A disc is rolling without slipping with angular velocity w, P and Q are two points equidistant from the centre C. The order of magnitude of velocity is:
A)
\[{{V}_{Q}}>{{V}_{C}}>{{V}_{P}}\]
done
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B)
\[{{V}_{P}}>{{V}_{C}}>{{V}_{Q}}\]
done
clear
C)
\[{{V}_{P}}>{{V}_{C}},\,\,{{V}_{Q}}={{V}_{C}}/2\]
done
clear
D)
\[{{V}_{P}}<{{V}_{C}}>\,\,{{V}_{Q}}\]
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
Time period of a simple pendulum of length L is \[{{T}_{1}}\] and time period of a uniform rod of the same length L pivoted one end oscillating in a vertical plane is\[{{T}_{2}},\]. Amplitude of oscillation in both the case is small. Then, \[{{T}_{1}}/{{T}_{2}}\] is:
A)
\[\sqrt{\frac{4}{3}}\]
done
clear
B)
\[1\]
done
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C)
\[\sqrt{\frac{3}{2}}\]
done
clear
D)
\[\sqrt{\frac{1}{3}}\]
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
A ball of mass m and radius r is released in viscous liquid. The value of its terminal velocity is proportional to:
A)
only \[1/r\]
done
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B)
\[m/r\]
done
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C)
\[{{(m/r)}^{1/2}}\]
done
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D)
only m
done
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View Answer play_arrow
Two identical spheres, each with radius(r) are placed so that their centres are at a distance of 6r. The gravitational force of attraction between them will be proportional to
A)
\[{{r}^{2}}\]
done
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B)
\[{{r}^{-2}}\]
done
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C)
\[{{r}^{4}}\]
done
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D)
\[{{r}^{6}}\]
done
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View Answer play_arrow
A particle of mass m starts from rest and moves in a circular path of radius R with a uniform angular acceleration\[\propto \]. The kinetic energy of the particle after n revolutoins is:
A)
\[n\propto m\,{{R}^{2}}\]
done
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B)
\[2\pi n\propto n{{R}^{2}}\]
done
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C)
\[\frac{1}{2}\,mn\propto {{R}^{2}}\]
done
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D)
\[mn\propto {{R}^{2}}\]
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
Consider a small cube of mass m kept on a horizontal disc. If the disc is to rotate with uniform angular velocity, what could be its maximum vlaue without causing any sliding between the cube and (Coefficient of static friction between cube and disc is \[\mu \]).
A)
\[\sqrt{\frac{\mu g}{r}}\]
done
clear
B)
\[\sqrt{\frac{2\mu g}{2}}\]
done
clear
C)
\[\sqrt{\frac{\mu g}{2r}}\]
done
clear
D)
\[2\sqrt{\frac{\mu g}{r}}\]
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
A swimmer crosses a river of width d flowing at velocity V. While swimming, he keeps himself always at an angle of \[{{120}^{o}}\] with the river flow and on reaching the other end he finds drift of d/2 in the direction of flow of river. The speed of the swimmer with respect to the river is:
A)
\[(2-\sqrt{3})\,V\]
done
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B)
\[2(2-\sqrt{3})\,V\]
done
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C)
\[4\,(2-\sqrt{3})\,V\]
done
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D)
\[(2+\sqrt{3})\,V\]
done
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View Answer play_arrow
Choose the wrong statement.
A)
Zero velocity of a partical does not necessary mean that its acceleration is zero.
done
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B)
Zero acceleration of a particle does not necessarily mean that its velocity is zero.
done
clear
C)
If speed of a particle is constant, its acceleration must be zero.
done
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D)
None of the above
done
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View Answer play_arrow
If a copper wire is stretched to make its radius decrease by \[0.1%\]then the percentage increase in resistance is approximately:
A)
\[0.1%\]
done
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B)
\[0.2%\]
done
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C)
\[0.4%\]
done
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D)
\[0.8%\]
done
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View Answer play_arrow
The velocity of water waves may depend on their wave length n, the density of water p and the acceleration due to gravity g. The method of dimensions gives the relation between these quantities as:
A)
\[{{V}^{2}}\propto \lambda {{q}^{-1}}{{p}^{-1}}\]
done
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B)
\[{{V}^{2}}\propto g\lambda \]
done
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C)
\[{{V}^{2}}\propto \lambda gp\]
done
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D)
\[{{V}^{2}}\propto {{g}^{-1}}{{\lambda }^{-1}}\]
done
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View Answer play_arrow
Two point charges \[+4q\] and \[+g\] are placed 30 cm apart. At what point on the line joining them is the electric field zero?
A)
\[15\,cm\] from charge \[4q\]
done
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B)
\[20\,cm\] from charge \[4q\]
done
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C)
\[7.5\,cm\] from charge q
done
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D)
\[5\,cm\] from charge q
done
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View Answer play_arrow
When a mass undergoes SHM there is always a constant ratio between its displacement and:
A)
period
done
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B)
acceleration
done
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C)
mass
done
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D)
velocity
done
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View Answer play_arrow
A planet has the density twice the density of earth but the acceleration due to gravity on its surface is exactly the same as that on the surface of earth. Its radius in terms of earth R will be:
A)
\[R/4\]
done
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B)
\[R/4\]
done
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C)
\[R/3\]
done
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D)
\[R/8\]
done
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View Answer play_arrow
A body of mass 2kg rests on a rough inclined plane making an angle \[{{30}^{o}}\] with the horizontal. The coefficient of static friction between the block and the plane is\[0.7\]. the frictional free on the block is:
A)
\[9.8\,N\]
done
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B)
\[0.7\times 98\times \frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}N\]
done
clear
C)
\[9.8\times \sqrt{3}\]
done
clear
D)
\[0.7\times 9.8\,N\]
done
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View Answer play_arrow
Ball A of mass m after sliding from an inclined plane strikes elastically with another ball B of mass 3m at rest. The minimum height A, so that the ball B just completes the circular portion of the surface at C will be (all surfaces are smooth)
A)
\[h=\frac{5}{2}\,\,R\]
done
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B)
\[h=5R\]
done
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C)
\[h=8\,R\]
done
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D)
\[h=10\,R\]
done
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View Answer play_arrow
The maximum and minimum magnitudes of the resultant of two vectors are 23 units and 7 units respectively. If these two vectors are acting at right angles to each other. The magnitude of their resultant will be:
A)
14
done
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B)
15
done
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C)
16
done
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D)
17
done
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View Answer play_arrow
The amount of heat required will be minimum when a body is heated through:
A)
\[1\,K\]
done
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B)
\[{{1}^{o}}C\]
done
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C)
IF
done
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D)
It will be the same in all three cases
done
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View Answer play_arrow
Two rods of equal length and area of cross-section are kept parallel and logged between temperature \[{{20}^{o}}C\] and \[{{80}^{o}}C\] The ratio of the effective thermal conductivity to that of the first rod is [The ratio \[{{K}_{1}}/{{K}_{2}}=3:4\]]
A)
\[7:4\]
done
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B)
\[7:6\]
done
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C)
\[4:7\]
done
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D)
\[7:8\]
done
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View Answer play_arrow
2nd overtone of an open organ pipe resonate with 3rd harmonics of a closed organ pipe. The ratio of their length will be:
A)
\[\frac{2}{1}\]
done
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B)
\[\frac{1}{2}\]
done
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C)
\[\frac{6}{5}\]
done
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D)
\[\frac{5}{6}\]
done
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View Answer play_arrow
A string of mass m and length L is hung vertically from a ceiling and a mass m is attached its lower end. A wave pulse is generated at the lower end. The velocity of the generated pulse as it moves up towards the ceiling will:
A)
remain constant
done
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B)
increase
done
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C)
decrease linerely
done
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D)
decrease non-linerly
done
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View Answer play_arrow
A current carrying conductor is looped into a circle of radius 10cm. The magnetic moment of the current loop becomes\[0.314\text{ }{{m}^{2}}\]. What is the current in the loop:
A)
\[5\,A\]
done
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B)
