Solved papers for Manipal Medical Manipal Medical Solved Paper-2004

Manipal Medical Solved Paper-2004 Total Questions - 240

1) Three blocks of masses\[{{m}_{1}},{{m}_{2}}\]and\[{{m}_{3}}\]are connected by massless strings as shown on a frictionless table. They are pulled with   a   force   of 40 N. If\[{{m}_{1}}\text{=}10\text{ }kg,\text{ }{{m}_{2}}=6\]kg and\[{{m}_{3}}=4kg,\]then tension\[{{T}_{2}}\]will be:

A)

10 N

B)

20 N

C)

32 N

D)

40 N

View Answer
2) A rocket of mass 1000 kg is to be projected vertically upwards. The gases are exhausted vertically downwards with velocity 100 m/s with respect to the rocket. What is the minimum rate of burning of fuel, so as to just lift the rocket upwards against the gravitational attraction? (Take\[g=10\text{ }m/{{s}^{2}}\]).

A)

50 kg/s

B)

100 kg/s

C)

200 kg/s

D)

400 kg/s

View Answer
3) A force of 10 N acts on a body of mass 20 kg for 10 seconds. The change in its momentum is:

A)

50 kg-m/s

B)

100 kg-m/s

C)

300 kg-m/s

D)

1000 kg-m/s

View Answer
4) If an iron ball and a wooden ball of the same radius are released from a height \[h\] in vacuum, then time taken by both of them, to reach the ground will be:

A)

zero

B)

unequal

C)

roughly equal

D)

exactly equal

View Answer
5) A ball of mass 0.25 kg attached to the ends of a string of length 1.96 m is rotating in a horizontal circle. The string will break, if tension is more than 25 N. What is the maximum velocity with which the ball can be rotated?

A)

3 m/s

B)

5 m/s

C)

9 m/s

D)

14 m/s

View Answer
6) In uniform circular motion, the factor that remains constant is:

A)

acceleration

B)

momentum

C)

kinetic energy

D)

linear velocity

View Answer
7) A projectile is fired at\[30{}^\circ \]with momentum p. Neglecting friction, tine change in kinetic energy, when it returns back to the ground, will be:

A)

zero

B)

30%

C)

60%

D)

100%

View Answer
8) If a car at rest accelerates uniformly and attains a speed of 72 km/hr in 10 s, then it covers a distance of:

A)

50m

B)

100m

C)

200 m

D)

400 m

View Answer
9) Suppose refractive index\[\mu \]is given as \[\mu =A+B/{{\lambda }^{2}},\]where A and B are constants and X is wavelength then the dimensions of B are same as that of:

A)

wavelength

B)

pressure

C)

area

D)

volume

View Answer
10) We wish to see inside an atom. Assuming the atom to have a diameter of 100 pm, this means that one must be able to resolve a width of say 10 pm. If an electron microscope is used, the minimum electron energy required is about:

A)

15 keV

B)

1.5 keV

C)

150 keV

D)

1.5 MeV

View Answer
11) A particle is moving under the influence of a force which is fixed in magnitude and acting at an angle\[\theta \]in the direction of motion. The path described by the particle is:

A)

a circle

B)

an ellipse

C)

a parabola

D)

a straight line

View Answer
12) 300 J of work is done in sliding a 2 kg block up an inclined plane of height 10m. The work done against friction is (Take\[g=10m/{{s}^{2}}\])

A)

zero

B)

100 J

C)

200 J

D)

300 J

View Answer
13) The torque of force\[\overrightarrow{F}=(2\hat{i}-3\hat{j}+4\hat{k})\]newton acting at a point \[\overrightarrow{r}=(3\hat{i}+2\hat{j}+3\hat{k})\]metre about origin is:

A)

\[6\overrightarrow{i}-6\overrightarrow{j}+12\overrightarrow{k}N-m\]

B)

\[-6\overrightarrow{i}+6\overrightarrow{j}-12\overrightarrow{k}N-m\]

C)

\[17\overrightarrow{i}-6\overrightarrow{j}-13\overrightarrow{k}N-m\]

D)

\[-17\overrightarrow{i}+6\overrightarrow{j}+13\overrightarrow{k}N-m\]

View Answer
14) A machine which is 75% efficient, uses 12 J of energy in lifting 1 kg mass through a certain distance. The mass is then allowed to fall through the same distance. The velocity at the end of its fall is:

A)

\[\sqrt{12}m/s\]

B)

\[\sqrt{18}m/s\]

C)

\[\sqrt{24}m/s\]

D)

\[\sqrt{32}m/s\]

View Answer
15) In an equilateral triangle ABC,\[{{F}_{1}},{{F}_{2}}\]and\[{{F}_{3}}\]are three forces acting along the sides AB, BC and AC as shown in the given figure. What should be the magnitude of\[{{F}_{3}}\]so that the total torque about O is zero?

A)

2 N

B)

4 N

C)

6 N

D)

8 N

View Answer
16) The rotational kinetic energy of a body is\[{{K}_{rot}}\] and its moment of inertia is\[I\]. The angular momentum of body is:

A)

\[I{{K}_{rot}}\]

B)

\[2\sqrt{I{{K}_{rot}}}\]

C)

\[\sqrt{2I{{K}_{rot}}}\]

D)

\[2I{{K}_{rot}}\]

View Answer
17) A small steel sphere of mass m is tied to a string of length r and is whirled in a horizontal circle with a uniform angular velocity\[2\omega \]. The string is suddenly pulled, so that radius of the circle is halved. The new angular velocity will be:

A)

\[2\omega \]

B)

\[4\omega \]

C)

\[6\omega \]

D)

\[8\omega \]

View Answer
18) A uniform disc of mass M and radius R is mounted on an axle supported in friction less bearings. A light cord is wrapped around the rim of the disc and a steady downward pull T is exerted on the cord. The angular acceleration of the disc is:

A)

\[\frac{MR}{2T}\]

B)

\[\frac{2T}{MR}\]

C)

\[\frac{T}{MR}\]

D)

\[\frac{MR}{T}\]

View Answer
19) If the rotational speed of earth is increased then weight of a body at the equator:

A)

increases

B)

decreases

C)

becomes double

D)

does not change

View Answer
20) The earth revolves around the sun in one year. If distance between them becomes double, the new time period of revolution will be:

A)

\[4\sqrt{2}\]years

B)

\[2\sqrt{2}\] years

C)

4 years

D)

8 years

View Answer
21) The orbital velocity of an artificial satellite in a circular orbit just above the earths surface is\[v\] The orbital velocity of a satellite orbiting at an altitude of half of the radius, is:

A)

\[\frac{3}{2}{{\upsilon }_{o}}\]

B)

\[\frac{2}{3}{{\upsilon }_{o}}\]

C)

\[\sqrt{\frac{2}{3}}{{\upsilon }_{o}}\]

D)

\[\sqrt{\frac{3}{2}}{{\upsilon }_{o}}\]

View Answer
22) The amplitude of an oscillating simple pendulum is 10 cm and its time period is 4 s. Its speed after 1 s when it passes through its equilibrium position is:

A)

zero

B)

2.0 m/s

C)

0.3 m/s

D)

0.4 m/s

View Answer
23) A simple second pendulum is mounted in a rocket. Its time period will decrease when the rocket is:

A)

moving up with uniform velocity

B)

moving up with uniform acceleration

C)

moving down with uniform acceleration

D)

moving around the earth in geostationary orbit

View Answer
24) A child swinging on a swing in a sitting position, stands up, then the time period of the swing will:

A)

increase

B)

decrease

C)

remain the same

D)

increase if the child is long and decrease if the child is short

View Answer
25) The phenomena arising due to the superposition of waves is/are:

A)

beats

B)

stationary waves

C)

Lissajous figures

D)

all of these

View Answer
26) A vehicle with horn of frequency\[\upsilon \]is moving with a velocity of 30 m/s in a direction perpendicular to the line joining the observer and the vehicle. The observer perceives the sound to have a frequency\[(v+{{v}_{1}})\]. If the sound velocity in air is 300 m/s, then.

