Solved papers for JIPMER Jipmer Medical Solved Paper-1996

Jipmer Medical Solved Paper-1996 Total Questions - 200

1) Threshold wavelength depends upon:

A)

Frequency of radiation

B)

velocity of electrons

C)

work function

D)

None of the above

View Answer
2) A galvanometer of 25 ohms and having full scale deflection for a current of 10 mA is changed into voltmeter of range 100 volts by connecting a resistance R in series with the galvanometer. The resistance R in ohms is:

A)

10000

B)

                                       975

C)

10025

D)

       9975

View Answer
3) A far-sighted man who has lost his spectacles, reads a book by looking through a small hole in a sheet of paper:

A)

the hole produces an image of the letters at a longer distance

B)

in doing so, the focal length of the eye lens is effectively decreased in doing so, the focal length of the eye

C)

lens is effectively decreased

D)

because in doing so, equivalent focal length remains the same as with spectacles

View Answer
4) Four identical copper cubes are painted with different types of paint. Which one would you expect to lose heat rapidly, if all cubes are heated to the same temperature and are left in a vacuum?

A)

Rough white

B)

Shinning white

C)

Rough black

D)

                       Shinning black

View Answer
5) In a photometer two sources of light when placed at distances 20 cm and 30 cm respectively produce shadows of equal intensities. Their luminous intensities are in the ratio of;

A)

\[{{\left( \frac{2}{3} \right)}^{1/2}}\]

B)

                       \[2/3\]

C)

\[4/9\]

D)

       none of the above

View Answer
6) A moving cycle can be easily balanced. This can be explain by the law of conservation of:

A)

linear momentum

B)

translational kinetic energy

C)

rotational kinetic energy

D)

angular momentum

View Answer
7) The ferromagnetic substance is converted into paramagnetic substances:

A)

below the curie temperature

B)

at the curie temperature

C)

above the curie temperature

D)

at the absolute zero

View Answer
8) Water is supplied to different localities from a tank. The pressure of water is:

A)

less in the localities near the tank

B)

same in different localities

C)

more in the localities near the tank

D)

more at higher altitudes

View Answer
9) The tension in piano wire is 10 kg. What should be the tension in the wire to produce a note of double the frequency?

A)

5 kg

B)

                       20 kg

C)

40 kg

D)

       80 kg

View Answer
10) There is no hole current in good conductors because:

A)

they do not have valence band

B)

they do not have conduction band

C)

have neither valence nor conduction bands

D)

their valence and conduction bands overlap

View Answer
11) A proton is fired through a magnetic field in a direction opposite to that of the field. The particle will:

A)

be deflected with no change in speed

B)

be deflected with a change in speed

C)

not be deflected but have a change in speed

D)

neither be deflected nor have a change in speed

View Answer
12) Two lenses of power +1.5 diopter and +1.0 diopter are placed in contact, the effective power of the combination is:

A)

2.5 diopter

B)

       \[\frac{3}{5}\]diopter

C)

       0.5 diopter

D)

       \[\frac{5}{3}\]diopter

View Answer
13) The bulk modulus of a fluid is inversely proportional to:

A)

change in pressure

B)

volume of fluid

C)

                       mass of fluid

D)

       compressibility

View Answer
14) What is the resistance between A and B in the figure:

A)

10\[\Omega \]

B)

20\[\Omega \]

C)

40\[\Omega \]

D)

50\[\Omega \]

View Answer
15) Which of the following types of wheels of same mass and radius will have largest moment of inertia?

A)

Ring

B)

                      Annular disc

C)

       Solid disc

D)

       Cylindrical

View Answer
16) A certain radioactive element has a half-life of 20 years. If you had a block with 10 g of the element in it, after how many years will there be just 2.5 g of the element in the block?

A)

40 years

B)

                                       60 years

C)

       80 years

D)

       100 years

View Answer
17) If \[\] is the density of the material of the body falling through a medium of density \[{{}_{m,}}\] then the terminal velocity of the body is proportional to:

A)

\[\]

B)

       \[{{}_{m}}\]

C)

\[\text{+}{{}_{m}}\]

D)

       \[\text{-}{{}_{m}}\]

View Answer
18) Doubling of which of the following will double the frequency of oscillation of a simple pendulum?

A)

Mass of the bob

B)

Length of the pendulum

C)

Amplitude of oscillation

D)

None of the above

View Answer
19) Hubbles Law is based on:

A)

Dopplers effect

B)

Weins Law

C)

       Law of Gravitation

D)

Stefens Law

View Answer
20) A capacitor is charged by using a battery which is then disconnected. A dielectric slab is then slipped between the plates which results in:

A)

reduction of charges on the plates and increase of potential difference across the plates

B)

increase in the potential difference across the plates reduction in stored energy but no change in the charge on the plates

C)

decrease in the potential difference across the plates reduction in stored energy but no change in the charge on the plates

D)

none of the above

View Answer
21) What causes the Fraunhoffers lines in the solar spectrum?

A)

Absorption of radiation

B)

Emission of radiation

C)

Both absorption and emission of radiation

D)

Neither absorption nor emission of radiation

View Answer
22) Two air bubbles of unequal size are connected to each other so that the air can flow from one to the other. Which of the following is likely to occur?

A)

Smaller bubble expands and larger one contracts

B)

Smaller bubble contracts and larger one expands

C)

No change in the size of the bubbles

D)

Size oscillate, that is first smaller bubble expands, and then contracts and so on

View Answer
23) What is the dimensional formula for the gravitational constant?

