Solved papers for Manipal Medical Manipal Medical Solved Paper-2013

Manipal Medical Solved Paper-2013 Total Questions - 240

1) A body freely falling from the rest has a velocity v after his falls through a height h. The distance, it has to fall down further for its velocity becomes double, is

A)

\[4\text{ }h\]

B)

\[2\text{ }s\]

C)

\[1/\sqrt{2}s\]

D)

\[\sqrt{2}s\]

View Answer
2) A 600 kg rocket is set for vertical firing the exhaust speed is 800 m/s to given an initial upward acceleration of\[20\text{ }m/{{s}^{2}},\]the amount of gas ejected per second to supply. The needed thrust will be

A)

\[137.5kg/s\]

B)

\[185.5kg/s\]

C)

\[187.5kg/s\]

D)

\[127.5kg/s\]

View Answer
3) A running man has half the kinetic energy of that of a boy of half of his mass. The man speeds up by 1 m/s. So as to have same kinetic energy as that of the boy. The original speed of the man is

A)

\[\sqrt{2}m/s\]

B)

\[(\sqrt{2}-1)m/s\]

C)

\[\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}m/s\]

D)

\[\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}-1}m/s\]

View Answer
4) If a cycle wheel of radius 4m completes one revolution in two seconds. Then acceleration of the cycle is

A)

\[4{{\pi }^{2}}m/{{s}^{2}}\]

B)

\[2{{\pi }^{2}}\,m/{{s}^{2}}\]

C)

\[{{\pi }^{2}}\,m/{{s}^{2}}\]

D)

\[4\,m/{{s}^{2}}\]

View Answer
5) 5g of ice at\[0{}^\circ C\]is mixed with 5 g of steam at \[100{}^\circ C\], what is the final temperature?

A)

\[100{}^\circ C\]

B)

\[50{}^\circ C\]

C)

\[0{}^\circ C\]

D)

None of these

View Answer
6) Each capacitor shown in figure is\[2\mu F\]. Then the equivalent capacitance between A and B is

A)

\[2\mu F\]

B)

\[4\mu F\]

C)

\[6\mu F\]

D)

\[8\mu F\]

View Answer
7) What is the refractive index of a prism whose angle\[A=60{}^\circ \]and angle of minimum deviation \[{{d}_{m}}=30{}^\circ \]?

A)

\[\sqrt{2}\]

B)

\[{{\sin }^{-1}}(\sqrt{3})\]

C)

\[{{\tan }^{-1}}(\sqrt{2})\]

D)

\[{{\tan }^{-1}}(\sqrt{3})\]

View Answer
8) A cell of constant emf first connected to a resistance\[{{R}_{1}}\]and then connected to a resistance\[{{R}_{2}}\]. If power delivered in both cases is same, then the internal resistance of the cell is

A)

\[\sqrt{{{R}_{1}}{{R}_{2}}}\]

B)

\[\sqrt{\frac{{{R}_{1}}}{{{R}_{2}}}}\]

C)

\[\frac{{{R}_{1}}-{{R}_{2}}}{2}\]

D)

\[\frac{{{R}_{1}}+{{R}_{2}}}{2}\]

View Answer
9) A gas is compressed at constant pressure 50 \[N/{{m}^{2}}\]from a volume of\[10{{m}^{3}}\]to a volume\[4{{m}^{3}}\]. Energy 100 J is then added to the gas by heating. Its internal energy is

A)

increased by 100 J

B)

increased by 200 J

C)

decreased by 200 J

D)

increased by 400 J

View Answer
10) A gas is compressed adiabatically till its temperature is doubled. The ratio of his final volume to its initial volume will be

A)

between\[\frac{3}{2}\]and 2

B)

\[\frac{1}{2}\]

C)

more than\[\frac{1}{2}\]

D)

less than\[\frac{1}{2}\]

View Answer
11) Energy is being emitted from the surface of a black body at\[127{}^\circ C\]at the rate of \[(1.0\times {{10}^{6}})/s{{m}^{2}}\]. The temperature of a black body at which the rate of energy emission is \[(16.0\times {{10}^{6}})/s{{m}^{2}}\]will be

A)

\[727{}^\circ C\]

B)

\[527{}^\circ C\]

C)

\[508{}^\circ C\]

D)

\[254{}^\circ C\]

View Answer
12) Two plates of a parallel plate capacitor of capacity\[50\mu F\]are charged by a battery to a potential of 100 V. The battery remains connected and the plates are separated from each other so that the distance between them is doubled. The energy spent by the battery in doing so, will be

A)

\[12.5\times {{10}^{-2}}J\]

B)

\[-25\times {{10}^{-2}}J\]

C)

\[25\times {{10}^{-2}}J\]

D)

\[-12.5\times {{10}^{-1}}J\]

View Answer
13) An electron moves in a circle of radius 1.0 cm with a constant speed of\[4.0\times {{10}^{6}}m/s\], the electric current at a point on the circle will be\[(e=1.6\times {{10}^{-19}}C)\]

A)

\[1\times {{10}^{-11}}\Omega \]

B)

\[1.1\times {{10}^{-7}}\Omega \]

C)

\[5.1\times {{10}^{-7}}\Omega \]

D)

\[2.1\times {{10}^{-7}}\Omega \]

View Answer
14) A light ray is incident normally on a plane mirror. The angle of reflection will be

A)

135

B)

90

C)

45

D)

zero

View Answer
15) In an artificial satellite, a space traveller tries to fill ink in a pen by dipping it in ink. The amount of ink filled in the pen as compared to the quantity of ink filled on the earths surface will be

A)

less

B)

more

C)

same

D)

nil

View Answer
16) The earth revolves round the sun in one year. If the distance between them becomes doubles, then the new period of the revolution will be

A)

1/2 yr

B)

\[2\sqrt{2}yr\]

C)

4 yr

D)

8 yr

View Answer
17) A block of mass 2 kg is kept on the floor. The coefficient of static friction is 0.4. If a force of 2.5 N is applied on the block as shown in the figure, the frictional force between the block and the floor will be

A)

2.5 N

B)

5 N

C)

7.84 N

D)

10 N

View Answer
18) A string of length (L) and uniform cross-section is spread on a smooth plane. One of its ends is pulled by a force F. Find the tension in it at a distance I from this end

A)

\[\frac{1}{2}F\]

B)

\[\frac{L}{l}F\]

C)

\[\left( 1-\frac{l}{L} \right)F\]

D)

\[\left( 1+\frac{l}{L} \right)F\]

View Answer
19) A fighter plane is moving in a vertical circle of radius V. Its minimum velocity at the highest point A of the circle will be

A)

\[\sqrt{3gr}\]

B)

\[\sqrt{2gr}\]

C)

\[\sqrt{gr}\]

D)

\[\sqrt{gr/2}\]

View Answer
20) Pressure inside two soap bubbles are 1.01 atm and 1.03 atm. Ratio between their volumes is

A)

\[27:1\]

B)

\[3:1\]

C)

\[127:101\]

D)

None of these

View Answer
21) A stationary object at\[4{}^\circ C\]and weighing 3.5 kg falls from a height 2000 m on a snow mountain at \[0{}^\circ C\]. If the temperature of the object just before hitting the snow is \[0{}^\circ C\] and the object before comes to rest immediately\[(g=10\text{ }m/{{s}^{2}})\]and latent heat of ice \[=3.5\times {{10}^{5}}\]J/s), then the object

A)

2kg of ice

B)

200 g of ice

C)

20g ice

D)

2g ice

View Answer
22) A sphere at temperature 600 K is placed in environment of temperature 200 K, its cooling rate is H. If the temperature is reduced to 400 K, the cooloing is same environment will be

A)

\[\frac{H}{16}\]

B)

\[\left( \frac{9}{27} \right)H\]

C)

\[\left( \frac{16}{3} \right)H\]

D)

\[\left( \frac{3}{16} \right)H\]

View Answer
23) The acceleration due to gravity on the planet A is 9 times the acceleration due to gravity on the planet B. A man jumps to a height of 2m on the surface of A. What is the height of jump by the same person on the planet B?