A)

\[{{v}_{1}}=0\]

B)

\[{{v}_{1}}=0.1\,v\]

C)

\[{{v}_{1}}=-0.1\,v\]

D)

\[{{v}_{1}}=10\,v\]

View Answer
27) ball falling in a lake of depth 200 m shows 0.1% decrease in its volume at the bottom. What is the Bulk modulus of the ball material? (Take density of water\[=1000kg/{{m}^{3}}\])

A)

\[19.6\times {{10}^{8}}N/{{m}^{2}}\]

B)

\[19.6\times {{10}^{-10}}N/{{m}^{2}}\]

C)

\[19.6\times {{10}^{10}}N/{{m}^{2}}\]

D)

\[19.6\times {{10}^{-8}}N/{{m}^{2}}\]

View Answer
28) At what temperature, hydrogen molecules will escape from the earths surface? (Take mass of hydrogen molecule\[=0.34\times {{10}^{-26}}kg,\] Boltzmann constant\[=1.38\times {{10}^{-23}}J/K,\] Radius of earth\[=6.4\times {{10}^{6}}m\]and acceleration due to gravity\[=9.8\text{ }m/{{s}^{2}}\])

A)

10 K

B)

\[{{10}^{2}}K\]

C)

\[{{10}^{3}}K\]

D)

\[{{10}^{4}}K\]

View Answer
29) Real gases obey ideal gas laws more closely at:

A)

low pressure and low temperature

B)

low pressure and high temperature

C)

high pressure and low temperature

D)

high pressure and high temperature

View Answer
30) Carnot engine cannot give 100% efficiency, because we cannot:

A)

eleminate friction

B)

find ideal sources

C)

prevent radiation

D)

reach absolute zero temperature

View Answer
31) Two cylinders fitted with pistons contain equal amounts of an ideal diatomic gas at 300 K. The piston of A is free to move, while that of B is held fixed. The same amount of heat is given to the gas in each cylinder. If the rise in temperature of gas in A is 300 K, then rise in temperature of gas in B is:

A)

30 K

B)

18 K

C)

50 K

D)

42 K

View Answer
32) A thin square plate with each side equal to 10 cm, is heated by a blacksmith. The rate of radiated energy by the heated plate is 1134 watts. The temperature of hot square plate is (Stefans constant \[\sigma =5.67\times {{10}^{-8}}W-{{m}^{2}}{{K}^{-4}};\]Emissivity of plate =1)

A)

1000 K

B)

1189 K

C)

2000 K

D)

2378 K

View Answer
33) A beaker of hot water cools from\[75{}^\circ C\] to\[70{}^\circ C\] in \[{{t}_{1}}\] minutes, from \[70{}^\circ C\] to \[65{}^\circ C\] in \[{{t}_{2}}\] minutes and from\[65{}^\circ C\]to\[60{}^\circ C\]in\[{{t}_{3}}\] minutes. Then:

A)

\[{{t}_{1}}={{t}_{2}}={{t}_{3}}\]

B)

\[{{t}_{1}}<{{t}_{2}}<{{t}_{3}}\]

C)

\[{{t}_{1}}>{{t}_{2}}>{{t}_{3}}\]

D)

\[{{t}_{1}}<{{t}_{2}}<{{t}_{3}}\]

View Answer
34) If the ratio of specific heats of a gas at constant pressure to that at constant volume is y, the change in internal energy of a gas, when the volume changes from V to 2V at constant pressure P, is:

A)

\[PV\]

B)

\[\frac{R}{\gamma -1}\]

C)

\[\frac{PV}{\gamma -1}\]

D)

\[\frac{\gamma PV}{\gamma -1}\]

View Answer
35) When a charged oil drop moves upwards in an electric field of strength E, the electric force acting on the drop is:

A)

equal to the gravitational force

B)

less than the gravitational force

C)

greater than the gravitational force

D)

greater than the mass of the oil drop

View Answer
36) What is the resultant capacitance between points A and B?

A)

\[51\,\mu F\]

B)

\[102\,\mu F\]

C)

\[204\,\mu F\]

D)

\[408\,\mu F\]

View Answer
37) If a uniform wire of resistance R is uniformly stretched to n times the original length, then new resistance of the wire becomes:

A)

\[nR\]

B)

\[{{n}^{2}}R\]

C)

\[\frac{R}{n}\]

D)

\[\frac{R}{{{n}^{2}}}\]

View Answer
38) A\[2{}^\circ C\]rise in temperature is observed in a conductor by passing a current. When the current is tripled, the rise in temperature will be:

A)

\[9{}^\circ C\]

B)

\[18{}^\circ C\]

C)

\[27{}^\circ C\]

D)

\[36{}^\circ C\]

View Answer
39) A conducting rod AC of length 4 / is rotated about appoint 0 in a uniform magnetic field B directed into the paper. \[AO=l\]and\[OC=3l\]then:

A)

\[{{V}_{A}}-{{V}_{O}}=\frac{B\omega {{l}^{2}}}{2}\]

B)

\[{{V}_{O}}-{{V}_{C}}=\frac{3}{2}B\omega {{l}^{2}}\]

C)

\[{{V}_{A}}-{{V}_{C}}=4B\omega {{l}^{2}}\]

D)

\[{{V}_{C}}-{{V}_{O}}=\frac{9}{2}B\omega {{l}^{2}}\]

View Answer
40) If two wires are carrying currents in opposite directions, then they will:

A)

repel each other

B)

attract each other

C)

become inclined to each other

D)

neither repel nor attract each other

View Answer
41) For protecting a sensitive equipment from external magnetic field, it should be:

A)

placed inside an iron can

B)

placed inside an aluminium can

C)

surrounded with fine copper sheet

D)

wrapped with insulation around it when passing current through it

View Answer
42) If reduction factor of a tangent galvanometer is 900 mA, then the current through it to produce a deflection of\[45{}^\circ \]is:

A)

600 mA

B)

700 mA

C)

750 mA

D)

900 mA

View Answer
43) The Lenzs law gives:

A)

direction of induced current

B)

magnitude of induced emf

C)

magnitude of induced current

D)

magnitude and direction of induced current

View Answer
44) A circuit consists of a resistor/an inductor and a capacitor connected in series. If the resistance of a resistor is\[25\,\Omega \]and the value of inductive reactance is equal to capacitive reactance, then the net impedance of the circuit will be:

A)

\[5\,\Omega \]

B)

\[25\,\Omega \]

C)

\[125\,\Omega \]

D)

\[625\,\Omega \]

View Answer
45) An alternating current is given by\[I={{I}_{1}}\cos \omega t+{{I}_{2}}\sin \omega t\]. The root mean square current is given by:

A)

\[\frac{({{I}_{1}}+{{I}_{2}})}{\sqrt{2}}\]

B)

\[\frac{{{({{I}_{1}}+{{I}_{2}})}^{2}}}{2}\]

C)

\[\sqrt{\frac{I_{1}^{2}+I_{2}^{2}}{2}}\]

D)

\[\frac{\sqrt{I_{1}^{2}+I_{2}^{2}}}{2}\]

View Answer
46) The waves which cannot travel in vacuum are:

A)

X-rays

B)

radio-waves

C)

infrasonic waves

D)

ultra-violet rays

View Answer
47) Which of the following is/are not electromagnetic waves?

A)

\[\beta -\]rays

B)

X-rays

C)

Cosmic rays

D)

Both [a] and [c]

View Answer
48) The electromagnetic radiations are caused by:

A)

a stationary charge

B)

accelerated charge

C)

uniformly moving charge

D)

all of the above

View Answer
49) A ray of light passes through four transparent media with refractive indices \[{{\mu }_{1}},{{\mu }_{2}},{{\mu }_{3}}\]and \[{{\mu }_{4}}\]as shown in the figure. The surfaces of all media are parallel. If the emergent ray CD is parallel to the incident ray AB, we must have:

A)

\[{{\mu }_{1}}={{\mu }_{2}}\]

B)

\[{{\mu }_{2}}={{\mu }_{3}}\]

C)

\[{{\mu }_{3}}={{\mu }_{4}}\]

D)

\[{{\mu }_{1}}={{\mu }_{4}}\]

View Answer
50) A satisfactory photographic print is obtained at a distance of 2 m from a 60 cd lamp when the exposure time is 10 s. The time of exposure required for the same quality print at a distance 4 m from a 120 cd lamp is:

A)

5 s

B)

10 s

C)

20 s

D)

25 s

View Answer
51) In Youngs double-slit experiment, the angular width of fringe formed on a distant screen is\[0.1{}^\circ \]. If wavelength of light used is\[6000\overset{o}{\mathop{\text{A}}}\,,\] then spacing between the slits is:

A)

\[3.44\times {{10}^{-4}}m\]

B)

\[4.33\times {{10}^{-4}}m\]

C)

\[5.44\times {{10}^{-4}}m\]

D)

\[6.33\times {{10}^{-4}}m\]

View Answer
52) In Youngs double-slit experiment, distance between slits is 0.28 mm, distance between slits and screen is 1.4 m and distance between central bright fringe and third bright fringe is 0.9 cm. What is the wavelength of light used?

A)

\[5000\overset{o}{\mathop{\text{A}}}\,\]

B)

\[6000\overset{o}{\mathop{\text{A}}}\,\]

C)

\[7000\overset{o}{\mathop{\text{A}}}\,\]

D)

\[9000\overset{o}{\mathop{\text{A}}}\,\]

View Answer
53) Polarised light canbe produced by:

A)

scattering

B)

dispersion

C)

diffraction

D)

interference

View Answer
54) In a discharge tube at 0.2 mm of Hg pressure, there is a formation of:

A)

Crookes dark space

B)

Faradays dark space

C)

both spaces partly

D)

Crookes dark space with glow near the electrodes

View Answer
55) According to Bohrs atomic theory:

A)

electrons do not move

B)

nucleus is negatively charged

C)

electrons radiate energy in stationary orbits

D)

electrons emit or absorb energy during transition state

View Answer
56) In the nth orbit of hydrogen atom, ratio of its radius and de-Broglie wavelength associated with it, is:

A)

\[\frac{1}{2\pi n}\]

B)

\[\frac{1}{2\pi {{n}^{2}}}\]

C)

\[\frac{n}{2\pi }\]

D)

\[\frac{{{n}^{2}}}{2\pi }\]

View Answer
57) If\[_{7}{{N}^{14}}\]nucleus is bombarded with an\[\alpha -\]particle and a proton is emitted the product nucleus is:

A)

\[_{8}{{O}^{17}}\]

B)

\[_{8}{{F}^{19}}\]

C)

\[_{9}{{O}^{17}}\]

D)

\[_{7}{{F}^{19}}\]

View Answer
58) The relationship between decay constant\[(\lambda )\]and half-life\[{{(T)}_{1/2}}\]of a radioactive substance is:

A)

\[\lambda =\frac{{{\log }_{10}}2}{{{(T)}_{1/2}}}\]

B)

\[\lambda =\frac{{{\log }_{2}}e}{{{(T)}_{1/2}}{{\log }_{10}}e}\]

C)

\[\lambda =\frac{{{\log }_{2}}10}{{{(T)}_{1/2}}{{\log }_{2}}e}\]

D)

\[\lambda =\frac{{{\log }_{10}}2}{{{(T)}_{1/2}}{{\log }_{10}}e}\]

View Answer
59) At absolute zero temperature, semiconductor behaves as a/an:

A)

dielectric

B)

conductor

C)

insulator

D)

super conductor

View Answer
60) In an intrinsic semiconductor:

A)

\[{{n}_{e}}>{{n}_{h}}\]

B)

\[{{n}_{h}}>{{n}_{e}}\]

C)

\[{{n}_{e}}={{n}_{h}}\]

D)

\[{{n}_{e}}={{n}_{h}}=0\]

View Answer
61) The radius of second Bohrs orbit of hydrogen atom is:

A)

0.053 nm

B)

0.106 nm

C)

0.2116 nm

D)

0.4256 nm

View Answer
62) Kinetic energy of one mole of an ideal gas at 300 K is:

A)

3.48 kJ

B)

3.74 kJ

C)

37.4kJ

D)

34.8kJ

View Answer
63) Which of the following is the correct electronic configuration of Cr?

A)

\[1{{s}^{2}}2{{s}^{2}}2{{p}^{6}}3{{s}^{2}}3{{p}^{6}}4{{s}^{1}}3{{d}^{5}}\]

B)

\[1{{s}^{2}}2{{s}^{2}}2{{p}^{6}}3{{s}^{2}}3{{p}^{6}}4{{s}^{2}}3{{d}^{4}}\]

C)

\[1{{s}^{2}}2{{s}^{2}}2{{p}^{6}}3{{s}^{2}}3{{p}^{6}}4{{s}^{2}}3{{d}^{6}}\]

D)

\[1{{s}^{2}}2{{s}^{2}}2{{p}^{6}}3{{s}^{2}}3{{p}^{6}}4{{s}^{1}}3{{d}^{8}}\]

View Answer
64) If the value of\[{{C}_{p}}\]for nitrogen gas is\[j{{K}^{-1}}mo{{l}^{-1}},\]then the value of\[\Delta H\]on heating 28 g of nitrogen gas from\[0{}^\circ C\]to\[100{}^\circ C\]at constant pressure will be:

A)

1200 J

B)

1300 J

C)

1400 J

D)

1500 J

View Answer
65) The least count of an instrument is 0.01 cm: Taking all precautions, the most possible error in the measurement can be:

A)

0.005 cm

B)

0.01 cm

C)

0.0001 cm

D)

0.1 cm

View Answer
66) The phenomenon of radioactivity was discovered by:

A)

Henry Becquerrel

B)

Madam Curie

C)

P. Curie

D)

Rutherford.

