Solved papers for J & K CET Medical J & K - CET Medical Solved Paper-2011

J & K - CET Medical Solved Paper-2011 Total Questions - 225

1) In beta minus decay a neutron transforms with the nucleus according to

A)

\[p\to n+{{e}^{+}}+v\]

B)

\[n\to p+{{e}^{-}}+\overset{-}{\mathop{v}}\,\]

C)

\[n\to p+{{e}^{+}}+\overset{-}{\mathop{v}}\,\]

D)

\[n\to p+{{e}^{+}}+v\]

View Answer
2) The element with maximum value of binding energy per nucleon is

A)

                iron

B)

                aluminium

C)

                uranium

D)

                hydrogen

View Answer
3) If the particles listed below all have the same kinetic energy, which one would possess the shortest de-Broglie wavelength?

A)

                Deuteron

B)

                a-particle

C)

                Proton

D)

                Electron

View Answer
4) Which of the following quantities for a nucleus is independent of its mass number?

A)

Density

B)

Volume

C)

Mass

D)

Radius

View Answer
5) The SI unit of activity of a radioactive sample is

A)

Curie

B)

Rutherford

C)

Becquerel

D)

Millicurie

View Answer
6) p-type semiconductor is obtained by doping

A)

                germanium with arsenic

B)

                germanium with aluminium

C)

                germanium with antimony

D)

                germanium with phosphorus

View Answer
7) A cubical block rests on an inclined plane of coefficient of friction \[\mu =1\sqrt{3.}\] What should be the angle of inclination so that the block just slides down the inclined plane?

A)

\[30{}^\circ \]

B)

\[60{}^\circ \]

C)

\[45{}^\circ \]

D)

\[90{}^\circ \]

View Answer
8) The acceleration of an object moving in a circle of radius R with uniform speed v is

A)

                \[\frac{{{v}^{2}}}{R}\]

B)

                \[\frac{{{v}^{2}}}{2R}\]

C)

                \[\frac{2{{v}^{2}}}{R}\]

D)

\[\frac{3{{v}^{2}}}{2R}\]

View Answer
9) If a projectile is launched with velocity v0, making an angle \[\theta \] with x-axis, then its time of flight T is

A)

\[T=\frac{\mathop{v}_{0}^{2}\sin 2\theta }{g}\]

B)

\[T=\frac{\mathop{v}_{0}^{2}\sin 2\theta }{2g}\]

C)

\[T=\frac{v_{0}^{2}}{g}\]

D)

\[T=\frac{2{{v}_{0}}\sin \theta }{g}\]

View Answer
10) A batsman hits back a ball straight in the direction of the bowler without changing its initial speed of 12 m/s. If the mass of the ball is 0.15 kg the impulse imparted to the ball is

A)

36 Ns

B)

3.6 Ns

C)

0.36 Ns

D)

0.036 Ns

View Answer
11) Which of the following statements is correct regarding the photoelectric experiment?

A)

                The photocurrent increases with intensity of light

B)

                Stopping potential increases with increase in intensity of incident light

C)

                The photo current increases with increase in frequency

D)

                All of the above

View Answer
12) In a double-slit experiment, the two slits are separated by 1 mm and the screen is placed 1 m away. The fringe separation for blue green light of wavelength 500 nm is

A)

10 mm

B)

0.5 mm

C)

20 mm

D)

15 mm

View Answer
13) Rainbow is a phenomenon due to

A)

                dispersion alone

B)

                refraction alone

C)

                reflection alone

D)

                combined effect of dispersion, refraction and reflection

View Answer
14) In the case of light waves from two coherent \[{{S}_{1}}\]and\[{{S}_{2}}\] there will be constructive interference at an arbitrary point p, if the path difference \[{{S}_{1}}P\text{ }-\text{ }{{S}_{2}}P\]is

A)

\[\left( n+\frac{1}{2} \right)\lambda \]

B)

\[n\lambda \]

C)

\[\left( n-\frac{1}{2} \right)\lambda \]

D)

\[\frac{\lambda }{2}\]

View Answer
15) The de-Broglie wavelength \[\lambda \] of an electron accelerated through a potential V(in volt) is

A)

                \[\frac{1.227}{\sqrt{v}}mm\]

B)

\[\frac{0.1227}{\sqrt{v}}mm\]

C)

                \[\frac{0.01227}{\sqrt{v}}mm\]

D)

  \[\frac{0.1227}{\sqrt{v}}\overset{0}{\mathop{A}}\,\]

View Answer
16) A gardener pushes a lawn roller through a distance 20 m. If he applies a force of 20kg-wt in a direction inclined at \[60{}^\circ \] to the ground, the work done by him is

A)

1960 J

B)

196 J

C)

1.96 J

D)

196 k J

View Answer
17) If two bodies stick together after collision and move as a single body, the collision is said to be

A)

perfectly inelastic

B)

elastic

C)

inelastic

D)

perfidy elastic

View Answer
18) If\[{{\mu }_{s}}\]is coefficient of static friction, the maximum speed \[{{V}_{\max }}\]with which a vehicle can negotiate an unbanked curved track having radius R and inclined at an angle \[\theta \] with respect to horizontal plane is

A)

\[{{v}_{\max }}=\sqrt{Rgtab\theta }\]

B)

\[{{v}_{\max }}=\sqrt{{{\mu }_{s}}Rg}\]

C)

\[\sqrt{Rg}\]

D)

\[\sqrt{\tan \theta /Rg}\]

View Answer
19) For a moving particle (mass m, velocity v) having a momentum p, which one of the following correctly describes the kinetic energy of the particle?

A)

\[\frac{{{p}^{2}}}{2m}\]

B)

\[\frac{p}{2m}\]

C)

\[\frac{{{v}^{2}}}{2m}\]

D)

\[\frac{v}{2m}\]

View Answer
20) SI unit of power is

A)

joule

B)

erg

C)

newton

D)

watt

View Answer
21) Sun is visible a little before the actual sunrise and until a little after the actual sunset. This is due to

A)

                total internal reflection

B)

                reflection

C)

                refraction

D)

                polarization

View Answer
22) The part of the spectrum of the electromagnetic radiation used to cook food is

A)

Ultraviolet rays

B)

Cosmic rays

C)

X-rays

D)

Microwaves

View Answer
23) An LCR series circuit is under resonance. If Im is current amplitude, Vm is voltage amplitude, R is the resistance, Z is the impedance, XL is the inductive reactance capacitive reactance then, and Xc is the capacitive reactance then,

A)

\[{{I}_{m}}=\frac{{{V}_{m}}}{Z}\]

B)

\[{{I}_{m}}=\frac{{{V}_{m}}}{{{X}_{L}}}\]

C)

\[{{I}_{m}}=\frac{{{V}_{m}}}{{{X}_{c}}}\]

D)

\[{{I}_{m}}=\frac{{{V}_{m}}}{R}\]