A)

6m

B)

2/9 m

C)

2/3m

D)

18m

View Answer
24) When a long spring is stretched by 2 cm, its potential energy is U. If the spring is stretched by 10 cm, the potential energy in it will be

A)

\[2U\]

B)

\[25U\]

C)

\[U/5\]

D)

\[5U\]

View Answer
25) An observer moves towards a stationary source of sound with a speed\[1/{{5}^{th}}\]of the speed of sound. The wavelength and frequency of the source emitted are\[\lambda \]and\[f\]respectively. The apparent frequency and wavelength recorded by the observer are respectively

A)

\[f,1.2\lambda \]

B)

\[0.8f,0.8\lambda \]

C)

\[1.2f,1.2\lambda \]

D)

\[1,f2\,\lambda \]

View Answer
26) An equiconvex lens is cut into two halves a long (i) XOX and (ii) YOY as shown in the figure let \[f.f,f\]be the focal lengths of the complete lens of each half in case (i) and of each half in case (ii) respectively. Choose the correct statement from the following

A)

\[f=f.f=f\]

B)

\[f=2f,f=2f\]

C)

\[f=f,f=2f\]

D)

\[f=2f,f=f\]

View Answer
27) A diamagnetic material in a magnetic field moves

A)

perpendicular to the field

B)

from weaker to the stronger parts of the field

C)

from stronger to the weaker parts of the field

D)

in none of the above directions

View Answer
28) A coil in the shape of an equilateral triangles of side\[l\]is suspended between the pole pieces of a permanent magnet such that B is in plane of the coil. If due to a current\[i\]in the triangle, a torque\[\tau \]acts on it, the side\[l\]of the triangle is

A)

\[\frac{2}{\sqrt{3}}{{\left( \frac{\tau }{Bi} \right)}^{1/2}}\]

B)

\[\frac{2}{3}\left( \frac{\tau }{Bi} \right)\]

C)

\[{{\left( \frac{\tau }{\sqrt{3}Bi} \right)}^{1/2}}\]

D)

\[\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}\frac{\tau }{Bi}\]

View Answer
29) A certain electrical conductor has a square cross-section, 2.0 mm on a side and is 12 m long. The resistance between its ends is\[0.072\,\Omega \]. The resistivity of its material is equal to

A)

\[2.4\times {{10}^{-6}}\Omega m\]

B)

\[1.2\times {{10}^{-6}}\Omega m\]

C)

\[1.2\times {{10}^{-8}}\Omega m\]

D)

\[2.4\times {{10}^{-8}}\Omega m\]

View Answer
30) Figure shows three points A, B and C in a region of uniform electric field E. The line AB is perpendicular and BC is parallel to the field lines. Then which of the following holds good?

A)

\[{{V}_{A}}={{V}_{B}}={{V}_{C}}\]

B)

\[{{V}_{A}}={{V}_{B}}>{{V}_{C}}\]

C)

\[{{V}_{A}}={{V}_{B}}<{{V}_{C}}\]

D)

\[{{V}_{A}}>{{V}_{B}}={{V}_{C}}\]

View Answer
31) The\[(x,\text{ }y,\text{ }z)\]co-ordinates of two points A and B are given respectively as\[(0,3,-1)\]and\[(-2,6,4)\]. The displacement vector from A to B may be given by

A)

\[-2i+6j+4k\]

B)

\[-2i+3j+3k\]

C)

\[-2i+3j+5k\]

D)

\[2i-3j-5k\]

View Answer
32) In the first second of its flight, rocket ejects 1/60 of its mass with a velocity of 2400 m/s. The acceleration of the rocket is

A)

\[19.6\text{ }m/{{s}^{2}}\]

B)

\[30.2\text{ }m/{{s}^{2}}\]

C)

\[40\text{ }m/{{s}^{2}}\]

D)

\[49.8\text{ }m/{{s}^{2}}\]

View Answer
33) When temperature of an ideal gas is increased from\[27{}^\circ C\]to\[277{}^\circ C,\]its rms speed is changed rom 400 m/s to\[{{\upsilon }_{s}}\].The Vg is

A)

516m/s

B)

450 m/s

C)

310 m/s

D)

746 m/s

View Answer
34) A bar magnet of magnetic moment M is placed in the magnetic field B. The torque acting on the magnet is.

A)

\[M\times B\]

B)

\[M-B\]

C)

\[\frac{1}{2}M\times B\]

D)

\[M+B\]

View Answer
35) For the production of characteristic\[kr-x-\]ray the electron transition is

A)

\[n=4\]to \[n=1\]

B)

\[n=3\]to\[n=1\]

C)

\[n=3\]to \[n=2\]

D)

\[n=2\]to\[n=1\]

View Answer
36) The current passing through an inductor coil of 5H is decreasing at the rate of 2A/s, the emf developed across the coil is

A)

\[+10.0V\]

B)

\[-10.0V\]

C)

\[+2.5V\]

D)

\[-2.5V\]

View Answer
37) A capacitor of\[10\text{ }\mu F\]charged upto 250 V is connected in parallel with another capacitor of 5aF charged upto 100 V. The common potential is

A)

200 V

B)

300 V

C)

400 V

D)

500 V

View Answer
38) A body of mass m slides down on a rough plane inclination a. If\[\mu \]is the coefficient of friction, the acceleration of the body will be

A)

\[g(\cos \alpha -\mu \sin \alpha )\]

B)

\[g(\sin \alpha -\mu cos\alpha )\]

C)

\[\mu cos\alpha \]

D)

\[g\sin \alpha \]

View Answer
39) Half-life of radium is 1600 yr. If the initial mass is 1 kg, what is the amount of radium left after 4800 yr?

A)

Zero

B)

0.125 kg

C)

0.5 kg

D)

0.25 kg

View Answer
40) Light of wavelength K = 4000 A and intensity \[100\text{ }W/{{m}^{2}}\]is incident On a plate of threshold frequency\[5.5\times {{10}^{14}}\]Hz. Find the number of photons incident \[{{m}^{2}}\]per sec.

A)

\[{{10}^{21}}\]

B)

\[3.0\times {{10}^{19}}\]

C)

\[2.02\times {{10}^{20}}\]

D)

\[2.02\times {{10}^{21}}\]

View Answer
41) When electron is accelerated between 500 keV, what is the percentage increase in mass?

A)

82.35%

B)

97.85%

C)

42.35%

D)

59.45%

View Answer
42) A hypothetical experiment conducted to determine Youngs formula\[Y=\frac{\cos \theta {{T}^{x}}.\tau }{{{l}^{3}}}\]. If Y = Youngs modulus, T = time period, t = Torque and\[l=\]length, then find the value of \[x\].

