-butene

D)

2-butene

View Answer
104) 1-butyne on hydration gives

A)

butan-1, 2-diol

B)

butan-1-ol

C)

butan-2-ol

D)

butan-2-one

View Answer
105) Least stable conformer of cyclohexane is

A)

chair

B)

boat

C)

twist boat

D)

planar hexagon

View Answer
106) Which one of the following monoenes does not exhibit geometric isomerism?

A)

\[{{C}_{4}}{{H}_{8}}\]

B)

\[{{C}_{3}}{{H}_{6}}\]

C)

\[{{C}_{5}}{{H}_{10}}\]

D)

\[{{C}_{8}}{{H}_{16}}\]

View Answer
107) Which one of the following chlorohydrocarbons readily undergoes solvolysis?

A)

\[C{{H}_{2}}=CHCl\]

B)

C)

D)

View Answer
108) Conversion of chlorobenzene to phenol involves

A)

electrophilic substitution

B)

nucleophilic substitution

C)

free radical substitution

D)

electrophilic addition

View Answer
109) is

A)

an ester

B)

an anhydride

C)

acetal

D)

hemiacetal

View Answer
110) Which one of the following does not give iodoform?

A)

B)

\[C{{H}_{3}}OH\]

C)

\[C{{H}_{3}}C{{H}_{2}}OH\]

D)

\[C{{H}_{3}}\underset{\begin{smallmatrix} | \\ OH \end{smallmatrix}}{\mathop{CH}}\,C{{H}_{3}}\]

View Answer
111) The products obtained when anisole is heated in a sealed tube with HI are

A)

B)

C)

D)

\[C{{H}_{3}}OH+C{{H}_{3}}I\]

View Answer
112) Which of the following diacid readily gives anhydride on heating?

A)

Fumaric

B)

Maleic acid

C)

Malic acid

D)

Terephthalic acid

View Answer
113) Hydroxamic acid test is employed to detect

A)

ketones

B)

aldehydes

C)

esters

D)

amides

View Answer
114) Picric acid is a stronger acid than acetic acid and benzoic acid. It contains

A)

\[\text{ }S{{O}_{3}}H\]group

B)

two -COOH groups

C)

phenolic group

D)

three - COOH groups

View Answer
115) Benzamide can be converted into benzonitrile with

A)

\[{{H}_{3}}{{O}^{+}}\]

B)

\[O{{H}^{-}}/{{H}_{2}}O\]

C)

\[KCN\]

D)

\[{{P}_{2}}{{O}_{5}}\]

View Answer
116) The most basic compound in the following is

A)

\[N{{H}_{3}}\]

B)

\[C{{H}_{3}}N{{H}_{2}}\]

C)

\[HN{{(C{{H}_{3}})}_{2}}\]

D)

\[N{{(C{{H}_{3}})}_{3}}\]

View Answer
117) The compound with foul odour among the following is

A)

B)

C)

D)

View Answer
118) Nitration of nitrobenzene at\[125{}^\circ C\]with mixed acids gives

A)

meta-dinitrobenzene

B)

ortho-dinitrobenzene

C)

para-dinitrobenzene

D)

1, 3, 5-trinitro benzene

View Answer
119) The a-amino acid which does not give purple colour in the ninhydrin test is

A)

proline

B)

glycine

C)

lysine

D)

aspartic acid

View Answer
120) The anomeric carbon in D(+) glucose is

A)

C-1 carbon

B)

C-2 carbon

C)

C-5 carbon

D)

C-6 carbon

View Answer
121) The stoichiometry of the following reaction is\[{{K}_{2}}{{S}_{2}}{{O}_{8}}(aq)+2KI(aq)\to 2{{K}_{2}}S{{O}_{4}}(aq)+{{I}_{2}}(aq)\]

A)

2 : 2

B)

1 : 1

C)

1 : 2

D)

2 : 1

View Answer
122) Of two oxides of iron, the first contained 22% and the second contained 30% of oxygen by weight. The ratio of weights of iron in the two oxides that combine with the same weight of oxygen, is

A)

3 : 2

B)

2 : 1

C)

1 : 2

D)

1 : 1

View Answer
123) The scientist who proposed the atomic model based on the quantization of energy for the first time is

A)

Max Planck

B)

Niels Bohr

C)

de-Broglie

D)

Heisenberg

View Answer
124) Which one of the following is the set of correct quantum numbers of an electron in 3d orbital?