\[8\,A\]
done
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C)
\[10\,A\]
done
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D)
\[12\,A\]
done
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View Answer play_arrow
Two particles X and Y having equal charges after being accelerated through the same potential difference, enters a region of unifrom magnetic field and describe circular path of radii \[{{R}_{1}}\] and \[{{R}_{2}}\]respectively. The ratio of masses of X and Y is:
A)
\[{{\left( \frac{{{R}_{1}}}{{{R}_{2}}} \right)}^{1/2}}\]
done
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B)
\[\frac{{{R}_{2}}}{{{R}_{1}}}\]
done
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C)
\[{{\left( \frac{{{R}_{1}}}{{{R}_{2}}} \right)}^{2}}\]
done
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D)
\[\left( \frac{{{R}_{1}}}{{{R}_{2}}} \right)\]
done
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View Answer play_arrow
Two long thin wires ABC and DEF are arranged as shown. They carry current/as shown. The magnitude of the magnetic field at O is:
A)
zero
done
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B)
\[\frac{{{\mu }_{0}}I}{4\pi a}\]
done
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C)
\[\frac{{{\mu }_{0}}I}{2\pi a}\]
done
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D)
\[\frac{{{\mu }_{0}}I}{2\sqrt{2}\pi a}\]
done
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View Answer play_arrow
The equivalent resistance between points M and N is:
A)
\[2\,\Omega \]
done
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B)
\[3\,\Omega \]
done
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C)
\[2/3\,\Omega \]
done
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D)
None of these
done
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View Answer play_arrow
n identical cells, each of emf \[\varepsilon \] and and internal resistance r, are joined in series to form a closed circuit. The potential difference across any one cell is:
A)
zero
done
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B)
\[\varepsilon \]
done
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C)
\[\frac{\varepsilon }{n}\]
done
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D)
\[\frac{n-1}{n}\varepsilon \]
done
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View Answer play_arrow
The masses of the three wires of copper, are in the ratio \[1:3:\text{ }5\] and their length, are in ratio \[5:3:-1\] the ratio of their electrical resistances:
A)
\[1:3:5\]
done
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B)
\[5:3:1\]
done
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C)
\[\text{1}:15:125\]
done
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D)
\[125:15:1\]
done
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View Answer play_arrow
If electric field is given be \[E=\left( \frac{1}{{{X}^{2}}} \right)\uparrow V/m,\]the magnitude of potential difference between point \[X=10\text{ }cm\] and \[X=20\text{ }cm\] is
A)
\[1\,V\]
done
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B)
\[2\,\,V\]
done
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C)
\[5\,\,V\]
done
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D)
\[10\,V\]
done
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View Answer play_arrow
The magnitude of electric intensity at a distance X from a charge q is \[\in ,\] An identical charge is placed at a distance 2X from it. Then, the magnitude of the force that it experiences is:
A)
\[qE\]
done
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B)
\[2\,qE\]
done
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C)
\[\frac{qE}{2}\]
done
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D)
\[\frac{q\,E}{4}\]
done
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View Answer play_arrow
Which of the following is wrong?
A)
Velocity of sound is more in denser medium
done
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B)
Sound propagation is an adiabatic process
done
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C)
Frequencies of standing wave and it constituent wave are same
done
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D)
Frequencies of resonance tube will change. If we change the liquid maintaining same level
done
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View Answer play_arrow
What is conductivity of a semiconductor? If electron density is \[5\times {{10}^{12}}\] per \[c{{m}^{3}}\]and hole density is \[8\times {{10}^{13}}\] per\[c{{m}^{3}}\]. (\[\mu e=2.3\,{{V}^{-1}}{{s}^{-1}}{{m}^{2}}\]and \[\mu h=0.0{{N}^{-1}}{{s}^{-1}}{{m}^{2}}\])
A)
\[5.634e\,{{\Omega }^{-1}}{{m}^{-1}}\]
done
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B)
\[1.968\,{{\Omega }^{-1}}{{m}^{-1}}\]
done
clear
C)
\[3.421\,{{\Omega }^{-1}}{{m}^{-1}}\]
done
clear
D)
\[8.964\,\,{{\Omega }^{-1}}{{m}^{-1}}\]
done
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View Answer play_arrow
As per Bohr model, the minimum energy \[(1\,ne\,V)\]required to remove an electron from the ground state of double ionized \[Li\] and \[(Z=3)\] is
A)
\[1.51\]
done
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B)
\[13.6\]
done
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C)
\[40.8\]
done
clear
D)
\[122.4\]
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
In photoelectric experiment, the wavelength of incident radiation is reduced from \[6000\overset{o}{\mathop{A}}\,\] to \[4000\overset{o}{\mathop{A}}\,,\]then:
A)
Stopping potential will decrease
done
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B)
Stopping potential will increase
done
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C)
Kinetic energy of emitted electrons will decrease
done
clear
D)
The value of work function will decrease
done
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View Answer play_arrow
In input resistance of a CE amplifier is \[333\,\Omega \] and the load resistance is \[5K\,\Omega A\] change of base current by \[15\,\mu A,\] result in the change of collector current by\[1mA\]. The voltage gain of the amplifier is:
A)
550
done
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B)
101
done
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C)
1001
done
clear
D)
501
done
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View Answer play_arrow
If copper and germanium are heated by \[{{50}^{o}}C\] from room temperature, then
A)
resistance of copper increases while that of germanium decreases
done
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B)
resistance of copper decrease while that of germanium increase
done
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C)
resistance of both increases
done
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D)
resistance of both increases
done
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View Answer play_arrow
A freshly prepared radioactive source half- life 2h emits radiation of intensity which is 64 times the permissiable safe level. The minimum time after which it would be possible to work safely with this source is:
A)
\[6h\]
done
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B)
\[12\,h\]
done
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C)
\[42\,h\]
done
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D)
\[128\,h\]
done
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View Answer play_arrow
If photons of energy \[12.75\text{ }eV\] are passing through hydrogen gas in ground state, then number of lines in emission spectrum will be:
A)
6
done
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B)
4
done
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C)
3
done
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D)
2
done
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View Answer play_arrow
An X-rays tube operating at \[30\,K{{V}_{1}}\]will emit X-rays of minimum wavelength
A)
\[2840\,\overset{o}{\mathop{A}}\,\]
done
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B)
\[0.414\,\overset{o}{\mathop{A}}\,\]
done
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C)
\[2.14\,\overset{o}{\mathop{A}}\,\]
done
clear
D)
\[1.78\,\overset{o}{\mathop{A}}\,\]
done
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View Answer play_arrow
A ray of light posses through four transparent media with refractive indices \[{{\mu }_{1}},\,{{\mu }_{2}},{{\mu }_{3}}\] and \[{{\mu }_{4}}\] as shown in the figure. The surface of all medium are parallel if the emirgent ray CD is parallel to the incident ray AB, then:
A)
\[{{\mu }_{1}}={{\mu }_{2}}\]
done
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B)
\[{{\mu }_{2}}={{\mu }_{3}}\]
done
clear
C)
\[{{\mu }_{3}}={{\mu }_{4}}\]
done
clear
D)
\[{{\mu }_{4}}={{\mu }_{1}}\]
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
In the Young's double slit experiment the fringe w idth js -found to be 0 Amm. If the whole apparatus is immersed in water of refractive index \[(4/3),\]without disturbing the geometrical arrangement, the new fringe width will be:
A)
\[0.39\,m\,m\]
done
clear
B)
\[0.40\,m\,m\]
done
clear
C)
\[0.53\,m\,m\]
done
clear
D)
\[450\,\mu \]
done
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View Answer play_arrow
A metal sphere of \[4\text{ }cm\] radius is suspended within a hollow sphere of \[6\text{ }cm\] radius. The inner sphere is charged to a potential of\[3\text{ }esu\]. When the outer sphere is earthed, the charge on the inner sphere is
A)
\[\text{54 }esu\]
done
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B)
\[\frac{1}{4}\text{ }esu\]
done
clear
C)
\[\text{30 }esu\]
done
clear
D)
\[36\text{ }esu\]
done
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View Answer play_arrow
In the following circuit if \[{{R}_{1}}+{{R}_{2}}=13.5\,\Omega \] at any instant, then reading of the ammeter is
A)
\[1\,A\]
done
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B)
\[13.5\,A\]
done
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C)
\[1.5\,A\]
done
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D)
\[15\,A\]
done
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View Answer play_arrow
Any two points on the circular loop of conducting wire carrying current are connected to a cell, what is the resultant value of field at the centre?
