question_answer 1) A car of mass 1000 kg moves on a circular track of radius 20 m. If the coefficient of friction of 0.64. The maximum velocity with which the car can be moved, is:
A)
\[11.2\text{ }m\text{/}s\]
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B)
\[112\text{ }m\text{/}s\]
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C)
\[\frac{0.64\times 20}{1000\times 100}\text{m/s}\]
done
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D)
\[\frac{1000}{64\times 20}\text{m/s}\]
done
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question_answer 2) The angle through which a cyclist bends when he covers a circular path of 34.3 m circumference in\[\sqrt{22}\] sec is: \[(g=9.8\,m/{{s}^{2}})\]
A)
\[15{}^\circ \]
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B)
\[30{}^\circ \]
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C)
\[60{}^\circ \]
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D)
\[45{}^\circ \]
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question_answer 3) The radius of earth is 6400 km and\[g=10\text{ }m\text{/}{{s}^{2}}\]. In order that a body of 5 kg weight is zero at the equator, the angular speed is:
A)
\[\frac{1}{800}\text{rad/sec}\]
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B)
\[\frac{1}{1600}\text{rad/sec}\]
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C)
\[\frac{1}{400}\text{rad/sec}\]
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D)
\[\frac{1}{80}\text{rad/sec}\]
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question_answer 4) The escape velocity for the earth is 11.2 km/sec. The mass of another planet 100 times mass of earth and its radius is 4 times radius of the earth. The escape velocity for the planet is:
A)
56.0 km/sec
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B)
280 km/sec
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C)
112 km/sec
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D)
56 km/sec
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question_answer 5) A wheel rotates with constant acceleration of 2.0 radian/sec2. If the wheel starts from rest the number of revolution it makes in the first ten second, will be approximately:
A)
32
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B)
24
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C)
16
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D)
8
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question_answer 6) The moment of inertia of a body about a Given axis \[1.2\,\,kg\,\,{{m}^{2}}\]. Initially the body is at rest. In order to produce a rotational kinetic energy of 1500 J and angular acceleration of \[25\,\,rad\,/{{s}^{2}}\] must be applied about the axis for a duration of:
A)
10 s
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B)
8 s
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C)
2 s
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D)
4 s
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question_answer 7) A girl is swinging on a swinging plate form in sitting position when the girl stands up then the period of swinging?
A)
will not change
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B)
will depend on height of girl
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C)
will be longer
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D)
will be shorter
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question_answer 8) The displacement of the motion of a particle is represent by a equation \[y=A\,\sin \,\omega t+B\,\cos \,\omega t\]The motion of particle is:
A)
SHM with amplitude \[\sqrt{{{A}^{2}}+{{B}^{2}}}\]
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B)
SHM with amplitude \[A+B\]
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C)
SHM with amplitude\[A\]
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D)
Oscillatory but not in SHM
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question_answer 9) A ball falling in a lake depth 200 m shows a decrease of 0.1% in its volume at the bottom then the bulk modulus of the material of the ball is :
A)
\[19.6\times {{10}^{8}}\text{N/}{{\text{m}}^{\text{2}}}\]
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B)
\[19.2\times {{10}^{7}}\text{N/}{{\text{m}}^{\text{2}}}\]
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C)
\[2.4\times {{10}^{9}}\text{N/}{{\text{m}}^{\text{2}}}\]
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D)
\[2.4\times {{10}^{5}}\text{N/}{{\text{m}}^{\text{2}}}\]
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question_answer 10) A fixed volume of iron is drawn into a wire of length \[l.\] The extension \[x\] produced in this wire by a constant force F is proportional to:
A)
\[l\]
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B)
\[{{l}^{2}}\]
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C)
\[\frac{1}{l}\]
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D)
\[\frac{1}{{{l}^{2}}}\]
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question_answer 11) Two bars A and B of circular cross-section and same volume made of same material are subjected under same tension. If the diameter of A is half that of B. The ratio of extension of A to B will be:
A)
16
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B)
2
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C)
1/4
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D)
4
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question_answer 12) Water rises in a capillary up to a extension height such that upward force of surface tension balances the force of \[75\times {{10}^{-4}}N\] due to weight of water. If surface tension of water is\[6\times {{10}^{-2}}N\text{/}m\]. The internal circumference of the capillary must be:
A)
\[12.5\times {{10}^{-2}}\text{m}\]
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B)
\[6.5\times {{10}^{-2}}\text{m}\]
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C)
\[0.50\times {{10}^{-2}}\text{m}\]
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D)
\[1.25\times {{10}^{-2}}\text{m}\]
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question_answer 13) A capillary tube of radius r can support a liquid of weight\[6.28\times {{10}^{-4}}\text{N}\text{.}\] if the surface tension of the liquid is \[5\times {{10}^{-2}}\] N/m. The radius of capillary must be:
A)
\[2.0\times {{10}^{-3}}\text{m}\]
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B)
\[2.0\times {{10}^{-4}}\text{m}\]
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C)
\[1.5\times {{10}^{-3}}\text{m}\]
done
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D)
\[12.5\times {{10}^{-4}}\text{m}\]
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question_answer 14) The soap bubbles radii in the ratio 2 : 1 ratio of excess pressure inside there is:
A)
1 : 4
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B)
4 : 1
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C)
2 : 1
done
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D)
1 : 2
done
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question_answer 15) Standing wave are produced in a 10 m long stretched string. If the string vibrates in 5 segments and the wave velocity is 20 m/s. The frequency is:
A)
10 Hz
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B)
5 Hz
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C)
4 Hz
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D)
2 Hz
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question_answer 16) A steel wire 0.5 m long has a total mass kg and stretched with a tension of 800 N. The frequency with which it vibrates in its fundamental note will be :
A)
4 Hz
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B)
2 Hz
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C)
200 Hz
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D)
160 Hz
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question_answer 17) A cord attached to a vibrating tuning fork is divided into six segments under tension of 36 N. It will be divided into fowl segments, if the tension is:
A)
48 N
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B)
81 N
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C)
24 N
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D)
16 N
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question_answer 18) The equation of travelling wave is \[y=60\,\cos \,(1800t-6x)\] where y is in micron and t in second and \[x\] in metre. The ratio of maximum particle velocity to velocity of wave propagation is :
A)
3.6
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B)
\[3.6\times {{10}^{-4}}\]
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C)
\[3.6\times {{10}^{-11}}\]
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D)
\[3.6\times {{10}^{-6}}\]
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question_answer 19) In a sinusoidal wave, the time required for a particular point to move from maximum displacement to zero displacement is 0.170. The frequency of the wave will be:
A)
2.94 Hz
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B)
0.73 Hz
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C)
0.36 Hz
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D)
1.47 Hz
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question_answer 20) The root mean square velocity of hydrogen molecules of an ideal hydrogen gas kept in a gas chamber at \[0{}^\circ C\] is 3180 m/s. Calculate the pressure of hydrogen gas \[=8.99\times {{10}^{-10}}\text{kg/}{{\text{m}}^{\text{3}}}\text{,}\]atmosphere \[=1.01\times {{10}^{-5}}\text{N/}{{\text{m}}^{2}})\]
A)
3.0 atm
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B)
2.0 aim
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C)
1.5 atm
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D)
1.0 atm
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question_answer 21) \[22g\] of \[C{{O}_{2}}\] at \[27{}^\circ C\] is mixed with 16 g of \[{{O}_{2}}\] at \[37{}^\circ C\]. If both gases are considerers ideal, then temperature of mixture is.