A)

\[\text{ }\!\![\!\!\text{ }{{\text{M}}^{\text{-1}}}{{\text{L}}^{\text{3}}}{{\text{T}}^{\text{-2}}}\text{ }\!\!]\!\!\text{ }\]

B)

\[\text{ }\!\![\!\!\text{ }{{\text{M}}^{\text{-1}}}{{\text{L}}^{\text{-1}}}{{\text{T}}^{\text{-3}}}\text{ }\!\!]\!\!\text{ }\]

C)

       \[\text{ }\!\![\!\!\text{ }{{\text{M}}^{\text{-1}}}{{\text{L}}^{\text{-3}}}{{\text{T}}^{\text{-1}}}\text{ }\!\!]\!\!\text{ }\]

D)

       \[\text{ }\!\![\!\!\text{ }{{\text{M}}^{\text{-2}}}{{\text{L}}^{\text{-3}}}{{\text{T}}^{\text{-2}}}\text{ }\!\!]\!\!\text{ }\]

View Answer
24) For a stationary satellite, which of the following statement is not correct?

A)

Its height is fixed

B)

Time period of rotation is same as that of earth

C)

Its orbital plane is inclined at a small angle to the axis of rotation of the earth

D)

Direction of rotation is same as that of earth

View Answer
25) A transformer is used to light 140 W, 24 V lamp from 240 V AC mains. The currents in the mains is 0.7 A. The efficiency of the transformer is nearest to:

A)

60%

B)

                       70%

C)

80%

D)

       90%

View Answer
26) When the liquid flows through an orifice, the rate of volume of liquid escaping out does not depend upon :

A)

height of liquid level

B)

density of liquid

C)

acceleration due to gravity

D)

radius of orifice

View Answer
27) In the atmosphere of the earth which of the following continuously decreases with height?

A)

Pressure

B)

Temperature

C)

       Humidity

D)

       Wind velocity

View Answer
28) If x and x are the co-ordinates of a particle in two frames of reference S and S moving with respect to each other with a velocity \[\upsilon \] along the v-axis and having the co-ordinate axes parallel to each other, then which of the following is correct relation?

A)

\[x=x\]

B)

\[\frac{dx}{dt}=\frac{dx}{dt}\]

C)

       \[\frac{{{d}^{2}}x}{d{{t}^{2}}}=\frac{{{d}^{2}}x}{dt{{}^{2}}}\]

D)

       none of the above

View Answer
29) The resolving power of a telescope increases when:

A)

wavelength of light increases

B)

wavelength of light decreases

C)

focal length of the eye piece increases

D)

focal length of eye piece decreases

View Answer
30) We heat a gas sample from \[27{}^\circ C\] to \[327{}^\circ C\]. The initial average kinetic energy of the molecules was E. What will be the average kinetic energy after hearing?

A)

327E

B)

300E

C)

2E

D)

       \[\sqrt{2}E\]

View Answer
31) The distance between virtual sources in a biprism of an angle a and refractive index \[\mu .\] of the source is placed at \[a\] distance a from it is:

A)

\[(\mu -1)\alpha \]

B)

\[2(\mu -1)\alpha \,a\]

C)

\[2(\mu -1)\alpha \,\]

D)

       \[(\mu -1)\alpha \,a\]

View Answer
32) A flask containing air at \[27{}^\circ \] at atmosphere pressure is corked up. A pressure of 2.5 at m would force the cork out, the temperature at which it happen is :

A)

620 K

B)

750 K

C)

\[67.5{}^\circ C\]

D)

       \[577{}^\circ C\]

View Answer
33) The equation of a certain gas can be written as \[{{\left( \frac{{{T}^{7}}}{{{P}^{2}}} \right)}^{1/5}}=\]constant. The specific heat at constant volume of this gas is (in J/mol K)

A)

0.5R

B)

1.5R

C)

2R

D)

2.5R

View Answer
34) A thin glass prism of n = 1.5 is immersed in water of n = 1.33. The ratio of deviation of the ray water to that in air for the same prism is:

A)

1 : 2

B)

1 : 4

C)

1 : 3

D)

       1 : 8

View Answer
35) The power of water pump is 4 kW. The volume of water it can raise in one minute to a height of: (Assume \[g=10\,m/{{s}^{2}}\])

A)

\[4\,{{m}^{3}}\]

B)

\[0.1\,{{m}^{3}}\]

C)

\[2.0\,{{m}^{3}}\]

D)

       \[2.4\,{{m}^{3}}\]

View Answer
36) When temperature goes down what happens to the coefficient of viscosity of liquids and gases:

A)

increases for both

B)

decreases for both

C)

increases for liquids and decreases for gases

D)

decreases for liquids and increases for gases

View Answer
37) Which of the following is dimensionless quantity?

A)

Strain

B)

Stress

C)

Quantity of heat

D)

Specific heat

View Answer
38) A bucket containing water is rotated in a vertical circle. The water does not fall out of the bucket even when it is at the top, because:

A)

weight of water is zero

B)

sufficient time is not available for the all

C)

inertia prevents it from falling

D)

cohesive forces do not allow it to fall

View Answer
39) The Einsteins photoelectric equation may be written as \[hv={{E}_{k+h{{v}_{0.}}}}\] Here \[{{E}_{k}}\] represents:

A)

kinetic energy of photoelectrons

B)

mean kinetic energy of the photo- electrons

C)

minimum kinetic energy of photo- electrons

D)

maximum kinetic energy of the photo- electrons

View Answer
40) A thin rectangular magnet suspended freely has a period of oscillation 4 s. If it is broken into two halves each having half their initial length, then when suspended similarly, the time period of oscillation of each part will be:

A)

4 s

B)

2 s

C)

1 s

D)

       0.25 s

View Answer
41) A artificial satellite is going round the earth assumed to be uniform sphere. Its period t will depend on the density \[\rho \] by the relation (k is numerical constant)

A)

\[t=k{{\rho }^{1/2}}\]