A)

zero

B)

1

C)

2

D)

3

View Answer
43) The speed of sound in hydrogen at NTP is 1270 m/s. Then, the speed in a mixture of hydrogen and oxygen in the ratio 4:1 by volume will be

A)

317 m/s

B)

635 m/s

C)

830 m/s

D)

950 m/s

View Answer
44) The displacement of a particle executing periodic motion is given by \[y=4{{\cos }^{2}}\left( \frac{t}{2} \right)\sin 1000\,\omega t.\] This expression may be considered to be a result of superposition of

A)

two waves

B)

three waves

C)

four waves

D)

five waves

View Answer
45) Assuming that about 20 MeV of energy is released per fusion reaction, \[_{1}{{H}^{2}}{{+}_{1}}{{H}^{3}}{{\xrightarrow[{}]{{}}}_{0}}{{n}^{1}}{{+}_{2}}H{{e}^{4}}\] then the mass of\[_{1}{{H}^{1}}\]consumed per day in a fusion reactor of power 1 MW will approximately be

A)

0.001 g

B)

0.1 g

C)

10.0g

D)

100g

View Answer
46) The work function of a substance is 4.0 eV. The longest wavelength of light that can cause photoelectron emission from this substance is approximately

A)

540nm

B)

400 nm

C)

310nm

D)

220 nm

View Answer
47) When light wave suffers reflection at the interference between air and glass, the change of phase of reflected wave is equal to

A)

zero

B)

\[n/2\]

C)

\[n\]

D)

\[2n\]

View Answer
48) A convex lens of focal length 1.0 m and a concave lens of focal length 0.25 m are 0.75 m apart. A parallel beam of light is incident in the convex lens. The beam emerging after refraction from both lenses is

A)

parallel to principal axis

B)

convergence

C)

divergence

D)

None of these

View Answer
49) Two instruments having stretched strikes are being played in unison. When the tension in one of the instrument is increased by 1%, 3 beats, are produced in 2s. The initial frequency of vibration of each wire is

A)

600 Hz

B)

300 Hz

C)

200 Hz

D)

150 Hz

View Answer
50) Find the inductance L of a solenoid of length\[l\] whose windings are made of material of density D and resistivity\[\rho \]. The winding resistance is R

A)

\[\frac{{{\mu }_{0}}}{4\pi l}.\frac{{{R}_{m}}}{\rho D}\]

B)

\[\frac{{{\mu }_{0}}}{4\pi R}.\frac{{{l}_{m}}}{\rho D}\]

C)

\[\frac{{{\mu }_{0}}}{4\pi l}.\frac{{{R}^{2}}m}{\rho D}\]

D)

\[\frac{{{\mu }_{0}}}{2\pi R}.\frac{{{l}_{m}}}{\rho D}\]

View Answer
51) A long straight wire carrying a current of 30 A is placed in an external uniform magnetic field. of induction\[4\times {{10}^{-4}}\]T. The magnetic field is acting parallel to the direction of current. The magnitude of the resultant magnetic induction in tesia at a point 2.0 cm away from the wire is \[({{\mu }_{0}}=4\pi \times {{10}^{-7}}H/m)\]

A)

\[{{10}^{-4}}\]

B)

\[3\times {{10}^{-4}}\]

C)

\[5\times {{10}^{-4}}\]

D)

\[6\times {{10}^{-4}}\]

View Answer
52) A block of mass 10 kg is moving in\[x-\]direction with a constant speed of 10 m/s. It is subjected to a retarding force\[F=-0.1\text{ }x\text{ }J/m\]during its travel from\[x=20m\]to\[x=30m\]. Its final kinetic energy will be

A)

475 J

B)

450 J

C)

275 J

D)

250 J

View Answer
53) What is the effect of increasing the intensity of light that falls on the emitter in a photoelectric effect apparatus?

A)

Cut-off frequency decrease

B)

Stopping potential decrease

C)

Time delay for emission of photoetectron decrease

D)

Saturation photocurrent increases

View Answer
54) A body falls from rest. In the last second of its fall it covers half of the total distance. If g is \[9.8\text{ }m/{{s}^{2}},\]then the total time of its falls is (in second)

A)

2

B)

\[2+\sqrt{2}\]

C)

\[4-\sqrt{2}\]

D)

3

View Answer
55) If\[|A\times B|=\sqrt{3}A.B,\]then the value of\[|A+B|\]is

A)

\[{{({{A}^{2}}+{{B}^{2}}+AB)}^{1/2}}\]

B)

\[{{\left( {{A}^{2}}+{{B}^{2}}+\frac{AB}{\sqrt{3}} \right)}^{1/2}}\]

C)

\[A+B\]

D)

\[{{({{A}^{2}}+{{B}^{2}}+\sqrt{3}AB)}^{1/2}}\]

View Answer
56) The distance between the two successive nodes is

A)

\[\frac{\lambda }{4}\]

B)

\[\frac{\lambda }{2}\]

C)

\[\lambda \]

D)

\[2\lambda \]

View Answer
57) Dopplers effect in sound takes place when source and observer are

A)

stationary

B)

moving with same velocity

C)

in relative motion

D)

None of the above

View Answer
58) The current and voltage in AC circuit are given by \[I=5\sin \left( 100t-\frac{\pi }{2} \right)A\]and \[V=200\sin (100t)\]volt. The power dissipated in the circuit will be

A)

20 W

B)

40 W

C)

1000 W

D)

zero

View Answer
59) Copper has facecentered cubic (fee) lattice with interatomic spacing equal to\[2.54\text{ }\overset{o}{\mathop{\text{A}}}\,\], the value of lattice constant for this lattice is

A)

\[1.27\overset{o}{\mathop{\text{A}}}\,\]

B)

\[5.08\overset{o}{\mathop{\text{A}}}\,\]

C)

\[2.54\overset{o}{\mathop{\text{A}}}\,\]

D)

\[3.57\overset{o}{\mathop{\text{A}}}\,\]

View Answer
60) The wavelength of a radiowave of frequency 1 MHz is

A)

400 m

B)

300 m

C)

350 m

D)

200 m

View Answer
61) Which of the following compounds can exist in enantiomeric (i.e., D and L) forms?

A)

3-methyl butanoic acid

B)

cis-2-butene

C)

isopropyi amine

D)

1-methyl butanamine

View Answer
62) Among the following molecules or ions, which has the longest\[C-N\]bond?

A)

\[{{H}_{2}}CNC{{H}_{3}}\]

B)

\[{{H}_{3}}CCN\]

C)

\[{{({{H}_{3}}C)}_{4}}{{N}^{+}}\]

D)

\[{{({{H}_{2}}C)}_{2}}{{N}^{+}}\]

View Answer
63) Which statement best explains why A is more acidic than B?

A)

The larger size of ketone group helps to stabilize the conjugate base

B)

The ketone group exert a large inductive effect in conjugate base of A

C)

The ketone group allows for resonance delocalisation of the charge in conjugate base

D)

The OH oxygen in A is more electronegative than the OH oxygen in B

View Answer
64) Choose the reagent to carry out the reaction. \[C{{H}_{3}}C\equiv CC{{H}_{3}}\xrightarrow[{}]{{}}\underset{cis\text{ }form}{\mathop{C{{H}_{3}}CH=CHC{{H}_{3}}}}\,\]

A)

\[{{H}_{2}}+\]Lindlar reagent

B)

\[Li+N{{H}_{3}}\]

C)

\[Conc.\,{{H}_{2}}S{{O}_{4}}\]

D)

\[{{H}_{2}}O+{{H}^{+}}\]

View Answer
65) Which of the following would not form upon electrolysis of aqueous solution of potassium propanoate?