A)
\[30.5{}^\circ C\]
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B)
\[37{}^\circ C\]
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C)
\[27{}^\circ C\]
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D)
\[29.3{}^\circ C\]
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question_answer 22) At a given temperature the pressure of an ideal of density \[\rho \] is proportional to:
A)
\[{{}^{2}}\]
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B)
\[\]
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C)
\[\frac{1}{{{}^{2}}}\]
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D)
\[\frac{1}{}\]
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question_answer 23) Air is expended from 50 litres to 150 litres at 2 atmosphere the external work done is:
A)
(1 atmospheric pressure\[=1\times {{10}^{5}}N\text{/}{{m}^{2}}\]) \[2\times {{10}^{-8}}\text{J}\]
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B)
\[2\times {{10}^{-4}}\text{J}\]
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C)
\[\text{200J}\]
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D)
\[\text{2000J}\]
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question_answer 24) Helium at \[27{}^\circ C\] has a volume 8 litres. It is suddnely compressed to a volume of litres. The temperature of the gas will be : \[\left( V=5/3 \right)\]
A)
\[9327{}^\circ C\]
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B)
\[1200{}^\circ C\]
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C)
\[927{}^\circ C\]
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D)
\[108{}^\circ C\]
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question_answer 25) Energy is being emitted from the surface of a black body at\[127{}^\circ C\]the rate of \[1.0\times {{10}^{-6}}\text{J/s}{{\text{m}}^{2}}.\] The temperature of black body at which the rate of energy emission is \[16.0\times {{10}^{-6}}\text{J/s}{{\text{m}}^{2}}\] will be:
A)
\[754{}^\circ C\]
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B)
\[527{}^\circ C\]
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C)
\[254{}^\circ C\]
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D)
\[508{}^\circ C\]
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question_answer 26) A cup of tea cools from \[80{}^\circ C\] to \[60{}^\circ C\] in one minute. The ambient temperature is\[30{}^\circ C\]. In cooling from \[60{}^\circ C\] to \[50{}^\circ C\]. It will take:
A)
50 sec
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B)
90 sec
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C)
60 sec
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D)
48 sec
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question_answer 27) Light of wavelength \[6000\,\overset{\text{o}}{\mathop{\text{A}}}\,\] is reflected at nearly normal incidence from a soap film of refractive index 1.4. The least thickness of the film that will appear black is:
A)
\[200\,\overset{\text{o}}{\mathop{\text{A}}}\,\]
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B)
\[2000\,\overset{\text{o}}{\mathop{\text{A}}}\,\]
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C)
\[1000\,\overset{\text{o}}{\mathop{\text{A}}}\,\]
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D)
infinity
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question_answer 28) Light travels faster in air than that in glass. This is accordance with :
A)
wave theory of light
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B)
corpuscular theory of light
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C)
neither (a) nor (b)
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D)
Both (a) and (b)
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question_answer 29) In Youngs double slit experiment, light of wavelength \[6000\,\overset{\text{o}}{\mathop{\text{A}}}\,\] is used to produced fringes of width 0.8 mm at a distance of 2.5 m. If the whole appart is dropped in liquid of refractive index 1.6 then the fringe width will be :
A)
0.2 mm
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B)
0.4 mm
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C)
0.5 mm
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D)
0.6 mm
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question_answer 30) The electric potential at the surface of an atomic nucleus \[\left( Z=50 \right)\] of radius \[9.0\times {{10}^{-5}}m\] is:
A)
\[8\times {{10}^{6}}V\]
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B)
\[80\,V\]
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C)
\[9\times {{10}^{5}}V\]
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D)
\[9\,V\]
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question_answer 31) Two metal plates having a potential difference of 800 V and 2 cm apart. It is found that a particle of mass \[1.96\times {{10}^{-15}}\]kg remaining suspended in the region between the plates. The charge on the particle must be : (e = elementry charge)
A)
\[8e\]
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B)
\[6e\]
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C)
\[3e\]
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D)
\[2e\]
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question_answer 32) The working of dynamic is based on the principle of:
A)
electromagnetic induction
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B)
chemical effect of current
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C)
magnetic effect of current
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D)
heating effect of current
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question_answer 33) When a voltmeter connected across the terminals of cell, measures 5 V and an ammeter connected measures 10 A. A resistance of 2\[\Omega \] is connected across the terminal of the cell. The current flowing through this resistance is:
A)
7.5 amp
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B)
5.0 amp
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C)
2.5 amp
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D)
2.0 amp
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question_answer 34) In a neon discharge tube \[2.9\times {{10}^{18}}\] \[N{{e}^{+}}\] ions move to be the right per second while \[1.2\times {{10}^{8}}\] electron moves to the left per second electric charge is \[1.6\times {{10}^{-19}}C\]. The current in discharge tube is :
A)
0.66 A towards left
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B)
0.66 A towards right
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C)
1 A towards right
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D)
zero
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question_answer 35) The capacity of a parallel plate capacitor with no dielectric substance but with a separation of 0.4 cm is \[2\mu F.\] the separation is reduced to half and it is filled with a dielectric substance of value of 2.8. The final capacity of capacitor is :
A)
15.6 \[\mu F\]
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B)
11.2\[\mu F\]
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C)
19\[\mu F\]
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D)
22.4 \[\mu F\]
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question_answer 36) In forward biased if the \[p-n\] junctions diode is forward biased, then width of potential barrier in \[p-n\] junction diode :
A)
Remain constant
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B)
increase
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C)
Decrease
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D)
none of these