B)

\[t=k\rho \]

C)

\[t=k{{\rho }^{-1}}\]

D)

       \[t=k{{\rho }^{-1/2}}\]

View Answer
42) The minimum acceleration of a fireman to climb down a rope of breaking tension 0.8 of his weight is

A)

0.8 g

B)

0.4 g

C)

       0.2 g

D)

       g

View Answer
43) \[\text{M}{{\text{L}}^{\text{2}}}{{\text{T}}^{\text{3}}}{{\text{I}}^{\text{-2}}}\] is the dimension of:

A)

resistivity

B)

resistance

C)

       potential difference

D)

electric field

View Answer
44) The period of a simple pendulum at rest is 2 second. When its period will be measured in a lift accelerating upward with \[\,2\,\,m/{{s}^{2}}\] then its period will be:

A)

\[\sqrt{\frac{40}{8}}\]

B)

       \[\sqrt{\frac{72}{40}}\]

C)

\[\sqrt{\frac{40}{12}}\]

D)

       \[\frac{8}{4}\]

View Answer
45) A body is dropped from a height rebounds to 0.81 of original height after impact, what is value of e?

A)

2

B)

                       0.5

C)

1

D)

       0.9

View Answer
46) The ratio of the intensities of two simple harmonic waves is 1 : 9. The ratio of their amplitudes is:

A)

1 : 9

B)

1 : 3

C)

9 : 1

D)

       3 : 1

View Answer
47) The displacement of a particle executing S.H.M. is \[y=a\,\sin \,(\omega t-\phi ).\] The velocity of the particle at time \[t=\frac{\phi }{\omega }\] is:

A)

\[\omega \,\cos \,\phi \]

B)

\[a\omega \]

C)

       \[\omega \,\cos \,2\phi \]

D)

       \[-a\omega \,\cos \,2\phi \]

View Answer
48) What will happen to the weight of the body at the North Pole, if the earth stops rotating about its axis?

A)

No change

B)

Reduces to zero

C)

Decreases but does not become zero

D)

Increases

View Answer
49) How, should the force act on a body to exert maximum torque on it?

A)

In any direction and at maximum

B)

Distance from the axis of rotation Perpendicular to the axis of rotation with the position vector of the point of action of force also perpendicular to the axis of rotation

C)

At maximum distance perpendicular to the axis of rotation

D)

In any direction with the line action of the force passing through the axis of rotation

View Answer
50) An ideal gas is heated from \[27{}^\circ C\] to\[627{}^\circ C\]. It initial volume was\[4{{m}^{3}}\]. Its final volume will be:

A)

\[\sqrt{2}\times 4{{m}^{3}}\]

B)

       \[8{{m}^{3}}\]

C)

\[\sqrt{3}\times 4{{m}^{3}}\]

D)

       \[12{{m}^{3}}\]

View Answer
51) The force acting on a body of mass 10 kg is \[(2\mathbf{\hat{i}}+\mathbf{\hat{j}}\,-\mathbf{\hat{k}})\] N. If the body is initially at rest. The velocity at the end of the 20 sec is:

A)

\[2\sqrt{3}\]

B)

       \[3\sqrt{2}\]

C)

\[6\sqrt{2}\]

D)

\[2\sqrt{6}\]

View Answer
52) A mass of 12 kg at rest explodes into two pieces of masses 4 kg and 8 kg. Which move in opposite directions. If the velocity of 8 kg mass is 6 m/s. Then kinetic energy of the 4 kg mass is:

A)

288 J

B)

144 J

C)

128 J

D)

       64 J

View Answer
53) The mass of the planet is \[\frac{1}{9}\]th of the mass of the earth and its radius is half that of the earth. If a body weighs 450 N on the earth, then it is weight on the planet would be:

A)

100 N

B)

200 N

C)

450 N

D)

       900 N

View Answer
54) An open and closed pipe have same lengths. The ratio of frequencies in their \[p\] the mode of vibration, will be :

A)

\[\frac{2p}{2p-1}\]

B)

\[\frac{p}{2p-1}\]

C)

       \[\frac{2p}{2p+1}\]

D)

       \[\frac{p}{2p+1}\]

View Answer
55) Two soap bubbles are blown. In the first soap bubble the pressure is 2 times that of the other soap bubble. The ratio of their radii will be:

A)

1 : 4

B)

                       4 : 1

C)

1 : 2

D)

       2 : 1

View Answer
56) A series LCR circuit is tuned to resonance. The impedance of the circuit now is:

A)

\[{{\left[ {{R}^{2}}+{{\left( \omega L-\frac{1}{\omega C} \right)}^{2}} \right]}^{1/2}}\]

B)

\[{{\left[ {{R}^{2}}+{{(\omega L)}^{2}}+{{\left( \frac{1}{\omega C} \right)}^{2}} \right]}^{1/2}}\]

C)

\[{{\left[ {{R}^{2}}+{{\left( \frac{1}{\omega C}-\omega L \right)}^{2}} \right]}^{1/2}}\]

D)

\[R\]

View Answer
57) In the nuclear reaction \[_{\text{2}}\text{H}{{\text{e}}^{\text{4}}}{{\text{+}}_{\text{7}}}{{\text{N}}^{\text{14}}}\xrightarrow{{}}\text{a}{{\text{X}}^{\text{b}}}{{\text{+}}_{\text{1}}}{{\text{H}}^{\text{1}}}\] What is the value of a and b?

