Solved papers for AMU Medical AMU Solved Paper-1997

AMU Solved Paper-1997 Total Questions - 200

1) A uniform circular disc of mass 12 kg is held by two identical springs as shown in the figure. When the disc is pressed down slightly and released, it executes SHM with a time period of 2 s. The force constant of each spring is

A)

\[236.6\text{ }N{{m}^{-1}}\]

B)

\[118.3\text{ }N{{m}^{-1}}\]

C)

\[59.15N{{m}^{-1}}\]

D)

none of the above

View Answer
2) A cyclist bends, while taking turn, to

A)

reduce friction

B)

generate required centrifugal force

C)

reduce apparent weight

D)

reduce speed

View Answer
3) Consider two unequal masses\[{{m}_{2}}>{{m}_{1}}\]connected by a string which passes over a frictionless and massless pulley. The tension T in the string is

A)

\[T=2\frac{m_{1}^{2}+m_{2}^{2}}{{{m}_{1}}+{{m}_{2}}}g\]

B)

\[T=\frac{2{{m}_{1}}{{m}_{2}}}{{{m}_{1}}+{{m}_{2}}}g\]

C)

\[T=\frac{2m_{2}^{2}+m_{1}^{2}}{{{m}_{1}}+{{m}_{2}}}g\]

D)

\[T=2({{m}_{1}}+{{m}_{2}})g\]

View Answer
4) For motion in a plane with constant acceleration a initial velocity \[{{\overrightarrow{v}}_{0}}\] and final velocity\[\overrightarrow{v}\]after time\[t\]we have

A)

\[\overrightarrow{v}.(\overrightarrow{v}.\overrightarrow{a}t)={{\overrightarrow{v}}_{0}}({{\overrightarrow{v}}_{0}}+\overrightarrow{a}t)\]

B)

\[\overrightarrow{v}.{{\overrightarrow{v}}_{0}}={{a}^{2}}{{t}^{2}}\]

C)

\[\overrightarrow{v}.{{\overrightarrow{v}}_{0}}=\overrightarrow{a}.{{\overrightarrow{v}}_{0}}t\]

D)

\[{{\overrightarrow{v}}_{0}}.{{\overrightarrow{v}}_{0}}=\overrightarrow{a}.{{\overrightarrow{v}}_{0}}\]

View Answer
5) A torch is switched on and dropped on a reflecting surface g/2 meters below. Initial light beam reaches the torch after getting reflected from the polished surface and is reflected back by the torch, and so on. If speed of light is c then total distance covered by the initial beam of light is

A)

g

B)

g/2

C)

c

D)

c/2

View Answer
6) The potential energy function of a particle executing linear simple harmonic motion is given by \[U(x)=\frac{1}{2}k{{x}^{2}},\]where k the force constant of the oscillator is equal to\[0.5\text{ }N{{m}^{-1}}\]. The amplitude of the particle when its total energy is 1 J is equal to

A)

\[2\sqrt{2}m\]

B)

2m

C)

\[\sqrt{2}m\]

D)

none of the above

View Answer
7) A man mass 60 kg records his weight on a weighing machine placed inside a lift. The ratio of the weights of the man recorded when the lift is ascending up with a uniform speed of \[2\text{ }m{{s}^{-1}}\]to when it is descending down with a uniform speed of\[\text{4 }m{{s}^{-1}}\]will be

A)

0.5

B)

\[-1\]

C)

2

D)

none of the above

View Answer
8) The speed time graph of a particle moving in a fixed direction is as shown in the figure. The distance traversed by the particle between\[t=0\]to\[t=5\text{ }s\]is

A)

24 m

B)

30 m

C)

36 m

D)

40 m

View Answer
9) Units of electric flux are

A)

\[weber/metr{{e}^{2}}\]

B)

\[newton-metr{{e}^{2}}/coulomb\]

C)

\[joule\times coulomb/metre\]

D)

tesla

View Answer
10) The S.I. unit of pole strength is

A)

\[A-{{m}^{2}}\]

B)

\[A-m\].