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question_answer 37) If the energy released in the fission of one nucleus is \[3.2\times {{10}^{-11}}\text{J,}\] then number of nuclei required per second in a power plant of 16 kW is:
A)
\[0.5\,\times {{10}^{14}}\]
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B)
\[0.5\times {{10}^{12}}\]
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C)
\[5\times {{10}^{12}}\]
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D)
\[5\times {{10}^{14}}\]
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question_answer 38) X-rays are:
A)
electromagnetic radiation
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B)
stream of electron
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C)
stream of proton
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D)
stream of uncharged particle
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question_answer 39) The plates of a parallel plate capacitor of capacity of 50\[\mu F\] are charged by a battery to a potential of 100 volt. The battery remains connected the plates are separated from each other so that the distance between them is doubled. Then, the energy spent by battery in doing so, will be:
A)
\[12.5\times {{10}^{-2}}\text{J}\]
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B)
\[35\times {{10}^{-2}}\text{J}\]
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C)
\[42.5\times {{10}^{-2}}\text{J}\]
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D)
\[25\times {{10}^{-2}}\text{J}\]
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question_answer 40) A light of wavelength \[2000\,\overset{\text{o}}{\mathop{\text{A}}}\,\] falls on a metallic surface of work function 5.01 eV then required potential difference to slope fastest photo electron is : \[(h=6.62\times {{10}^{-34}})\]
A)
4.8V
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B)
3.6V
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C)
2.4V
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D)
1.2V
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question_answer 41) The distance between the poles of horse shoe magnet is 10 cm and its pole strength is \[{{10}^{4}}\]A. The magnetic field induction at point P mid-way between the poles is :
A)
\[8\times {{10}^{-9}}\] tesla
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B)
\[4\times {{10}^{-19}}\] tesla
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C)
\[2\times {{10}^{-9}}\] tesla
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D)
zero
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question_answer 42) Two small magnets each of magnetic moment \[10\text{ }A{{m}^{2}}\] are placed in end on position 0.1 m apart from their centres. The force acting between them is:
A)
\[0.6\text{N}\]
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B)
\[0.06\text{N}\]
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C)
\[0.06\times {{10}^{7}}\text{N}\]
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D)
\[0.6\times {{10}^{7}}\text{N}\]
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question_answer 43) Magnetic field of a short magnet at a distance 1 m on axial line is 1 oersted at a distance 2 m on the same line the intensity in oersted is:
A)
0.75
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B)
0.125
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C)
0.25
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D)
0.5
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question_answer 44) The ratio of magnetic moments of two short magnets which give null deflection in tan B position at 12 cm and 18 cm from the centre of a deflection magnetometer is:
A)
4 : 9
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B)
27 : 8
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C)
2 : 3
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D)
8 : 27
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question_answer 45) If the flux associated with a coil varies at the rate of 1 wb/min the induced emf is:
A)
zero
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B)
60 V
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C)
\[\frac{\text{1}}{\text{60}}\text{V}\]
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D)
1 V
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question_answer 46) An AC supply gives \[30{{\text{V}}_{rms}}\] which is fed on a pure resistance of 10 ohm. The power dissipated in this is:
A)
90 watt
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B)
45 watt
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C)
90 : 2 watt
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D)
180 watt
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question_answer 47) The energy of a photon corresponding to the visible light maximum wavelength is nearly:
A)
7 eV
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B)
3.2 eV
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C)
1 eV
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D)
1.6 eV
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question_answer 48) If an electron has orbital angular momentum quantum number \[l=7\] then it will have an orbital angular momentum equal to:
A)
\[\sqrt{56}\left( \frac{h}{2\pi } \right)\]
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B)
\[57\left( \frac{h}{2\pi } \right)\]
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C)
\[42\left( \frac{h}{2\pi } \right)\]
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D)
\[7\left( \frac{h}{2\pi } \right)\]
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question_answer 49) The radius of electron second stationary orbit in Bohrs atom is R. The radiusion third orbit will be:
A)
2.25R
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B)
3R
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C)
R/3
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D)
9R
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question_answer 50) The slope of plate characteristic and mutual characteristic curves of a triode valve is \[0.02\text{ }mA\text{/}V\] and \[1\text{ }mA\text{/}V\]. The amplification factor of triode valve is :
A)
\[2\times {{10}^{8}}\]
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B)
20
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C)
50
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D)
40
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question_answer 51) Dimension of relative density is:
A)
\[kg{{m}^{-3}}\]
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B)
\[M{{L}^{-3}}\]
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C)
dimensionless
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D)
\[{{M}^{2}}{{L}^{-6}}\]
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question_answer 52) A ball is thrown from height \[h\] and another from \[2h.\] The ratio of time taken by the two balls to reach ground is:
A)
1 :\[\sqrt{2}\]
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B)
\[\sqrt{2}\]:1
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C)
2 : 1
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D)
1 : 2
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question_answer 53) A ball is thrown upwards, it takes 4 sec to reach back to the ground. Find its initial velocity:
A)
\[30\,\,m{{s}^{-1}}\]
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B)
\[10\,\,m{{s}^{-1}}\]
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C)
\[40\text{ }m{{s}^{-1}}\]
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D)
\[20\,\,m{{s}^{-1}}\]
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question_answer 54) A man is at a height of 100 m. He sees a car which makes an angle of \[\text{/6}\] with mans position. If the car moves to a point where angle is \[\text{/3}\] what is the distance moved by it?