A)

Butane

B)

Ethyl ethanoate

C)

Ethyl propanoate

D)

Ethene

View Answer
66) \[Ca{{(HC{{O}_{3}})}_{2}}(s)\]decomposes as \[Ca{{(HC{{O}_{3}})}_{2}}(s)\xrightarrow[{}]{{}}CaC{{O}_{3}}(s)+{{H}_{2}}O(g)\] \[+C{{O}_{2}}(g)\]Total pressure at equilibrium is found to be 0.12 bar. Thus,\[{{K}_{p}}\]is

A)

0.24

B)

0.06

C)

0.0036

D)

0.0144

View Answer
67) Super cooled water is liquid water that has been cooled below its normal freezing point.This state is thermodynamically

A)

unstable and tends to freeze into ice spontaneously

B)

stable and tends to freeze into ice spontaneously

C)

stable and tends to fuse into liquid spontaneously

D)

unstable and tends to fuse into liquid spontaneously

View Answer

68) For the reactions,

I. \[C{{H}_{4}}(g)\xrightarrow[{}]{{}}C(g)+4H(g);\] \[\Delta H={{x}_{1}}\]

II. \[{{C}_{2}}{{H}_{6}}(g)\xrightarrow[{}]{{}}2C(g)+6H(g);\] \[\Delta H={{x}_{2}}\] from I and II, bond energy of\[C-C\]bond is

\[{{x}_{1}}-{{x}_{2}}\]

\[{{x}_{2}}-{{x}_{1}}\]

\[{{x}_{2}}+1.5{{x}_{1}}\]

\[{{x}_{2}}-1.5{{x}_{1}}\]

View Answer

69) The heat of formation of\[C{{O}_{2}}\]is\[-95\text{ }kcal\]. The amount of carbon which on burning will evolve 1000 kcal is

A)

12.63 g

B)

17.95 g

C)

126.3 g

D)

179.5 g

View Answer
70) % ionisatipn of a weak acid is 1% at 1M, hence % ionisation at 4M will be

A)

0.2%

B)

0.5%

C)

4%

D)

5%

View Answer
71) Aspirin is a pain reliever with\[p{{K}_{a}}=2\]. Two tablets each containing 0.09 g of aspirin are dissolved in 100 mL solution. pH will be

A)

0.5

B)

1.0

C)

0.8

D)

2.0

View Answer
72) When the following five anions are arranged in order of decreasing ionic radius, the correct sequence is

A)

\[S{{e}^{2-}},{{I}^{-}},B{{r}^{-}},{{O}^{2-}},{{F}^{-}}\]

B)

\[{{I}^{-}},S{{e}^{2-}},B{{r}^{-}},{{O}^{2-}},{{F}^{-}}\]

C)

\[{{I}^{-}},S{{e}^{2-}},{{O}^{2-}},B{{r}^{-}},{{F}^{-}}\]

D)

\[S{{e}^{2-}},{{I}^{-}},B{{r}^{-}},{{F}^{-}},{{O}^{2-}}\]

View Answer
73) Which one of the following statement is incorrect?

A)

\[T{{i}^{3+}}\]salts are better oxidising agents

B)

\[G{{a}^{+}}\]salts are better reducing agents

C)

\[P{{b}^{4+}}\]salts are better oxidising agents

D)

\[A{{s}^{5+}}\]salts are better oxidising agents

View Answer
74) Hydrogen is produced by the reaction

A)

\[N{{a}_{2}}{{O}_{2}}+2HCl\]

B)

\[Mg+{{H}_{2}}O\]

C)

\[Ba{{O}_{2}}+HCl\]

D)

\[{{H}_{2}}{{S}_{4}}{{O}_{8}}+{{H}_{2}}O\]

View Answer
75) There is loss in weight when mixture of\[L{{i}_{2}}C{{O}_{3}}\]and\[N{{a}_{2}}C{{O}_{3}}.10{{H}_{2}}O\]is heated strongly. This loss is due to

A)

\[L{{i}_{2}}C{{O}_{3}}\]

B)

\[N{{a}_{2}}C{{O}_{3}}.10{{H}_{2}}O\]

C)

Both [a] and [b]

D)

None of these

View Answer
76) The absorption of UV radiation by\[{{O}_{3}}\]

A)

protects the inhabitants of our planet from injurious radiation

B)

maintains an equilibrium between the concentrations of\[{{O}_{2}}\]and\[{{O}_{3}}\]

C)

makes both the function effective

D)

makes no function effective

View Answer
77) Pyrolusite in\[Mn{{O}_{2}}\]is used to prepare\[KMn{{O}_{4}}\]. Steps are \[Mn{{O}_{2}}\xrightarrow[{}]{I}MnO_{4}^{2-}\xrightarrow[{}]{II}MnO_{4}^{-}\] I and II are

A)

fuse with KOH/air, electrolytic oxidation

B)

fuse with KOH/air, electrolytic reduction

C)

fuse with cone HN03/air, electrolytic reduction

D)

All of the above

View Answer
78) The ability of d-block elements to form complexes is due to

A)

small and highly charged ions

B)

vacant low energy orbitals to accept lone pair of electrons from ligands

C)

Both [a] and [b]

D)

None of the above

View Answer
79) Which one of the following species has maximum conductance in their aqueous solutions?

A)

\[{{K}_{2}}PtC{{l}_{6}}\]

B)

\[PtC{{l}_{4}}.2N{{H}_{3}}\]

C)

\[PtC{{l}_{4}}.3N{{H}_{3}}\]

D)

\[PtC{{l}_{4}}.5N{{H}_{3}}\]

View Answer
80) The coordination of Pt in the complex ion \[{{[Pt{{(en)}_{2}}C{{l}_{2}}]}^{2+}}\]is

A)

3

B)

4

C)

5

D)

6

View Answer
81) The ratio between the root mean square velocity of\[{{H}_{2}}\]at 50K and that of\[{{O}_{2}}\]at 800 K is

A)

0.25

B)

1

C)

2

D)

4

View Answer

82) Consider the following statements

I. Repulsive forces are significant when the molecules are close together on average.

II. Attractive intermolecular forces are important when the molecules are fairly close together but not necessarily touching.

III. Attractive forces are ineffective when the molecules are for apart.

Select correct statements.

I, II and III

I and III

II and III

I and II

View Answer

83) Energy equivalent to\[10.00\text{ }c{{m}^{-1}}\]is

A)

\[2.0\times {{10}^{-22}}J\] peratom

B)

\[28.6\times {{10}^{-3}}kcal\text{ }mo{{l}^{-1}}\]photon

C)

\[12.0\times {{10}^{-2}}kJ\text{ }mo{{l}^{-1}}\]photon

D)

All of the above

View Answer
84) The radius of hydrogen atom in the ground state is\[0.53\overset{o}{\mathop{\text{A}}}\,\]. The radius of\[L{{i}^{2+}}\]ion (atomic number = 3) in a similar state is

A)

\[0.17\overset{o}{\mathop{\text{A}}}\,\]

B)

\[0.265\overset{o}{\mathop{\text{A}}}\,\]

C)

\[0.53\overset{o}{\mathop{\text{A}}}\,\]

D)

\[1.06\overset{o}{\mathop{\text{A}}}\,\]

View Answer
85) How many mL of\[0.125\text{ }M\text{ }C{{r}^{3+}}\]must be reacted with 12.0 mL of\[0.200\text{ }M\text{ }MnO_{4}^{-}\] if the redox products are\[C{{r}_{2}}O_{7}^{2-}\]and\[M{{n}^{2+}}\]?

A)

32 mL

B)

24 mL

C)

16 mL

D)

8 mL

View Answer
86) \[10\,g\]of hydrogen and 64 g of oxygen were filled in a steel vessel and exploded. Amount of water produced in this reaction will be

A)

3 mol

B)

4 mol

C)

1 mol

D)

2 mol

View Answer
87) A group of 13 element if added in small amounts to Ge, then the type of semiconductor formed is

A)

n-type semiconductor

B)

p-type semiconductor

C)

super semiconductor

D)

Both [a] and [b]

View Answer
88) The density of solid argon is 1.65 g per cc at\[-233{}^\circ C\]. If the argon atom is assumed to be a sphere of radius\[1.54\times {{10}^{-8}}cm,\]the percentage of empty space in solid argon is

A)

32%

B)

54%

C)

68%

D)

62%

View Answer
89) What is not true regarding free radical polymerisation of propene?