C)

\[A-{{m}^{-1}}\]

D)

\[A-{{m}^{-2}}\]

View Answer
11) In a streamlined flow if the gravitational head is h, the kinetic and pressure heads are

A)

\[\frac{1}{2}{{v}^{2}}\]and\[\frac{P}{\rho }\]

B)

\[\frac{1}{2}\frac{{{v}^{2}}}{g}\]and\[\frac{P}{\rho g}\]

C)

\[\frac{1}{2}{{v}^{2}}\]and\[\frac{P}{\rho g}\]

D)

\[\frac{1}{2}\frac{{{v}^{2}}}{g}\]and\[\frac{P}{\rho }\]

View Answer
12) Which one of the following graphs represents correctly the variation of the intensity of gravitational field\[(I)\]with the distance (r) from the centre of a spherical shell of mass M and radius a

A)

B)

C)

D)

View Answer
13) A quantity X is defined by the equation \[X=3C{{B}^{2}}\]where C is capacitance in farad and B represents magnetic field in tesla. The dimensions of\[X\]are

A)

\[M{{L}^{-2}}\]

B)

\[M{{L}^{-2}}{{T}^{-1}}A\]

C)

\[M{{L}^{-1}}{{T}^{-2}}{{A}^{2}}\]

D)

\[{{L}^{-1}}{{A}^{-1}}\]

View Answer
14) Bernouillis equation for steady, non-viscous, incompressible flow expresses the

A)

conservation of angular momentum

B)

conservation of density

C)

conservation of momentum

D)

conservation of energy

View Answer
15) Velocity of sound in air is\[320\text{ }m{{s}^{-1}}\]. A pipe closed at one end has a length of 1m. (Neglecting ends corrections). The air column in the pipe cannot resonate for sound of frequency

A)

80 Hz

B)

240 Hz

C)

320 Hz

D)

400 Hz

View Answer
16) A particle in S.H.M. is described by the displacement function \[x(t)=A\cos (\omega t+\phi ),\omega =\frac{2\pi }{T}\] If the initial\[(t=0)\]position of the particle is 1 cm, its initial velocity is n\[cm\text{ }{{s}^{-1}}\]and its angular frequency is\[n\text{ }{{s}^{-1}},\]then the amplitude of its motion is

A)

\[\pi \,cm\]

B)

\[2\,cm\]

C)

\[\sqrt{2}\,cm\]

D)

\[1\,cm\]

View Answer
17) Equation\[y={{y}_{m}}\sin (kx+\omega t)\]represents a wave

A)

travelling in\[y-\]direction

B)

travelling in negative\[y-\]direction

C)

travelling in\[y-\]direction

D)

travelling in negative\[y-\]direction

View Answer
18) To double the translational kinetic energy of the molecules of a gas one has to

A)

double the absolute temperature

B)

reduce the absolute temperature to half

C)

increase the absolute temperature fourfold

D)

increase the absolute temperature by a factor of \[\sqrt{2}\]

View Answer
19) The first law of thermodynamics, which accounts for the conservation of energy, is valid

A)

only for reversible processes

B)

only for irreversible processes

C)

for both of the above two processes

D)

for none of the above processes

View Answer
20) A comet orbits the sun in highly elliptical orbit. Which of the following quantities remains unchanged throughout its orbit? (Neglect any mass loss of the comet when it comes very close to the sun)

A)

torque

B)

potential energy

C)

kinetic energy

D)

areal speed

View Answer
21) Two bulbs when connected in parallel to a source take 60 W each. The total power consumed when they are connected in series with the same source is

A)

15 W

B)

30 W

C)

60 W

D)

120 W

View Answer
22) A rectangular loop carrying a current\[i\]is situated near a long straight wire, such that the wire is parallel to one of he sides of the loop and is in the plane of the loop. If a steady current\[I\]is established in the wire as shown in the diagram, the loop will