View Answer
24) A point source that emits waves uniformly in all directions, produces wavefronts that are

A)

spherical

B)

elliptical

C)

cylindrical

D)

planar

View Answer
25) In the case of an inductor

A)

                voltage lags the current by \[\frac{\pi }{2}\]

B)

                voltage leads the current by \[\frac{\pi }{2}\]

C)

                voltage leads the current by \[\frac{\pi }{3}\]

D)

                voltage leads the current by \[\frac{\pi }{4}\]

View Answer
26) For a stretched string of length L fixed at both ends, the frequency of the fundamental mode of vibration is (v is the velocity if travelling waves in the string)

A)

\[\frac{v}{2L}\]

B)

\[\frac{v}{L}\]

C)

\[\frac{v}{4L}\]

D)

\[\frac{v}{3L}\]

View Answer
27) The figure shows reference circular motion of a to represent simple particle harmonic motion. The amplitude of simple harmonic motion is

A)

                2cm

B)

3cm

C)

                4cm

D)

3m

View Answer
28) In the case of a travelling wave, the reflection at a rigid boundary will take place with a phase change of

A)

\[\frac{\pi }{2}\] rad

B)

\[\frac{\pi }{4}red\]

C)

\[\pi \,red\]

D)

\[\frac{\pi }{6}\,red\]

View Answer
29)  If u1 and u2 are the frequencies of two tunning forks then the beat frequency is

A)

                \[\frac{{{u}_{1}}}{{{u}_{2}}}\]

B)

\[{{u}_{1}}+{{u}_{2}}\]

C)

                \[\frac{{{u}_{2}}}{{{u}_{1}}}\]

D)

\[{{u}_{1}}-{{u}_{2}}\]

View Answer
30)  A metallic rod of length R is rotated with an angular frequency to with one end hinged at the centre and the other end at the circumference of a circular metallic ring of radius R, about an axis passing through the centre and perpendicular to the plane of the ring. There is a magnetic field B,                                 perpendicular to the plane of the ring. The emf induced between the centre and the metallic ring is

A)

                \[B\,\sin \,\omega t\]

B)

\[\frac{B{{R}^{2}}\omega }{2}\]

C)

                \[2B{{R}^{2}}\omega \]

D)

\[B{{R}^{2}}\omega \]

View Answer
31) The statement Polarity of induced emf is such that it tends to produce a current which opposes the change in magnetic flux that produced it is known as

A)

Faradays law

B)

Gausss law

C)

Coulombs law

D)

Lenzs law

View Answer
32) When the current changes form + 2A to - 3A in 0.05, an emf of 8 V is induced in a coil. The coefficient of self-inductance of the coil is

A)

0.2 H

B)

0.4 H

C)

0.8 H

D)

0.1 H

View Answer
33) A car moving with a speed of 50 km/h can be stopped by brakes, over a distance of 6m. If the same car is moving at a speed of 100 km/h, the stopping distance is

A)

12 m

B)

18 m

C)

6 m

D)

24 m

View Answer
34) The dimensions of impulse are

A)

\[\left[ ML{{T}^{-1}} \right]\]

B)

\[\left[ M{{L}^{2}}{{T}^{-1}} \right]\]

C)

\[\left[ M{{L}^{-1}}{{T}^{-1}} \right]\]

D)

\[\left[ M{{T}^{-1}} \right]\]

View Answer
35) Position-time graph for motion with zero acceleration is

A)



B)



C)



D)



View Answer
36) If the magnetic susceptibility of a material is large and positive. The material is

A)

diamagnetic

B)

ferromagnetic

C)

paramagnetic

D)

perfect diamagnetic

View Answer
37) A 100 turn closely wound circular coil of radius 10 cm carries a current of 3.2 A. The magnetic moment of the coil is, approximately

A)

                5 Am2

B)

                10 Am2

C)

                20 Am2

D)

40 Am2

View Answer
38) The particle that cannot be accelerated by a cyclotron is

A)

                poton

B)

                a-particle

C)

                electron

D)

                deuteron nucleus

View Answer
39) The material whose resistivity is insensitive to temperature is

A)

silicon

B)

copper

C)

silver

D)

nichrome

View Answer
40) The path of a charged particle in a uniform magnetic field, when the velocity and the magnetic field are perpendicular to each other is a

A)

circle

B)

parabola

C)

helix

D)

straight line

View Answer
41) A galvanometer can be converted into a voltmeter by connecting

A)

                low resistance in series

B)

                high resistance in series

C)

                low resistance in parallel

D)

                high resistance in parallel

View Answer
42) The angle which the total magnetic field               of earth makes with the surface of the earth is called

A)

                declination

B)

magnetic meridian

C)

                geographic meridian

D)

inclination

View Answer
43) A constant torque of 3.14 Nm is exerted on a pivoted wheel. If the angular acceleration of the wheel is 4\[\pi \] \[rad/{{s}^{2}},\]then the moment of Inertia of the wheel is

A)

\[0.25kg-{{m}^{2}}\]

B)

\[2.5kg-{{m}^{2}}\]

C)

\[4.5kg-{{m}^{2}}\]

D)

\[25\text{ }kg-{{m}^{2}}\]

View Answer
44) The temperature of the sink of a Carnot engine is \[27{}^\circ C\] and its efficiency is 25%. The temperature of the source is

A)

\[227{}^\circ C\]

B)

\[27{}^\circ C\]

C)

\[327{}^\circ C\]

D)

\[127{}^\circ C\]

View Answer
45) A thermodynamic process in which the system is insulated from the surroundings and no heat flows between the system and the surroundings is an

A)

isothermal process

B)

adiabatic process

C)

isochoric process

D)

isobaric process

View Answer
46) The moment of inertia of rod of mass M length I about an axis perpendicular to it through one end is

A)

                \[\frac{M{{l}^{2}}}{12}\]

B)

\[\frac{M{{l}^{2}}}{2}\]

C)

                \[\frac{M{{l}^{2}}}{3}\]

D)

\[\frac{M{{l}^{2}}}{4}\]

View Answer
47) In the diagram shown below, \[{{m}_{1}}\]and \[{{m}_{2}}\]are the masses of two particles and \[{{x}_{1}}\]and \[{{x}_{2}}\]are the respective distances from the origin O. The centre of mass of the system is

A)

\[\frac{{{m}_{1}}{{x}_{2}}+{{m}_{2}}{{x}_{1}}}{{{m}_{1}}+{{m}_{2}}}\]

B)

\[\frac{{{m}_{1}}+{{x}_{2}}}{2}\]

C)

\[\frac{{{m}_{1}}+{{m}_{2}}{{x}_{2}}}{{{m}_{1}}+{{m}_{2}}}\]

D)

\[\frac{{{m}_{1}}{{m}_{2}}+{{x}_{1}}{{x}_{2}}}{{{m}_{1}}+{{m}_{2}}}\]

