A) Rs.48
B) Rs.60
C) Rs.72
D) Rs.135
Correct Answer: B
Solution :
\[\because \,\,\,\,\,2m+1\,w=\frac{1}{14}\] ......(i) \[\Rightarrow \,\,\,\,14\,(2m+1w)=1\] and \[4\,w+2m=\frac{1}{8}\] \[8\,(4\,\,w+2\,m)=1\] .......(ii) On equating Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get \[14(2m+1w)=8\,(4w+2m)\] \[\Rightarrow \,\,\,\,28\text{ }m+14\text{ }w=32\text{ }w+16\text{ }m\] \[\Rightarrow \,\,\,28\text{ }m-16\text{ }m=32\text{ }w-14\text{ }w\] \[\Rightarrow \,\,12m=18\,w\Rightarrow \,\frac{m}{w}=\frac{18}{12}=\frac{3}{2}\] So, efficiency of 1 man and 1 woman is \[3:2\] So, their wages must be in the same ratio \[\therefore \,\,\frac{90}{x}=\frac{3}{2}\] (where, x = wages of a woman) \[\Rightarrow \,\,\,x=\frac{90\times 2}{3}=\]
You need to login to perform this action.
You will be redirected in
3 sec