A)
\[\left( \frac{100}{\sqrt{3}} \right)\text{m}\]
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B)
\[(200\sqrt{3})\text{m}\]
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C)
\[\left( \frac{200}{\sqrt{3}} \right)\text{m}\]
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D)
\[\left( \frac{150}{\sqrt{3}} \right)\text{m}\]
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question_answer 55) A body of mass 0.1 kg attains a velocity of \[10.\text{m}{{\text{s}}^{-1}}\] in 0.1 sec. The force acting on the body is:
A)
10 N
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B)
0.01 N
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C)
0.1 N
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D)
100 N
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question_answer 56) If force \[\mathbf{\vec{F}}=5\mathbf{\hat{i}}+3\mathbf{\hat{j}}+4\mathbf{\hat{k}}\] makes a displacement of \[\mathbf{\vec{s}}=6\mathbf{\hat{i}}-5\mathbf{\hat{k}}\] work done by the force is:
A)
10 units
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B)
122\[\sqrt{5}\] units
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C)
\[5\sqrt{122}\] units
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D)
20 units
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question_answer 57) The angular velocity of second hand, of a clock is:
A)
\[\left( \frac{\pi }{6} \right)\text{rad}\,{{\text{s}}^{\text{-1}}}\]
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B)
\[\left( \frac{\pi }{60} \right)\text{rad}\,{{\text{s}}^{\text{-1}}}\]
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C)
\[\left( \frac{\pi }{30} \right)\text{rad}\,{{\text{s}}^{\text{-1}}}\]
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D)
\[\left( \frac{\pi }{15} \right)\text{rad}\,{{\text{s}}^{\text{-1}}}\]
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question_answer 58) A body is moving in a circular path with acceleration a. If its velocity gets doubled, find the ratio of acceleration after and before the change:
A)
1 : 4
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B)
\[\frac{1}{4}:1\]
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C)
2 : 1
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D)
4 : 1
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question_answer 59) Acceleration due to gravity at earths surface is\[g\text{ }m{{s}^{-2}}\]. Find the effective value of gravity at a height of 32 km from sea level: (\[{{R}_{e}}\] = 6400 km)
A)
\[0.5g\,\text{m}{{\text{s}}^{\text{-2}}}\]
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B)
\[0.99g\,\text{m}{{\text{s}}^{\text{-2}}}\]
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C)
\[1.01g\,\text{m}{{\text{s}}^{\text{-2}}}\]
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D)
\[0.90g\,\text{m}{{\text{s}}^{\text{-2}}}\]
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question_answer 60) Near earths surface, time period of a satellite is 4 hrs. Find its time period at height 4R from the centre of earth:
A)
32 hrs
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B)
\[\left( \frac{1}{8\sqrt[3]{2}} \right)\,\text{hrs}\]
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C)
\[8\sqrt[3]{2}\,\text{hrs}\]
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D)
\[16\text{ }hrs\]
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question_answer 61) In an isochoric process, the increase in internal energy is equal to:
A)
the sum of heat absorbed and work done
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B)
the work done
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C)
heat absorbed
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D)
heat evolved
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
question_answer 62) 75 c.c. of \[N\text{/}5\]\[{{H}_{2}}S{{O}_{4}}\]10 c.c. of \[N\text{/}2\,\]\[HCl\] and 30 c.c. of \[N\text{/}10\] \[HN{{O}_{3}}\] are mixed together. The strength of the resulting acid mixture is:
A)
0.1 N
done
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B)
0.2 N
done
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C)
0.3 N
done
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D)
0.4 N
done
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question_answer 63) What would be the freezing point of aqueous solution containing 17 g of \[{{C}_{2}}{{H}_{5}}OH\] in 1000 g of water?
A)
\[0.34{}^\circ C\]
done
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B)
\[0.0{}^\circ C\]
done
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C)
\[-\,0.34{}^\circ C\]
done
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D)
\[-\,0.69{}^\circ C\]
done
clear
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question_answer 64) The pH of a solution is 5.0. If\[{{H}^{+}}\]ion concentration is decreased 100 times. Then the solution will be:
A)
neutral
done
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B)
more acidic
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C)
basic
done
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D)
of the same acidity
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question_answer 65) The molarity of pure water is:
A)
100
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B)
55.6
done
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C)
18
done
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D)
5.56
done
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question_answer 66) Azeotropic mixture of \[HCl\] and water has:
A)
20.2% \[HCl\]
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B)
22.2% \[HCl\]
done
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C)
63% \[HCl\]
done
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D)
84% \[HCl\]
done
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question_answer 67) Percentage of silver in the alloy German silver is:
A)
0%
done
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B)
1.0%
done
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C)
2.5%
done
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D)
1.5%
done
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question_answer 68) Which will have maximum ionization energy?
A)
Na
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B)
Mg
done
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C)
K
done
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D)
Bi
done
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question_answer 69) Rusting of iron is a chemical reaction. The reaction is:
A)
double decomposition
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B)
combination
done
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C)
displacement
done
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D)
analysis
done
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question_answer 70) The IUPAC name of \[C{{H}_{3}}-\underset{C{{H}_{3}}}{\mathop{\underset{|}{\mathop{\underset{C{{H}_{2}}}{\mathop{\underset{|}{\mathop{CH}}\,}}\,}}\,}}\,-C{{H}_{2}}-CH(OH)-C{{H}_{3}}\]
A)
2-ethylpentanol-4
done
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B)
3-methylhexanol-3
done
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C)
4-methylhexanol-2
done
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D)
4-ethylpentanol-2
done
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question_answer 71) An asymmetric carbon atom is which:
A)
attached three atoms or groups are different
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B)
attached all the atoms or groups are different
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C)
attached two atoms or groups are different
done
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D)
attached all the atoms or groups are the same
done
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question_answer 72) The most reactive hydrocarbon is:
A)
methane
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B)
ethane
done
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C)
ethylene
done
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D)
acetylene
done
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question_answer 73) Which one of the following molecules undergoes polymerisation to form natural rubber?
A)
Styrene
done
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B)
2-methyl-1, 3-butadiene
done
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C)
Ethylene
done
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D)
Iso-butene
done
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question_answer 74) Heat of a reaction at constant pressure is equal to:
A)
\[{{H}_{P}}-{{H}_{R}}\]
done
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B)
\[{{H}_{P}}+{{H}_{R}}\]
done
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C)
\[{{H}_{P}}\times {{H}_{R}}\]
done
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D)
\[\frac{{{H}_{P}}}{{{H}_{R}}}\]
done
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question_answer 75) The density of \[S{{O}_{2}}\] at STP is\[2.86\,kg\,{{m}^{-3}}.\] Its density at \[819{}^\circ C\] and 2 atmospheres is:
A)
\[0.715\text{ }kg\,{{m}^{-3}}\]
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B)
\[1.43\,kg\,{{m}^{-3}}\]
done
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C)
\[2.86\text{ }kg\,{{m}^{-3}}\]
done
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D)
\[4.26\text{ }kg\text{ }{{m}^{-3}}\]
done
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question_answer 76) Quartz is an example of:
A)
cyclic silicate
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B)
chain silicate
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C)
frame work silicate
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D)
sheet silicate
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question_answer 77) Oxidation number of Cr in \[{{K}_{2}}C{{r}_{2}}{{O}_{7}}\] is:
A)
2
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B)
4
done
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C)
6
done
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D)
7
done
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question_answer 78) Which of the following is most powerful oxidising agent?