A)
\[\frac{{{\mu }_{0}}{{i}_{1}}{{i}_{2}}}{4\pi \,{{r}^{2}}}\]
done
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B)
\[\frac{{{\mu }_{0}}{{i}_{1}}}{4\pi \,{{r}^{2}}}\]
done
clear
C)
\[\frac{{{\mu }_{0}}{{i}_{2}}}{4\pi \,{{r}^{2}}}\]
done
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D)
zero
done
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View Answer play_arrow
Angle of dip at a place, where horizontal and vertical component of earth's field are equal, is
A)
\[{{45}^{o}}\]
done
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B)
\[{{60}^{o}}\]
done
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C)
\[{{30}^{o}}\]
done
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D)
\[{{0}^{o}}\]
done
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View Answer play_arrow
The minimum value of inductance which can be obtained using three inductances of values \[2\text{ }H,\text{ }3\text{ }H,\]and \[\text{6 }H\] is
A)
\[\text{1 }H\]
done
clear
B)
\[\text{1/6 }H\]
done
clear
C)
\[\text{1/3 }H\]
done
clear
D)
\[\text{11 }H\]
done
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View Answer play_arrow
A particle moves such that its motion is represented by \[a=kx,\] where 'a' is the acceleration and x is displacement and k a constant. The period of oscillation is
A)
\[2\,\pi \sqrt{k}\]
done
clear
B)
\[\frac{2\,\pi }{\sqrt{k}}\]
done
clear
C)
\[2\,\pi \,k\]
done
clear
D)
\[\frac{2\,\pi }{k}\]
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
The set of numerical coefficients that balances the equation\[{{K}_{2}}Cr{{O}_{4}}+HCl\xrightarrow{{}}{{K}_{2}}C{{r}_{2}}{{O}_{7}}+KCl+{{H}_{2}}O\]is
A)
\[1,1,2,2,1\]
done
clear
B)
\[2,2,1,1,1\]
done
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C)
\[2,1,1,2,1\]
done
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D)
\[2,2,1,2,1\]
done
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View Answer play_arrow
\[250\text{ }ml\] of a sodium carbonate solution contains \[2.65\text{ }g\] of \[C{{O}_{3}}\]. If \[10\text{ }ml\] of this solution is diluted to one litre. What is the concentration of the resultant solution?
A)
\[0.1\,M\]
done
clear
B)
\[0.001M\]
done
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C)
\[0.01\text{ }M\]
done
clear
D)
\[\text{1}{{\text{0}}^{-4}}\text{ }M\]
done
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View Answer play_arrow
The reagent commonly used to determine hardness of water titrimetric ally is:
A)
Oxalic acid
done
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B)
disodium salt of EDTA
done
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C)
Sodium citrate
done
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D)
Sodium thiosulphlate
done
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View Answer play_arrow
Carbon-14 dating method is based on the fact that
A)
\[C-14\]fraction is same in all objects
done
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B)
\[C-14\] is highly insoluble
done
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C)
ratio of \[C-14\] and \[C-12\]is constant
done
clear
D)
all of the above
done
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View Answer play_arrow
The IUPAC name of \[[Pt\,{{(N{{H}_{3}})}_{6}}]\,C{{l}_{4}}\] is
A)
hexammine platinum (IV) chloride
done
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B)
hexammine platinate (IV) chloride
done
clear
C)
chloride hexammine platinum (IV)
done
clear
D)
tetrachloro hexammine platinum
done
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View Answer play_arrow
Indane (LPG) is
A)
commercial butane, isobutane and propane mixture
done
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B)
butane, ethane mixture
done
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C)
commercial propane
done
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D)
methane, propane mixture
done
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View Answer play_arrow
\[C{{H}_{3}}C{{H}_{2}}Cl\xrightarrow{NaCN}X\xrightarrow{Ni,\,{{H}_{2}}}Y\xrightarrow[anhydride]{acetic}Z\]. In the above reaction sequence, Z is
A)
\[C{{H}_{3}}C{{H}_{2}}C{{H}_{2}}N{{H}_{2}}\]
done
clear
B)
\[C{{H}_{3}}C{{H}_{2}}C{{H}_{2}}NHCOC{{H}_{2}}\]
done
clear
C)
\[C{{H}_{3}}C{{H}_{2}}C{{H}_{2}}CONHC{{H}_{3}}\]
done
clear
D)
\[C{{H}_{3}}C{{H}_{2}}C{{H}_{2}}CONHCOC{{H}_{3}}\]
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
The equilibrium concentration for the reaction\[C{{O}_{(g)}}+C{{l}_{2(g)}}COC{{l}_{2(g)}}\] at \[{{74}^{o}}C\] are \[[CO]=1.2\times {{10}^{-2}}M,\] \[[C{{l}_{2}}]=5.4\times {{10}^{-2}}M,\] \[[COC{{l}_{2}}]=0.014\,M.\] What is the value of\[{{K}_{p}}\]?
A)
\[21.6\]
done
clear
B)
\[7.584\]
done
clear
C)
\[4.578\]
done
clear
D)
\[75.84\]
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
What amount of lime, \[Ca{{(OH)}_{2}}\] required to remove 'the hardness of \[60\,L\] of pond water containing \[1.62\text{ }mg\] of calcium bicarbonate per \[100\text{ }mL\] of water?