View Answer
67) Hydrogen peroxide is prepared in the laboratory by:

A)

passing\[C{{O}_{2}}\]into\[Ba{{O}_{2}}\]

B)

adding\[Mn{{O}_{2}}\]to dil.\[{{H}_{2}}S{{O}_{4}}\]

C)

adding\[N{{a}_{2}}{{O}_{2}}\]to cold water

D)

adding\[Pb{{O}_{2}}\] into\[KMn{{O}_{4}}\].

View Answer
68) Vinegar is:

A)

\[HCHO\]

B)

\[HCOOH\]

C)

\[C{{H}_{3}}CHO\]

D)

\[C{{H}_{3}}COOH\]

View Answer
69) Which of the following product is formed in the reaction \[C{{H}_{3}}MgBr\xrightarrow[(ii)\,{{H}_{2}}O]{(i)\,C{{O}_{2}}}?\]

A)

Acetic acid

B)

Methanoic acid

C)

Methanol

D)

Ethanal

View Answer
70) Ethyl chloride is converted into diethyl ether by:

A)

Perkins reaction

B)

Grignard reagent

C)

Wurtz reaction

D)

Williamsons synthesis

View Answer
71) lodoform test is not answered by:

A)

\[C{{H}_{3}}OH\]

B)

\[{{C}_{2}}{{H}_{5}}OH\]

C)

\[C{{H}_{3}}COC{{H}_{3}}\]

D)

\[C{{H}_{3}}\underset{\begin{smallmatrix} | \\ OH \end{smallmatrix}}{\mathop{CH}}\,C{{H}_{3}}\]

View Answer
72) The equivalent weight of a solid element is found to be 9. If the specific heat of this element is\[1.05\,J{{g}^{-1}}{{K}^{-1}},\]then its atomic weight is:

A)

17

B)

21

C)

25

D)

27

View Answer
73) The maximum energy is possessed by an electron, when it is present:

A)

in nucleus

B)

in ground energy state

C)

in first excited state

D)

at infinite distance from the nucleus

View Answer
74) A gas has a vapour density 11.2. The volume occupied by 1 gm of gas at NTP is:

A)

1 litre

B)

11.2 litre

C)

22.4 litre

D)

unpredictable

View Answer
75) Particle   nature   of   electron   was experimently demonstrated by:

A)

Max Bon

B)

J.J. Thomson

C)

de Broglie

D)

Schrondinger

View Answer
76) Which of the following is a magic number?

A)

10

B)

16

C)

55

D)

50

View Answer
77) The Ostwald dilution law is expressed as:

A)

\[{{K}_{a}}=\frac{c{{\alpha }^{2}}}{(1-\alpha )}\]

B)

\[{{K}_{a}}=\frac{c\alpha }{(1-\alpha )}\]

C)

\[{{K}_{a}}=\frac{1-\alpha }{c{{\alpha }^{2}}}\]

D)

\[{{K}_{a}}=\frac{c(1-\alpha )}{{{\alpha }^{2}}}\]

View Answer
78) The pH value of an acid is 5 and its concentration is 1 M. What is the value of\[{{K}_{a}}\]for the acid?

A)

\[{{10}^{-7}}\]

B)

\[{{10}^{-5}}\]

C)

\[{{10}^{-10}}\]

D)

\[{{10}^{-8}}\]

View Answer
79) To calculate the amount of work done in joules during reversible isothermal expansion of an ideal gas, the volume must be expressed in:

A)

\[{{m}^{3}}\] only

B)

\[d{{m}^{3}}\] only

C)

\[c{{m}^{3}}\] only

D)

any of these

View Answer
80) In the reaction, \[{{H}_{2}}(g)+{{I}_{2}}(g)\] \[2HI(g).\]Which of the following is correct?

A)

\[{{K}_{p}}={{K}_{c}}\]

B)

\[{{K}_{p}}>{{K}_{c}}\]

C)

\[{{K}_{p}}<{{K}_{c}}\]

D)

\[{{K}_{p}}\ge {{K}_{c}}\]

View Answer
81) The mass of an object changes from 0.2 g to 0.025 g in 1500 years. The half life of the object is:

A)

500 yrs

B)

600 yrs

C)

800 yrs

D)

950 yrs

View Answer
82) Which of the following is the correct nuclear reaction, when\[_{90}^{233}Th\]undergoes one\[\beta -\] emission?

A)

\[_{90}^{233}Th\xrightarrow[{}]{{}}\,_{90}^{233}Pa{{+}_{-2}}{{e}^{0}}\]

B)

\[_{90}^{233}Th\xrightarrow[{}]{{}}\,_{91}^{233}Pa{{+}_{-1}}{{e}^{0}}\]

C)

\[_{90}^{233}Th\xrightarrow[{}]{{}}\,_{90}^{292}Pa{{+}_{0}}{{e}^{4}}\]

D)

\[_{90}^{233}Th\xrightarrow[{}]{{}}\,_{91}^{229}Pa{{+}_{-1}}{{e}^{4}}\]

View Answer
83) Which of the following is the chief ore of copper?

A)

\[C{{u}_{2}}S\]

B)

\[C{{u}_{2}}O\]

C)

\[CuFe{{S}_{2}}\]

D)

\[CuC{{O}_{3}}.Cu{{(OH)}_{2}}\]

View Answer
84) Which of the following is an epsom salt?

A)

\[2CaS{{O}_{4}}.{{H}_{2}}O\]

B)

\[MgS{{O}_{4}}.7{{H}_{2}}O\]

C)

\[MgS{{O}_{4}}.2{{H}_{2}}O\]

D)

\[BaS{{O}_{4}}.2{{H}_{2}}O\]

View Answer
85) Bromine can be liberated from\[KBr\]solution by the action of:

A)

\[KI\]

B)

\[NaCl\]

C)

\[C{{l}_{2}}\]

D)

12 solution

View Answer
86) When lead nitrate is heated, it produces:

A)

\[N{{O}_{2}}\]

B)

\[NO\]

C)

\[{{N}_{2}}{{O}_{5}}\]

D)

\[{{N}_{2}}O\]

View Answer
87) Which of the following lanthanide is commonly used?