A)

move away from the wire

B)

rotate about an axis parallel to wire

C)

remain stationary

D)

move towards the wire

View Answer
23) In a voltameter the conduction takes place due to

A)

electrons only

B)

electrons and holes

C)

holes only

D)

electrons and ions

View Answer
24) A constant voltage is applied between two ends of a uniform metallic wire. Some heat is developed in it. The heat developed is doubled if

A)

both the length and the radius of the wire are doubled

B)

both the length and the radius of the wire are halved

C)

the radius of the wire is doubled

D)

the length of the wire is doubled

View Answer
25) A magnetic needle placed in a non-uniform magnetic field experiences

A)

a force and a torque

B)

a torque but not a force

C)

a force but not a torque

D)

neither a force not a torque

View Answer
26) In a region of space, the variation of the electric potential\[\phi \]with distance from the origin is shown in the figure. The electric field strength is zero at

A)

Point A

B)

Point B

C)

Point C

D)

Point D

View Answer
27) The instantaneous magnetic flux\[\phi \]in a circuit is \[\phi =4{{t}^{2}}-4t+1\]The total resistance of the circuit is \[10\,\Omega \]. At\[t=\frac{1}{2}s,\]the induced current in the circuit is

A)

0

B)

0.2 A

C)

0.4 A

D)

0.8 A

View Answer
28) A circle of radius R is drawn in a uniform electric field E as shown in the figure\[{{V}_{A}},\]\[{{V}_{B}},{{V}_{C}}\]and\[{{V}_{D}}\]are respectively the potentials of points A, B, C and D at the periphery of the circle

A)

\[{{V}_{A}}={{V}_{C}};{{V}_{B}}={{V}_{D}}\]

B)

\[{{V}_{A}}={{V}_{C}};{{V}_{B}}<{{V}_{D}}\]

C)

\[{{V}_{A}}>{{V}_{C}};{{V}_{B}}={{V}_{D}}\]

D)

\[{{V}_{A}}<{{V}_{C}};{{V}_{B}}={{V}_{D}}\]

View Answer
29) If the distance of separation between two charges is increased, the electrical potential energy of the system will

A)

increase

B)

decrease

C)

may increase or decrease

D)

remain the same

View Answer
30) Let Q represent the charge on a parallel plate capacitor and E the electric field between the plates, then each plate of the capacitor experiences a force of magnitude

A)

zero

B)

\[QE\]

C)

\[\frac{1}{2}QE\]

D)

\[2QE\]

View Answer
31) In the Youngs double slit experiment the separation between the slits is halved and the distance between the slits and the screen is doubled. The fringe width is

A)

halved

B)

unchanged

C)

doubled

D)

quadrupled

View Answer
32) When the light is incident on polarising angle which of the following is completely polarised

A)

reflected light

B)

both reflected and refracted light

C)

refracted light

D)

neither reflected nor refracted light

View Answer
33) Signal from a remote control to the device operated by it travels with the speed of

A)

sound

B)

light

C)

ultrasonics

D)

supersonics

View Answer
34) In spectral radiancy curve for cavity radiation the wavelength of the maximum spectral radiancy

A)

increases with temperature increasing

B)

decreases with temperature increasing

C)

sometimes increases sometimes decreases with increasing temperature

D)

remains unaffected by temperature variation

View Answer
35) For the normal setting of a telescope

A)

only the object is at infinity

B)

only the final image is at infinity

C)

both the object and the final image are at infinity

D)

neither the object nor the final image has to be at infinity

View Answer
36) A beam of light incident on a plane mirror forms a real image on reflection. The incident beam is

A)

parallel

B)

convergent

C)

divergent

D)

any of the above type

View Answer
37) If\[{{\varepsilon }_{0}}\]and\[{{\mu }_{0}}\]are respectively, the electric permittivity and magnetic permeability of free space,\[\varepsilon \]and\[\mu \]are the corresponding quantities in a medium the refractive index of the medium is