A)

Without proper control, atactic polypropylene is formed

B)

Use of Ziegler-Natta catalyst results in isotactic polypropylene

C)

During polymerisation, a linear unbranched. crystalline polymer is usually obtained

D)

During polymerisation, a secondary free radical Is produced in every step

View Answer
90) The incorrect statement regarding cellulose is

A)

it is a polymer of D-glucose

B)

it has\[\beta -1,\]4-glycosidic linkage

C)

it is used for making rayon fibre

D)

it can be obtained by polymerisation of D-glucose

View Answer
91) A glycoside is the carbohydrate form of an

A)

ether

B)

acetal

C)

aglycone

D)

alcohol

View Answer
92) When a carbohydrate reacts with\[NaB{{H}_{4}},\]the product is an

A)

alditol

B)

aldaric acid

C)

aldonic acid

D)

aglycone

View Answer
93) In the figure below, the plane drawn behind the peptide bond indicates the

A)

absence of rotation around\[C-N\]bond because of its partial double bond character

B)

plane of rotation around the\[C-N\]bond

C)

region of steric hindrance determined by the large\[C=O\]group

D)

None of the above

View Answer
94) Which statement about aspirin is not true?

A)

Aspirin belongs to narcotic analgesics

B)

It is effective in relieving pain

C)

It has antiblood clotting action

D)

It is a neurologically active drug

View Answer
95) The correct decreasing order of basic strength of the following species is

A)

\[O{{H}^{-}}>NH_{2}^{-}>{{H}_{2}}O>N{{H}_{3}}\]

B)

\[NH_{2}^{-}>O{{H}^{-}}>N{{H}_{3}}>{{H}_{2}}O\]

C)

\[N{{H}_{3}}>{{H}_{2}}O>NH_{2}^{-}>O{{H}^{-}}\]

D)

\[{{H}_{2}}O>N{{H}_{3}}>O{{H}^{-}}>NH_{2}^{-}\]

View Answer
96) \[C{{H}_{3}}CHO\xrightarrow[{}]{dil.\,NaOH}A\xrightarrow[{}]{\Delta ,\,dehydration}B\] \[\xrightarrow[{}]{Ni/{{H}_{2}}}C\xrightarrow[{}]{Ni/{{H}_{2}}}D\] In the above sequence of reactions, compound D is

A)

\[C{{H}_{3}}C{{H}_{2}}C{{H}_{2}}C{{H}_{2}}OH\]

B)

\[C{{H}_{3}}C{{H}_{2}}C{{H}_{2}}CHO\]

C)

\[C{{H}_{3}}C{{H}_{2}}C{{H}_{2}}\overset{\begin{smallmatrix} OH \\ | \end{smallmatrix}}{\mathop{CH}}\,-C{{H}_{3}}\]

D)

\[C{{H}_{3}}\overset{\begin{smallmatrix} C{{H}_{3}} \\ | \end{smallmatrix}}{\mathop{CH}}\,CHO\]

View Answer
97) Which one of the following test is used to distinguish between benzoic acid and ethyl benzoate?

A)

\[NaHC{{O}_{3}}\]test

B)

lodoform test

C)

\[FeC{{l}_{3}}\]test

D)

Both [a] and [b]

View Answer
98) Arrange the following compounds in increasing order of rate of reaction towards nucleophilic shbstitution.

A)

\[I<II<III\]

B)

\[II<I<III\]

C)

\[III<II<I\]

D)

\[I<III<II\]

View Answer
99) Which one of the following reagents can not be used to oxidise primary alcohols to aldehydes?

A)

\[Cr{{O}_{3}}\]in anhydrous medium

B)

\[KMn{{O}_{4}}\]in acidic medium

C)

Pyridinium chlorochromate

D)

Heat in presence of Cu at 573K

View Answer
100) Which of the following reactions will not yield phenol?

A)

B)

C)

D)

View Answer
101) In qualitative analysis, when\[{{H}_{2}}S\]is passed through an aqueous solution of salt acidified with dil.\[HCl,\]a black precipitate is obtained. On boiling the precipitate with dil\[HN{{O}_{3}},\]it forms a solution of blue colour. Addition of excess of aqueous solution of ammonia to this solution gives

A)

deep blue precipitate of\[Cu{{(OH)}_{2}}\]

B)

deep blue solution of \[{{[Cu{{(N{{H}_{3}})}_{4}}]}^{2+}}\]

C)

deep blue solution of \[Cu{{(N{{O}_{3}})}_{2}}\]

D)

deep blue solution of \[Cu{{(OH)}_{2}}.Cu{{(N{{O}_{3}})}_{2}}\]

View Answer
102) Which of the following acids forms three series of salts?

A)

\[{{H}_{3}}P{{O}_{2}}\]

B)

\[{{H}_{3}}B{{O}_{3}}\]

C)

\[{{H}_{3}}P{{O}_{4}}\]

D)

\[{{H}_{3}}P{{O}_{3}}\]

View Answer
103) Which one of the following statements is incorrect?

A)

All halogens have weaker\[X-X\]bond than \[X-X\]bond in interhalogens (except\[F-F\]bond in fluorine)

B)

Radius ratio between iodine and fluorine (among halogens) is maximum

C)

Interhalogen compounds are more reactive than halogen compounds

D)

Among interhalogen compounds, maximum number of atoms are present in iodine fluoride

View Answer
104) Stability of lyophilic colloids is due to

A)

same charge on all the colloidal particles

B)

solvation of the colloidal particles

C)

the fact that they are organic substances

D)

Both [a] and [b]

View Answer
105) Hardening of leather in tanning industry is based on

A)

electrophoresis

B)

electro-osmosis

C)

mutual coagulation

D)

persistent dialysis

View Answer
106) Oxidation states of the metal in the minerals haematite and magnetite, respectively are

A)

III in haematite and II and III in magnetite

B)

II and III in haematite and II in magnetite

C)

II and III in haematite and III in magnetite

D)

II in haematite and III in magnetite

View Answer
107) Bauxite ore is treated with cone.\[NaOH\] solution at 500 K and 35 bar pressure for few hours and filtered hot. In the fittrate, the species present are,

A)

\[NaAl{{(OH)}_{4}}\]and\[N{{a}_{2}}Si{{O}_{3}}\]

B)

\[NaAl{{(OH)}_{4}}\]only

C)

\[N{{a}_{2}}Si{{O}_{3}}\]and\[N{{a}_{2}}Ti{{(OH)}_{6}}\]

D)

\[N{{a}_{2}}Si{{O}_{3}}\]only

View Answer
108) The unit of rate constant for zero order reaction is

A)

\[{{s}^{-1}}\]

B)

\[mol\,{{L}^{-1}}{{s}^{-1}}\]

C)

\[L\,mo{{l}^{-1}}{{s}^{-1}}\]

D)

\[{{L}^{2}}\,mo{{l}^{-2}}{{s}^{-1}}\]

View Answer
109) Collision theory is applicable to

A)

first order reactions

B)

zero order reactions

C)

bimolecular reactions

D)

intramolecular reactions

View Answer
110) The rate constant for an isomerization reaction,\[A\xrightarrow[{}]{{}}B\]is\[4.5\times {{10}^{-3}}mi{{n}^{-1}}\]. If the initial concentration of A is 1M, calculate the rate of reaction after 1 h.

A)

\[3.44\times {{10}^{-3}}mol\,{{L}^{-1}}{{\min }^{-1}}\]

B)

\[3.44\times {{10}^{3}}mol\,{{L}^{-1}}{{\min }^{-1}}\]

C)

\[1.86\times {{10}^{-3}}mol\,{{L}^{-1}}{{\min }^{-1}}\]

D)

\[1.86\times {{10}^{3}}mol\,{{L}^{-1}}{{\min }^{-1}}\]

View Answer
111) When 1 mole of\[N{{a}_{2}}C{{O}_{3}}\]is heated,\[C{{O}_{2}}\]lost is

A)

zero mole

B)

one mole

C)

twomoes

D)

four moles

View Answer
112) Which one of the following is paramagnetic?