A)
\[{{I}_{2}}\]
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B)
\[C{{l}_{2}}\]
done
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C)
\[B{{r}_{2}}\]
done
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D)
\[{{F}_{2}}\]
done
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question_answer 79) Among the following compounds which is planar in shape is:
A)
acetylene
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B)
benzene
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C)
isobutene
done
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D)
methane
done
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question_answer 80) One gram of mass is equal to:
A)
\[9\times {{10}^{20}}ergs\]
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B)
\[7\times {{10}^{15}}ergs\]
done
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C)
\[5\times {{10}^{10}}ergs\]
done
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D)
\[3\times {{10}^{5}}\,ergs\]
done
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question_answer 81) Vapour density of a volatile substance is \[4(C{{H}_{4}}=1)\]. Its molecular weight would be:
A)
2
done
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B)
8
done
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C)
64
done
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D)
128
done
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question_answer 82) The 3rd transitional series contain elements having atomic numbers from:
A)
21 to 29
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B)
21 to 30
done
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C)
20 to 30
done
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D)
21 to 31
done
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question_answer 83) Which of the following ions is paramagnetic?
A)
\[C{{u}^{++}}\]
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B)
\[Z{{n}^{++}}\]
done
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C)
\[N{{i}^{++}}\]
done
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D)
Both a and c
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question_answer 84) Which one of the following colloidal solution is positive sol?
A)
Gelatin in strongly acidic solution
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B)
Smoke
done
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C)
Dlay soil
done
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D)
Blood
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question_answer 85) The pH of blood is:
A)
greater than 10
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B)
less than 6
done
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C)
greater than 7 and less than 8
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D)
greater than 8 and less than 9
done
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View Answer play_arrow
question_answer 86) If \[{{K}_{b}}\] of HCN is \[4.0\times {{10}^{-10}},\]then the pH of\[2.5\times {{10}^{-1}}\] molar aqueous HCN is:
A)
2.0
done
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B)
4.7
done
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C)
5.0
done
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D)
\[2\times {{10}^{-5}}\]
done
clear
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question_answer 87) How many grams of \[Ca{{C}_{2}}{{O}_{4}}\] will dissolve in distilled water to make one litre of saturated solution? Solubility product of \[Ca{{C}_{2}}{{O}_{4}}\] is \[2.5\times {{10}^{-9}}mo{{l}^{2}}litr{{e}^{-2}}\] and its molecular weight is 128:
A)
0.0640 g
done
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B)
0.0032 g
done
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C)
0.0128 g
done
clear
D)
0.0064 g
done
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question_answer 88) Deuterium oxide is used in nuclear reactor as:
A)
source of a-particle
done
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B)
source of deuteron
done
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C)
moderator
done
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D)
fuel
done
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question_answer 89) Lowest MP and BP is of:
A)
Ar
done
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B)
Xe
done
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C)
He
done
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D)
Ne
done
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question_answer 90) Silicon is an important constituent of:
A)
alloys
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B)
vegetables
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C)
animals
done
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D)
rocks
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question_answer 91) \[{{H}_{3}}P{{O}_{3}}\]is:
A)
dibasic acid
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B)
basic
done
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C)
tribasic acid
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D)
neutral
done
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question_answer 92) Which of the following is coinage metal?
A)
Cu
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B)
Sn
done
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C)
Zn
done
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D)
Pb
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question_answer 93) Hexamethylenetetramine is used as:
A)
urinary antiseptic
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B)
antipyretic
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C)
analgesic
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D)
all of these
done
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question_answer 94) Vinegar contains:
A)
100% acetic acid
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B)
10 - 20% acetic acid
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C)
7 - 8% acetic acid
done
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D)
1% acetic acid
done
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View Answer play_arrow
question_answer 95) Which of following is the correct order of increasing reactivity?
A)
\[RCOOR<RCOCl<RCON{{H}_{2}}\]
done
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B)
\[RCOOR<RCON{{H}_{2}}<RCOCl\]
done
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C)
\[RCOCl<RCON{{H}_{2}}<RCOOR\]
done
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D)
\[RCON{{H}_{2}}<RCOOR<RCOCl\]
done
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question_answer 96) Enzymes are:
A)
fatty acids
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B)
oils
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C)
minerals
done
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D)
proteins
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question_answer 97) Gasoline is:
A)
\[{{C}_{17}}{{H}_{36}}\]to\[{{C}_{21}}{{H}_{50}}\]
done
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B)
\[{{C}_{7}}{{H}_{24}}\]to \[{{C}_{14}}{{H}_{34}}\]
done
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C)
\[{{C}_{7}}{{H}_{16}}\]to\[{{C}_{10}}{{H}_{22}}\]
done
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D)
\[{{C}_{3}}{{H}_{8}}\]to \[{{C}_{6}}{{H}_{14}}\]
done
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View Answer play_arrow
question_answer 98) What is the name of reaction when benzal-dehyde changes in to benzyl alcohol?
A)
Cannizzaros reaction
done
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B)
Wurtz reaction
done
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C)
Kolbe reaction
done
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D)
Friedel-Craffs reaction
done
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question_answer 99) Gammexane is:
A)
benzene hexachloride
done
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B)
bromo benzene
done
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C)
benzyl chloride
done
clear
D)
chlorobenzene
done
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question_answer 100) Aniline on treatment with \[HCl\] and\[NaN{{O}_{2}}\] gives:
A)
diazo salt
done
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B)
nitroaniline
done
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C)
chloroaniline
done
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D)
aminophenol
done
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question_answer 101) Saccharin contains:
A)
carbon and hydrogen
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B)
carbon, oxygen and hydrogen
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C)
carbon, hydrogen, oxygen and nitrogen
done
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D)
carbon, hydrogen, sulphur, nitrogen and oxygen
done
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question_answer 102) The digestion of fat in intestines is aided by:
A)
emulsification
done
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B)
peptisation
done
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C)
protection
done
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D)
diffusion
done
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question_answer 103) Dehydration of alcohol involves:
A)
carbene
done
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B)
carbanion
done
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C)
free radical
done
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D)
carbonium ion
done
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View Answer play_arrow
question_answer 104) Fentons reagent is:
A)
\[NaOH+FeS{{O}_{4}}\]
done
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B)
\[{{H}_{2}}{{O}_{2}}+FeS{{O}_{4}}\]
done
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C)
\[{{H}_{2}}{{O}_{2}}+ZnS{{O}_{4}}\]
done
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D)
\[{{H}_{2}}{{O}_{2}}+MgS{{O}_{4}}\]
done
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question_answer 105) A sample of \[CHC{{l}_{3}}\] before using as an anaesthetic is tested by:
A)
\[AgN{{O}_{3}}\] solution after boiling with KOH
done
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B)
Ammonical cuprous chloride
done
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C)
Fehling solution
done
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D)
\[AgN{{O}_{3}}\]
done
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View Answer play_arrow
question_answer 106) Which of the following compounds react slower than benzene in electrophilic bromination:
A)
done
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B)
done
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C)
done
clear
D)
done
clear
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question_answer 107) Which of the following possesses highest melting point?