A)

\[\sqrt{\frac{\mu \varepsilon }{{{\mu }_{0}}{{\varepsilon }_{0}}}}\]

B)

\[\sqrt{\frac{{{\mu }_{0}}{{\varepsilon }_{0}}}{{{\varepsilon }_{0}}}}\]

C)

\[\frac{\mu \varepsilon }{{{\mu }_{0}}{{\varepsilon }_{0}}}\]

D)

\[{{\left( \frac{\mu \varepsilon }{{{\mu }_{0}}{{\varepsilon }_{0}}} \right)}^{2}}\]

View Answer
38) In the given circuit, the rms value of e is 5V and the rms value of votage drop across L is 3 V. The rms value of the voltage across R will be

A)

2V

B)

3 V

C)

4 V

D)

0 V

View Answer
39) The figure shows the connections of a rheostat with an external battery. A is an ammeter and is a voltmeter. The sliding contact R starts from point P and moves towards the end Q. Which of the following statements is correct?

A)

both ammeter and voltmeter show constant reading

B)

the reading of ammeter remains constant but that of voltmeter increases

C)

the reading of ammeter remains constant but that of voltmeter decreases

D)

both ammeter and voltmeter reading increases

View Answer
40) A conducting wire is drawn to double its length. Final resistivity of the material will be

A)

double of the original one

B)

half of the original one.

C)

one-fourth of the original one

D)

same as original one

View Answer
41) A\[p-\]type semiconductor is

A)

positively charged

B)

uncharged

C)

negatively charged

D)

none of the above

View Answer
42) For the given combination of gates, if the logic states of input A, B, C are as follows\[A=B=C=0\]and\[A=B=1,C=0\]then the logic states of output\[D\]are

A)

0, 0

B)

0, 1

C)

1, 0

D)

1, 1

View Answer
43) A material with overlapping conduction and valence bands will be

A)

an insulator

B)

a semiconductor

C)

a metal

D)

a superconductor

View Answer
44) Assuming that the junction diode is ideal, in the circuit shown here, the current through the diode is

A)

zero

B)

1 mA

C)

10 mA

D)

30 Ma

View Answer
45) When a beta\[(\beta )\]negative particle is emitted from a radioactive nucleus, the ratio of the number of neutrons to the number of protons in the resulting nucleus

A)

decreases

B)

remains same

C)

increases

D)

none of the above

View Answer
46) An electron starts from rest in an electric field and acquires a speed u in reaching a point A. The potential difference between the starting point and the point A is\[{{V}_{A}}\]

A)

\[u\propto V_{A}^{2}\]

B)

\[u\propto {{V}_{A}}\]

C)

\[u\propto \sqrt{{{V}_{A}}}\]

D)

\[u\propto V_{A}^{2/3}\]

View Answer
47) The binding energy per nucleon for deuteron\[(_{1}^{2}H)\]and helium\[(_{2}^{4}He)\]are 1.1 MeV and 7.0 MeV and 7.0 MeV respectively. The energy released when two deuterons fuse to form a helium nucleus is

A)

2.2 MeV

B)

28 MeV

C)

23.6 V

D)

30.2 MeV

View Answer
48) The de Broglie wavelength of a particle of mass 1 mg moving with a velocity\[1\text{ }m{{s}^{-1}}\]will be

A)

\[{{10}^{3}}h\] metre

B)

\[{{10}^{5}}h\]metre

C)

\[{{10}^{-3}}h\]metre

D)

\[{{10}^{-5}}h\]metre

View Answer
49) Sodium surface is subjected to ultraviolet and infrared radiations separately and the stopping potential of photoelectrons determined. Then the stopping potential

A)

is equal in both cases

B)

more when ultraviolet is used

C)

more when infrared used

D)

may be more or less for ultraviolet depending upon its intensity as compared to the intensity of infrared light

View Answer
50) An\[\alpha \]particle and a proton having same momentum enter into a region of uniform magnetic field and move in circular paths. The ratio of the radii of curvature of their paths,\[\frac{{{r}_{\alpha }}}{{{r}_{p}}}\], in the field is

A)

\[\frac{1}{2}\]

B)

\[\frac{1}{4}\]

C)

1

D)

4

View Answer
51) Which of the following is not a transition metal?