A)

\[a=8,b=16\]

B)

       \[a=8,b=17\]

C)

       \[a=7,b=16\]

D)

       \[a=7,b=17\]

View Answer
58) A toaster and a light bulb connected in parallel. The toaster produces more heat than bulb, then the resistance of toaster is:

A)

greater than that of the bulb

B)

equal to that of the bulb

C)

less than that of the bulb

D)

not comparable to that of bulb

View Answer
59) Two insulated charged spheres of radii \[{{R}_{1}}\] and \[{{R}_{2}}\] having charges \[{{Q}_{1}}\] and \[{{Q}_{2}}\] respectively connected to each other. There is:

A)

an increase in the energy of the system

B)

no change in the energy of the system

C)

always decrease in energy

D)

a decrease in energy of the system unless \[{{Q}_{1}}{{R}_{2}}={{Q}_{2}}{{R}_{1}}\]

View Answer
60) A converging lens is used to form an image on a screen. When the upper half of the lens is covered by an opaque screen:

A)

half the image will disappear

B)

complete image will be formed

C)

intensity of image will increase

D)

intensity of the image will decrease

View Answer
61) Lucas reagent is a mixture of:

A)

cone. \[HCl\] + anhyd. \[ZnC{{l}_{2}}\]

B)

cone. \[HCl\] + hydrated \[ZnC{{l}_{2}}\]

C)

cone. \[HN{{O}_{3}}\]+ hydrated \[ZnC{{l}_{2}}\]

D)

cone. \[HN{{O}_{3}}\]+ anhyd. \[ZnC{{l}_{2}}\]

View Answer
62) The most abundant transition element is:

A)

Cr

B)

       Zn

C)

Fe

D)

       W

View Answer
63) Which of the following carbonates, will not decompose on heating?

A)

\[CaC{{O}_{3}}\]

B)

\[N{{a}_{2}}C{{O}_{3}}\]

C)

       \[BaC{{O}_{3}}\]

D)

       \[CdC{{O}_{3}}\]

View Answer
64) Be exhibits the diagonal relationship with:

A)

Mg

B)

Li

C)

Si

D)

       Al

View Answer
65) Which of the following hydroxides, is a strongest base?

A)

\[LiOH\]

B)

\[NaOH\]

C)

       \[KOH\]

D)

       \[Ca{{(OH)}_{2}}\]

View Answer
66) Which of the following molecules, has the largest bond angle around the central atom?

A)

\[{{H}_{2}}O\]

B)

\[S{{O}_{2}}\]

C)

\[{{H}_{2}}S\]

D)

       \[{{H}_{2}}Se\]

View Answer
67) A 3d-electron having spin quantum number, \[s=+\frac{1}{2},\] can have a magnetic quantum number:

A)

+ 3

B)

- 2

C)

+ 4

D)

       - 3

View Answer
68) The kinetic energy of electron in \[H{{e}^{+}}\]is maximum in:

A)

IInd orbit

B)

IIIrd orbit

C)

       Ist orbit

D)

       none of these

View Answer
69) The hybrid state of sulphur in \[SO_{4}^{2-}\] is:

A)

\[s{{p}^{3}}\]

B)

\[s{{p}^{2}}\]

C)

\[sp\]

D)

       none of these

View Answer
70) Which one is the electron deficient corn pound?

A)

\[N{{H}_{3}}\]

B)

                       \[PC{{l}_{3}}\]

C)

       \[BC{{l}_{3}}\]

D)

       \[Cl{{F}_{3}}\]

View Answer
71) Which of the following compound would exhibit co-ordination isomerism?

A)

\[[Cr{{(en)}_{2}}]\,N{{O}_{2}}\]

B)

\[[Cr{{({{H}_{2}}O)}_{6}}]\,C{{l}_{3}}\]

C)

\[[Cr{{(N{{H}_{3}})}_{6}}]\,\,[Co{{(CN)}_{6}}]\]

D)

None of the above

View Answer
72) The blue complex formed on addition of cone. \[N{{H}_{4}}OH\] solution to a \[C{{u}^{2+}}\] salt solution has the structure:

A)

\[{{[Cu\,{{(N{{H}_{3}})}_{2}}]}^{2+}}\]

B)

\[{{[Cu\,{{(N{{H}_{3}})}_{4}}]}^{2+}}\]

C)

\[{{[Cu\,{{(N{{H}_{4}})}_{4}}]}^{2+}}\]

D)

\[{{[Cu\,{{(N{{H}_{4}})}_{2}}]}^{2+}}\]

View Answer
73) Which of the substance, Na, Hg, S, Pt and graphite, can be used as electrodes in electrolytic cells having aqueous solution?

A)

Hg, Pt and graphite

B)

Na, S and Hg

C)

Pt and graphite only

D)

Na and S only

View Answer
74) The most stable oxidation state of Fe is:

A)

+ 2

B)

+ 3

C)

- 2

D)

       - 3

View Answer
75) Which of the following ion in aqueous medium has orange colour?

A)

\[C{{r}^{+3}}\]

B)

\[C{{r}_{2}}O_{7}^{2-}\]

C)

       \[MnO_{4}^{-}\]

D)

       \[MnO_{4}^{2-}\]

View Answer
76) Which of the following is used for galvanizing iron?

A)

Cr

B)

Zn

C)

Ni

D)

       Sn

View Answer
77) Which of the following does not have S?S bond?

A)

\[{{S}_{2}}O_{3}^{2-}\]

B)

\[{{S}_{2}}O_{6}^{2-}\]

C)

\[{{S}_{2}}O_{4}^{2-}\]

D)

\[{{S}_{2}}O_{7}^{2-}\]

View Answer
78) Which of the following cannot be hydrolyzed?

A)

\[GeC{{l}_{4}}\]

B)

\[SnC{{l}_{4}}\]

C)

       \[SiC{{l}_{4}}\]

D)

       \[CC{{l}_{4}}\]

View Answer
79) What is the oxidation number of chromium in chromyl chloride?