A)
p-dichlorobenzene
done
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B)
m-dichlorobenzene
done
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C)
o-dichlorobenzene
done
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D)
chlorobenzene
done
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question_answer 108) In the complex \[[Co{{(en)}_{2}}C{{l}_{2}}]\,Br,\]the co-ordination number and oxidation state of cobalt are:
A)
6 and + 1
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B)
6 and + 3
done
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C)
3 and + 3
done
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D)
4 and + 2
done
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question_answer 109) The transition metals mostly are:
A)
paramagnetic
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B)
diamagnetic
done
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C)
both a and b
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D)
neither diamagnetic nor paramagnetic
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question_answer 110) Strongest Bronsted base among the following anions is:
A)
\[ClO_{4}^{-}\]
done
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B)
\[ClO_{3}^{-}\]
done
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C)
\[ClO_{2}^{-}\]
done
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D)
\[Cl{{O}^{-}}\]
done
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question_answer 111) Cadmium rods are used for which purpose?
A)
emit electrons
done
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B)
absorb neutrons
done
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C)
emit neutrons
done
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D)
absorb electrons
done
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question_answer 112) Propionic acid and KOH reacts to produce which one of the following?
A)
Potassium propionate
done
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B)
Propyl alcohol
done
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C)
Propionaldehyde
done
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D)
Does not react
done
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question_answer 113) What is the effect of dilution on the equivalent conductance of strong electrolyte?
A)
Decrease on dilution
done
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B)
Remains unchanged
done
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C)
Increase on dilution
done
clear
D)
None of the above
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View Answer play_arrow
question_answer 114) 35.4 mL of \[HCl\]is required for the neutralization of a solution containing 0.275 g of sodium hydroxide. The normality of hydrochloric acid is?
A)
0.97 N
done
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B)
0.142 N
done
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C)
0.194 N
done
clear
D)
0.244 N
done
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View Answer play_arrow
question_answer 115) When \[{{H}_{2}}S\] gas is passed in a metal sulphate solution in presence of \[N{{H}_{4}}OH,\]a white precipitate is produced. The metal is identified as:
A)
Zn
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B)
Fe
done
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C)
Pb
done
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D)
Hg
done
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question_answer 116) The value of amu is which of the following?
A)
\[1.57\times {{10}^{-24}}kg\]
done
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B)
\[1.66\times {{10}^{-24}}kg\]
done
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C)
\[1.99\times {{10}^{-23}}kg\]
done
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D)
\[1.99\times {{10}^{-27}}kg\]
done
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question_answer 117) The molecule having largest dipole moment among the following is:
A)
\[CH{{l}_{3}}\]
done
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B)
\[C{{H}_{4}}\]
done
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C)
\[CHC{{l}_{3}}\]
done
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D)
\[CC{{l}_{4}}\]
done
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question_answer 118) When calcium acetate is distilled, it will produce which of the following compound?
A)
\[C{{H}_{3}}COOH\]
done
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B)
\[C{{H}_{3}}CHO\]
done
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C)
\[C{{H}_{3}}COC{{H}_{3}}\]
done
clear
D)
all of these
done
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question_answer 119) Which of the following electronic configuration represents noble gas?
A)
\[n{{s}^{2}}n{{p}^{6}}\]
done
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B)
\[n{{s}^{2}}n{{p}^{5}}\]
done
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C)
\[n{{s}^{2}}n{{p}^{4}}\]
done
clear
D)
\[n{{s}^{2}}n{{p}^{3}}\]
done
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question_answer 120) Sodium pyrophosphate is represented by which of the following formula?
A)
\[N{{a}_{2}}{{P}_{2}}{{O}_{4}}\]
done
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B)
\[N{{a}_{4}}{{P}_{2}}{{O}_{5}}\]
done
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C)
\[N{{a}_{4}}{{P}_{2}}{{O}_{7}}\]
done
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D)
\[N{{a}_{2}}{{P}_{2}}{{O}_{5}}\]
done
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question_answer 121) Total number of bones in the hind limb of a man is:
A)
21
done
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B)
23
done
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C)
27
done
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D)
30
done
clear
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question_answer 122) CO is a pollutant because:
A)
it reacts with \[{{O}_{2}}\]
done
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B)
it inhibits glycolysis
done
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C)
it reacts with haemoglobin
done
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D)
it makes nervous system inactive
done
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question_answer 123) Protein deficiency disease is:
A)
eczema
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B)
cirrhosis
done
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C)
kwashiorkor
done
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D)
night blindness
done
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question_answer 124) In living beings ammonia is converted into urea through:
A)
ornithine cycle
done
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B)
citrulline cycle
done
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C)
fumarine cycle
done
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D)
arginine cycle
done
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View Answer play_arrow
question_answer 125) The chemical knifes of DNA are:
A)
polymerases
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B)
ligases
done
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C)
endonucleases
done
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D)
amylases
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question_answer 126) A definite number of segments are found in:
A)
slug
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B)
earthworm
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C)
leech
done
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D)
tapeworm
done
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question_answer 127) Biologically most resistant plant material is:
A)
sporopollenin
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B)
cutin
done
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C)
lignin
done
clear
D)
suberin
done
clear
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question_answer 128) Which of the following is an edible fungus:
A)
Agaricus
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B)
Albugo
done
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C)
Rhizopus
done
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D)
Puccinia
done
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question_answer 129) 2n- 1 condition is called:
A)
trisomy
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B)
monosomy
done
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C)
nullisomy
done
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D)
tetrasomy
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question_answer 130) Blue-green algae is found in:
A)
Cycas
done
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B)
Pinus
done
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C)
Scales of Marchantia
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D)
Riccia
done
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question_answer 131) Turpentine oil is obtained from:
A)
Pinus
done
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B)
Cycas
done
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C)
Cedrus
done
clear
D)
Delbergia
done
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question_answer 132) In gametophyte of fem:
A)
prothallus is independent from sporophyte
done
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B)
prothallus is attached with sporophyte
done
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C)
it is main plant body
done
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D)
a structure attached with rhizome
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question_answer 133) The lack of fruit formation in gymnosperm is due to:
A)
absence of fertilization
done
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B)
lack of seeds
done
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C)
naked ovule
done
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D)
shedding of immature seed
done
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question_answer 134) A secretion that digests both carbohydrates and proteins is:
A)
ptyalin
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B)
pepsin
done
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C)
pancreatic juice
done
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D)
saliva
done
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question_answer 135) Food is moved along the alimentary canal by the contraction known as:
A)
peristalisis
done
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B)
epiglottis
done
clear
C)
osmosis
done
clear
D)
cyclosis
done
clear
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question_answer 136) Villi are present in the:
A)
large intestine