A)

\[Cr\]

B)

\[Mn\]

C)

\[Sn\]

D)

\[Cu~\]

View Answer
52) Copper reacts with hot cone.\[{{H}_{2}}S{{O}_{4}}\]to give

A)

\[S{{O}_{2}}\]

B)

\[{{H}_{2}}S\]

C)

\[CuS{{O}_{3}}\]

D)

\[C{{u}_{2}}O\]

View Answer
53) What is the approximate percentage of\[{{H}_{2}}{{O}_{2}}\] in a sample labelled as 10 vol?

A)

10%

B)

9%

C)

3%

D)

1%

View Answer
54) Addition of\[HgC{{l}_{2}}\]to\[SnC{{l}_{2}}\]gives a brown black colour which is due to the

A)

formation of amalgam

B)

oxidation of tin

C)

oxidation of mercury

D)

reduction of mercury

View Answer
55) Name the compound\[{{O}_{2}}Pt{{F}_{6}}\].

A)

oxygenyl fluoroplatinate (IV)

B)

dioxygenyl fluoroplatinate (V)

C)

dioxygenyl hexafluoroplatinate (IV)

D)

dioxygenyl hexafluoroplatinate (V)

View Answer
56) A gas has a volume of 15 ml at 300 K and 740 mm of Hg. Find the temperature if volume becomes 10 ml at 760 mm pressure of Hg.

A)

205 K

B)

209 K

C)

275 K

D)

\[-200\text{ }K\]

View Answer
57) Which one of the following is the strongest acid?

A)

\[Cl{{O}_{3}}(OH)\]

B)

\[Cl{{O}_{2}}(OH)\]

C)

\[HCl\]

D)

\[HN{{O}_{2}}\]

View Answer
58) Phosphorus on reaction with cone\[HN{{O}_{3}}\]yields

A)

\[HP{{O}_{3}}\]

B)

\[{{H}_{3}}P{{O}_{4}}\]

C)

\[{{N}_{2}}O\]

D)

\[{{N}_{2}}{{O}_{5}}\]

View Answer
59) Malachite is a mineral of

A)

\[Mg\]

B)

\[Cu\]

C)

\[Al\]

D)

\[Fe\]

View Answer
60) Which is the correct decreasing order of bond angle in the following series?

A)

\[N{{H}_{3}}>{{H}_{2}}O>{{H}_{2}}S\]

B)

\[{{H}_{2}}S>N{{H}_{3}}>{{H}_{2}}O\]

C)

\[{{H}_{2}}S>{{H}_{2}}O>N{{H}_{3}}\]

D)

\[{{H}_{2}}O>N{{H}_{3}}>{{H}_{2}}S\]

View Answer
61) Which profile is a true representation of chemosorption?

A)

B)

C)

D)

View Answer
62) A process for converting a precipitate into a colloidal solution is known as

A)

coagulation

B)

peptization

C)

dialysis

D)

ozonolysis

View Answer
63) When river water meets sea water delta formation takes place. This is due to the phenomenon of

A)

electrophoresis

B)

dialysis

C)

coagulation

D)

adsorption

View Answer
64) 1.5 g of a substance when dissolved in 60 g water lowered the freezing point by\[0.136{}^\circ C\]. Calculate the molecular weight of the substance when depression constant of water is 1.86.

A)

329.1

B)

439.5

C)

341.9

D)

335.9

View Answer
65) Consider the modes of transformations of a gas from state A to state B as shown in the following P-V diagram Which one of the following is true?