View Answer
48) Fractional increase in resistivity per unit increase in temperature is defined as

A)

                resistivity

B)

                temperature coefficient of resistivity

C)

                conductivity

D)

                drift velocity

View Answer
49) Magnitude of drift velocity per unit electric field is

A)

current density

B)

current

C)

resistivity

D)

mobility

View Answer
50) Four cells of identical emf E and internal resistance r are connected is series to a variable resistor. The following graph shows the variation of terminal voltage of the combination with current. The emf of each cell used is

A)

                1.4 V

B)

5.6 V

C)

                2 V

D)

1 V

View Answer
51) Kirchhoffs 1st law for analysis of current at a junction in a circuit is based on

A)

                conservation of charge

B)

                conservation of energy

C)

                conservation of momentum

D)

                Newtons 3rd law of motion

View Answer
52) Water is used as a coolant in automobile radiators owing to its high

A)

                viscosity

B)

                surface tension

C)

                latent heat

D)

                specific heat capacity

View Answer
53) The SI unit of thermal conductivity is

A)

\[Js{{m}^{-1}}{{K}^{-1}}\]

B)

\[{{W}^{-1}}{{m}^{-1}}{{K}^{-1}}\]

C)

\[W{{m}^{-1}}{{K}^{-1}}\]

D)

\[W{{m}^{-2}}{{K}^{-1}}\]

View Answer
54) For a body immersed in a liquid, when the weight of the body is less than the upthrust then the body will

A)

                float partially immersed

B)

                sink

C)

                float fully immersed

D)

                be of zero weight

View Answer
55) If R is the radius of a soap bubble and S its surface tension, then the excess pressure inside is

A)

\[\frac{2S}{R}\]

B)

\[\frac{3S}{R}\]

C)

\[\frac{4S}{R}\]

D)

\[\frac{S}{R}\]

View Answer
56) An aeroplane of mass \[3\times 104\text{ }kg\]and total wing area of 120 m z is in a level flight at some height. The difference in pressure between the upper and lower surface of its wings in kpa is \[(g=10\text{ }m/{{S}^{2}})\]

A)

                2.5

B)

5

C)

                10

D)

15

View Answer
57) The rate of loss of heat of a body is directly proportional to the difference of temperature of the body and the surroundings. This statement is known as

A)

                Stefans law

B)

                Newtons law of cooling

C)

                Wiens law

D)

                Kirchhoffs law

View Answer
58) A parallel plate capacitor has two square plates with equal and opposite charges. The surface charge densities on the plates are + \[\sigma \] and - \[\sigma \] respectively. In the region between the plates the magnitude of the electric field is

A)

\[\frac{\sigma }{2{{\varepsilon }_{0}}}\]

B)

\[\frac{\sigma }{{{\varepsilon }_{0}}}\]

C)

zero

D)

None of these

View Answer
59) If the equivalent capacitance between P and Q of the combination of the capacitors shown in figure below is 30 \[\mu F\], the capacitor C is

A)

                \[60\mu F\]

B)

\[30\mu F\]

C)

                \[10\mu F\]

D)

\[5\mu F\]

View Answer
60) A charge Q is placed at the origin. The electric potential due to this charge at a given point in space is V. The work done by an external force in bringing another charge q from infinity up to the point is

A)

\[\frac{V}{q}\]

B)

Vq

C)

V+q

D)

V

View Answer
61) A capacitor of capacitance \[{{C}_{1}}\]is charged to a potential V and then connected in parallel to an uncharged capacitor of capacitance \[{{C}_{2}}.\]The final potential difference across each capacitor will be

A)

\[\frac{{{C}_{1}}V}{{{C}_{1}}+{{C}_{2}}}\]

B)

\[\frac{{{C}_{2}}V}{{{C}_{1}}+{{C}_{2}}}\]

C)

\[1+\frac{{{C}_{2}}}{{{C}_{1}}}\]

D)

\[1-\frac{{{C}_{2}}}{{{C}_{1}}}\]

View Answer
62) In the case of a sphere falling through a viscous medium, it attains terminal velocity when

A)

                viscous force plus buoyant force becomes equal to force of gravity

B)

                viscous force is zero

C)

                viscous force plus force of gravity becomes equal to buoyant force

D)

                buoyant force become equal to force of gravity

View Answer
63) A radio wave that travels in a straight line from the transmitting antenna to the receiving antenna is knows as

A)

sky wave

B)

ground wave

C)

space wave

D)

ionospheric wave

View Answer
64) The output y of the circuit shown is

A)

                \[y=A\,\,.\,\,B\]

B)

\[y=\overline{A}.\overline{B}\]

C)

                \[y=\overline{A+B}\]

D)

\[y=A+B\]

View Answer
65) The ratio of tensile stress to the longitudinal strain is defined as

A)

Bulk modulus

B)

Youngs modulus

C)

Shear modulus

D)

Compressibility

View Answer
66) In the case of hollow metallic sphere, without any change inside the sphere, electric potential (V) changes with respect to distance (r) from the centre as

A)



B)



C)



D)



View Answer
67) An electric charge of \[8.85\times {{10}^{-13}}C\] is placed at the centre of a sphere of radius 1 m. The electric flux through the sphere is

A)

\[o.2N{{C}^{-1}}{{m}^{2}}\]

B)

\[o.1N{{C}^{-1}}{{m}^{2}}\]

C)

\[o.3N{{C}^{-1}}{{m}^{2}}\]

D)

\[o.01N{{C}^{-1}}{{m}^{2}}\]

View Answer
68) An electric dipole is placed in an uniform electric field with the dipole axis making an angle 0 with the direction of the electric field. The orientation of the dipole for stable equilibrium is

A)

\[\frac{\pi }{6}\]

B)

\[\frac{\pi }{3}\]

C)

0

D)

\[\frac{\pi }{2}\]

View Answer
69) The escape velocity of a body on the surface of earth is 11.2 km/s. If the earths mass increases to twice its present value and the radius of the earth becomes half, the escape velocity would become

A)

5.6 km/s

B)

11.2 km/s

C)

44.8 km/s

D)

22.4 km/s

View Answer
70) Consider earth to be a sphere of mass M and radius R. The acceleration due to gravity at a depth d below the earths surface (gd) is

A)

\[gd=g\left\{ 1-\frac{d}{R} \right\}\]

B)

\[gd=g\left\{ 1-\frac{2d}{R} \right\}\]

C)

\[{{g}_{d}}=g\]

D)

\[gd=g\left\{ 1+\frac{d}{R} \right\}\]

View Answer
71) An orbiting satellite has

A)

                only kinetic energy

B)

                only potential energy

C)

                kinetic and potential energies

D)

                zero energy

View Answer
72) x (t) = A cos\[(\omega t+\phi )\]is the equation of simple harmonic motion. In this equation \[\phi \]is called

A)

phase constant

B)

frequency

C)

amplitude

D)

displacement

View Answer
73) The transfer characteristics of a base biased transistor has the operation regions, namely, cut-off, active region and saturation region. For using the transistor as an amplifier it has to operate in the

A)

active region

B)

cut-off region

C)

sturation region

D)

cut-off and saturation

View Answer
74) In which of the following figures, the p-n diode is forward biased?