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B)
small intestine
done
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C)
colon
done
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D)
stomach
done
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question_answer 137) Fatty acids are absorbed by the:
A)
lacteals
done
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B)
pylorous
done
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C)
colon
done
clear
D)
capillaries
done
clear
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question_answer 138) Hydrochloric acid in the stomach is secreted by some special type of cells called:
A)
peptic cells
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B)
goblet cells
done
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C)
oxyntic cells
done
clear
D)
gastric cells
done
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question_answer 139) Enzyme and carbohydrates dominate in the digestive tract of:
A)
carnivores
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B)
omnivores
done
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C)
parasites
done
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D)
herbivores
done
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question_answer 140) In horses, rabbits, hares the cellulose gets digested in the:
A)
caecum
done
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B)
stomach
done
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C)
appendix
done
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D)
rumen
done
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question_answer 141) The pylorous is the constricted part of the alimentary canal which is situated between:
A)
stomach and duodenum
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B)
oesophagus and stomach
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C)
duodenum and ileum
done
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D)
ileum and rectum
done
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question_answer 142) The intestinal juice, succus entericus is secreted by:
A)
Brunners gland
done
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B)
Kupffer cells
done
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C)
crypts of Leiberkuhn
done
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D)
goblet cells
done
clear
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question_answer 143) Below freezing point, the pepsin:
A)
becomes over activated
done
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B)
gets destroyed
done
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C)
remains unaffected
done
clear
D)
gets inactivated
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
question_answer 144) In Pteridium meiosis takes place at the time of:
A)
spore formation
done
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B)
organ formation in prothallus
done
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C)
spore germination
done
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D)
gamete formation
done
clear
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question_answer 145) Club moss is the common name of:
A)
Selaginella
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B)
Funaria
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C)
Potamogeton
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D)
Lycopodium
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question_answer 146) Pneumatophores (respiratory roots) are found in:
A)
Pistia
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B)
Calobranchia
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C)
Rhizophora
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D)
all of these
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question_answer 147) All tissues consist of cells sentence was said by:
A)
Wallace
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B)
Virchow
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C)
Schleiden
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D)
none of these
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question_answer 148) The part of mushroom comes out from soil is called:
A)
basidiocarp
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B)
ascogonium
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C)
ascocarp
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D)
pericarp
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question_answer 149) The red color of red sea is due to which of the following blue-green algae?
A)
Chlamydomonas nivalis
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B)
Anabaena
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C)
Microcystis
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D)
Trichodesmium
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question_answer 150) Maximum absorption of light occurs in the region of:
A)
400-700 nm
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B)
700-900 nm
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C)
1000-1200 nm
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D)
1500-2000 nm
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question_answer 151) The first animal domesticated by primitive man was:
A)
dog
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B)
horse
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C)
cat
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D)
cow
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question_answer 152) Mycorrhiza is correctly described as:
A)
symbiosis of algae and fungi
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B)
relation of ants with the stem of some trees
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C)
parasitic association between roots and some fungi
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D)
symbiotic relationship between fungi and roots of some higher plants
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question_answer 153) Now-a-days cornea transplantation is very popular. The reason is that it:
A)
is easy to preserve
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B)
transplanted very easily
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C)
can be easily obtained
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D)
does not link with blood supply and immune system
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question_answer 154) In \[{{C}_{4}}\] plants, \[C{{O}_{2}}\]; combines with:
A)
phosphoglyceric acid
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B)
Ribulose diphosphate
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C)
phosphoenol pyruvate
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D)
phosphoglyceraldehyde
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question_answer 155) Which one of the following elements is almost non- essential for plants?
A)
Ca
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B)
Mo
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C)
Zn
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D)
Na
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question_answer 156) Which is a typical example of feedback inhibition?
A)
Allosteric inhibition of hexokinase by glucose- 6- phosphate
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B)
Reaction between succinic dehydrogenase and succinic acid
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C)
Cyanide and cytochrome reaction
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D)
Sulpha drugs and folic acid synthesizer bacteria
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question_answer 157) Photorespiration is favoured by:
A)
high \[{{O}_{2}}\]; and low \[C{{O}_{2}}\]
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B)
high \[C{{O}_{2}}\] and low \[{{O}_{2}}\];
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C)
high temperature and low \[{{O}_{2}}\]
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D)
high humidity and temperature
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question_answer 158) The true statement about green-house effect is that it is:
A)
caused only by \[C{{O}_{2}}\]
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B)
caused by \[C{{O}_{2}}\], CFCs, \[C{{H}_{4}}\] and \[N{{O}_{2}}\] gases
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C)
caused by combination of many gases
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D)
none of these
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question_answer 159) Cochineal insects have proved very useful for:
A)
rodents control
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B)
Parthenium control
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C)
cactus prevention
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D)
Eicchornia prevention
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question_answer 160) Gymnosperm have how many species?
A)
1000
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B)
900
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C)
640
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D)
300
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question_answer 161) If there are 4 microspore mother cells in an anther, what will be the number of pollen grains?
A)
4
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B)
8
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C)
12
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D)
16
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question_answer 162) What are the sex organs provided in some bacteria?
A)
Circular DNA
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B)
Gametes
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C)
Sex pili
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D)
Plasmid
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question_answer 163) The correct sequence for the formation of chemicals on the primitive earth is:
A)
\[N{{H}_{3}},\] protein, carbohydrate and nucleic acid
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B)
\[N{{H}_{3}},\] water, nucleic adds and protein
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C)
\[N{{H}_{3}},\] nucleic acids/ protein and carbohydrate
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D)
protein, carbohydrate, water and nucleic acids
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question_answer 164) 2, 4-D is an effective:
A)
fungicide
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B)
weedicide
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C)
rodenticide
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D)
wormicide
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question_answer 165) Which vertebrate organ receives only oxygenated blood?