A)

Lanthanum

B)

Nobelium

C)

Thorium

D)

Cerium

View Answer
88) The IUPAC name of \[{{(CH{{ }_{3}})}_{3}}CCH=C{{H}_{2}}\]is:

A)

3, 3-dimethyl-1-butene

B)

2, 2-dimethyl 3-butene

C)

1, 1, 1-trimethyl-2-propene

D)

3, 3, 3-trimethyl 2-propene

View Answer
89) The order of reactivities of methyl halide in the formation of Grignard reagent is:

A)

\[C{{H}_{3}}Cl>C{{H}_{3}}Br>C{{H}_{3}}I\]

B)

\[C{{H}_{3}}I>C{{H}_{3}}Br>C{{H}_{3}}Cl\]

C)

\[C{{H}_{3}}Br>C{{H}_{3}}I>C{{H}_{3}}Cl\]

D)

\[C{{H}_{3}}Br>C{{H}_{3}}Cl>C{{H}_{3}}I\]

View Answer
90) Which of the following waste materials can be used for producing bio-gas?

A)

Thermocoal

B)

Glass bottle

C)

Tin cans

D)

Paper scrap

View Answer
91) Which of the following is called Marsh gas?

A)

\[{{C}_{2}}{{H}_{4}}\]

B)

\[{{C}_{2}}{{H}_{6}}\]

C)

\[{{C}_{2}}{{H}_{2}}\]

D)

\[C{{H}_{4}}\]

View Answer
92) The hardness of water is estimated by:

A)

EDTA method

B)

Titrimetric method

C)

Conductivity method

D)

Distillation method

View Answer
93) The addition of 1% alcohol to chloroform acts as:

A)

auto-catalyst

B)

bio-catalyst

C)

positive catalyst

D)

negative catalyst

View Answer
94) Which one of the following order of acid strength is correct?

A)

\[RCOOH>HOH>ROH>HC\equiv CH\]

B)

\[RCOOH>HOH>CH\equiv CH>ROH\]

C)

\[RCOOH>HC\equiv CH>HOH>ROH\]

D)

\[RCOOH>ROH>HOH>CH\equiv CH\]

View Answer
95) In order to convert aniline into chlorobenzene the reagent used is:

A)

\[NaN{{O}_{2}}/HCl,\text{ }CuCl\]

B)

\[C{{l}_{2}}/CC{{l}_{4}}\]

C)

\[C{{l}_{2}}/AlC{{l}_{3}}\]

D)

\[CuC{{l}_{2}}\]

View Answer
96) A drug that is antipyretic as well as analgesic is:

A)

chloroquine

B)

penicillin

C)

paracetamol

D)

chloropromazine hydrochloride

View Answer
97) The basic component of the smog is:

A)

PAN

B)

PBN

C)

\[N{{O}_{2}}\]

D)

all of these

View Answer
98) DNA multiplication is called:

A)

translation

B)

transduction

C)

transcription

D)

replication

View Answer
99) Hexoses and pentoses are:

A)

disaccharides

B)

Monosaccharides

C)

Polysaccharides

D)

Oligosaccharides

View Answer
100) An ester used as medicine is:

A)

ethyl acetate

B)

methyl salicylate

C)

ethyl benzoate

D)

methyl benzoate

View Answer
101) What is formed when nitrobenzene is reduced using zinc and alkali?

A)

Phenol

B)

Hydroazobenzene

C)

Aniline

D)

Nitrosobenzene

View Answer
102) Which of the following test is not used for testing of proteins?

A)

Millons test

B)

Molishs test

C)

Biuret test

D)

Ninhydrin test

View Answer
103) Which of the following is not a synthetic fibre?

A)

Rubber

B)

Nylon-6

C)

Nylon-6, 6

D)

Nylon-6, 10

View Answer
104) A liquid decomposes at its normal boiling point. It can be purified by:

A)

sublimation

B)

steam distillation

C)

vacuum distillation

D)

fractional distillation

View Answer
105) Which of the following is obtained when auric chloride reacts with sodium chloride?

A)

\[Na[AuCl]\]

B)

\[Na[AuC{{l}_{2}}]\]

C)

\[Na[AuC{{l}_{3}}]\]

D)

\[Na[AuC{{l}_{4}}]\]

View Answer
106) The limiting radius ratio for tetrahedral shape is:

A)

0 to 0.155

B)

0.225 to 0.414

C)

0.155 to 0.225

D)

0.414 to 0.732

View Answer
107) When a capillary tube of diameter 0.8 mm is dipped in a liquid having density\[800\text{ }kg{{m}^{-3}},\]then the height of liquid in the capillary tube rises to 4 cm. The surface tension of liquid is \[(g=9.8m/{{s}^{2}}):\]

A)

\[4.3\times {{10}^{-2}}N{{m}^{-1}}\]

B)

\[5.6\times {{10}^{-2}}N{{m}^{-1}}\]

C)

\[6.3\times {{10}^{-2}}N{{m}^{-1}}\]

D)

\[7.3\times {{10}^{-2}}N{{m}^{-1}}\]

View Answer
108) The\[BC{{l}_{3}}\]is a planar molecule whereas\[NC{{l}_{3}}\]is pyramidal, because:

A)

nitrogen atom is smaller than boron atoms

B)

\[B-Cl\]bond is more polar than\[N-Cl\]bond.

C)

\[N-Cl\]bond is more covalent than \[B-Cl\] bond

D)

\[BC{{l}_{3}}\]has no lone pair but\[NC{{l}_{3}}\]has a lone pair of electrons

View Answer
109) Railway wagon axles are made by heating iron rods embedded in charcoal powder. This process is known as:

A)

tempering

B)

anneling

C)

sherardising

D)

case hardening

View Answer
110) The reaction \[Ag_{(aq)}^{2+}+A{{g}_{(s)}}2Ag_{(aq)}^{+}\]is an example of:

A)

reduction

B)

oxidation

C)

disproportionation

D)

none of these

View Answer
111) Number of\[\sigma \]and\[\pi \]bonds in acetylene are:

A)

3 and 2

B)

2 and 2

C)

2 and 3

D)

4 and 3

View Answer
112) The percentage s-character of the hybrid orbitals in methane, ethene and ethyne are respectively:

A)

25, 50, 75

B)

25, 33, 50

C)

10, 20, 40

D)

50, 75, 100

View Answer
113) Which of the following statements is true?

A)

\[\Delta G\]is always less than\[\Delta H\]

B)

\[\Delta G\]is always more than\[\Delta H\]

C)

\[\Delta G\]is always proportional to\[\Delta H\]

D)

\[\Delta G\]may be lesser, greater or equal to\[\Delta H\]

View Answer
114) Which of the following is not a characteristic of chemisorption?

A)

Adsorption is specific

B)

Adsorption is irreversible

C)

\[\Delta H\]is of the order of 400 kJ

D)

Adsorption may be multimolecular layer

View Answer
115) Which of the following process is not used for the purification of solid impurities?

A)

Distillation

B)

Sublimation

C)

Crystallisation

D)

Vaporisation

View Answer
116) Which of the following organization is engaged   in   the   promotion   and construction of bio-gas plants in India?

A)

KBIC

B)

GVD

C)

KVIC

D)

All of these

View Answer
117) Which of the following is not true about the urea?

A)

It can be stored easily

B)

It should be applied at sowing time

C)

It cannot be used for all types of crops and soils

D)

The cost of production of urea is cheap.

View Answer
118) Which of the following reagent can distinguish between 1-Butyne and 2-Butyne?