A)
\[0.576\text{ }g\]
done
clear
B)
\[0.642\text{ }g\]
done
clear
C)
\[0.444\text{ }g\]
done
clear
D)
\[0.342\text{ }g\]
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
Nitric acid is made by dissolving the gas \[N{{O}_{2}}\] in water. What is the density of \[N{{O}_{2}}\] gas in \[g{{L}^{-1}}\] at \[1.24\]atm and\[{{50}^{o}}C\]?
A)
\[2.151\]
done
clear
B)
\[~21.51\]
done
clear
C)
\[3.15\]
done
clear
D)
\[0.0315\]
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
The molar conductivity at infinite dilution of \[A{{l}_{2}}\,{{(S{{O}_{4}})}_{3}}\] is\[858\text{ }S\text{ }c{{m}^{2}}\text{ }mo{{l}^{-1}}\]. Calculate the molar ionic conductivity of \[A{{l}^{3+}}\] ion given that \[{{\wedge }^{o}}\,\left( SO_{4}^{2-} \right)\]\[=160\,c{{m}^{2}}\,mo{{l}^{-1}}\]..
A)
289
done
clear
B)
89
done
clear
C)
345
done
clear
D)
189
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
For a cell reaction involving a two electron change the standard emf of the cell is found to be \[0.295\text{ }V\]at\[{{25}^{o}}\text{ }C\]. The equilibrium constant for the reaction at \[{{25}^{o}}\text{ }C\] will be:
A)
\[1\times {{10}^{-10}}\]
done
clear
B)
\[29.5\times {{10}^{2}}\]
done
clear
C)
10
done
clear
D)
\[1\times {{10}^{10}}\]
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
\[Xe{{F}_{4}}\] reacts with water at \[-{{80}^{o}}C\] to give
A)
\[XeO{{F}_{2}}\]
done
clear
B)
\[XeO{{F}_{4}}\]
done
clear
C)
\[Xe{{O}_{3}}\]
done
clear
D)
\[Xe{{O}_{2}}{{F}_{2}}\]\[Xe{{O}_{2}}{{F}_{2}}\]
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
How many electrons per second pass through a cross-section of a copper wire carrying\[{{10}^{-16}}\text{ }A\]?
A)
504 electrons/s
done
clear
B)
400 electrons/s
done
clear
C)
524 electrons/s
done
clear
D)
624 electrons/s
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
What is the IUPAC name of the compound \[C{{H}_{3}}-C{{H}_{2}}-\underset{C{{H}_{2}}}{\mathop{\underset{||}{\mathop{C}}\,}}\,-\underset{C{{H}_{3}}}{\mathop{\underset{|}{\mathop{CH}}\,}}\,-C{{H}_{3}}\]
A)
2-'ethyl-3-methylbut-l"ene
done
clear
B)
2-m ethyl pent-3-ene
done
clear
C)
2-methyl-3-ethylbut-l-ene
done
clear
D)
2-isopropylbut-l-ene
done
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View Answer play_arrow
The mass of copper that will be deposited at cathode in electrolysis of \[0.2\text{ }M\] solution when a quantity of electricity equal to that required to liberate \[2.24L\] of hydrogen from \[0.1\text{ }M\] aqueous \[{{H}_{2}}S{{O}_{4}}\] is passed (atomic mass of \[Cu=63.5\]).
A)
\[1.59\,g\]
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B)
\[3.18\,g\]
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C)
\[6.35\text{ }g\]
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D)
\[12.70\text{ }g\]
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View Answer play_arrow
The concentration of silver ion in saturated solution of \[A{{g}_{2}}Cr{{O}_{4}}\] at \[{{20}^{o}}C\] is \[1.5\times {{10}^{-4}}mol/L.\]Determine the solubility product of\[A{{g}_{2}}Cr{{O}_{4}}\].
A)
\[16.875\times {{10}^{-12}}\]
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B)
\[16.875\times {{10}^{-14}}\]
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C)
\[1.6875\times {{10}^{-12}}\]
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D)
\[168.75\times {{10}^{-12}}\]
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View Answer play_arrow
The molal freezing point constant for water is \[{{1.86}^{o}}C\] per molarity. Therefore, the freezing point of \[0.1\text{ }M\text{ }NaCl\] solution in water is expected to be
A)
\[-{{1.86}^{o}}C\]
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B)
\[-{{0.186}^{o}}C\]
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C)
\[-{{0.372}^{o}}C\]
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D)
\[+{{0.372}^{o}}C\]
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View Answer play_arrow
When a graph is plotted between log K and \[\frac{1}{T}\] for a first order reaction we get straight line. The slope of the line is equal to:
A)
\[-\frac{{{E}_{a}}}{2.303}\]
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B)
\[-\frac{{{E}_{a}}}{2.303\,R}\]
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C)
\[-\frac{2.303}{{{E}_{a}}\,R}\]
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D)
\[-\frac{{{E}_{a}}\,}{R}\]
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View Answer play_arrow
Keto enol tautomerism is observed in which of the following compounds.
A)
Only II
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B)
II, III
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C)
Only I
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D)
I, II, III
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View Answer play_arrow
The pH of \[0.1\text{ }M\] solution of a weak monoprotic acid is 4. What is its dissociation constant?
A)
\[{{10}^{-7}}\]
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B)
\[{{10}^{-6}}\]
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C)
\[{{10}^{-8}}\]
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D)
\[{{10}^{-4}}\]
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View Answer play_arrow
In a container mg of a gas is placed. After sometime some gas is allowed to escape from container. The pressure of the gas becomes half and its absolute temperature \[\frac{2}{3}\] rd. The amount of gas escaped is
A)
\[\frac{2}{3}m\]
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B)
\[\frac{1}{2}m\]
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C)
\[\frac{1}{4}m\]
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D)
\[\frac{1}{6}m\]
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View Answer play_arrow
Tetragonal crystal system has the following unit cell dimensions:
A)
\[a=b=c,\] \[\alpha =\beta =\gamma ={{90}^{o}}\]
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B)
\[a=b\ne c,\] \[\alpha =\beta =\gamma ={{90}^{o}}\]
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C)
\[a\ne b\ne c,\] \[\alpha =\beta =\gamma ={{90}^{o}}\]
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D)
\[a=b\ne c,\] \[\alpha =\beta ={{90}^{o}}\]\[\gamma ={{120}^{o}}\]
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View Answer play_arrow
Which of the following statement is not correct?
A)
All electromagnetic radiations travel with the same velocity
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B)
Matter waves generally have velocity less than electromagnetic waves
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C)
Matter waves are emitted by material particles
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D)
Electromagnetic waves are associated with electric and magnetic fields but matter waves are not.
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View Answer play_arrow
In \[O{{F}_{2}}\] number of bond pairs and lone pairs of electrons are respectively
A)
3, 6
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B)
2, 8
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C)
2, 10
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D)
8, 2
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View Answer play_arrow
Which of the following substances has the least ionic character?