A)

+ 3

B)

+ 6

C)

+ 4

D)

       none of these

View Answer
80) The second most electronegative element is:

A)

F

B)

       Cl

C)

O

D)

       N

View Answer
81) In which of the following state of matter, the average distance between the molecules lies between \[{{10}^{-5}}\]cm to \[{{10}^{-7}}\]cm?

A)

Liquid

B)

       Gas

C)

Solid

D)

       None of these

View Answer
82) The volume of the resulting solution obtained by mixing 25 ml of acetone and 25ml of \[CHC{{l}_{3}}\]will be:

A)

50 ml

B)

< 50 ml

C)

       > 50 ml

D)

       unpredictable

View Answer
83) The \[\beta -\]decay of \[{}_{11}{{N}^{24}}\]will produce an isotope of:

A)

Mg

B)

Ne

C)

Na

D)

       None of these

View Answer
84) Which of the following statement is true for degree of dissociation of weak electrolytes?

A)

it is inversely proportional to the initial concentration of the electrolyte

B)

it is directly proportional to the initial concentration of the electrolyte

C)

it is independent of the initial concentration of the electrolyte

D)

it depends on the equilibrium concentration of electrolyte

View Answer
85) Which of the following quantities are equal at equilibrium under the particular set of conditions?

A)

\[\Delta H\] and \[\Delta G\]

B)

\[\Delta H\] and \[\Delta S\]

C)

       \[\Delta G\] and \[\Delta S\]

D)

       none of these

View Answer
86) A chemical reaction will not occur at all if the conditions are chosen so that:

A)

enthalpy change and entropy change, are both negative

B)

enthalpy change and entropy change, are both positive

C)

enthalpy change is negative and entropy change is positive

D)

enthalpy change is positive and entropy change is negative

View Answer
87) For a hypothetical reaction, \[aA+bB\xrightarrow{{}}\text{Product,}\] the rate law is \[r=k\,{{[A]}^{x}}{{[B]}^{y}},\]then:

A)

\[(a+b)\,>(x+y)\]

B)

\[(a+b)\,>(x+y)\]

C)

\[(a+b)=(x+y)\]

D)

\[(a+b)\] may or may not be equal to \[(x+y)\]

View Answer
88) For an endothermic reaction, carried out in a closed vessel:

A)

\[\Delta H>0\]

B)

\[\Delta H<0\]

C)

\[\Delta H=\Delta E\]

D)

       \[\Delta H=0\]

View Answer
89) The order of a reaction, with respect to one of the reacting component, \[\Upsilon \] is zero. It implies that:

A)

the reaction is going on at a constant rate

B)

the rate of reaction does not vary with temperature

C)

the reaction rate is independent of the concentration of \[\Upsilon \]

D)

the rate of formation of activated complex is zero

View Answer
90) The existence of line spectrum of hydrogen provided an evidence that:

A)

there is absorption of energy

B)

the electrons do not lose energy while coming back in stationary states

C)

the energy of electron is quantized

D)

there is an emission of energy when hydrogen is heated

View Answer
91) The basic principle involved in hydrogen bomb is:

A)

nuclear fission

B)

nuclear fusion

C)

nuclear disintegration

D)

nuclear spallation

View Answer
92) For the transformation, \[{}_{7}{{N}^{14}}+...\xrightarrow{{}}{}_{6}{{C}^{14}}+{}_{1}{{H}^{1}}\] the bombarding particle is:

A)

proton

B)

neutron

C)

       deuteron

D)

       electron

View Answer
93) Emulsifier is an agent which:

A)

homogenesis the emulsion

B)

stabilise the emulsion

C)

accelerates the dispersion

D)

breaks up the emulsion

View Answer
94) A solution of \[5\times {{10}^{-8}}M\]HCl has pH value:

A)

7

B)

7.3010

C)

       6.9

D)

       none of these

View Answer
95) Two electrodes \[{{A}^{2+}}\text{/}A\] and \[{{B}^{+}}\text{/}B\] have \[E_{red}^{\text{o}},\]\[0.62\,V\]and \[-\,1.25\,V\]respectively. The e.m.f. of cell will be:

A)

0.63 V

B)

- 0.63 V

C)

1.87 V

D)

data are insufficient

View Answer
96) The molar conductivity of an aqueous solution of strong electrolyte:

A)

bears no relationship with concentration

B)

decreases with increase in dilution

C)

remains constant at all concentration

D)

increases with dilution

View Answer
97) Out of molality (m), molarity (M), formality (F), normality (N) and mole-fraction (x), the two quantities, independent of temperature, are:

A)

N, m

B)

m, x

C)

m, N

D)

       F, N

View Answer
98) The isotonic solutions have equal:

A)

osmotic pressure

B)

vapour pressure

C)

both (a) and (b)

D)

none of these

View Answer
99) When formaldehyde is heated with ammonia, the compound formed is:

A)

methyl amine

B)

amino formaldehyde

C)

hexamethylene tetramine

D)

formaline

View Answer
100) Which of the following is not found in alkenes?

A)

Chain isomerism

B)

Geometrical isomerism

C)

Tautomerism

D)

Position isomerism

View Answer
101) Which of the following is the weakest base?

A)

\[N{{H}_{3}}\]

B)

\[{{C}_{2}}{{H}_{5}}N{{H}_{2}}\]

C)

\[{{C}_{6}}{{H}_{5}}N{{H}_{2}}\]

D)

all are equally basic

View Answer
102) Which of the following alcohol, cannot be dehydrated to give alkene?

A)

t-butyl alcohol

B)

Neopentyl alcohol

C)

Isopropyl alcohol

D)

all of these can be dehydrated

View Answer
103) A paste of bleaching powder on heating with ethanol gives:

A)

chloroform

B)

ethylene

C)

carbon tetrachloride

D)

none of the above

View Answer
104) A mixture of equal parts of enantiomers, is called:

A)

configuration

B)

       resolution

C)

       racemic mixture

D)

       meso mixture

View Answer
105) Which of the following acids, will be able to give silver mirror test?