A)
Gill
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B)
Lung
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C)
Spleen
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D)
Liver
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question_answer 166) Which typical stage is known for DNA replication?
A)
Metaphase
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B)
\[{{G}_{1}}\]-phase
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C)
S-phase
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D)
\[{{G}_{2}}\]-phase
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question_answer 167) The formation of canal system in sponges is due to:
A)
reproduction
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B)
porous waits
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C)
folding of inner walls
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D)
gastro-vascular system
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question_answer 168) The term Meiosis was given by:
A)
Johansen
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B)
Knoll and Ruska
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C)
A. Fleming
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D)
Farmer and Moore
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question_answer 169) Lampbrush chromosomes are seen in which typical stage:
A)
mitotic anaphase
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B)
mitotic prophase
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C)
mitotic metaphase
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D)
meiotic prophase
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question_answer 170) Benthoic animals arc those/ which:
A)
are deep dweller in sea
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B)
are floating (free) organisms
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C)
are submerged in sea
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D)
float on the sea surface
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question_answer 171) In \[{{C}_{4}}\] plants, \[C{{O}_{2}}\] fixation is done by:
A)
mesophyll cells
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B)
guard cells
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C)
sclerenchyma
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D)
chlorenchyma and hypodermis
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question_answer 172) Which country has the greatest contribution for the whole formation in ozone layer?
A)
USA
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B)
Germany
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C)
Russia
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D)
Japan
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question_answer 173) Radio-tracer technique shows that DNA is in:
A)
single-helix stage
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B)
double-helix stage
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C)
multi- helix stage
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D)
none of these
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question_answer 174) When paternal and maternal chromosomes change their materials with each other in cell division this event is called:
A)
synapsis
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B)
crossing over
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C)
bivalent-forming
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D)
dyad-forming
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question_answer 175) AIDS disease was first reported in:
A)
Russia
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B)
Germany
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C)
USA
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D)
France
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question_answer 176) Which or the following products are obtained by anaerobic respiration from yeast?
A)
Alcohols
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B)
\[C{{O}_{2}}\]
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C)
Bear and wine
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D)
All of these
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question_answer 177) What will be the number of Calvin cycles to generate one molecule of hexose?
A)
4
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B)
6
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C)
8
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D)
9
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question_answer 178) When a natural predator (living being) is applied on the other pathogen organism to control them, this process is called:
A)
biological control
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B)
genetic engineering
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C)
artificial control
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D)
confusion technique
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question_answer 179) The 10% energy transfer law of food chain was given by:
A)
Stanley
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B)
Weismann
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C)
Lindemann
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D)
Tansley
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question_answer 180) The ornithine cycle removes two waste products from the blood in liver. These products are:
A)
\[C{{O}_{2}}\] and urea
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B)
ammonia and urea
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C)
\[C{{O}_{2}}\] and ammonia
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D)
ammonia and uric acid
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question_answer 181) If Indias environmental problem is not dealt with urgently, it will:
A)
create problems of poverty
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B)
ruin the ecology of the country
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C)
lead to war
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D)
make people unemployed
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question_answer 182) The latest data regarding loss of forests have been collected by:
A)
environmentalists
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B)
satellites
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C)
Indian farmers
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D)
state government
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question_answer 183) The amount of environmental damage as indicated by official figures is:
A)
not very alarming
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B)
much less than the actual one
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C)
more than the actual damage
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D)
as much as it really is
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question_answer 184) Directions: Choose the correct meaning of the given words. ADAMANT:
A)
tractable
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B)
flexible
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C)
inflexible
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D)
soft
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question_answer 185) Directions: Choose the correct meaning of the given words. GOAD:
A)
features
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B)
complain
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C)
urge
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D)
pertinent
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question_answer 186) Directions: Choose the correct meaning of the given words. FABULOUS:
A)
unbelievable
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B)
soft
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C)
weaken
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D)
strong
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question_answer 187) Directions: Choose the correct meaning of the given words. ACME:
A)
surface layer
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B)
perfection
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C)
bottom
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D)
depth
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question_answer 188) Directions: Choose the correct synonyms of the given words. IDOL:
A)
rough
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B)
normal
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C)
favourite
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D)
bad
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question_answer 189) Directions: Choose the correct synonyms of the given words. INFER:
A)
last
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B)
conclude
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C)
enough
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D)
end
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question_answer 190) Directions: Choose the correct synonyms of the given words. IMPRESS:
A)
hint
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B)
inexpressible
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C)
show
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D)
force
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question_answer 191) Directions: Choose the correct synonyms of the given words. ENTRY:
A)
come in
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B)
penetration
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C)
inside
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D)
admittance
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question_answer 192) Directions: Choose the correct antonyms from the given set of words. INSERTION:
A)
displacement
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B)
extraction
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C)
withdrawl
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D)
removal
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question_answer 193) Directions: Choose the correct antonyms from the given set of words. PERMANENT:
A)
disheveled
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B)
improper
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C)
indifferent
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D)
temporary
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question_answer 194) Directions: Choose the correct antonyms from the given set of words. BLASE:
A)
cultured
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B)
indifferent
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C)
afraid
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D)
worldly
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question_answer 195) Directions: Choose the correct antonyms from the given set of words. FATUOUS:
A)
witty
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B)
in one
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C)
thin
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D)
planned
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question_answer 196) Directions: Choose the incorrect word in the following sentences. Had I known you were coming I would stay at?
A)
coming I
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B)
I would stay
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C)
you were
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D)
I known
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question_answer 197) Directions: Choose the incorrect word in the following sentences. The bus was hired by the ladies for its picnic:
A)
the bus
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B)
was hired
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C)
by the ladies
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D)
for its picnic
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question_answer 198) Directions: Choose the incorrect word in the following sentences. I must find out some means of balancing my budget:
A)
my budget
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B)
of balancing
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C)
some means
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D)
out
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question_answer 199) Directions: Choose the incorrect word in the following sentences. Listen carefully, he speaks:
A)
listen
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B)
carefully
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C)
he
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D)
he speaks
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question_answer 200) Directions: Choose the incorrect word in the following sentences. The crowd at the stadium clapped jubilantly when the champion received his trophy:
A)
crowd at the stadium
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B)
clapped jubilantly
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C)
when the champion
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D)
his
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