A)

\[{{N}_{2}}\]

B)

\[NO\]

C)

\[CO\]

D)

\[{{O}_{3}}\]

View Answer
113) In\[TeC{{l}_{4}},\]the central atom tellurium involves

A)

\[s{{p}^{3}}\]hybridisation

B)

\[s{{p}^{3}}d\]hybridization

C)

\[ds{{p}^{2}}\]hybridisation

D)

\[s{{p}^{3}}{{d}^{2}}\]hybridization

View Answer
114) Which of the following salts of silver is insoluble in water?

A)

\[AgCl{{O}_{4}}\]

B)

\[A{{g}_{2}}S{{O}_{4}}\]

C)

\[AgF\]

D)

\[AgN{{O}_{3}}\]

View Answer
115) 25.6 g of sulphur in 100 g benzene shows depression in freezing point of\[5.12{}^\circ \]. Ks for benzene is\[5.12{}^\circ kg\text{ }mo{{l}^{-1}}\]. Molecular formula of sulphur in benzene is

A)

\[{{S}_{2}}\]

B)

\[{{S}_{6}}\]

C)

\[{{S}_{8}}\]

D)

\[{{S}_{12}}\]

View Answer
116) \[\Delta {{T}_{f}}/{{K}_{f}}\] is expressed in the unit of

A)

degree

B)

degree \[mo{{l}^{-1}}kg\]

C)

degree \[mol\text{ }k{{g}^{-1}}\]

D)

\[mol\text{ }k{{g}^{-1}}\]

View Answer
117) Two liquids X and Y form an ideal solution at 300K, vapour pressure of the solution containing 1 mole of X and 3 moles of Y is 550 mm Hg. At the same temperature, if 1 mole of V is further added to this solution, vapour pressure of the solution increases by 10 mm Hg. Vapour pressure (in mm Hg) of X and V in their pure states will be respectively

A)

200 and 300

B)

300 and 400

C)

400 and 600

D)

500 and 600

View Answer
118) For the following half cell reactions,\[E{}^\circ \]values are also given \[M{{n}^{2+}}+2{{H}_{2}}O\xrightarrow[{}]{{}}Mn{{O}_{2}}+4{{H}^{+}}+2{{e}^{-}};\] \[E{}^\circ =-1.23V\] \[MnO_{4}^{-}+4{{H}^{+}}+3{{e}^{-}}\xrightarrow[{}]{{}}Mn{{O}_{2}}+2{{H}_{2}}O;\] \[E{}^\circ =+1.70V\] Select correct statements

A)

\[M{{n}^{2+}}\]reacts with\[MnO_{4}^{-}\]in acid solution to form\[Mn{{O}_{2}}\]

B)

\[Mn{{(Mn{{O}_{4}})}_{2}}\]is stable in acid solution

C)

\[Mn{{O}_{2}}\]disproporttbnates to\[M{{n}^{2+}}\]and \[MnO_{4}^{-}\] in acid solution

D)

None of the above

View Answer
119) For the fuel cell reaction, \[2{{H}_{2}}+{{O}_{2}}\xrightarrow[{}]{{}}2{{H}_{2}}O\] \[\Delta G=-475\,kJ,\] Hence,\[E_{cell}^{o}\]is

A)

1.23 V

B)

2.46 V

C)

0.615 V

D)

0.31 V

View Answer
120) 1 mole each of\[AgN{{O}_{3}},CuS{{O}_{4}}\]and\[AlC{{l}_{3}}\]is electrolysed. Number offaradays required are in the ratio of

A)

\[1:1:1\]

B)

\[1:2:3\]

C)

\[3:2:1\]

D)

\[1:3:1\]

View Answer
121) Which term does not apply to human heart?

A)

Pacemaker

B)

Four chambered

C)

Mitral value

D)

Neurogenic

View Answer
122) Specific redioactive identification of ribosomal RNA can be achieved by using\[^{14}C\]labelled

A)

guanine

B)

uracil

C)

thyonine

D)

cytosine

View Answer
123) How many mitotic divisions must occur in a cell of root tip to form 256 cells.

A)

256

B)

8

C)

128

D)

64

View Answer
124) An operon unit consist of

A)

regulator, operator and recessive gene

B)

regulator, structural and operator gene

C)

regulator, structural, operator and promoter gene

D)

regulator, structural and promoter gene

View Answer
125) Site of formation of ribosomal precursor or ribosomal sub-units in a cell

A)

nucleus

B)

nucleolus

C)

nucleus body

D)

stroma

View Answer
126) Alzheimers disease affects

A)

child

B)

youth (adolescence)

C)

adult

D)

old (elderly)

View Answer
127) Lack of independent assortment of two genes A and B in fruit fly Dorsophila is due to

A)

linkage

B)

repulsion

C)

crossing over

D)

recombination

View Answer
128) Which one pair/ set exhibit uricotelism?

A)

Bird, land reptiles and insect

B)

Fish, birds and amphibians

C)

Mammals, birds, and reptiles

D)

Amphibians, mammal and reptiles

View Answer
129) Karyotaxonomy is the modern branch of classification which is bassed on

A)

number of chromosomes

B)

bands found on chromosomes

C)

organic evolution

D)

trinomial nomenclature

View Answer
130) Periodic appearence of malaria symptoms occurs due to periodic

A)

entry of merozoites into erythrocytes

B)

attack of liver cells by merozoites

C)

formation of signet ring

D)

release of pyrogen in blood

View Answer
131) Which antibiotic act on the cell wall of bacteria?

A)

p-lactum group

B)

Tetracycline

C)

Neomycine

D)

Streptomycin

View Answer
132) The group amniota includes

A)

birds and reptiles

B)

birds and mammals

C)

reptiles and mammals

D)

reptiles, birds and mammals

View Answer
133) Edible part of tomato is

A)

epicarp

B)

pericarp and plecenta

C)

mesocarp

D)

thalamus

View Answer
134) Interfascicular cambium is

A)

apical meristem

B)

secondary meristem

C)

primary meristem

D)

abnormal meristem

View Answer
135) The first event in photosynthesis is

A)

synthesis of ATP

B)

photoexcitation of chlorophyll and ejection of electron

C)

photolysis of water

D)

release of oxygen

View Answer
136) In water logged soil, plants generally are killed because of

A)

deficiency of minerals

B)

excessive absorption of water

C)

absense of air in the soil

D)

starvation

View Answer
137) R.Q. for glucose (carbohydrates) is

A)

1

B)

0.5

C)

2

D)

0.05

View Answer
138) Number of bones of face is

A)

12

B)

30

C)

40

D)

14

View Answer
139) Reason of diversity in living being is

A)

mutation

B)

long term evolution

C)

gradual changes

D)

short term evolutionary changes

View Answer
140) Constituent of gasonal is

A)

90% petrol of + 10% alcohol

B)

80% petrol of + 20% etnanol

C)

60% petrol of + 40% etnanol

D)

50% petrol of + 50% etnanol

View Answer
141) The type of joint at atlanto axiial joint

A)

pivot joint

B)

glinding joint

C)

saddle joint

D)

hinge joint

View Answer
142) Pure fractions of cellular component can be isolated by

A)

chromatography

B)

scanning electron microscopy

C)

X-ray

D)

differential configuration

View Answer
143) Lymph (nodes) glands form

A)

hormones

B)

lymphs

C)

antigen

D)

antibodies

View Answer
144) Who has written the book Genera Plantarum?