A)

\[n=3,l=0,m=0,s=-1/2\]

B)

\[n=2,l=3,m=0,s=+1/2\]

C)

\[n=3,l=1,m=0,s=-1/2\]

D)

\[n=3,Z=2,m=1,s=+\text{ }1/2\]

View Answer
125) Electron density in the YZ plane of\[3{{d}_{{{x}^{2}}-{{y}^{2}}}}\] orbital is

A)

zero

B)

0.50

C)

0.75

D)

0.90

View Answer
126) The half-life period of a radioactive isotope is 4.8 min. Starting with 1 mg of the isotope, how much of it would remain after 10 min?

A)

0.5 mg

B)

0.726 mg

C)

0.126 mg

D)

0.236 mg

View Answer
127) The number of beta particles emitted in the radioactive decay series from\[^{238}{{U}_{92}}\]to\[^{206}P{{b}_{82}}\]is

A)

10

B)

8

C)

6

D)

2

View Answer
128) What happens to the yield on application of high pressure in the Habers synthesis of ammonia?

A)

Increases

B)

Decreases

C)

Unaffected

D)

Reaction stops

View Answer
129) In the reaction\[{{H}_{2}}(g)+C{{l}_{2}}(g)2HCl(g)\]

A)

\[{{K}_{p}}\ne {{K}_{c}}\]

B)

\[{{K}_{p}}={{K}_{c}}\]

C)

\[{{K}_{p}}>{{K}_{c}}\]

D)

\[{{K}_{p}}<{{K}_{c}}\]

View Answer
130) pH of an aqueous solution containing\[{{10}^{8}}\,mol/L\]of\[HCl\]is

A)

8

B)

10

C)

6.96

D)

12

View Answer
131) An aqueous solution contains\[N{{i}^{2+}},C{{o}^{-28}}\]and\[P{{b}^{2+}}\]ions    at    equal concentrations. The solubility product of\[NiS,\text{ }PbS\]and\[CoS\]in water at\[25{}^\circ C\]are\[1.4\times {{10}^{-24}},\text{ }3.4\times {{10}^{-28}}\]and \[3\times {{10}^{-26}},\]respectively. Indicate which of these ions will be precipitated first and last   when   sulphide   concentration   is progressively increased from zero?

A)

\[NiS\]and \[PbS\]

B)

\[NiS\]and \[CoS\]

C)

\[CoS\]and\[NiS\]

D)

\[PbS\]and\[NiS\]

View Answer
132) A reaction involving A, B and C as reactants is found    to    obey    the    rate    law, rate = \[=k{{[A]}^{x}}{{[B]}^{y}}{{[C]}^{z}}\]. When the concentrations of A, B and C are doubled separately, the rate is also found to increase two, zero and four times respectively. The overall order of the reaction is

A)

1

B)

2

C)

3

D)

4

View Answer
133) The units of the rate of a second order reaction are

A)

\[tim{{e}^{-1}}\]

B)

\[mol\text{ }{{L}^{-1}}tim{{e}^{-1}}\]

C)

\[L\text{ }mo{{l}^{-1}}tim{{e}^{-1}}\]

D)

\[{{L}^{2}}\text{ }mo{{l}^{-2}}tim{{e}^{-1}}\]

View Answer
134) Activation energy of a reaction

A)

is independent of temperature

B)

increases with temperature

C)

gets doubled for every 10 degree rise in temperature

D)

decreases with temperature

View Answer
135) Which one of the following concentration units is independent of temperature?

A)

Normality

B)

Molarity

C)

Molality

D)

ppm

View Answer
136) Maximum lowering of vapour pressure is observed in the case of

A)

0.1 M glucose

B)

\[0:1\,M\,BaC{{l}_{2}}\]

C)

\[0.1\,M\,MgS{{O}_{4}}\]

D)

\[0.1\text{ }NaCl\]

View Answer
137) A solution containing 4 g of polyvinyl chloride polymer in one litre of dioxane was found to have an osmotic pressure of\[4.1\times {{10}^{-4}}\]atm at\[{{27}^{o}}C\]. The approximate molecular weight of the polymer is

A)

1500

B)

10,000

C)

\[2.4\times {{10}^{5}}\]

D)

\[2\times {{10}^{12}}\]

View Answer
138) Abnormal colligative properties are observed only when the dissolved non-volatile solute in a given dilute solution