A)

B)

C)

D)

View Answer
75) The pn-junction which generates an emf when solar radiation fails on it, with no external bias applied is a

A)

light emitting diode

B)

photodiode

C)

Solar cell

D)

zener diode

View Answer
76) In which of the following compounds, carbon exhibits a valency of 4 but oxidation state-2?

A)

\[C{{H}_{3}}Cl\]

B)

\[CHC{{l}_{3}}\]

C)

\[C{{H}_{2}}C{{l}_{2}}\]

D)

\[HCHO\]

View Answer
77) Which one of the following is correct?

A)

Equivalent conductance decreases with dilution

B)

Specific conductance increases with dilution

C)

Specific conductance decreases with dilution

D)

Equivalent conductance increases with increasing concentration

View Answer
78) A cell is constituted by coupling the two electrodes\[Sn/S{{n}^{2+}}\]and\[Cu/C{{u}^{2+}}\]. If\[{{E}^{o}}(S{{n}^{2+}},Sn),{{E}^{o}}(C{{u}^{2+}},Cu)\]and\[{{E}^{o}}\](cell) are 0.14 V, 0.34 V and 0.48 V respectively, the correct representation of the cell is

A)

\[Sn(s)|S{{n}^{2+}}(0.1M)||C{{u}^{2+}}(1.0M)|Cu(s)\]

B)

\[Sn(s)|S{{n}^{2+}}(0.1M)||C{{u}^{+}}(1.0M)|Cu(s)\]

C)

\[Sn(s)|S{{n}^{2+}}(0.1M)||C{{u}^{2+}}(1.0M)|Cu(s)\]

D)

\[Cu(s)|C{{u}^{2+}}(0.1M)||S{{n}^{2+}}(1.0M)|Sn(s)\]

View Answer
79) Chemically unreactive three different gases A, B and C of molecular masses 16, 32 and 64 are enclosed in a vessel at constant temperature till equilibrium is reached. Which of the following statements is true?

A)

Gas A will be at the top of the vessel

B)

Gas C will be at the top of the vessel

C)

Gas C will be at the bottom of the vessel

D)

Gases will form homogeneous mixture

View Answer
80) Among the following which one is a linear molecule having zero dipole moment?

A)

\[{{H}_{2}}O\]

B)

\[HCl\]

C)

\[C{{O}_{2}}\]

D)

\[{{H}_{2}}S\]

View Answer
81) The bond order of \[{{C}_{2}}\]molecule is

A)

1

B)

2

C)

0

D)

3

View Answer
82) Among the following, the compound that is readily soluble in water is

A)

\[BeS{{O}_{4}}\]

B)

\[CaS{{O}_{4}}\]

C)

\[C{{O}_{2}}\]

D)

\[{{H}_{2}}S\]

View Answer
83) The oxyacid of sulphur that contains a lone pair of electrons on sulphur is

A)

sulphurous acid

B)

sulphuric acid

C)

peroxodisulphuric acid

D)

pyrosulphuric acid

View Answer
84) The hybridization involved in\[PC{{l}_{5}}\]is

A)

\[s{{p}^{3}}d\]

B)

\[s{{p}^{3}}{{d}^{2}}\]

C)

\[{{d}^{2}}s{{p}^{2}}\]

D)

\[s{{p}^{3}}\]

View Answer
85) In which of the following molecules the central atom has two lone pairs of electrons?

A)

\[S{{F}_{4}}\]

B)

\[Br{{F}_{5}}\]

C)

\[S{{O}_{2}}\]

D)

\[Xe{{F}_{4}}\]

View Answer
86) The correct order of reducing character of alkali metals is

A)

\[Rb<K<Na<Li\]

B)

\[Li<Na<K<Rb\]

C)

\[Na<K<Rb<Li\]

D)

\[Rb<Na<K<Li\]

View Answer
87) The paramagnetic oxides of nitrogen are

A)

dinitrogen monoxide and nitrogen monoxide

B)

nitrogen monoxide and nitrogen dioxide

C)

nitrogen dioxide and dinitrogen trioxide

D)

dinitrogen trioxide and dinitrogen tetroxide

View Answer
88) Pick out the wrong statement

A)

The standard free energy of formation of elements is zero

B)

A process that leads to increase in free energy will be spontaneous

C)

A process accompanied by decrease in entropy will be non-spontaneous under normal conditions

D)

Enthalpy of combustion is always negative

View Answer
89) The standard enthalpy of formation of \[{{C}_{2}}{{H}_{4}}(g),C{{O}_{2}}(g)\]and\[{{H}_{2}}O(l)\]are 52, - 394 and\[-284\text{ }kJ\text{ }mo{{l}^{-1}}\]respectively. Then the amount of heat evolved by burning 7 g of \[{{C}_{2}}{{H}_{4}}(g)\]is

A)

1412 kJ

B)

9884 kJ

C)

353 kJ

D)

706 kJ

View Answer
90) Which one among the following pairs does not represent example for intensive property?

A)

temperature and density

B)

pressure and molar volume

C)

molar heat capacity and density

D)

heat capacity and enthalpy

View Answer
91) The values of\[\Delta H\]and\[\Delta S\]for a reaction are \[30\text{ }kJ\text{ }mo{{l}^{-1}}\]and\[100\text{ }J{{K}^{-1}}mo{{l}^{-1}}\] respectively. Then the temperature above which the reaction will become spontaneous is

A)

300 K

B)

30 K

C)

100 K

D)

\[{{300}^{o}}C\]

View Answer
92) Three Faradays of electricity are passed through molten\[A{{l}_{2}}{{O}_{3}},\]aqueous solution of \[CuS{{O}_{4}}\]and molten\[NaCl\]taken in three different electrolytic cells. Then the mole ratio of\[Al,\text{ }Cu\]and Na deposited on the cathode will be

A)

3 : 4 : 6

B)

2 : 1 : 6

C)

3 : 2 : 1

D)

2 : 3 : 6

View Answer
93) Which of the esters shown, after reduction with\[LiAl{{H}_{4}}\]and aqueous workup, will yield two molecules of only a single alcohol?