A)

Hutchinson

B)

Engler and Prantal

C)

Eichler

D)

Bentham and Hooker

View Answer
145) Choanocytes are found in

A)

Sycon

B)

Proterospongia

C)

Both [a] and [b]

D)

None of these

View Answer
146) Albinism is an

A)

autosomal recessive

B)

autosomal dominant

C)

X-linked disease

D)

None of these

View Answer
147) According to Wilhelm Stern IQ (Intelligence Quotient) is

A)

\[IQ=\frac{Mental\text{ }age}{Actual\text{ }age}\times 100\]

B)

\[IQ=\frac{Actual\text{ }age}{Mental\text{ }age}\times 100\]

C)

\[IQ=\frac{100}{Actual\text{ }age\times Mental\text{ }age}\]

D)

\[IQ=\frac{Actual\text{ }age\times Mental\text{ }age}{100}\]

View Answer
148) A thin film of water, held by the soil particles under the influence of internal attractive force is called which of the following water

A)

capillary

B)

combined

C)

hygroscopic

D)

gravitational

View Answer
149) Number of meiotic divisions necessary to produce 100 seeds in cyperus is

A)

100

B)

200

C)

300

D)

100

View Answer
150) In blood carboxyhaemoglobin forms by

A)

inhalation of\[CO\]

B)

inhalation of \[C{{O}_{2}}\]

C)

inhalation of \[S{{O}_{2}}\]

D)

inhalation of ozone

View Answer
151) In which of the following groups would you place a plant which produces spores and embryos but lack seeds and vascular tissues?

A)

Fungi

B)

Bryophytes

C)

Pteridophytes

D)

Gymnosperm

View Answer
152) In a colony of honey bee, male drones are onginated by

A)

diptoid parthenogenesis

B)

cyclic parthenogenesis

C)

arrhenotoky

D)

thelotoky

View Answer
153) If the ovary is inferior, the outermost layer of fruit produced by this ovary will be formed by

A)

epicarp

B)

mesocarp

C)

pericarp

D)

thalamus

View Answer
154) ATP synthesis occurs on the

A)

outer membrane of mitochondria

B)

inner membrane of mitochondria

C)

matrix

D)

None of the above

View Answer
155) Repressible enzyme are formed

A)

in the absence of corepressor

B)

in the presence of corepressor

C)

in the pressence of apressor

D)

All of the above

View Answer
156) A mature ligul having a prominent basal protion is called

A)

trrichocyst

B)

heterocyst

C)

rhizophore

D)

glossopodium

View Answer
157) Number of criteria used as classifying organisms in five-kingdom classification is

A)

5

B)

4

C)

3

D)

1

View Answer
158) Slit roots are reported from

A)

pandanus

B)

radish

C)

mango ginger

D)

Bryophy/fum

View Answer
159) Astela comprises consists

A)

xylem, phloem and pith

B)

endodermis, xylemand phloem

C)

vascular tissue, pericycle and pith

D)

vascular tissue, endodermis and pith

View Answer
160) Which of the following is also called as root ripe?

A)

Umbiicaria escufenta

B)

Cetraria islandica

C)

Cladonia rangiferina

D)

Rocello

View Answer
161) Protein infectious particles better known as Trions are also called as

A)

incomplete virus

B)

slow virus

C)

gemini viruses

D)

satellite virus

View Answer
162) Agar-Agar is obtained from

A)

Gigartina

B)

Gefidium

C)

Gracillaria

D)

All of these

View Answer
163) Life cycle of Funaria is not completed without water. Choose the correct statement.

A)

As Funaria is a bryophyte plant

B)

As branches will not develop

C)

As fertilization takes place in presence of water only

D)

As plant is delicate and will become dry and die without water

View Answer
164) Which of the following is the pribnow box?

A)

\[5\,TATAAT\,3\]

B)

\[5\,TAATTA\,3\]

C)

\[5AATAAT\,3\]

D)

\[5ATATTA\,3\]

View Answer
165) In human beings, lungs are divided into

A)

3. right and 2 left lobes

B)

2 right and 3 left lobes

C)

2 right and 2 left lobes

D)

None of these

View Answer
166) Extranuclear chromosomes are found in

A)

peroxysomes and mitochondria

B)

chloroplast and mitochondria

C)

mitochondria and ribosomes

D)

chloroplast and ribosome

View Answer
167) Contractile vacuole of Amoeba

A)

burst

B)

disappear

C)

enlarge

D)

multiply

View Answer
168) A genetically engineered microbe utilised for cleaning oil spiel is

A)

Bacillus subtilis

B)

Escherichia coil

C)

Pseudomonas putida

D)

Agrobacterium tumefaciens

View Answer
169) Enzyme hyaluronidase is synthesised in

A)

tail of sperm

B)

head of sperm

C)

golgi body of acrosome

D)

mitochondria of acrosome

View Answer
170) Which one is not a correct match?

A)

Hirudinea       -     Hirudo

B)

Oligochaeta   -     Pheretima

C)

Nematoda     -    Ascans

D)

Pofychaeta     -    Lumbncus

View Answer
171) Which of the following is the most primitive ancestor of man?

A)

Ramapithecus

B)

Homohabilis

C)

Australopithecus

D)

Homo sapiens neanderthalencis

View Answer
172) The only mammal, other than man which suffer from leprosy

A)

Dasypus

B)

Desmodus

C)

Rhinolopus

D)

Mus

View Answer
173) Protein is used as respiratory substrate only when

A)

carbohydrates are absent

B)

fats are absent

C)

both exhausted

D)

fats and carbohydrates are abundant

View Answer
174) An example of vestigial organ is

A)

ear of cow

B)

hair of bear

C)

nail of monkey

D)

nictitating membrane of man

View Answer
175) Sexual reproduction in which cells of two different Spirogyra filamants conjugate is known as

A)

lateral conjugation

B)

scalariform conjugation

C)

parthenocarpy

D)

azygospory

View Answer
176) The condition under which transpiration would be most rapid

A)

high humidity

B)

excess of water in soil

C)

low humidity, high temperature, guard cells are turgid (open) and moist soil

D)

low velocity of wind

View Answer
177) A rootless aquatic in which a portion of leaf is modified to from a bladder for catching small aquatic animal is

A)

Dionaea

B)

Drosera

C)

Utricularia

D)

Nepenthese

View Answer
178) Electron from excited chlorophyll molecule of photosystem. II are accepted first by

A)

ferredoxin

B)

cytochrome-o

C)

cytochrome-f

D)

quinone

View Answer
179) Sponges have evolved from

A)

ciliates

B)

flagellates

C)

protozoans

D)

choanoflagellates

View Answer
180) Sella turcica is a

A)

covering of kidney

B)

covering of testis

C)

depression in brain

D)

depression is skull which lodges the pituitary body

View Answer
181) Majority of the orchids are

A)

epizois

B)

epiphytes

C)

saprophytes

D)

parasites

View Answer
182) Intra Ovarian Fertilisation (IOF) means fertilisation

A)

outside ovule

B)

outside embryo sac

C)

by putting pollens directly into ovary-wall

D)

between male gamete and synergids

View Answer
183) Which of the following carries gases as well as unused products in the human body?