A)

is a non-electrolyte

B)

offers an intense colour

C)

associates or dissociates

D)

offers no colour

View Answer
139) We believe in the laws of thermodynamics because they are

A)

theoretical

B)

derived based on mathematical analysis

C)

empirical and nobody disproved

D)

mere statements

View Answer
140) The latent heat of fusion of ice at\[{{0}^{o}}C\]is 80 cal/g. Entropy change\[(\Delta S)\]accompanying the melting of 1 g of ice at\[{{0}^{o}}C\]would be (units : cal/g/K)

A)

273

B)

8.0

C)

0.0

D)

0.293

View Answer
141) \[\Delta H\]for the reaction, \[C(graphite)+2{{H}_{2}}(g)\xrightarrow{{}}C{{H}_{4}}(g)\,at\,298K\] and 1 atm is - 17900 cal. The\[\Delta E\]for the above conversion would be

A)

\[-17900\text{ }cal\]

B)

\[17900\text{ }cal\]

C)

\[17308\text{ }cal\]

D)

\[-17308\text{ }cal\]

View Answer
142) Which one of the following is spontaneous at all temperatures?

A)

\[{{H}_{2}}(g)\xrightarrow{{}}2{{H}_{atom}}\]\[\Delta {{H}^{o}}=436\text{ }kJ,\text{ }\Delta {{S}^{o}}=90.7\text{ }eu\]

B)

\[\frac{1}{2}{{N}_{2}}(g)+\frac{1}{2}{{O}_{2}}(g)\xrightarrow[{}]{{}}NO(g);\]\[\Delta {{H}^{o}}=90.3\text{ }kJ,\text{ }\Delta {{S}^{o}}=3.0\text{ }eu\]

C)

\[2N{{O}_{2}}(g)\xrightarrow[{}]{{}}{{N}_{2}}{{O}_{4}}(g)\]\[\Delta {{H}^{o}}=-\text{ }56.0\text{ }kJ\text{ }\Delta {{S}^{o}}=-17.7\text{ }eu\]

D)

\[{{H}_{2}}{{O}_{2}}(g)\xrightarrow{{}}{{H}_{2}}O(l)+\frac{1}{2}{{O}_{2}}(g)\]\[\Delta {{H}^{o}}=-98.3\text{ }kJ\text{ }\Delta {{S}^{o}}=80.0\text{ }eu\]

View Answer
143) During a redox titration involving a solution containing\[F{{e}^{2+}}\]ions against\[MnO_{4}^{-}\]in the presence of excess of\[{{H}^{+}}\]ions, the number of electrons that gets transferred is

A)

6

B)

5

C)

4

D)

2

View Answer
144) The oxidation state of sulphur in sodium tetrathionate\[(N{{a}_{2}}{{S}_{4}}{{O}_{6}})\]is

A)

2

B)

0

C)

2.5

D)

3.5

View Answer
145) Galvanic cell is a device in which

A)

chemical energy is converted into electrical energy

B)

electrical energy is converted into chemical energy

C)

chemical energy is seen in the form of heat

D)

thermal energy from an outside source is used to drive the cell reaction

View Answer
146) The relationship between Gibbs free energy change\[(\Delta G)\]and emf\[(\Delta S)\]of a reversible electrochemical cell is given by

A)

\[\Delta G=nFE\]

B)

\[\Delta G=nF/E\]

C)

\[\Delta G=-nFE\]

D)

\[\Delta G=E/nF\]

View Answer
147) The units of van der Waals constants a, b respectively, are

A)

\[L\text{ }at{{m}^{2}}\text{ }mo{{l}^{-1}}and\text{ }mol\text{ }{{L}^{-1}}\]

B)

\[L\text{ }atm\text{ }mo{{l}^{2}}\text{ }and\text{ }mol\text{ }L\]

C)

\[{{L}^{2}}\text{ }atm\text{ }mo{{l}^{-2}}\text{ }and\text{ }mo{{l}^{-1}}\text{ }L\]

D)

\[{{L}^{-2}}at{{m}^{-1}}mo{{l}^{-1}}and\text{ }L\text{ }mo{{l}^{-2}}\]

View Answer
148) Identify the pair of gases that have equal rates of diffusion

A)

\[CO,\text{ }NO\]

B)

\[{{N}_{3}}O,\text{ }CO\]

C)

\[{{N}_{2}}O,C{{O}_{2}}\]

D)

\[C{{O}_{2}},N{{O}_{2}}\]

View Answer
149) For AX ionic crystal to exist in bcc structure, the ratio of radii\[\left( \frac{{{r}_{cation}}}{{{r}_{anion}}} \right)\]should be

A)

between 0.41 and 0.73

B)

greater than 0.73

C)

less than 0.41

D)

equal to 1.0

View Answer
150) Identify the correct statement for the adsorption of a real gas on charcoal at 1 atm and\[{{15}^{o}}C\].