A)

Aqueous\[NaOH\]

B)

Bromine water

C)

Fehlings solution

D)

Ammonical\[AgN{{O}_{3}}\]

View Answer
119) At 530 K, glycerol reacts with oxalic acid to produce:

A)

allyl alcohol

B)

formic acid

C)

glyceraldehyde

D)

formaldehyde

View Answer
120) Which of the following compound does not undergo schotten Baumann reaction?

A)

Phenol

B)

Primary amine

C)

Secondary amine

D)

Tertiary amine

View Answer
121) The main function of lysosome is:

A)

sexual reproduction

B)

extracellular digestion

C)

intracellular digestion

D)

both b and c

View Answer
122) Which of the following maintains continuity between the water and lipid phases inside and outside the cells?

A)

Cell wall

B)

Lecithin

C)

Cell vacuole

D)

Cell membrane of woody plants

View Answer
123) The method of classification, called cladistics, is based on:

A)

natural system

B)

mutation theory

C)

artificial system

D)

evolutionary history

View Answer
124) In many bacteria, the cell membrane becomes invaginated and folded to form:

A)

pili

B)

cristae

C)

fimbriae

D)

mesosomes

View Answer
125) Lomasomes are found in:

A)

algal cell

B)

fungal cell

C)

bacterial cell

D)

cyanobacterial cell

View Answer
126) Zygote of Spirogyra produces four haploid nuclei, in which:

A)

one is functional

B)

two are functional

C)

three are functional

D)

all are functional

View Answer
127) Which of the following part of Fimaria, sporophyte is involved in the dispersal of spores?

A)

Calyptra

B)

Operculum

C)

Peristome

D)

Annulus

View Answer
128) In Selaginella, the adaxial outgrowth, from the base of leaf, is called:

A)

ligule

B)

velum

C)

rhizophore

D)

glossopodium

View Answer
129) In Pinus, the third tier of embryonal cells from below is known as:

A)

rosette tier

B)

suspensor tier

C)

embryonal tier

D)

free-nuclear tier

View Answer
130) Most of the petrocrops belongs to family:

A)

Malvaceae

B)

Rutaceae

C)

Leguminosae

D)

Euphorbiaceae

View Answer
131) Amia belongs to family:

A)

Labiatae

B)

Fabaceae

C)

Solanaceae

D)

Euphorbiaceae

View Answer
132) Tuberous roots are found in:

A)

Beta vulgaris

B)

Daucus carota

C)

Ipomoea batatas

D)

Raphanus sativus

View Answer
133) Velamen is found in:

A)

Vanda

B)

Rosa

C)

Viscum

D)

Santahim

View Answer
134) The type of leaf in Dazicus carota is:

A)

simple

B)

bipinnate

C)

tripinnate

D)

decompound

View Answer
135) Aerenchyma provides:

A)

flexibility to plants

B)

mechanical strength to plants

C)

buoyancy to hydrophytic plants

D)

promoting nature of photosynthesis

View Answer
136) Two cross-sections of stem and root appear simple, when viewed by naked eye. But under microscope, they can be differentiated by:

A)

exarch condition of root and stem

B)

endarch condition of stem and root

C)

endarch condition of root and exarch condition of stem

D)

endarch condition of stem and exarch condition of root

View Answer
137) Umbel inflorescence is found in:

A)

Musa

B)

Colocasia

C)

Coriandrum

D)

Helianthus

View Answer
138) When gynoecium is present in the topmost position of thalamus, the flower is known as:

A)

inferior

B)

epigynous

C)

perigynous

D)

hypogynous

View Answer
139) Orthotropus ovule belongs to:

A)

Urtica

B)

Polygonum

C)

Peperomea

D)

all of these

View Answer
140) In a flowering plant, megaspore develops into an embryo sac, which contains:

A)

4 cell, one of which is an egg

B)

6 cells, one of which is an egg

C)

8 cells, one of which is an egg

D)

none of these

View Answer
141) The type of pollination found in Calotropis is:

A)

dicliny

B)

herkogamy

C)

heterostyly

D)

dichogamy

View Answer
142) Apogamy is:

A)

reproduction of virus

B)

failure of fusion of gametes

C)

development of bacteria

D)

loss of function of reproduction

View Answer
143) If a sporangium is derived from a single cell, it is called:

A)

leptosporangiate

B)

eusporangiate

C)

heterosporangiate

D)

monosporangiate

View Answer
144) Drupe contains:

A)

stony endocarp

B)

stony mesocarp

C)

edible epicarp

D)

edible endocarp

View Answer
145) When stomata open, the pH of guard cells:

A)

increases

B)

decreases

C)

remains same

D)

both a and b

View Answer
146) Water lost in guttation is:

A)

pure water

B)

impure water

C)

in vapour form

D)

either a and b

View Answer
147) Photochemical reactions in the chloroplasts are directly involved in:

A)

fixation of carbon dioxide

B)

synthesis of glucose and starch

C)

formation of phosphoglyceric acid

D)

photolysis of water and phosphorylation of ADP to ATP

View Answer
148) Which of the following elements are essential for the photolysis of water?

A)

\[Ca\]and\[Cl\]

B)

\[Mn\] and\[Cl\]

C)

\[Zn\]and\[I\]

D)

\[Cu\]and \[Fe\]

View Answer
149) Respiratory Quotient (R.Q.) is defined as:

A)

vol. of\[{{O}_{2}}\] /vol. of\[C{{O}_{2}}\]

B)

vol. of \[C{{O}_{2}}\] /vol. of\[{{O}_{2}}\]

C)

vol. of \[{{O}_{2}}\] /vol. of \[{{N}_{2}}\]

D)

vol. of\[{{N}_{2}}\]/vol. of \[C{{O}_{2}}\]

View Answer
150) A sleep movement in plants is a nastic response, that occurs daily in respose to:

A)

dark

B)

light

C)

water

D)

both a and b

View Answer
151) Plant hormones are:

A)

growth regulators

B)

growth promoters

C)

growth inhibitors

D)

all of these

View Answer
152) The most common auxin is:

A)

GA

B)

ABA

C)

kinetuv

D)

IAA

View Answer
153) Gibberellin promotes cell division and elongation in:

A)

leaves

B)

roots

C)

shoots

D)

all of these

View Answer
154) The deteriorative processes in plants, that naturally terminate their functional life, are collectively called:

A)

wilting

B)

abscission

C)

plasmolysis

D)

senescence

View Answer
155) Mendelian recombinations are due to:

A)

linkage

B)

mutations

C)

dominant characters

D)

independent assortment

View Answer
156) Chromosome nui \[2n-1\]is an example of:

A)

trisomy

B)

euploidy

C)

polyploidy

D)

monosomy

View Answer
157) Agrobacterium tumefaciens contains a large plasmid, which induces tumour in the plants, it is termed as:

A)

\[Ti\]plasmid

B)

\[Ri\]plasmid

C)

recombinant plasmid

D)

shine delgrano sequence

View Answer
158) The organisms inhabiting a common environment belong to the same:

A)

species

B)

genus

C)

population

D)

community

View Answer
159) Minerals, metals and fossil fuels are which type of resources of energy?