A)
\[FeC{{l}_{2}}\]
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B)
\[CdC{{l}_{2}}\],
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C)
\[MgC{{l}_{2}}\]
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D)
\[ZnC{{l}_{2}}\]
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View Answer play_arrow
When one mole of an ideal gas is compressed to half of its initial volume and simultaneously heated to twice its initial temperature, the change in entropy \[(\Delta \,S)\] is
A)
\[{{C}_{V}}\] In 2
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B)
\[{{C}_{P}}\] In 2
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C)
R In 2
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D)
\[({{C}_{V}}-R)\] In 2
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View Answer play_arrow
Electrolysis of which of the following solutions will result in evolution of a gas that increases the pH on cathode.
A)
\[AuC{{l}_{3}}\]
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B)
\[CuB{{r}_{2}}\]
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C)
\[HCl\]
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D)
\[C{{H}_{3}}COONa\]
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View Answer play_arrow
The raw materials required for the manufacture of \[N{{a}_{2}}C{{O}_{3}}\] by solvay process are
A)
\[CaC{{l}_{2}},\,{{(N{{H}_{4}})}_{2}}C{{O}_{3}},\,N{{H}_{3}}\]
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B)
\[NaCl,\,N{{H}_{3}}\,CaC{{O}_{3}}\]
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C)
\[NaCl,{{(N{{H}_{4}})}_{2}}C{{O}_{3}},N{{H}_{3}}\]
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D)
\[N{{H}_{4}}Cl,\,NaCl,Ca{{(OH)}_{2}}\]
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View Answer play_arrow
\[CC{{l}_{3}}CH=C{{H}_{2}}\xrightarrow{C{{l}_{2}}+{{H}_{2}}O}A;\] Compound A is
A)
\[CC{{l}_{3}}\underset{OH}{\mathop{\underset{|}{\mathop{C}}\,}}\,HC{{H}_{2}}Cl\]
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B)
\[CC{{l}_{3}}\underset{Cl}{\mathop{\underset{|}{\mathop{C}}\,}}\,H-C{{H}_{2}}OH\]
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C)
\[CC{{l}_{3}}\underset{Cl}{\mathop{\underset{|}{\mathop{C}}\,}}\,H-\underset{Cl}{\mathop{\underset{|}{\mathop{C}}\,}}\,{{H}_{2}}\]
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D)
\[CC{{l}_{3}}\underset{OH}{\mathop{\underset{|}{\mathop{C}}\,}}\,H-\underset{OH}{\mathop{\underset{|}{\mathop{C}}\,}}\,{{H}_{2}}\]
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View Answer play_arrow
Which one of the following statements is not the correct statement?
A)
Chlorctone is an insecticide
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B)
\[COC{{l}_{2}}\] is called phosgene
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C)
Chloropicrin is used as an insecticide
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D)
\[CC{{l}_{4}}\] is used as fire extinguisher under the name of pyrene.
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View Answer play_arrow
Methanol cannot be dried with anhydrous \[CaC{{l}_{2}}\]because
A)
\[CaC{{l}_{2}}\] dissolves in it
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B)
it is not a good dehydrating agent
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C)
it forms as solid \[CaC{{l}_{2}}\,.\,4C{{H}_{3}}OH\]
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D)
it reacts with \[C{{H}_{3}}OH\]
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View Answer play_arrow
Consider the following reaction, \[ethanol\xrightarrow{PB{{r}_{3}}}X\xrightarrow{alc.KOH}Y\xrightarrow[(ii)\,\,{{H}_{2}}O\,.\,\Delta ]{(i)\,{{H}_{2}}S{{O}_{4}}\,roomtemp.}Z;\]the product Z is
A)
\[C{{H}_{2}}=C{{H}_{2}}\]
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B)
\[C{{H}_{3}}C{{H}_{2}}-O-C{{H}_{2}}C{{H}_{3}}\]
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C)
\[C{{H}_{3}}C{{H}_{2}}OH\]
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D)
\[C{{H}_{3}}-C{{H}_{2}}-O-S{{O}_{3}}H\]
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View Answer play_arrow
Which of the following reagent is necessary for the conversion ofbutane-2-one into propanoic acid?
A)
Tollen's reagent
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B)
Fehling's solution
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C)
\[NaOH/{{I}_{2}}/{{H}^{+}}\]
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D)
\[NaOH/NaI/{{H}^{+}}\]
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View Answer play_arrow
Mercury sticks to the surface of the glass when it comes in contact with
A)
\[{{H}_{2}}O\]
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B)
\[HN{{O}_{3}}\]
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C)
\[{{O}_{3}}\]
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D)
Grease
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View Answer play_arrow
The T-shaped inter halogen compound is
A)
\[Cl{{F}_{3}}\]
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B)
\[ICl\]
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C)
\[Cl{{F}_{5}}\]
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D)
\[I{{F}_{6}}\]
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View Answer play_arrow
Which of the following statement is not true?
A)
lodex ointment contains chloroform which liberates \[C{{l}_{2}}\] slowly.
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B)
Tincture of iodine is a mixture of \[{{I}_{2}}\] and \[KI\] dissolved in rectified spirit.
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C)
The burning sensation of cone. \[{{H}_{2}}S{{O}_{4}}\] on skin is due to dehydration of skin.
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D)
Hypo is known as photographer's fixer
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View Answer play_arrow
Benzene can be obtained by heating either benzoic acid with X or phenol with Y. X and Y are respectively
A)
Zinc dust and soda lime
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B)
Soda lime and zinc dust
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C)
Zinc dust and sodium hydroxide
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D)
Soda lime and copper
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View Answer play_arrow
hydrocarbon Identify the hydrocarbon (X).
A)
done
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B)
done
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C)
done
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D)
All of the above are correct
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View Answer play_arrow
Cassiterite is an ore of
A)
\[Mn\]
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B)
\[Ni\]
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C)
\[Sb\]
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D)
\[Sn\]
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View Answer play_arrow
Which of the following statement is incorrect?
A)
\[Li\] metal is not affected by dry air.
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B)
When burnt in oxygen, \[Li\] metal forms super oxide \[Li{{O}_{2}}\]
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C)
\[Li\] combines with nitrogen directly to form \[L{{i}_{3}}N\]
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D)
\[Li\] has great tendency to form hydrates
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View Answer play_arrow
Ammonia is obtained by the action of \[{{H}_{2}}O\] on
A)
\[CaC{{N}_{2}}\]
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B)
\[M{{g}_{3}}{{N}_{2}}\]
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C)
BN
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D)
All of these
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View Answer play_arrow
Synthetic human hair wigs are made from a copolymer of vinyl chloride and acrylonitrile and is called
A)
PVC
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B)
Polyacrylonitrile
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C)
Cellulose
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D)
Dynel
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View Answer play_arrow
The detergent which is used as a germicide is
A)
Sodium lauryl sulphate
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B)
Lauryl alcohol ethoxylate
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C)
Cetyltrimethyl ammonium chloride
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D)
Sodium-2-dodecylbenzene sulphonate
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View Answer play_arrow
When sucrose is heated with cone. \[HN{{O}_{3}}\] the product formed is
A)
Sucrose nitrate
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B)
Adipic acid
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C)
Citric acid
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D)
Oxalic acid
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View Answer play_arrow
As we go from the lowest to the highest rank, the number of similar characters in organism
A)
decrease
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B)
increase
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C)
remain same
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D)
increase later
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View Answer play_arrow
Identify the incorrect statement
A)
Conciousness - the defining property of living organism
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B)
Reproduction is synonymous to growth in unicellular organism
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C)
Growth exhibited by non-living objects is by accumulation of material on surface and growth in living organism from inside
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D)
Metabolic reactions cannot be demonstrated outside the body of living organism in cell free system as no non-living object exhibits metabolism
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View Answer play_arrow
Viruses are no more alive than isolated chromosomes because
A)
both require oxygen for respiration
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B)
both need food for energy
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C)
both require a non-living medium for multiplication
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D)
both require the environment of a cell to replicate
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View Answer play_arrow
Protistan genome has
A)
membrane bound nucleoproteins embedded in cytoplasm
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B)
free nucleic acid aggregated
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C)
gene containing nucleoproteins condensed together in loose mass
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D)
Nucleoprotein in direct contact with cell substance
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View Answer play_arrow
Nitrogen fixation in root nodules of Alnus is brought about by
A)
Brady rhizobium
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B)
Clostridium
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C)
Frankia
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D)
Azorhizobium
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View Answer play_arrow
Which of the following is not a characteristic of cyanobacteria?