A)

\[{{C}_{6}}{{H}_{5}}COO{{C}_{6}}{{H}_{5}}\]

B)

\[C{{H}_{3}}C{{H}_{2}}COOC{{H}_{2}}C{{H}_{3}}\]

C)

\[{{C}_{6}}{{H}_{5}}COOC{{H}_{2}}{{C}_{6}}{{H}_{5}}\]

D)

\[C{{H}_{3}}COOC{{H}_{3}}\]

View Answer
94) Ethyl methyl ketone on treatment with a solution of sodium hypochlorite gives chloroform and

A)

sodium ethanoate

B)

sodium propanoate

C)

sodium methanoate

D)

sodium ethoxide

View Answer
95) What are the products of the following reaction \[{{C}_{6}}{{H}_{5}}OC{{H}_{2}}C{{H}_{2}}OH\xrightarrow[Heat]{excess\text{ }HBr}?\]

A)

\[{{C}_{6}}{{H}_{5}}OH+BrC{{H}_{2}}C{{H}_{2}}Br\]

B)

\[{{C}_{6}}{{H}_{5}}OH+HOC{{H}_{2}}C{{H}_{2}}OH\]

C)

\[{{C}_{6}}{{H}_{5}}Br+HOC{{H}_{2}}C{{H}_{2}}OH\]

D)

\[{{C}_{6}}{{H}_{5}}OH+BrC{{H}_{2}}C{{H}_{2}}OH\]

View Answer
96) The compound that gives both iodoform and Fehlings tests is

A)

ethanol

B)

propanone

C)

2-butanol

D)

ethanol

View Answer
97) The equilibrium constant value\[{{K}_{p}}\]for the equilibrium\[{{H}_{2}}(g)+{{I}_{2}}(g)2HI(g)\]changes with

A)

total pressure

B)

temperature

C)

catalyst

D)

the amounts of\[{{H}_{2}}\]and\[{{I}_{2}}\]present

View Answer
98) Among the following, the one which can act as both Bronsted acid as well as Bronsted base is

A)

\[{{H}_{3}}P{{O}_{4}}\]

B)

\[Al{{C}_{4}}\]

C)

\[C{{H}_{3}}CO{{O}^{-}}\]

D)

\[{{H}_{2}}O\]

View Answer
99) The reaction\[A+B\xrightarrow{{}}C+D+40\text{ }kJ\]has an activation energy of 18 kJ. Then the activation   energy   for   the   reaction\[C+D\xrightarrow{{}}A+B\]is

A)

58 kJ

B)

\[-40kJ\]

C)

\[-18\text{ }kJ\]

D)

22 kJ

View Answer
100) One gram atom of a radioactive isotope\[({{t}_{1/2}}=10\,h)\]that emits alpha particle was placed in a sealed container. The time taken for 0.875 g atom of helium to accumulate in the container is

A)

10 h

B)

20 h

C)

30 h

D)

40 h

View Answer
101) In which one of the following reactions, the yield of the products decreases by increasing the pressure?

A)

\[2S{{O}_{2}}(g)+{{O}_{2}}(g)2S{{O}_{2}}(g)\]

B)

\[{{N}_{2}}(g)+3{{H}_{2}}(g)2N{{H}_{3}}(g)\]

C)

\[PC{{l}_{5}}(g)PC{{l}_{3}}(g)+C{{l}_{2}}(g)\]

D)

\[{{N}_{2}}(g)+{{O}_{2}}(g)2NO(g)\]

View Answer
102) The pH of the solution formed by mixing 20 mL of\[0.05M\,{{H}_{2}}S{{O}_{4}}\]with 5.0 mL of 0.45 M \[NaOH\]at 298 K is

A)

6

B)

2

C)

12

D)

7

View Answer
103) Zeises salt is

A)

\[[Fe{{({{C}_{5}}{{H}_{5}})}_{2}}]\]

B)

\[[Pb{{({{C}_{2}}{{H}_{5}})}_{4}}]\]

C)

\[K[PtC{{l}_{3}}({{C}_{2}}{{H}_{4}})]\]

D)

\[[Ni{{(CO)}_{4}}]\]

View Answer
104) The metal used to recover copper from a solution of copper sulphate is

A)

Na

B)

Fe

C)

Hg

D)

Ag

View Answer
105) Which of the following is a correct name according to IUPAC rules?

A)

2,3-diethylhexane

B)

3-ethyL2-methylpentane

C)

3,4-dimethylpentane

D)

2-ethyl-2-methylpentane

View Answer
106) The formula of siderite is

A)

\[F{{e}_{2}}{{O}_{3}}\]

B)

\[F{{e}_{3}}{{O}_{4}}\]

C)

\[Fe{{S}_{2}}\]

D)

\[FeC{{O}_{3}}\]

View Answer
107) When blue vitriol is heated at 373 K, the product formed is

A)

\[CuS{{O}_{4}}.3{{H}_{2}}O\]

B)

\[CuO+S{{O}_{3}}\]

C)

\[CuS{{O}_{4}}.{{H}_{2}}O\]

D)

\[CuS{{O}_{4}}\]

View Answer
108) An alkane with a molecular formula\[{{C}_{6}}{{H}_{14}}\]reacts with chlorine in the presence of light and heat to give two constitutionally isomeric monochlorides of molecular formula\[{{C}_{6}}{{H}_{13}}Cl\]. What is the most reasonable starting alkane?

A)

n-hexane

B)

2, 2-dimethylbutane

C)

2, 3-dimethylbutane

D)

3-methylpentane

View Answer
109) Which of the following statements are correct with respect to the effect of trifluoromethyl group\[(C{{F}_{3}}),\]on an electrophilic aromatic substitution?

A)

The\[C{{F}_{3}}\]group will deactivate the ring

B)

The\[C{{F}_{3}}\]group will activate the ring

C)

The\[C{{F}_{3}}\]group will be ortho, para director

D)

The\[C{{F}_{3}}\]group will be a meta director

View Answer
110) Which of the following compound is chiral?

A)

3-pentanol

B)

1-pentanol

C)

3-methyl-l-butanol

D)

3-methyl-2-butanol

View Answer
111) Which one among the following is most reactive towards electrophilic substitution reaction?

A)

Aniline

B)

Nitrobenzene

C)

Benzoicacid

D)

Acetanilide

View Answer
112) Which one of the following is not aromatic?

A)

Cyclopentadienyl anion

B)

Cycloheptatrienyl cation

C)

Cyclooctatetraene

D)

Thiophene

View Answer
113) The separation of racemic mixture into the pure enantiomers is termed as

A)

racemisation

B)

resolution

C)

equilibration

D)

isomerization

View Answer
114) In a reaction\[2A+B\to {{A}_{2}}B,\]the reactant B will disappear at

A)

half the rate as A will decrease

B)

the same rate as A will decrease

C)

twice the rate as A will decrease

D)

half the rate as\[{{A}_{2}}B\]will form

View Answer
115) Which one of the following liquid pairs will exhibit a positive deviation from Raoults law?