A)

gases which are small in molecular size are adsorbed more

B)

decrease in pressure increases the extent of adsorption

C)

gases which are easily liquefiable are adsorbed more in quantity

D)

gas which has a behaviour similar to an inert gas is adsorbed more

View Answer
151) The entry of pollen tube into the ovule through micropyle is called

A)

porogamy

B)

misogamy

C)

anisogamy

D)

chalazogamy

View Answer
152) Type of pollination of Commelina is

A)

chasmogamy

B)

geitonogamy

C)

xenogamy

D)

cleistogamy

View Answer
153) The process of embryo formation without fertilization is known as

A)

apospory

B)

apogamy

C)

parthenocarpy

D)

polyembryony

View Answer
154) Which of the process Clolodny-Went theory is concerned with?

A)

Photomorphogenesis

B)

Photoperiodism

C)

Phototropism

D)

Photorespiration

View Answer
155) The hormone present in the liquid endosperm of coconut is

A)

cytokinin

B)

gibberellins

C)

ethylene

D)

auxin

View Answer
156) The phytohormone, which induces triple response growth is

A)

\[IAA\]

B)

\[ABA\]

C)

\[G{{A}_{3}}\]

D)

\[{{C}_{2}}{{H}_{4}}\]

View Answer
157) An example of short day plant is

A)

wheat

B)

maize

C)

Chrysanthemum

D)

radish

View Answer
158) The ovary after fertilization is converted into

A)

embryo

B)

endosperm

C)

fruit

D)

seed

View Answer
159) The molecular formula of chlorophyll-a is

A)

\[{{C}_{55}}{{H}_{72}}{{O}_{5}}{{N}_{4}}Mg\]

B)

\[~{{C}_{55}}{{H}_{70}}{{O}_{6}}{{N}_{4}}Mg\]

C)

\[{{C}_{55}}{{H}_{72}}{{O}_{4}}{{N}_{4}}Mg\]

D)

\[{{C}_{50}}{{H}_{72}}{{O}_{5}}{{N}_{4}}Mg\]

View Answer
160) The first compound that accepts \[C{{O}_{2}}\] during dark phase is

A)

NADP

B)

ferredoxin

C)

RuBP

D)

cytochrome

View Answer
161) Initiation codon for methionine is

A)

AAA

B)

UUU

C)

UAA

D)

AUG

View Answer
162) The deficiency of this micro-nutrient results in little leaf disease

A)

copper

B)

zinc

C)

boron

D)

iron

View Answer
163) Kranz anatomy is a morphological diversity in the leaves of

A)

\[{{C}_{3}}-\]plants

B)

\[{{C}_{4}}-\]plants

C)

Both (a) and (b)

D)

CAM plants

View Answer
164) Prechilling treatment to break seed dormancy is

A)

scarification

B)

stratification

C)

impaction

D)

vernalization

View Answer
165) The pyruvic acid formed during glycolysis is oxidized to \[C{{O}_{2}}\]and \[{{H}_{2}}O\] in a cycle called

A)

Calvin cycle

B)

Nitrogen cycle

C)

Hill reaction

D)

Krebs cycle

View Answer
166) Respiratory Quotient (RQ) is one in case of

A)

fatty acids

B)

nucleic acids

C)

carbohydrates

D)

organic acids

View Answer
167) An example of free living nitrogen fixing aerobic bacteria is

A)

Clostridium

B)

Rhizobium

C)

Azotobacter

D)

Rhodospirillum

View Answer
168) Identify the plant belonging to the Reed-Swamp stage in hydrarch succession

A)

Juncus

B)

Sagittaria

C)

Salix

D)

Trapa

View Answer
169) A gas produced by paddy fields and connected with global warming is

A)

\[C{{O}_{2}}\]

B)

chlorine

C)

\[{{H}_{2}}S\]

D)

methane

View Answer
170) If the strong partner is benefitted and the weak partner is damaged, it is known as

A)

predation

B)

allelopathy

C)

symbiosis

D)

commensalism

View Answer
171) Acid rain is mainly caused due to increase in the levels of the gas(es)