A)

Acetic acid

B)

Butyric acid

C)

Formic acid

D)

Carboxylic acids do not give this test

View Answer
106) The hybrid state of positively charged carbon in vinyl carbocation is \[(C{{H}_{2}}=C{{H}^{+}}--)\]:

A)

\[s{{p}^{3}}\]

B)

\[s{{p}^{2}}\]

C)

\[sp\]

D)

       none of these

View Answer
107) The conjugate acid of \[C{{H}_{3}}N{{H}_{2}}\]is:

A)

\[C{{H}_{3}}NH_{3}^{+}\]

B)

\[C{{H}_{3}}N{{H}^{-}}\]

C)

\[C{{H}_{3}}OH\]

D)

\[NH_{2}^{-}\]

View Answer
108) In alkenes, the negative part of addendum adds on to the carbon atom joined to the least number of hydrogen atoms. This statement is called:

A)

Peroxide effect

B)

Baeyers strain theory

C)

Wallachs rule

D)

Markownikoffs rule

View Answer
109) The reaction, \[{{C}_{6}}{{H}_{5}}{{N}_{2}}Cl\xrightarrow{C{{u}_{2}}C{{l}_{2}}/HCl}{{C}_{2}}{{H}_{5}}Cl+{{N}_{2}}\uparrow \] is called:

A)

Sandmeyers reaction

B)

Gattermann reaction

C)

Gattermann-Koch reaction

D)

Lederrer Mannase reaction

View Answer
110) The Kolbes synthesis of ethane involves :

A)

electrophilic substitution

B)

nucelophilic addition

C)

free-radical addition

D)

none of the above

View Answer
111) Isopropyl alcohol, on mild oxidation, gives:

A)

acetone

B)

propanoic acid

C)

       propene

D)

       propane

View Answer
112) Ethyl amine reacts with \[HN{{O}_{2}}\] to give:

A)

methanol

B)

       ethanol

C)

       nitrosoethyl amine

D)

none of the above

View Answer
113) The number of possible optical isomers of lactic acid are:

A)

2

B)

4

C)

many

D)

       none of these

View Answer
114) The reaction, is called:

A)

Claisen condensation

B)

Claisen rearrangement

C)

Perkin reaction

D)

Benzoin condensation

View Answer
115) Which of the following is not an explosive?

A)

nitroglycerine

B)

       o-aminotoluene

C)

       dyanamite

D)

       trinitrotoluene

View Answer
116) Riboflavin is:

A)

enzyme

B)

       hormone

C)

       co-enzyme

D)

       vitamin

View Answer
117) The law of electrolysis were given by:

A)

Coulomb

B)

       Faraday

C)

       Kohlrausch

D)

       Soddy

View Answer
118) The entropy of a solid is zero at absolute zero temperature. This statement is given by:

A)

zeroth law of thermodynamics

B)

Ist law of thermodynamics

C)

IInd law of thermodynamics

D)

IIIrd law of thermodynamics

View Answer
119) Carborundum is the commerical name of:

A)

\[A{{l}_{2}}{{O}_{3}}\]

B)

       \[HBr\]

C)

       \[BN\]

D)

       \[SiC\]

View Answer
120) Gun metal is an alloy of copper and tin with:

A)

iron

B)

       magnesium

C)

       zinc

D)

       nickel

View Answer
121) What causes the liquid part of blood filter out form glomerulus into the renal tubule?

A)

Diapedesis

B)

Pelvis

C)

Hydrostatic pressure

D)

Dialysis

View Answer
122) Which is not a connecting link in evolution?

A)

Pheretima

B)

Ecdina

C)

Sphenodon

D)

Peripatus

View Answer
123) Which of the following sets represents all endodermal structures?

A)

Liver, brain, spinal cord

B)

Kidney, liver, pancreas

C)

Lung, kidney, brain

D)

Liver, lung, pancreas

View Answer
124) Which one is replacing bone?

A)

Exoccipital

B)

Pterygoid

C)

Squamosal

D)

     Vomer

View Answer
125) The adult male Ascaris can be identified by:

A)

five pair of post-anal papillae

B)

pineal setae

C)

fifty pairs of pre-anal papillae

D)

none of these

View Answer
126) Which one of the following organs are homologous?

A)

Tail of scorpion, tail of bird, tail of monkey

B)

Wing of butterfly, wing of flying fish, wing of bird

C)

Paddles of whale, front legs of horse and arms of man

D)

Sting of honeybee, sting of scorpion and poison fangs of snakes

View Answer
127) Which of the following pairs of specific names belongs to same common genus?

A)

histolytica and rocktertil

B)

histolytica and falciparum

C)

histolytica and coli

D)

histolytica and protons

View Answer
128) An experiment to prove that organic compounds were the basis of life was performed by:

A)

Miller

B)

Fox

C)

Oparin

D)

Malvin

View Answer
129) 80S ribosomes have two sub units which are:

A)

20S and 60S

B)

     30S and 50S

C)

40S and 60S

D)

     40S and 40S

View Answer
130) Ureotelic animals excrete out:

A)

urea

B)

uric add

C)

amino acids

D)

ammonia

View Answer
131) Which of the following stages is the longest in animals?

A)

Leptotcne

B)

Prophase

C)

Pachytene

D)

Telophase

View Answer
132) Which is a true fish?