A)

n-hexane and n-heptane

B)

ethanol and chloroform

C)

phenol and aniline

D)

chloroform and acetone

View Answer
116) The vant Hoff factor T for a dilute aqueous solution of sucrose is

A)

zero

B)

1.0

C)

1.5

D)

2.0

View Answer
117) The unit of rate constant for a zero order reaction is

A)

\[{{s}^{-1}}\]

B)

\[mol\,L{{s}^{-1}}\]

C)

\[mol\,{{L}^{-1}}{{s}^{-1}}\]

D)

no unit

View Answer
118) When a solution containing non-volatile solute is diluted with water

A)

its osmotic pressure increases

B)

its boiling point increases

C)

its freezing point decreases

D)

its vapour pressure increases

View Answer
119) What happens when blood cells are placed in pure water?

A)

The fluid in blood cells rapidly moves into water

B)

The water molecules rapidly move into blood cells

C)

The blood cells dissolve in water

D)

No change takes place

View Answer
120) Mendius reaction converts an alkyi cyanide to

A)

a primary amine

B)

an aldehyde

C)

a ketone

D)

an oxime

View Answer
121) Which one of the following amines cannot be prepared by Gabriels synthesis?

A)

Butylamine

B)

Isobutylamine

C)

2-phenylethylamine

D)

N-methylbenzylamine

View Answer
122) Which one of the following is not an aldose?

A)

Glucose

B)

Ribose

C)

Fructose

D)

Mannose

View Answer
123) Which one of the following is a secondary amine?

A)

2-butanamine

B)

N-methylpiperidine

C)

N-methyl-2-pentanamine

D)

p-anisidine

View Answer
124) The weakest base among the following is

A)

dimethylamine

B)

aniline

C)

methylamine

D)

ethylamine

View Answer
125) Which one of the following is not a green house gas?

A)

Methane

B)

Ozone

C)

Carbon dioxide

D)

Nitrogen

View Answer
126) The lanthanide element that has the electronic configuration,\[[Xe]4{{f}^{7}}5{{d}^{1}}6{{s}^{2}}\]is

A)

lutetium

B)

terbium

C)

ytterbium

D)

gadolinium

View Answer
127) The transition metal ion that has spin-only magnetic moment value of 5.96 is

A)

\[M{{n}^{2+}}\]

B)

\[F{{e}^{2+}}\]

C)

\[{{V}^{2+}}\]

D)

\[C{{u}^{2+}}\]

View Answer
128) Square planar complexes of the type MABXL (where A, B, X and L are unidentates) show

A)

two cis and one trans isomer

B)

two trans and one cis isomer

C)

two cis and two trans isomer

D)

one cis and one trans isomer

View Answer
129) The alloy of copper that contains zinc is

A)

monel metal

B)

bronze

C)

bell metal

D)

brass

View Answer
130) All Cu (II) halides are known except the iodide. The reason for is that

A)

iodide is a bulky ion

B)

\[C{{u}^{2+}}\]oxidizes iodide to iodine

C)

\[C{{u}^{2+}}(aq)\]has much more negative hydration enthalpy

D)

\[C{{u}^{2+}}\]ion has smaller size

View Answer
131) Among the following the ambidentate ligand is

A)

\[{{H}_{2}}NC{{h}_{2}}C{{H}_{2}}N{{H}_{2}}\]

B)

\[CO_{3}^{2-}\]

C)

\[NO_{2}^{-}\]

D)

\[{{C}_{2}}O_{4}^{2-}\]

View Answer
132) Among the following, which one is paramagnetic and has tetrahedral geometry?

A)

\[{{[Ni{{(CN)}_{4}}]}^{2-}}\]

B)

\[{{[NiC{{l}_{4}}]}^{2-}}\]

C)

\[[Ni{{(CO)}_{4}}]\]

D)

\[{{[CoC{{l}_{2}}{{(en)}_{2}}]}^{+}}\]

View Answer
133) The de-Broglie wavelength of a ball of mass 10 g moving with a velocity of\[10\text{ }m{{s}^{-1}}\]is \[[h=6.626\times {{10}^{-34}}Js]\]

A)

\[6.626\times {{10}^{-33}}m\]

B)

\[6.626\times {{10}^{-29}}m\]

C)

\[6.626\times {{10}^{-31}}m\]

D)

\[6.626\times {{10}^{-36}}m\]

View Answer
134) The electrons identified by quantum numbers n and ;

(i) \[n=4,l=1,\]

(ii) \[n=4,l=0\]

(iii) \[n=3,l=2\]

and

(iv) \[n=3,l=1\]

can be placed in order of increasing energy as

A)

(i) < (ii) < (iii) < (iv)

B)

(iv) < (iii) < (ii) < (i)

C)

(iv) < (ii) < (iii) < (i)

D)

(iv) < (i) < (ii) < (iii)

View Answer
135) A radioactive element\[_{92}^{238}M\]emits one alpha particle followed by two beta particles. Then the daughter element formed is

A)

an isotope

B)

an isobar

C)

an isotone

D)

an isodiaphere

View Answer
136) When 6.3 g of sodium bicarbonate are added to 30.0 g of acetic acid solution, the residual solution is found to weigh 33.0 g. The mass of carbon dioxide released in the reaction is

A)

3.0 g

B)

0.91 g

C)

1.91 g

D)

3.3 g

View Answer
137) Two oxides of a metal contain 36.4% and 53.4% of oxygen by mass respectively. If the formula of the first oxide is M-f), then that of the second is

A)

\[{{M}_{2}}{{O}_{3}}\]

B)

\[MO\]

C)

\[M{{O}_{2}}\]

D)

\[{{M}_{2}}{{O}_{5}}\]

View Answer
138) In a volumetric experiment, it was found that a solution of\[KMn{{O}_{4}}\]is reduced to\[MnS{{O}_{4}}\]. If the normality of the solution is 1.0 N, then the molarity of the solution will be

A)

0.5 M

B)

0.2 M

C)

1.0 M

D)

0.4 M

View Answer
139) Which of the following pair of gases will diffuse at the same rate through a porous plug?

A)

\[CO,\text{ }N{{O}_{2}}\]

B)

\[NO,\text{ }{{C}_{2}}{{H}_{6}}\]

C)

\[N{{O}_{2}},\text{ }C{{O}_{2}}\]

D)

\[N{{H}_{3}},\text{ }P{{H}_{3}}\]

View Answer
140) Freundlich adsorption isotherm equation is

A)

\[\log \frac{m}{x}=\log K+\frac{1}{n}\log p\]

B)

\[\log \frac{x}{m}=\log K+n\log p\]

C)

\[\log \frac{m}{x}=\log K+n\log p\]

D)

\[\log \frac{x}{m}=\log K+\frac{1}{n}\log p\]

View Answer
141) Which one of the following is a copolymer formed by condensation polymerization?

A)

Terylene

B)

Buna-S

C)

Buna-N

D)

Neoprene

View Answer
142) Which of the following is the largest is size?