A)

renewable

B)

non-renewable

C)

biodegradable

D)

degradable

View Answer
160) Foul smell in the water bodies of tanks, ponds etc. is due to:

A)

aerobiosis

B)

ariaerobiosis

C)

psammophytes

D)

biological magnification

View Answer
161) Ethology is the study of:

A)

behaviour of animals

B)

past life of organism

C)

disease causing pathogens

D)

none of these

View Answer
162) The study of molluscan is called:

A)

Nerology

B)

Conchology

C)

Malacology

D)

Craniology

View Answer
163) The globular proteins undergo structural changes, in response to extremes of pH or temperature, are called:

A)

renaturation

B)

denaturation

C)

combination

D)

both a and b

View Answer
164) Sex chromosomes are also known as:

A)

automomes

B)

allosomes

C)

genome

D)

karyotype

View Answer
165) The lytic enzyme present in semen is:

A)

ligase

B)

estrogenase

C)

androgenase

D)

hyaluronidase

View Answer
166) The fastest acting enzyme, in the biological kingdom, is:

A)

lipase

B)

amylase

C)

peptidase

D)

carbonic anhydrase

View Answer
167) Chymotrypsin is produced by:

A)

liver

B)

pancreas

C)

stomach

D)

duodenum

View Answer
168) In which of the following kingdom diatoms are placed?

A)

Plantae

B)

Fungi

C)

Protozoans

D)

Protista

View Answer
169) Nucleus of Monocystis is:

A)

bilobed

B)

spherical

C)

multilobed

D)

bean shaped

View Answer
170) Plasmodium is an:

A)

endoparasite

B)

ectoparasite

C)

intercellular parasite

D)

both a and b

View Answer
171) Choanocyte is an ascon type of canal system, which is lined by:

A)

porocyte

B)

tncurrent

C)

apopyle

D)

spongocoel

View Answer
172) Which of the following are also known as collar cells?

A)

Choanocytes

B)

Pinocytes

C)

Thesocytes

D)

Cnidoblast

View Answer
173) Rostellum and hooks are absent in the scolex of:

A)

Taenia seginata

B)

Taenia solwm

C)

Echinococcus granulosus

D)

Fasciola hepatica

View Answer
174) Coelom in Ascaris lumbricoides, is:

A)

truecoelom

B)

pseudocoelom

C)

schizocoelom

D)

phycocoelom

View Answer
175) Which of the following animal is sanguivorous?

A)

Nereis

B)

Tapeworm

C)

Earthworm

D)

Hirudinaria

View Answer
176) Sand fly spreads a particular type of disease by its:

A)

proboscis

B)

mandible

C)

salivary gland

D)

none of these

View Answer
177) Which of the following belongs to the class Amphineura?

A)

Chiton

B)

Nautilus

C)

Dentalium

D)

Pinctada

View Answer
178) Ambulacral system is mainly useful for:

A)

locomotion

B)

circulation

C)

feeding

D)

defence

View Answer
179) Swim bladder is present in:

A)

star fishes

B)

bony fishes

C)

carp fishes

D)

all of these

View Answer
180) The Indian salamander is:

A)

Siren

B)

Toilotriton

C)

Amblystoma

D)

Nectzirus

View Answer
181) The character of birds, without exception, is:

A)

omnivorous

B)

flying wings

C)

beak without teeth

D)

lay eggs with calcareous shell

View Answer
182) Blood platelets are found only in the blood of:

A)

birds

B)

reptiles

C)

mammals

D)

amphibians

View Answer
183) Ligament connects:

A)

bone to bone

B)

bone to muscle

C)

muscle to muscle

D)

both b and c

View Answer
184) Which of the following fatty acid is not synthesised in the human body?

A)

Glycerol

B)

Cholesterol

C)

Linoleic acid

D)

Both a and b

View Answer
185) Which of the following blood vessel in the circulatory system of frog has more deoxygenated blood?

A)

Pulmonary artery

B)

Precaval veins

C)

Pulmocutaneous artery

D)

Pulmocutaneous vein

View Answer
186) Tachycardia is:

A)

fast heart rate

B)

slow heart rate

C)

stop heart rate

D)

normal heart rate

View Answer
187) Atrial natriuretic hormone is produced by:

A)

kidney

B)

heart

C)

duodenum

D)

thyroid gland

View Answer
188) Cells present in the inner lining of kidneys are:

A)

podocytes

B)

choanocytes

C)

pinocytes

D)

nephrocytes

View Answer
189) Which of the following does not control the heart beat?

A)

Vagus

B)

Epinephrine

C)

Norepinephrine

D)

Glossopharyngeal nerve

View Answer
190) The egg of frog is:

A)

telolecithal

B)

microlecithal

C)

alecithal

D)

centrolecithal

View Answer
191) Which of the following undergoes spermigenesis?

A)

Spermatids

B)

Spermatogoma

C)

Primary spermatocytes

D)

Secondary spermatocytes

View Answer
192) Antifertilizin is present on:

A)

egg

B)

tail

C)

ovum

D)

spermatozoa

View Answer
193) Swan neck flask experiment proved:

A)

biogenesis

B)

abiogenesis

C)

gene therapy

D)

both a and b

View Answer
194) Cosmozoic theory was proposed by:

A)

Helmholtz

B)

Richter

C)

Pasteur

D)

Arrhenius

View Answer
195) The idea, not related to the Darwinian evolutionary theory is:

A)

survival of the fittest

B)

struggle for existence

C)

inheritance of acquired characters

D)

origin of species by natural selection

View Answer
196) Which of the following has the least number of chromosomes?

A)

Amoeba

B)

Drosophila

C)

Pheretima

D)

Ascaris megalocephala

View Answer
197) Exotoxins are related with:

A)

tetanus

B)

diphtheria

C)

cancer

D)

both a and b

View Answer
198) Argentaffin may arise in:

A)

pancreas

B)

bile duct

C)

intestinal tract

D)

all of these

View Answer
199) Which of these may cause hypothermia in humans?

A)

Smoking

B)

LSD

C)

Dopamine

D)

Alcohol consumption

View Answer
200) Which of the following is a dual purpose breed?

A)

Sindhi

B)

Deoni

C)

Jersey

D)

Sahiwal

View Answer
201) The various practices and norms for banks transactions are laid down by the Reserve Bank of India.

A)

are laid up

B)

are lead down

C)

are lead up

D)

no improvement

View Answer
202) She is having a lot of money:

A)

is having lot of

B)

has lot of

C)

has a lot of

D)

no improvement

View Answer
203) They all loved each other:

A)

one another

B)

for each other

C)

among each other

D)

no improvement

View Answer
204) Directions: In each of the following questions, find out which part of the sentence has an error. In each of the following questions, find out which part of the sentence has an error.

A)

He

B)

worked

C)

hard and

D)

failed

View Answer
205) Directions: In each of the following questions, find out which part of the sentence has an error. In each of the following questions, find out which part of the sentence has an error.

A)

The Jury

B)

is

C)

divided

D)

on the issue

View Answer
206) Directions: In each of the following questions, find out which part of the sentence has an error. In each of the following questions, find out which part of the sentence has an error.