A)

Cat fish

B)

Silver fish

C)

     Cuttle fish

D)

     None of these

View Answer
133) When a man starves, he first of all consumes to the stored:

A)

protein

B)

     carbohydrate

C)

     glycogen

D)

     fat

View Answer
134) Gigantism and acromegaly are due to improper functioning of:

A)

kidney

B)

     pituitary

C)

     thyroid

D)

     adrenal

View Answer
135) Gonadotrophins are secreted from:

A)

posterior pituitary

B)

     gonads

C)

adrenal

D)

     anterior pituitary

View Answer
136) Amphibians arose in:

A)

Devonian

B)

     Carboniferous

C)

     Permian

D)

     Jurrasic

View Answer
137) Which of the following are exclusively marine?

A)

Porifera

B)

     Amphibians

C)

Echinodermates

D)

                     Mollusca

View Answer
138) No special respiratory organs are found in:

A)

mosquito

B)

     cockroach

C)

earthworm

D)

none of these

View Answer
139) Thiamine is a/an:

A)

enzyme

B)

     sugar

C)

vitamin of B complex

D)

nitrogen base

View Answer
140) Chromosomes are associated with proteins called:

A)

histones

B)

     non- histones

C)

     heteroproteins

D)

                     none of these

View Answer
141) Cisternae are a part of:

A)

golgi apparatus

B)

mitochondria

C)

chloroplasts

D)

none of these

View Answer
142) In a plant cell, starch is stored by:

A)

amyloplasts

B)

eleoplasts

C)

chloroplasts

D)

aleuronplasts

View Answer
143) The joint between numerous and ulna is:

A)

pivot

B)

     hinge

C)

ball and socket

D)

                     gliding

View Answer
144) Fishes, amphibians and reptiles have in common:

A)

eggs

B)

gills

C)

scales

D)

both (a) and (c)

View Answer
145) Leyding cells secrete:

A)

glycogen

B)

     oxytocin

C)

\[HCl\]

D)

     testosterone

View Answer
146) Natural parthenogenesis is seen in:

A)

hen

B)

honeybee

C)

frog

D)

cockroach

View Answer
147) Branch of zoology dealing with study of fossils is:

A)

eugenics

B)

     palaeozoology

C)

     anatomy

D)

     ecology

View Answer
148) Chloragogen cells of Pheretima are equivalent to:

A)

spleen

B)

     kidney

C)

liver

D)

sweat gland

View Answer
149) Purkinje fibres are:

A)

elastinfibres

B)

collagen fibres

C)

musclefibres

D)

nerve fibres

View Answer
150) Linkage in Drosophila was first discovered by:

A)

Strutevant

B)

Bridges

C)

Bateson and Punnet

D)

Morgan

View Answer
151) The structure formed by bacterial genomeis called:

A)

nucleoside

B)

nucleolus

C)

nucleoid

D)

     nucleus

View Answer
152) In Rhizopuszygospore germinates to produce:

A)

mycelium

B)

     heterothallus

C)

     promycelium

D)

     none of these

View Answer
153) Pyrenoids are found in one of the following organs in Spirogyra:

A)

cell wall

B)

     chloroplast

C)

cytoplasm

D)

vacuole

View Answer
154) The leaves of Mimosa pudica drop down on touch because:

A)

the leaves tissues are injured

B)

the plant has nervous system

C)

the leaves are very tender

D)

the turgor pressure of leaf base changes

View Answer
155) Mineral, salts are absorbed in the form of:

A)

compounds

B)

     ions

C)

     mixtures

D)

     molecules

View Answer
156) Transpiration pull and cohesion tension theory is responsible for:

A)

osmotic absorption

B)

passive absorption

C)

active absorption

D)

none of these

View Answer
157) When a cell is fully turgid which of the following will be zero:

A)

W.P.

B)

     O.P.

C)

T.P.

D)

DPD

View Answer
158) Photoperiodism is associated with the formation of:

A)

gibberellins

B)

     florigen

C)

chlorophyll

D)

auxins

View Answer
159) Substance which originate at the tip of stem and control growth elsewhere are:

A)

vitamins

B)

enzymes

C)

hormones

D)

none of these

View Answer
160) The simple mechanical tissue of living cells is:

A)

sclerenchyma

B)

parenchyma

C)

collenchyma

D)

chlorenchyma

View Answer
161) The function of cork cambium is to produce:

A)

cork and secondary cortex

B)

secondary xylem and secondary phloem

C)

cork

D)

secondary cortex and phelIoderm

View Answer
162) Conjoint, collateral, endarch and open vascular bundles are found in:

A)

dicot root

B)

                     monocot root

C)

                     monocot stem

D)

                     dicot stem

View Answer
163) In funaria spore germinates to produce:

A)

main plant

B)

                     protonema

C)

sporangium

D)

     none of these

View Answer
164) Prothallus of Dryoptcris bears:

A)

archegonia

B)

antheridia

C)

sporangia

D)

both (a) and (b)

View Answer
165) Seeds of Pinus have:

A)

two cotyledons

B)

                     three cotyledons

C)

     many cotyledons

D)

     one cotyledons

View Answer
166) Seeds of Brassica campestris provide:

A)

oil and oil cake

B)

medicines

C)

oil

D)

none of these

View Answer
167) Renewable natural resources are:

A)

air and gases

B)

metallic, ores, fossil, fuels

C)

water, wood, natural vegetation

D)

all of the above

View Answer
168) Soil formation occurs by:

A)

weathering

B)

pedogenesis

C)

both (a) and (b)

D)

                     none of these

View Answer
169) One of the basis of variation is:

A)

equational separation of chromosomes

B)

pairing and segregation of chromosomes

C)

disjuntional separation of chromosomes

D)

crossing over during meiosis

View Answer
170) Diploid cell which undergo meiosis, is:

A)

zygote

B)

     antheridia

C)

somatic cell

D)

     gamete

View Answer
171) An individual with the genotype Aa Bb will produce:

A)

all gametes of same type

B)

four types of gametes

C)

two gametes of one type and remaining gametes of second type

D)

two types of gametes

View Answer
172) Trisomy of 21st chromosome leads to:

A)

Downs syndrome

B)

Turners syndrome

C)

Edwards syndrome

D)

none of above

View Answer
173) Almost all bones provide support and protection to soft body parts but which of the following is concerned with another function?