A)

\[C{{l}^{-}}\]

B)

\[{{S}^{2-}}\]

C)

\[N{{a}^{+}}\]

D)

\[{{F}^{-}}\]

View Answer
143) In zinc blende structure, the coordination number of the cation is

A)

4

B)

6

C)

8

D)

12

View Answer
144) The best coagulant for the precipitation of \[Fe{{(OH)}_{3}}\]is

A)

\[N{{a}_{2}}HP{{O}_{3}}\]

B)

\[NaN{{O}_{3}}\]

C)

\[N{{a}_{3}}P{{O}_{4}}\]

D)

\[N{{a}_{2}}N{{O}_{4}}\]

View Answer
145) The second ionization energies of Li, Be, B and C are in the order

A)

\[Li>C>B>Be\]

B)

\[Li>B>C>Be\]

C)

\[B>C>Be>Li\]

D)

\[Be>C>B>Li\]

View Answer
146) Chloroform on heating with silver powder gives

A)

ethene

B)

ethyne

C)

D)

ehane

View Answer
147) The decreasing order of acidity among the compounds,

ethanol (I)

2, 2, 2-trifluoroethanol (II),

trifluroacetic acid (III)

and acetic acid (IV)

is

A)

\[III\text{ }>\text{ }II\text{ }>\text{ }IV\text{ }>\text{ }I\]

B)

\[IV\text{ }>\text{ }III\text{ }>\text{ }II\text{ }>\text{ }I\]

C)

\[I\text{ }>\text{ }II\text{ }>\text{ }III\text{ }>\text{ }IV\]

D)

\[III\text{ }>\text{ }IV\text{ }>\text{ }II\text{ }>\text{ }I\]

View Answer
148) Which of the following is most acidic?

A)

Methane

B)

Ethane

C)

Ethyne

D)

Ethene

View Answer
149) 1-chlorobutane on reaction with alcoholic potash gives

A)

1-butanol

B)

2-butene

C)

1-butene

D)

2-butanol

View Answer
150) Phenol on heating with alcoholic KOH and chloroform undergoes

A)

Reimer-Tiemann reaction

B)

Kolbe reaction

C)

Gattermann reaction

D)

Cannizzaro reaction

View Answer
151) Chondrichthyes is characterized by

A)

placoid scale

B)

ventral mouth

C)

ctenoid scale and ventral mouth

D)

placoid scale and ventral mouth

View Answer
152) Secondary body cavity with segmented mesodermal lining is called

A)

haemocoel

B)

neurocoel

C)

true coelom

D)

pseudocoelom

View Answer
153) Stratified epithelium is found in

A)

seminiferous tubule

B)

fallopian tube

C)

nasal cavity

D)

kidney tubules

View Answer
154) Dead space air in man is

A)

500 mL

B)

150 mL

C)

250 mL

D)

1.5L

View Answer
155) Vertebrate brain differentiates from

A)

endoderm

B)

mesoderm

C)

ectoderm

D)

blastoderm

View Answer
156) Animals of class-Mammalia have

A)

seven cervical vertebrae

B)

seven cranial nerve

C)

single ventricular chamber

D)

fourteen cervical vertebrae

View Answer
157) The ovule in which the funicle, chalaza and micropyle lie in one vertical plane, is called

A)

campylotropous

B)

amphitropous

C)

orthotropous

D)

anatropous

View Answer
158) In porogamy, pollen tube enters the ovule through the

A)

chalazal end

B)

integument

C)

micropyle

D)

ovary wall

View Answer
159) Testa of a seed is produced from

A)

ovary wall

B)

hilum

C)

outer integument of ovule

D)

funicle

View Answer
160) Undifferentiated mass of plant cells grown on nutrient medium is called

A)

callus

B)

bud

C)

clone

D)

scion

View Answer
161) Cleistogamous flower is found in

A)

Tobacco

B)

Viola

C)

Mirabilis

D)

None of these

View Answer
162) Vaccine for tuberculosis is known as

A)

PAS vaccine

B)

BCG vaccine

C)

OPV

D)

DPT

View Answer
163) Sir Godfrey Hounsfield developed the diagnostic technique of

A)

CT scanning

B)

MRI

C)

endoscopy

D)

bronchoscopy

View Answer
164) Cannabis sativa is the source of

A)

opium

B)

LSD

C)

marijuana

D)

cocaine

View Answer
165) Alcoholism may leads to

A)

skin cancer

B)

liver cirrhosis

C)

viral disease

D)

eye infections

View Answer
166) Dipsomania is

A)

a type of depression

B)

insanity due of psychosis

C)

severe addiction to alcohol

D)

tendency to take much water

View Answer
167) Hydroponics is the method of

A)

water conservation

B)

plant development in water without soil

C)

plant development without soil

D)

plant development in saline soil

View Answer
168) Pedology refers to study of

A)

soil

B)

water

C)

population

D)

fossils

View Answer
169) Major ecological community of plants and animals extending over large natural areas is known as

A)

bioregion

B)

biosphere

C)

biota

D)

biome

View Answer
170) Standing crops refers to

A)

all the photosynthetic living forms in an area

B)

all the living forms in an area

C)

the amount of living matter in a component population of an ecosystem at any time

D)

all the crop plants in an area

View Answer
171) The study of the relation of an organism with its enviroment is called

A)

Synecology

B)

Bionomics

C)

Auteology

D)

Herpetology

View Answer
172) The aquatic organism that can actively swim at will against the water current is

A)

neuston

B)

plankton

C)

nekton

D)

benthos

View Answer
173) The term Taxonomy was introduced by

A)

de Candolle

B)

Bentham and Hooker

C)

Linnaeus

D)

Huxley

View Answer
174) Scientific study of diversity of organisms and their evolutionary relationships is

A)

Morphology

B)

Anatomy

C)

Taxonomy

D)

Systematics

View Answer
175) A virus differs from a bacterium as it contains

A)

a cell wall

B)

cytosol

C)

DNA as genetic material

D)

DNA or RNA as genetic material with no ribosomes

View Answer
176) According to five kingdom classification bacteria belong to

A)

Protista

B)

Monera

C)

Piantae

D)

Archaea

View Answer
177) The framework system of classification in which various taxonomic categories are arranged in order of logical sequence is called

A)

systematics

B)

classification

C)

hierarchy

D)

taxon

View Answer
178) The basic unit of classification is

A)

species

B)

genus

C)

family

D)

phylum

View Answer
179) Age of fishes is also known as

A)

Permian Era

B)

Silurian Era

C)

Devonian Era

D)

Ordovician Era

View Answer
180) Fossilized faecal material of animals are known as

A)

coprolites

B)

compressions

C)

moulds

D)

casts

View Answer
181) First life on the earth originated from non-living matters has been explained by

A)

theory of biogenesis

B)

theory of abiogenesis

C)

theory of special creation

D)

theory of extraterrestrial origin

View Answer
182) Glycocalyx is associated with

A)

nucleolus

B)

plasma membrane

C)

nucleus

D)

nucleosome

View Answer
183) Sperm acrosome is derived from

A)

Golgi bodies

B)

endoplasmic reticulum

C)

lysosome

D)

mesosome

View Answer
184) Histone octamer contains

A)

eight types of histones

B)

eight histones of four different types

C)

five histones

D)

six types of histones

View Answer
185) Which of the following radioisotope is not suitable for DNA labelling based studies?