A)
They have an elaborate system of internal
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B)
membranes that functions in photosynthesis Chlorophyll a, phycoerythrin and phycocyanin arc embedded in the photosynthetic lamellae
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C)
They use both PS I and PS II
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D)
They can use only PS II in anaerobic conditions with electron donors other than water.
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View Answer play_arrow
Din flagellates possess a unique nuclear structure at some stage of their life cycle. This is called as
A)
a prokaryotic nucleus
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B)
a eukaryotic nucleus
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C)
dikaryotic nucleus
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D)
dinokaryotic nucleus
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View Answer play_arrow
The fungus responsible for the severe loss of rice crop during the famine of Bengal in 1942-1943 was
A)
Helminthosporium
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B)
Puccinia
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C)
Rhizopus
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D)
Penicillium
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View Answer play_arrow
Puccinia produces
A)
Uredia and telia on wheat leaves
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B)
Uredia and aecia on barberry leaves
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C)
Uredia and aecia on wheat leaves
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D)
Uredia and pyenia on barberry leaves
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View Answer play_arrow
Which of the following is not a characteristic of Zygomycetes?
A)
Class of terrestrial fungi that are mostly saprophytic and rarely parastic
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B)
They are called as conjugating fungi
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C)
Gametes are multinucleate and are called coenogametes
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D)
Motile cells are produced during their life cycle
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View Answer play_arrow
Gibercllin is synthesized from
A)
Aspergillus midulans
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B)
Clavicepes pupura
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C)
Giberellu fujikori
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D)
Ascherosonia aleyroides
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View Answer play_arrow
Identify the incorrectly matched pair.
A)
Loose smut of wheat: Ustilago tritici
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B)
Leaf rust of coffee : Hamelia uastatrix
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C)
Late blight of potato : Alkernaria solani
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D)
Blast disease of rice : Pyricularia oryzae
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View Answer play_arrow
The small papillate 'outgrowth arising from the surface of the thallus of lichens, that are photosynthetic and are also involved in vegetative propagation, are called as
A)
Soredia
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B)
Conidia
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C)
Insidia
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D)
Cyphella
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View Answer play_arrow
Identify the incorrect statement regarding lichens.
A)
Citeria is used as a laxative
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B)
Xanthoria parientina is used for relief in jaundice
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C)
loburia pulmonerisi is used for curing kidney disorders
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D)
Parmelia saxatilis is used for treating epilepsy
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View Answer play_arrow
Identify the incorrect statement regarding Chlorophyceae.
A)
The stored food is in the form of search
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B)
The major photosynthetic pigments are chlorophyll and chlorophyll
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C)
The cell wall is made of cellulose
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D)
Flagella are 2-8 in number, unequal, and always apical.
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View Answer play_arrow
Consider the following features : Which of these are found in phacophyceae
I. Fucoxanthin II. Florid can starch III. Chlorophyll a and Chlorophyll IV. Flagella 2 in number, unequal and lateral
A)
I, II, III, IV
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B)
I, II, IV
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C)
I.II.III
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D)
II, III, IV
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View Answer play_arrow
Which of the following is not correctly matched?
A)
Chlamydomonas - Unicellular, flagellate
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B)
Laminaria - flattened leaf life thallus
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C)
Volvox - Colonial, non-flagellate
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D)
Chlorella - Unicellular, nonflagellate
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View Answer play_arrow
Sexual reproduction ofspirogyra is an advanced feature as it shows
A)
Physiologically different sex organs
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B)
Morphologically different sex organs
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C)
Same sizes of motile sex organs
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D)
Different sizes of motile sex organs
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View Answer play_arrow
Sperms of both Funaria and Pteris were released together near the archegonia of pteris. Only its sperm enter the archegonium as
A)
Funaria sperms get killed by pteris sperms
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B)
Pteris archegonia release chemical to attract its sperms
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C)
Funaria sperms are less mobile
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D)
Pteris archegonia repel Funaria sperms
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View Answer play_arrow
Unique feature ofbryophytes in that they
A)
have sporophyte attached to the gametophyte
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B)
produce spores
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C)
lack roots
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D)
lack vascular tissue
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View Answer play_arrow
Bryophytes depend on water as it is required for
A)
vegetative propagation
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B)
filling archegonium for fertilization
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C)
fertilization ofhomosporous plants
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D)
Swimming of sperm upto egg inside archegonium
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View Answer play_arrow
Match the items of Column I and Column II
Column I Column II A. Peritrichous flagellation 1. Ginkgo B. Living fossil 2. Macrocystis C. Rhizophorc 3.E.Coli D. Smallest flowering plant 4. Selaginella E. Largest perennial alga 5. Wolffia
A)
A-3 B-1 C- 4 D-5 E-2
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B)
A-3 B-1 C-5 D-4 E-2
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C)
A-4 B-1 C-3 D- 5 E-2
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D)
A-3 B-1 C- 4 D- 5 E-5
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View Answer play_arrow
Identify the incorrect statement about angiosperms.
A)
Unlike gymnosperms they have a highly developed vascular system with vessels in the xylem but lacking companion cells in the phloem
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B)
The phenomenon of pollination is a unique mechanism in angiosperms
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C)
Flowers in angiosperms represent specialized sporophylls found in gymnosperms where the stamens can be equated with microsporophylls, carpels with the megasporophylls
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D)
In angiosperms, after fertilization, the ovules remain enclosed in the every, a character that differentiates them from the gymnosperms
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View Answer play_arrow
Identify the incorrect statement regarding the gymnosperrn s.
A)
The seeds in all gymnosperms are endospermic
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B)
There are two to fifteen cotyledons
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C)
The endosperm is triploid
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D)
the female gametophyte is a large structure with distinct archegonia embedded in it.
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View Answer play_arrow
Identify the incorrect statement regarding cycas.
A)
Vernation (Ptyxis) is circinate like that of ferns
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B)
They are dioecious
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C)
There is no proper female flower
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D)
The carpel is always closed
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View Answer play_arrow
In Cycas
A)
The nucleus of each microspore divides to form a generative cell and a tube cell directly
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B)
The female prothallus is completely endosporous
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C)
A megaspore mother cell divides to form four mcgaspores of which one degenerates
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D)
The ovules do not grow before fertilization
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View Answer play_arrow
Identify the incorrect statement regarding Gnetum.