A)

Atlas

B)

Rib

C)

Radius

D)

Malleus

View Answer
174) Blastopore in frogs development occurs in:

A)

blastula and opens in blastocoel

B)

gastrula and opens in archentron

C)

blastula and opens in archenteron

D)

gastrula and opens in blastocoel

View Answer
175) Which of the following is responsible for emotional state such as fear, anger, pain and causes rise in blood pressure and rate of heart beat?

A)

Thyroxin

B)

     Insulin

C)

Adrenalin

D)

     Progesterone

View Answer
176) A person having blood group B can take blood from personal having blood groups:

A)

B only

B)

AB and B

C)

B and O

D)

AB and A

View Answer
177) The infective stage of Plasmodium vivax in man is:

A)

Sporozoite

B)

Cryptozoite

C)

Merozoite

D)

Trophozoite

View Answer
178) Portuguese man of war is:

A)

portuguese soldier

B)

a sponge

C)

a cocelentrate

D)

soldiers of first world war

View Answer
179) Elementary particles occur:

A)

in mitrochondria

B)

                     in the cytoplasm

C)

                     in chloroplast

D)

                     in all of these

View Answer
180) Which   of   the   following   shows heterotrichous habit?

A)

Ectocarpus

B)

Euglina

C)

Ulothrix

D)

     Spirogyra

View Answer
181) Directions: Pick one of the choices which complete each of the following sentences correctly. She asked him when ...... ready:

A)

will he be

B)

would he be

C)

make not

D)

       not make

View Answer
182) Directions: Pick one of the choices which complete each of the following sentences correctly. You are asked to write ...... ink:

A)

with

B)

       by

C)

in

D)

       none of these

View Answer
183) Directions: Pick one of the choices which complete each of the following sentences correctly. He will arrive ...... a few days:

A)

on

B)

                                       after

C)

in

D)

       by

View Answer
184) Directions: Pick one of the choices which complete each of the following sentences correctly. The child ...... the mother a lot:

A)

resembles with

B)

resembles by

C)

resembles at

D)

       resembles

View Answer
185) Directions: Pick one of the choices which complete each of the following sentences correctly. I ...... experiencing trouble with my machine

A)

have been experiencing

B)

have experienced

C)

had experienced

D)

none of these

View Answer
186) What is meant by temper in the passage?

A)

Trend

B)

Spirit

C)

Tone

D)

       None of these

View Answer
187) What is immediate problem?

A)

Technological advancement

B)

Removal of poverty

C)

Changes in social customs

D)

None of these

View Answer
188) The title of the passage should be:

A)

Social economic, technological advancement for removing poverty

B)

Removal of poverty

C)

Poverty

D)

None of these

View Answer
189) The main idea of the passage is ......

A)

Removal of poverty needs social, economic and technological advancement

B)

We must remove poverty

C)

Technological advancement is necessary

D)

None of these

View Answer
190) What is meant by combat poverty:

A)

Recognizing poverty

B)

Removing poverty

C)

Fighting poverty

D)

None of these

View Answer
191) Directions: Each word in the capital letters is followed by four synonyms. Pick up the correct synonyms. BRUTAL:

A)

ascent

B)

       merciless

C)

peaceful

D)

       cheat

View Answer
192) Directions: Each word in the capital letters is followed by four synonyms. Pick up the correct synonyms. FICKLE:

A)

fiction

B)

       dominating

C)

changing

D)

       transient

View Answer
193) Directions: Pick up correct antonyms from the choices for each word given in capital letters. ENTIRE:

A)

incomplete

B)

                       partial

C)

whole

D)

       none of these

View Answer
194) Directions: Pick up correct antonyms from the choices for each word given in capital letters. EARN:

A)

divide

B)

       rob

C)

win

D)

       lose

View Answer
195) Directions: In each of the following questions four words are given. One of these is incorrectly spelled. Pick up that word.

A)

liutenant

B)

                       exercise

C)

humane

D)

       complacent

View Answer
196)  Directions: In each of the following questions four words are given. One of these is incorrectly spelled. Pick up that word.

A)

conceive

B)

                                       deceive

C)

receive

D)

       perceive

View Answer
197) Directions: Four parts of each of the following sentences are underlined. Find which of the underlined parts (a or b or c or d) is not acceptable in the standard written English. If none of the parts is incorrect mark e.

A)

The Himalayas is

B)

in

C)

the north

D)

of India.

E)

No error:

View Answer
198) Directions: Four parts of each of the following sentences are underlined. Find which of the underlined parts (a or b or c or d) is not acceptable in the standard written English. If none of the parts is incorrect mark e.

A)

Both his friends as well as

B)

   his uncle are

C)

   to

D)

   leave. Bombay today.

E)

   No Error:

View Answer
199) Directions: Four parts of each of the following sentences are underlined. Find which of the underlined parts (a or b or c or d) is not acceptable in the standard written English. If none of the parts is incorrect mark e.

A)

Did he travel

B)

by air

C)

or by

D)

the sea.

E)

No Error:

View Answer
200) Directions: Four parts of each of the following sentences are underlined. Find which of the underlined parts (a or b or c or d) is not acceptable in the standard written English. If none of the parts is incorrect mark e.

A)

The

B)

stitch

C)

in time

D)

saves life.

E)

No Error:

View Answer

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