A)

\[S{{O}_{2}}\] only

B)

\[C{{O}_{2}}\] only

C)

\[S{{O}_{2}},\text{ }C{{O}_{2}}\]

D)

\[N{{O}_{2}}\] and \[S{{O}_{2}}\]

View Answer
172) The flow of energy among various trophic levels of an ecosystem is

A)

unidirectional

B)

bidirectional

C)

multidirectional

D)

circular

View Answer
173) Increase in atmospheric temperature due to \[C{{O}_{2}}\]is called

A)

Pasteur effect

B)

Green-house effect

C)

Blackman effect

D)

Emerson effect

View Answer
174) The protective ozone layer is present in

A)

ionosphere

B)

stratosphere

C)

troposphere

D)

lithosphere

View Answer
175) Decomposition of organic matter is brought about by

A)

Protozoa

B)

plants

C)

micro-organisms

D)

None of the above

View Answer
176) The smallest taxon is called

A)

class

B)

order

C)

genus

D)

species

View Answer
177) Which one of the following is the first National Park in India?

A)

Kanha National Park

B)

Periyar National Park

C)

Corbett National Park

D)

Bandipur National Park

View Answer
178) Which one of the following is having ssRNA?

A)

TMV

B)

\[{{T}_{2}}-\]bacteriophage

C)

Reovirus

D)

CMV

View Answer
179) In Whittakers system of classification, prokaryotes are placed in the kingdom

A)

Protista

B)

Monera

C)

Plantae

D)

Animalia

View Answer
180) Virus consists of

A)

Nucleic acid

B)

Protein

C)

Both (a) and (b)

D)

None of the above

View Answer
181) This substance is present in the cell walls of Gram-positive bacteria only

A)

peptidoglycan

B)

lipopolysaccharides

C)

teichoic acids

D)

None of the above

View Answer
182) Stem is modified into cladode

A)

Casuarina

B)

Asparagus

C)

Opuntia

D)

Euphorbia

View Answer
183) Verticillaster type of inflorescence is found in

A)

Cotton

B)

Datura

C)

Leucas

D)

Ocimum

View Answer
184) A simple one seeded fruit, in which pericarp is fused with seed coat is

A)

achene

B)

caryopsis

C)

cypsela

D)

nut

View Answer
185) The portion of DNA which contains information for an entire polypeptide is called as

A)

cistron

B)

muton

C)

recon

D)

operon

View Answer
186) Bicarpellary, syncarpous ovary with axile placentation is seen in

A)

Solanaceae

B)

Caesalpinaceae

C)

Asteraceae

D)

Malvaceae

View Answer
187) Alburnum is also called as

A)

autumn wood

B)

heart wood

C)

sap wood

D)

spring wood

View Answer
188) Endothelium of blood vessels is made up of

A)

simple cuboidal epithelium

B)

simple squamous epithelium

C)

simple columnar epithelium

D)

simple non-ciliated columnar

View Answer
189) In humans, sphincter of Oddi is associated with the opening of

A)

common heap to pancreatic duct

B)

pyloric stomach

C)

oesophagus

D)

colon

View Answer
190) In human beings, the duration of cardiac cycle is

A)

0.08 sec

B)

0.5 sec

C)

0.8 sec

D)

8.0 sec

View Answer
191) In which part of nephron, reabsorption is minimum from filtrate?

A)

Henles loop

B)

Proximal convoluted tubule

C)

Distal convoluted tubule

D)

Collecting duct

View Answer
192) Which hormone level reaches peak during luteal phase of menstrual cycle?

A)

Luteinizing hormone

B)

Progesterone

C)

Follicle stimulating hormone

D)

Estrogen

View Answer
193) The largest subunit of prokaryotic ribosomes is

A)

30S

B)

40S

C)

50S

D)

60S

View Answer
194) Which of the following is a part of endomembrane system of eukaryotic cell ?