A)
It bears well developed, evergreen leaves with distinct reticulate venation
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B)
True vessels are absent in the secondary wood
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C)
The male gametophyte produces no prothallus cell
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D)
There are two integuments surrounding the ovule
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View Answer play_arrow
Among angiosperms, the type of stele found in cucurbitaceae is
A)
Amphipholoic siphonostele
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B)
Ectophilic siphonostele
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C)
Dictyo stele
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D)
Protostele
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View Answer play_arrow
Identify the incorrect statement regarding selaginella.
A)
It is heterosporous and heterospory in selaginella is an important step in the evolution of seed in higher plants
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B)
The megaspore begins to grow before it is set free from the megasporangium
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C)
The gametophyte is totally endosporous and is an independent structure
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D)
All the above statements are correct
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View Answer play_arrow
Alternation of generation is not seen in
A)
Fucus and Sargassum
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B)
Laminaria and Ectocarpus
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C)
Sargassum and Ectocarpus
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D)
Fucus and Laminaria
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View Answer play_arrow
Hydra is
A)
Marine, radial, triploblastic
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B)
Marine, radial, diploblastic
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C)
Fresh water, Biradial, Triploblastic
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D)
Fresh water, radial, diploblastic
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View Answer play_arrow
Male and female cockroaches can be distinguished external through
A)
Anal cerci and antennae in females
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B)
Anal style and antennae in female
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C)
Anal cerci in female
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D)
Anal style in male
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View Answer play_arrow
Amniotes do not include
A)
Birds
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B)
Reptiles
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C)
Amphibians
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D)
Mammals
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View Answer play_arrow
DNA is not found in
A)
Plastid
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B)
Mitochondria
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C)
Nucleus
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D)
GERL
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View Answer play_arrow
The arrangement of microtubules in eukaryotic flagella is
A)
\[9+3\]
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B)
\[9+9\]
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C)
\[9+2\]
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D)
\[9+90\]
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View Answer play_arrow
Movement of ions or molecules against prevailing direction of electrochemical gradient is
A)
Pinocytosis
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B)
Passive transport
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C)
Active transport
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D)
Diffusion
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View Answer play_arrow
The main difference between active transport and facilitated diffusion is
A)
In active transport, you need carrier proteins
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B)
In active transport, the molecules move from areas of high to areas of low concentration
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C)
In active transport, only water molecules move
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D)
In active transport, you need ATP to move molecules against a concentration gradient
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View Answer play_arrow
The cellulose is made of
A)
Unbranched chain of glucose molecules liked by alpha -1,6 glycosidic bonds
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B)
Branched chain of glucose molecules linked by beta -1,4 glocosidic bonds
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C)
Branched chain of glucose molecules with alpha - 1, 6 glycosidic bonds in the straight chain and beta -1,4 linked bonds at the site of branching
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D)
Unbranched chain of glucose molecules linked by beta-1,4 glycosidic bonds
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View Answer play_arrow
Which of the following statement is incorrect?
A)
Every coenzyme is a cofactor and every cofactor is not a coenzyme
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B)
Most of the coenzymes are nucleotides and are composed of vitamins
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C)
Every coenzyme is a cofactor and every cofactor is a coenzyme
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D)
Coenzymes are the active constituents of enzymes
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View Answer play_arrow
A reagent added to a sample shows change of color from green to yellow. It is due to presence of reducing sugar. The test is
A)
ELISA test for detecting AIDS
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B)
Fohling's test for detecting hyperglycemia
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C)
Ninhydrin test for detecting glycosidic linkage
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D)
Benedict's test for detecting glycosuria
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In uncompetitive inhibition
A)
The substrate and inhibitor can not bind to the enzyme at the same time
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B)
The inhibitor can bind to the enzyme at the same time as the enzyme's substrate
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C)
The inhibitor binds only to the substrate enzyme complex
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D)
The binding of the inhibitor to the enzyme reduces its activity but does not affect the binding of substrate
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A test cross was introduced by Mendel. Identify a test cross amongst the following
A)
A plant with dominant phenotype but unknown genotype X AA
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B)
A plant with dominant phenotype but unknown genotype X Aa
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C)
A plant with dominant phenotype but unknown genotype X aa
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D)
A plant with dominant phenotype but unknown genotype X unknown
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Mendel studied inheritance of seven pair of traits in Pea, which can have \[{{Z}_{1}}\] possible combination. If you are told that in one of these combination, independent assortment is not observed in later studies, your reaction will be
A)
Mendel might not have studied all the combination
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B)
It is impossible
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C)
Independent assortment principal may be wrong
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D)
Later studies may be wrong
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Achondroplasia is a type of autosomal dominant genetic disorder that is a common cause of dwarflsm. Two affected individuals have a _% chance of having an unaffected child.
A)
0
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B)
50
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C)
25
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D)
75
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Mendel could not find recombination and crossing over as
A)
Traits he chose were either present on different chromosomes or were for apart
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B)
He did not have a high power microscope
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C)
He selected only pure types
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D)
Traits chosen by him were not influenced by genes
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The wildlife phenotype refers to
A)
The phenotype expressed by the dominant allele
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B)
The phenotype expressed by the epistatic gene
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C)
The phenotype that has the longest survival
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D)
The phenotype that most commonly occurs in nature
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A type of chromosome rearrangement, also called a Robertsonian translocation, in which there is fusion of an entire long arm of one areocentric chromosome with a similarly intact long arm of another areocentric chromosome is called as
A)
Renner complex
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B)
Reciprocal translocations
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C)
Deletions
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D)
Centric fusions
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When a certain character is inherited only through female parent, it probably represents
A)
Cytoplasmic inheritance
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B)
Multiple plastid inheritance
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C)
Incomplete dominance
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D)
Mendelian nuclear inheritance
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A normal green male maize crossed with albino female. The progeny is albino because
A)
Trait for albinism is dominant
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B)
Albinos have bio-chemicals that destroy plastid derived from green males
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C)
Green plastids of male must have mutated
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D)
Plastids are inherited from female parent
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Consider the following statements regarding Down's syndrome
I. Trisomy \[{{Z}_{1}}\] is the cause of approximately 95% of observed Down syndromes, with 88% coming from nondisj unction in the maternal gamete and 8% coming from nondisjunction in the paternal gamete II. It may be due to a Robertsonian translocation where the long arm of chromosome \[{{Z}_{1}}\] is attached to another chromosome, often chromosome 14 III. The down syndrome does not run in families
The correct statements include:
A)
I, II and III
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B)
I and II
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C)
I and III
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D)
II and III
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Identify the incorrect statement
A)
The represser of the lac operon is synthesized constitutively
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B)
Regulation of lac operon by repressor is referred to as negative regulation
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C)
Regulation of lac operon is a regulation of enzyme synthesis by its substrate
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D)
In the presence of lactose or allolactose, the repressor is activated and it binds to the operator.
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What forms the genetic basic of the proof that genetic code is triplet and read in a contiguous manner?
A)
Some point mutations do not change the ammo acid coded for
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B)
A frame shift insertion of three bases does not change the reading frame
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C)
A doublet or a singlet code would code for few amino acids than required
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D)
Most of the spontaneous mutations are lethal and recessive.