A)

Blood

B)

Lymph

C)

Blood and lymph

D)

Haemocynin

View Answer
184) The great barrier reef along the eastern coastal region of Australia can be categorised as

A)

ecosystem

B)

biome

C)

community

D)

population

View Answer
185) The complementary synthetic and random DNA are used as

A)

transposons

B)

passenger DNA

C)

cloning vectors

D)

recombinant DNA

View Answer
186) Mosses are indicator of

A)

air pollution

B)

water pollution

C)

radiation pollution

D)

soil pollution

View Answer
187) Milk glands are characteristic of

A)

all vertebrates

B)

all mammals

C)

only placental mammals

D)

only primates and ruminants

View Answer
188) Cybrids carry

A)

two similar genomes

B)

only one genomes

C)

several genomes

D)

only genomes and two plasmone

View Answer
189) If heart of a mammal is injected with 2%\[CaC{{l}_{2}}\] solution, then

A)

heart beat will increase

B)

heart beat will decrease

C)

heart beat will stop

D)

no effect

View Answer
190) Organism without any specific shape are

A)

mycoplasm

B)

bacteria

C)

viruses

D)

cyanobacteria

View Answer
191) Homo habilis habilis refers to

A)

tool maker

B)

modern man

C)

ancient man

D)

wandering species

View Answer
192) Graafian follicles posses

A)

theca externa

B)

granulosa

C)

theca interna

D)

All of these

View Answer
193) The pH of acid rain water is

A)

1.2

B)

5.7

C)

3.1

D)

6.0

View Answer
194) Light loving plants are known as

A)

heliophytes

B)

xerophytes

C)

lithophytes

D)

sosiophytes

View Answer
195) The thread-like tendons of papillary muscles inserted upon the flaps of tricuspid and bicuspid value are

A)

chordae tendinae

B)

yellow elastin fibre

C)

reticulate fibre

D)

collagen fibre

View Answer
196) The peculiar pungent smell of cockroach is produced by the secretions of

A)

pheromones

B)

flame cells

C)

abdominal glands

D)

cervical glands

View Answer
197) The main function of clitellum is

A)

coccon formation

B)

locomotion

C)

excretion

D)

copulation

View Answer
198) Diaphragm is found in

A)

crocodile

B)

kangaroo

C)

ostrich

D)

snake

View Answer
199) Last stable community in succession which depends on climate is

A)

serai community

B)

climax community

C)

Both [a] and [b]

D)

None of these

View Answer
200) Which one is spindle-shaped mobile with microtubules?

A)

Sporont

B)

Ookinete

C)

Cryptozoite

D)

Sporozoite

View Answer
201) Directions: In the following questions; choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word. INDIGENOUS

A)

Native

B)

Cheap

C)

Foreign

D)

Inferior

View Answer
202) Directions: In the following questions; choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word. FRAIL

A)

Vigorous

B)

Sturdy

C)

Hardy

D)

Strong

View Answer
203) Directions: In the following questions; choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word. WITHIN

A)

Without

B)

Past

C)

Over

D)

Beyond

View Answer
204) Directions: In the following questions; choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word. BRAZEN

A)

Respectful

B)

Innocent

C)

Delicious

D)

Helpful

View Answer
205) Directions: In the following questions; choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word. ADVERSITY

A)

Diversity

B)

Affliction

C)

Prosperity

D)

Catastrophe

View Answer
206) She was compear sated .......... the loss of her belongings.

A)

over

B)

for

C)

against

D)

at

View Answer
207) He has bean entrusted .......... this work.

A)

to

B)

on

C)

with

D)

by

View Answer
208) Lets make ....... our quarrel and be friends again.

A)

off

B)

up

C)

out

D)

with

View Answer
209) She yelled.......... him and he hostily retreated.

A)

to

B)

towards

C)

on

D)

at

View Answer
210) I devote much of my time .......... writing.

A)

to

B)

on

C)

at

D)

in

View Answer
211) The Ahiyas

A)

The Ahiyas

B)

/are living in this colony

C)

/for the last eight years.

D)

/No error

View Answer
212) You will come

A)

You will come

B)

/to my party tomorrow

C)

/ is ait it.

D)

/No error

View Answer
213) This room would look much better

A)

This room would look much better

B)

/if you put a furniture

C)

/in that corner.

D)

/ No error

View Answer
214) If I will have enough

A)

If I will have enough

B)

/time tomorrow

C)

/I will come and see you.

D)

/No error

View Answer
215) My father is

A)

My father is

B)

/appreciated by his friends

C)

/for his honestness.

D)

/No error,

View Answer
216) FILTHY

A)

Healthy

B)

Ugly

C)

Dirty

D)

Angry

View Answer
217) NOSTALGIC

A)

Soothing

B)

Homesick

C)

Diseased

D)

Indolent

View Answer
218) COMBAT

A)

Quarrel

B)

Fight

C)

Conflict

D)

Feud

View Answer
219) SUBSIDE

A)

Submit

B)

Oppress

C)

Subdue

D)

Surrender

View Answer
220) ABSCOND

A)

Turn

B)

Flee

C)

Manage

D)

Avoid

View Answer
221) I wish I was with him.

A)

have been

B)

were

C)

am

D)

No improvement

View Answer
222) Upto the time the last vote was recorded it was difficult to decide whether victory lay with the ruling party or the opposition.

A)

To

B)

Until

C)

Till

D)

No improvement

View Answer
223) Having had in the Foreign Service for a long time, Mr Verma has met many prominent personalities.

A)

Having

B)

He has been

C)

Having been

D)

Had he been

View Answer
224) Who does not know that this was broadcasted ten days ago?

A)

Had broadcast

B)

Was broadcast

C)

Was broadcasting

D)

No improvement

View Answer
225) Since 1986, there is no earthquakes here.

A)

were being

B)

have been

C)

are

D)

No improvement

View Answer
226) One who speaks or understands many languages?

A)

Scholar

B)

Grammarian

C)

Linguist

D)

Polyglot

View Answer
227) To talk without respect of something sacred or holy

A)

blasphemy

B)

obscenity

C)

rudeness

D)

vulgarity

View Answer
228) Land so surrounded by water as to be almost an island

A)

archipelago

B)

isthmus

C)

peninsula

D)

lagoon

View Answer
229) A place adjoining kitchen, for washing dishes etc.

A)

Cellar

B)

Wardrobe

C)

Scullery

D)

Pantry

View Answer
230) Incapable of being wounded

A)

Invulnerable

B)

Invincible

C)

Infallible

D)

Impregnable

View Answer
231) In the following questions, groups of four words are given. In each group, one word is correctly spelt. Find the correctly spelt word.

A)

Posesion

B)

Possesion

C)

Possession

D)

Posession

View Answer
232) In the following questions, groups of four words are given. In each group, one word is correctly spelt. Find the correctly spelt word.

A)

Liesure

B)

Leisure

C)

Leasure

D)

Lesiure

View Answer
233) In the following questions, groups of four words are given. In each group, one word is correctly spelt. Find the correctly spelt word.

A)

Bouquete

B)

Boquet

C)

Bouquet

D)

Bouquette

View Answer
234) In the following questions, groups of four words are given. In each group, one word is correctly spelt. Find the correctly spelt word.

A)

Pitiaeble

B)

Pitiable

C)

Pitiaeble

D)

Pitiabale

View Answer
235) In the following questions, groups of four words are given. In each group, one word is correctly spelt. Find the correctly spelt word.

A)

Ocasion

B)

Ocassion

C)

Occasion

D)

Occasion

View Answer
236) The robbery was committed in the wee hours of the day.

A)

after midnight

B)

at dawn

C)

at noontime

D)

in the evening

View Answer
237) Harassed by repeated acts of injustice, he decided to put his foot down.

A)

resign

B)

not to yield

C)

withdraw

D)

accept the proposal unconditionally

View Answer
238) Mrs Khanna has been in the blues for the last several weeks.

A)

unwell

B)

lonely

C)

penniless

D)

depressed

View Answer
239) The doctor says the patient has turned the comers.

A)

completely recovered

B)

become worse

C)

passed the crisis

D)

died

View Answer
240) He is in the habit of fishing in troubled waters.

A)

putting others in trouble

B)

indulging in evil conspirancies

C)

aggravating the situation

D)

taking advantage of troubled conditions for personal profit

View Answer

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done Manipal Medical Solved Paper-2013 Total Questions - 240

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Manipal Medical Solved Paper-2013 Total Questions - 240