A)

I will wait here

B)

until you

C)

do not

D)

come

View Answer
207) Directions: In each of the following questions, find out which part of the sentence has an error. In each of the following questions, find out which part of the sentence has an error.

A)

Please open

B)

the book

C)

on page

D)

five

View Answer
208) Directions: In each of the following questions one word in bold is followed by four words. Choose the word opposite in meaning. Cronies:

A)

comer

B)

friends

C)

enemies

D)

pals

View Answer
209) Directions: In each of the following questions one word in bold is followed by four words. Choose the word opposite in meaning. Glint:

A)

gleam

B)

happiness

C)

excitement

D)

despair

View Answer
210) Directions: In each of the following questions one word in bold is followed by four words. Choose the word opposite in meaning. Apprehensive:

A)

question

B)

worried

C)

relaxed

D)

anxious

View Answer
211) In 2003, in an eco-marathon contest in Hiroshima Fancy Carol recorded the mileage of distance per litre of petrol as:

A)

396 km/litre

B)

936 km/litre

C)

1962 km/litre

D)

3962 km/litre

View Answer
212) Since the Britishers wanted India to produce and supply raw materials to feed English factories, they pushed a policy that encouraged the cultivation of:

A)

jute

B)

indigo

C)

cotton

D)

commercial crop

View Answer
213) Which of the following was a medical doctor?

A)

John Webster

B)

Thomas Gray

C)

Somerset Maugham

D)

Samuel Taylor Coleridge

View Answer
214) Georgetown is the capital of:

A)

Greece

B)

Guatemala

C)

Guinea

D)

Guyana

View Answer
215) Tea is grown on:

A)

plateaus

B)

mountains

C)

hill slopes

D)

mountain valley

View Answer
216) Which is the chief air pollutant?

A)

Nitrogen

B)

Ammonia

C)

Carbon dioxide

D)

Sulphur dioxide

View Answer
217) Normal blood pressure of man is:

A)

80/120 mm Hg

B)

90/140 mm Hg

C)

120/160 mm Hg

D)

85/120 mm Hg

View Answer
218) How much noise is produced when a man breathes?

A)

35 decibel

B)

0.1 decibel

C)

0.5 decibel

D)

10 decibel

View Answer
219) A myopic eye can be corrected by using a:

A)

convex lens

B)

concave lens

C)

plane mirror

D)

cylindrical lens

View Answer
220) National income accounting is the study of the income and expenditure of the entire:

A)

family

B)

state

C)

economy

D)

organization

View Answer
221) The solution of the equations \[-6+5y=2\]and\[-5x+6y=9\]is:

A)

\[x=1\]and \[y=2\]

B)

\[x=2\]and\[y=3\]

C)

\[x=3\]and \[y=4\]

D)

\[x=4\]and \[y=5\]

View Answer
222) The\[g.c.d.\]of the numbers 96, 528, 1584 and 2016 is:

A)

24

B)

48

C)

72

D)

96

View Answer
223) If\[{{2}^{x}}={{8}^{y+1}}\]and\[{{9}^{y}}={{3}^{x-9}},\]then the values of\[x\]and y are:

A)

\[x=18\]and \[y=9\]

B)

\[x=21\]and \[y=6\]

C)

\[x=23\]arid \[y=4\]

D)

\[x=25\]and \[y=10\]

View Answer
224) The 1 c.m. of the polynomials\[20{{x}^{2}}y({{x}^{2}}-{{y}^{2}})\]and\[35x{{y}^{2}}(x-y)\]is:

A)

\[24({{x}^{2}}-{{y}^{2}})\]

B)

\[140{{x}^{2}}{{y}^{2}}({{x}^{2}}-{{y}^{2}})\]

C)

\[35{{x}^{3}}{{y}^{3}}(x-y)\]

D)

\[80xy({{x}^{2}}-{{y}^{2}})\]

View Answer
225) If\[15({{x}^{2}}+{{y}^{2}})-34xy=0,\]then the value of\[x:y\]is:

A)

3 : 5 or 5 : 3

B)

4 : 3 or 3 : 4

C)

1 : 2 or 2 : 1

D)

3:1 or 1 : 3

View Answer
226) The solution of the rational expression\[\frac{2{{x}^{2}}+x-3}{{{(x-1)}^{2}}}+\frac{2{{x}^{2}}+5x+3}{({{x}^{2}}-1)}\]is:

A)

\[\frac{(2x+3)}{(x-1)}\]

B)

\[\frac{(x+1)}{(2x+3)}\]

C)

\[\frac{(x-1)}{(x+1)}\]

D)

1

View Answer
227) What number must be added to each term of the ratio\[4:5\]so that it may become equal to \[5:6\]?

A)

1

B)

2

C)

4

D)

5

View Answer
228) If\[\alpha \]and\[\beta \]are the roots of the quadratic equation\[2{{x}^{2}}+5x+k=0\]and\[{{\alpha }^{2}}+{{\beta }^{2}}+\alpha \beta =\frac{21}{4},\]then the value of k is:

A)

1

B)

2

C)

6

D)

7

View Answer
229) The time taken by a train 120 m long, running at 54 km/hr, in crossing an electric pole is:

A)

2 sec

B)

4 sec

C)

8 sec

D)

10 sec

View Answer
230) A vendor bought toffees at 6 for a rupee. How many for a rupee must he sell to gain 20%?

A)

3 toffees

B)

4 toffees

C)

5 toffees

D)

7 toffees

View Answer
231)

Statements: Some politicians are honest. All the bonest persons are respected.

Conclusions

I. All politicians are respected.

II. Some politicians are respected.

A)

A

B)

B

C)

C

D)

D

View Answer
232)

Statements: All scholars are thinkers. Some thinkers are wise.

Conclusions

I. All scholars are not wise.

II. Some scholars are wise.

A)

A

B)

B

C)

C

D)

D

View Answer
233)

Statements: All flies are insects, m All insects .can fly

Conclusions

I. Some flies are not insects

II. All insects are flies.

A)

A

B)

B

C)

C

D)

D

View Answer
234)

Statements: Some engineers are not competent. Some competent persons are educated.

Conclusions

I. All engineers are not competent.

II. All competent persons are not educated.

A)

A

B)

B

C)

C

D)

D

View Answer
235)

Statements: All scholars are genius. No woman is a scholar.

Conclusions

I. No woman is a genius.

II. All genius are men.

A)

A

B)

B

C)

C

D)

D

View Answer
236) Wood : Charcoal : : Coal : ?

A)

smoke

B)

coke

C)

ash

D)

fire

View Answer
237) What is related to health as clean is related to contamination?

A)

Pollution

B)

Heartiness

C)

Affliction

D)

Therapeutics

View Answer
238) If you are going towards South, then turn left, then left again, then right and right again. In which direction are you going now?

A)

East

B)

West

C)

North

D)

South

View Answer
239) Complete the series: 84, 103, 120, 135, 148,:

A)

137

B)

148

C)

159

D)

161

View Answer
240) Find ODD man out:

A)

IGLOO

B)

HUT

C)

FLAT

D)

WORKSHOP

View Answer

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done Manipal Medical Solved Paper-2004 Total Questions - 240

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Manipal Medical Solved Paper-2004 Total Questions - 240