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In IIershey and Chase experiment, what finding led to the conclusion that DNA is the genetic material?
A)
The presence of radioactivity in the supernatant when \[^{35}S\] was used
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B)
The presence of radioactivity in the bacteria when \[^{35}S\] was used
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C)
The presence of radioactivity in the bacteria when \[^{32}S\]was used
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D)
The presence of radioactivity in the supernatant when \[^{32}S\] was used
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The DNA that has a low melting point should have a high amount of
A)
Adeninc and Guan i ne
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B)
Adoenine and Thyminc
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C)
Thyrmne and Guanine
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D)
Guanine and Cytosinc
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Which of the following is correct about an RNA Primer?
A)
The polymerase starts replication at he 5' -end of the primer, and copies the opposite strand
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B)
The primer for DNA synthesis and replication is a short strand of RNA (which can be made de novo)
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C)
It is strand of nucleic acid that serves as a starting point for RNA replication
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D)
Primer is produced and is later removed and replaced cd with DNA by primase
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The control apparatus of the Urey and Miller experiment was devoid of
A)
A source of energy
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B)
A provision for evaporation
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C)
An arrangement for circulation
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D)
An arrangement for condensation
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Who evolved into the first amphibians?
A)
Lobe fins
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B)
Bony fishes
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C)
Jawless fishes
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D)
Cartilaginous fishes
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True adventitious roots are seen in
A)
Wheat, Maize
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B)
Podhos, ficus
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C)
Onion, Rice
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D)
Bryophyllum
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Which of these is like a runner but grow above the soil?
A)
Stolen
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B)
Bulb
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C)
Conn
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D)
Sucker
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A hundred year old tree of temperate area will Show
A)
100 rings from base to top
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B)
Irregular number of rings which show increase for decrease along the length
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C)
More than 100 rings at the base and less than 100 near the top
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D)
100 rings at the base and progressive decrease to the top
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When plant cells are kept in a hypertonic salt solution they got
A)
Turgid
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B)
Lysed
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C)
Plasmolyscd
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D)
Deplasmolysed
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Root modules in Gram, Arhar and some other pulses are formed by
A)
Frankia
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B)
Azotobacter
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C)
Rhizobium
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D)
Brady rhizobium
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\[{{O}_{2}}\]evolved in photosynthesis is formed during
A)
Carbon fixation during dark reaction
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B)
Non-cyclic photophosphorylation
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C)
Oxidative phosphorylation
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D)
Cyclic photophosphorylation
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Complex V is used for
A)
Cytochrome C - Oxidase enzyme
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B)
ATP synthase
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C)
SDIT
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D)
Co-Q
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The ratio of myosin to Actin in smooth muscle is
A)
\[1:1\]
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B)
\[1:15\]
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C)
\[1:6\]
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D)
\[1:\infty \]
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Histamine releasing cells are found in
A)
Lungs
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B)
Connective tissue
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C)
Muscular tissue
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D)
Nervous tissue
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Chylomicrons are produced by/in the
A)
Epithelial cells of small intestine
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B)
Mouth and oesophagus
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C)
Stomach
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D)
Lumen of small intestine
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The human heart develops from embryonic
A)
Endoderm
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B)
Mesoderm
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C)
Ectoderm
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D)
Both [b] and [c]
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Which of these may appear in urine from dieting or the utilization of excess lipids?
A)
Uric acid
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B)
Ketone
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C)
Glycine
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D)
Urea
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The post-ganglionic sympathetic fibres to the sweat glands are:
A)
Cholinergic
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B)
Dopaminergic
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C)
Noradrenergic
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D)
Adrenergic
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The cerebellum:
I. Contains similar gray and white matter divisions as the cerebrum II. Plays an important role in the integration of sensory perception, coordination and motor control III. Initiates the voluntary muscle activity along with the cerebrum
A)
I, II, III are correct
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B)
I and II are correct
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C)
I and III are correct
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D)
II and III are correct
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Prolactin inhibitory hormone has been identified as:
A)
Serotonin
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B)
Dopamine
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C)
Glycine
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D)
cAMP
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Which of the following glands secretes the hormone melatonin?
A)
Melanocytes
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B)
Pineal gland
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C)
Suprachiasmatic nucleus of hypothalamus
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D)
Anterior pituitary gland
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Parthenocarpy is desirable in fruit crops that may be difficult to pollinate or fertilize such as:
A)
Pineapple and banana
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B)
Orange and grapefruit
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C)
Cactus and eggplant
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D)
Tomato and summer squash
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The lignified cells below the embryo sac in nucellus, that prevents sinking of the embryo sac into the base, is called as:
A)
Nucellar beak
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B)
Hypostease
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C)
Perisperm
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D)
Endothelium
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Which of the following was first recognized in 1926 by Kurosawa, studying bakane, the "Foolish Seedling" disease in rice?
A)
Auxin
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B)
Cytokinin
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C)
Giberrelin
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D)
Ethylene
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A sensitive apparatus for measuring plant growth, developed by Sir J. C. Bose is called:
A)
Arc auxanometer
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B)
Pfeffer's auxanometer
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C)
Klinostat
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D)
Crescograph
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Sperm lysins do not include:
A)
Acrosin
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B)
Hyaluronidase
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C)
Corona peneterating enzyme
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D)
Sialic acid
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Spermatogencsis starts at the age of puberty due to significant increase in the secretion of:
A)
FSH
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B)
LH
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C)
GnRH
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D)
Androgens
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Which of the following is common to the human male excretory and reproductive systems?
A)
Urinary bladder
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B)
Vas deferens
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C)
Seminal vesicle
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D)
Urethra
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Which of the following sexually transmitted disease is present in most diagnosed cervical cancers?
A)
Human Papilloma Virus (HPV)
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B)
Herpes
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C)
Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV)
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D)
Gonorrhea
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If an infertile couple, the cause of infertility normally lies with:
A)
Females
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B)
Males
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C)
Equally in males and females
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D)
Exclusively in males
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Thermoregulation and osmoregulation are exhibited by
A)
Birds and all mammals
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B)
Few birds and all mammals
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C)
Lower vertebrates or invertebrate
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D)
None of these
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A population has a pyramid with a very broad base, most likely this is
A)
a stable population
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B)
a rapidly expanding population
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C)
a population where there are more old people than young
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D)
number of birth and death
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Select detrivores
A)
Autotrophs
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B)
Sec. consumers
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C)
Primary consumers
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D)
Decomposer
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Warmer upper layer of water in a lake is
A)
Planktons
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B)
Thermocline
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C)
Epilimnion
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D)
Hypolimnion
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Maximum percentage of species are facing threat of extinction in
A)
Birds
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B)
Amphibians
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C)
Mammals
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D)
Gymnosperm
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A measurement of the overall diversity for different ecosystem within a region is called as
A)
Delta diversity
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B)
Beta diversity
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C)
Alpha diversity
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D)
Gamma diversity
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Intensity of sound in normal conversation is
A)
120-150 dB
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B)
30-60dB
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C)
10 -20dB
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D)
70-90dB
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For raising virus free plant the best explant is
A)
Leaf
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B)
Axillary bud
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C)
Embryo
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D)
Seed
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