A)

\[{{H}^{3}}\]

B)

\[{{P}^{32}}\]

C)

\[{{N}^{15}}\]

D)

\[{{S}^{35}}\]

View Answer
186) Day neutral plant relates to

A)

loss of activity during day time

B)

overactive during day time

C)

flowering in all possible photoperiod

D)

no flowering in any photoperiod

View Answer
187) Water in the soil available to plants is

A)

gravitational water

B)

capillary water

C)

hygroscopic water

D)

None of the above

View Answer
188) When a cell is plasmolysed, it becomes

A)

flaccid and its TP becomes zero

B)

turgid and its TP becomes zero

C)

turgid and TP becomes equal to OP

D)

flaccid and DPD becomes zero

View Answer
189) Auxanometer is used to measure

A)

the growth in length of a plant organ

B)

the growth in breadth of a plant organ

C)

population of the pests attacking a plant

D)

Both (a) and (b)

View Answer
190) Bolting may be induced by

A)

gibberellins

B)

ABA

C)

auxin

D)

cytokinin

View Answer
191) The theory of random genetic drift was proposed by

A)

Sewall Wright

B)

Hardy-Weinberg

C)

RA Fisher

D)

Mayer

View Answer
192) Wings of birds and wings of flies perform similar functions so they are examples of

A)

homologous organ

B)

analogous organ

C)

evolutionary organ

D)

paralogous organ

View Answer
193) A hereditary disease which is never passed on from father to son is

A)

X-chromosomal linked disease

B)

Autosomal linked disease

C)

Y-chromosomal linked disease

D)

None of the above

View Answer
194) Maximum survival and reproductive capacity shown by a population under optimal environmental conditions is called

A)

carrying capacity

B)

natality

C)

biotic potential

D)

vitality

View Answer
195) The concept of inheritance of acquired character in support of evolution was proposed by

A)

Darwin

B)

Cuvier

C)

Lamarck

D)

de Vries

View Answer
196) The most recendy discovered animal phylum is

A)

Concentricycloidea

B)

Pogonophora

C)

Loricifera

D)

Ctenophora

View Answer
197) One animal that does not perform locomotion is

A)

Sycon

B)

Nereis

C)

Sepia

D)

Euglena

View Answer
198)  Among the following, which one is not a deuterostome?

A)

Sea urchin

B)

Earthworm

C)

Sand dollar

D)

Ichthyophis

View Answer
199) Somatic embryo can be developed in plant tissue culture from

A)

a somatic cell

B)

single germline cell

C)

any type of fertilized cell

D)

anthers

View Answer
200) Black foot disease occurs due to

A)

cadmium

B)

mercury

C)

arsenic

D)

copper

View Answer
201) Which one of the following is denitrifying bacteria?

A)

Nitrosomonas

B)

Pseudomonas

C)

Azotobacter

D)

Nostoc

View Answer
202) Type of aestivation shown by Pisum is

A)

imbricate

B)

vexillary

C)

twisted

D)

quincuncial

View Answer
203) Vascular bundle having phloem at the centre encircled by xylem is known as

A)

bicollateral

B)

conjoint collateral

C)

amphivasal

D)

amphicribral

View Answer
204) Allelism refers to

A)

genic interactions controlling a character

B)

multiple genes controlling a character

C)

expression of many characters by a single gene

D)

alternative forms of a gene at a given locus

View Answer
205) Mendelian principles are not applicable in case of

A)

sex linked alleles

B)

asexually reproducing forms

C)

sexually interbreeding forms

D)

diploid homozygous forms

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206)  Caryopsis is found in

A)

sunflower

B)

maize

C)

pea

D)

datura

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207) A tree that has strong erect stem with hollow intemodes and solid nodes is known as

A)

caudex

B)

deliquescent

C)

scape

D)

culm

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208) Zone of exclusion surrounds

A)

Golgi apparatus

B)

centriole

C)

nucleus

D)

lysosome

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209) Genotypic and phenotypic ratio in monohybrid cross remains same in case of

A)

sex linked genes

B)

pseudoallelic genes

C)

intermediate inheritance

D)

dominant and recessive genes

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210) Crossing over is the exchange of genetic material between

A)

non-sister chromatids of the homologous chromosomes

B)

sister chromatids of the homologous chromosome

C)

chromatids of non-homologous chromo¬somes

D)

the genes those are completely linked

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211)  Net gain of ATP from one molecule of glucose in glycolysis is

A)

3

B)

6

C)

8

D)

2

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212)  Cell organelle without a membrane is

A)

mitochondria

B)

liposomes

C)

ribosome

D)

microsome

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213) Mendel was successful in discovering the principles of inheritance as

A)

he took pea plants for his experiments

B)

he did not encounter linkage between the genes for the characters he considered

C)

he had an in-depth knowledge on hybridization

D)

he was a famous mathematician

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214) Pellagra is caused due to deficiency of

A)

niacin

B)

pantothenic acid

C)

tocopherol

D)

cyanocobalamine

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215) Which one is not a placental hormone?

A)

HCG

B)

HCS

C)

Progesterone

D)

Melatonin

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216)  ADH deficiency shows the following condition.

A)

Polydipsia

B)

Polyuria

C)

Both (a) and (b)

D)

Glucosuria

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217)  Erythropoietin is secreted from

A)

pituitary gland

B)

pancreas

C)

adrenal gland

D)

kidney

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218) Emphysema is a

A)

cardiovascular disease

B)

pulmonary disease

C)

neural disease

D)

renal disease

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219) Amount of \[C{{O}_{2}}\] in expired air is about

A)

0.04%

B)

0.03%

C)

4.5%

D)

21%

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220)  The factor most important in regulating transpiration is

A)

temperature

B)

light

C)

wind

D)

relative humidity

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221) Light reaction of photosynthesis occurs inside

A)

stroma

B)

grana

C)

endoplasmic reticulum

D)

cytoplasm

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222) Plants requiring low light intensity for optimum photosynthesis are called

A)

heliophytes

B)

pteridophytes

C)

sciophytes

D)

bryophytes

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223) Sunken stomata are usually found in

A)

\[{{C}_{3}}\]plants

B)

CAM plants

C)

insectivorous plants

D)

phanerogams

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224) A reduction in the quantity of oxygen evolution during photosynthesis may be observed at

A)

Light having wavelength more than 680 nm

B)

Light having wavelength less than 680 nm

C)

Light having wavelength 560 nm

D)

Light having wavelength less than 360 nm

View Answer
225) Which one of the following is a micronutrient in plants?

A)

Magnesium

B)

Zinc

C)

Potassium

D)

Calcium

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