A)

Peroxisomes

B)

Chloroplasts

C)

Mitochondria

D)

Golgi complexes

View Answer
195) Inflammation of joints due to accumulation of uric acid crystals is called as

A)

gout

B)

myasthenia       gravis

C)

osteoporosis

D)

osteomalacia

View Answer
196) Chromosomes are visible with chromatids at this phase of mitosis

A)

interphase

B)

prophase

C)

metaphase

D)

anaphase

View Answer
197) Inheritance of ABO blood grouping is an example of

A)

dominance

B)

codominance

C)

incomplete dominance

D)

All of the above

View Answer
198) In a dihybrid cross between RRYY and rryy parents, the number of RrYy genotypes in \[{{F}_{2}}\] generation will be

A)

4

B)

3

C)

2

D)

1

View Answer
199) Identify a Mendelian disorder from the following

A)

Downs syndrome

B)

Turners syndrome

C)

Phenylketonuria

D)

Klinefelters syndrome

View Answer
200) Uracil is present in RNA at the place of

A)

adenine

B)

guanine

C)

cytosine

D)

thymine

View Answer
201) Copying genetic information from one strand of DNA into RNA is

A)

translation

B)

transcription

C)

transformation

D)

transduction

View Answer
202) S L Millers closed flask contained

A)

\[C{{H}_{4}}\]

B)

\[{{H}_{2}}\]

C)

\[N{{H}_{3}}\]and water vapour

D)

All of the above

View Answer
203) Change of frequency of alleles in a population results in evolution is proposed in

A)

Darwins theory

B)

Lamarcks theory

C)

Hardy-Weinberg principle

D)

de Vries theory

View Answer
204) One of the following is the vestigial organ in human beings

A)

nictitating membrane

B)

spleen

C)

femur

D)

tibia

View Answer
205) The golden age of reptiles is

A)

Coenozoic era

B)

Palaeozoic era

C)

Mesozoic era

D)

Silurian period

View Answer
206) The theory of use and disuse of organ was proposed by

A)

Darwin

B)

Lamarck

C)

de Vries

D)

Hooker

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207) One of the following theories were proposed by Weismann

A)

law of inheritance

B)

theory of inheritance of acquired characters

C)

theory of natural selection

D)

theory of germplasm

View Answer
208) Ontogeny recapitulates phylogeny-this theory is called as

A)

biogenetic law

B)

law of embryology

C)

law of acquired characters

D)

law of bridges

View Answer
209) The brain capacity of Homo erectus is

A)

800 cc

B)

900 cc

C)

1200 cc

D)

1400 cc

View Answer
210) An example of innate immunity is

A)

PMNL-neutrophils

B)

T-lymphocytes

C)

B-lymphocytes

D)

TH cells

View Answer
211) Heroin is extracted from

A)

Erythroxylum coca

B)

Cannabis sativa

C)

Papaver somniferum

D)

Atropa belladonna

View Answer
212) The enzyme that cuts DNA is

A)

DNA-polymerase

B)

DNA-ligase

C)

DNA-lyase

D)

Restriction endonuclease

View Answer
213) In the association between two organisms, if one organism is benefitted and the other is not benefitted, this relationship is known as

A)

symbiotism

B)

mutualism

C)

commensalism

D)

parasitism

View Answer
214) Opiate narcotics drugs are

A)

antianxiety

B)

analgesic

C)

hypnotic

D)

antihistamine

View Answer
215) The drug useful to increase cardiovascular effects in human beings is

A)

cocaine

B)

barbiturate

C)

benzodiazetine

D)

insulin

View Answer
216) In echolocation, the animal that produces high frequency sounds is

A)

monkey

B)

butterfly

C)

squirrel

D)

bat

View Answer
217) Two kingdoms constantly figured in all biological classifications are

A)

PIantae and Animalia

B)

Monera and Animalia

C)

Protista and Animalia

D)

Protista and Plantae

View Answer
218) The dioecious animal is

A)

liver fluke

B)

hookworm

C)

tapeworm

D)

earthworm

View Answer
219) Comb plates are found in

A)

Adamsia

B)

Aurelia

C)

Nereis

D)

Pleurobrachia

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220) Highest degree of polymorphism is found in

A)

Protozoa

B)

Cnidaria

C)

Platyhelminthes

D)

Arthropoda

View Answer
221) Sea mouse belongs to phylum

A)

Mollusca

B)

Cnidaria

C)

Arthropoda

D)

Annelida

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222) One of the following animal belongs to Cyclostomata

A)

Channa

B)

Loris

C)

Dodo

D)

Petromyzon

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223) An egg laying mammal is

A)

Delphinus

B)

Macaca

C)

Ornithorhynchus

D)

Macropus

View Answer
224) In sharks, one of the following is absent

A)

claspers

B)

placoid scales

C)

cartilaginous endoskeleton

D)

air bladder

View Answer
225) The devil fish and sea hare are

A)

mollusks

B)

crustaceans

C)

coelenterates

D)

marine fish and mammal

View Answer