A)

\[\Delta H=q\]along\[A\to C\]

B)

\[\Delta S\]is same along both\[A\to B\]and \[A\to C\to B\]

C)

\[w\]is same along both\[A\to B\]and\[A\to C\to B\]

D)

\[w>0\]along both\[A\to B\]and\[A\to C\]

View Answer
66) Sulphur tetrafluoride molecule is

A)

square planar

B)

octahedral

C)

tetrahedral

D)

trigonal bipyramidal with a lone pair in the equatorial position

View Answer
67) The types of bonds present in\[CuS{{O}_{4}}.5{{H}_{2}}O\] are only

A)

electrovalent and covalent

B)

electrovalent and coordinate-covalent

C)

electrovalent, covalent and coordinate covalent

D)

electrovalent, covalent and hydrogen

View Answer
68) The ionisation potential for hydrogen atom is 13.6 eV, the ionisation potential for the\[H{{e}^{+}}\]is

A)

54.4 eV

B)

6.8 eV

C)

13.6eV

D)

24.5 eV

View Answer
69) Molecular shape of\[P{{F}_{5}}\]is

A)

square planar

B)

trigonal bipyramidal

C)

tetrahedral three-dimensional

D)

octahedral three-dimensional

View Answer
70) Which is not formed in a reaction of potassium permanganate with\[{{H}_{2}}S{{O}_{4}}\]?

A)

\[{{K}_{2}}S{{O}_{4}}\]

B)

\[MnS{{O}_{4}}\]

C)

\[Mn{{O}_{2}}\]

D)

\[{{H}_{2}}O\]

View Answer
71) Consider the following half cell reactions: \[C{{u}^{2+}}+2{{e}^{-}}=Cu\] \[E_{C{{u}^{2+}}/Cu}^{o}=0.34\,V\] \[A{{g}^{+}}+{{e}^{-}}=Ag\] \[E_{A{{g}^{+}}/Ag}^{o}=0.80\,V\] Which one of the following is true?

A)

copper can displace silver from\[AgN{{O}_{3}}\]solution

B)

silver can displace copper from\[Cu{{(N{{O}_{3}})}_{2}}\]solution

C)

silver is more reactive than copper

D)

\[C{{u}^{2+}}/Cu\]and\[A{{g}^{+}}/Ag\]with positive\[E{}^\circ \]values cannot be coupled to form a Galvanic cell

View Answer
72) The maximum work which a system can perform at constant temperature and pressure equals

A)

\[q-\Delta E\]

B)

\[\Delta H-\Delta E\]

C)

\[P\Delta V-\Delta G\]

D)

\[(-\Delta G)\]

View Answer
73) The equation\[\Delta G=\Delta H-T\Delta S\]is for

A)

open system

B)

closed system

C)

isolated system

D)

for all the above

View Answer
74) If the melting point of ice is\[0{}^\circ C\]and latent heat of fusion is\[5.46\text{ }KJ\text{ }mo{{l}^{-1}},\] the entropy change for the conversion of 18 g of ice to water at 1 atm is

A)

zero

B)

\[20\text{ }J{{K}^{-1}}\]

C)

\[50\text{ }J{{K}^{-1}}\]

D)

\[\text{360 }J{{K}^{-1}}\]

View Answer
75) During the crystallization of a solid from the aqueous solution, the following statement is correct\[(\Delta H=-ve)\]

A)

\[\Delta H=T\Delta S\]

B)

\[\Delta H>T\Delta S\]

C)

\[\Delta H<T\Delta S\]

D)

none of the above

View Answer
76) The\[p{{K}_{a}}\]of acetyl salicylic acid (aspirin) is 3.5. The pH of gastric juice in human stomach is around 2 and the pH in small intestine is around 8. Aspirin will be

A)

unionized in stomach as well as in intestine

B)

ionized in stomach as well as in intestine

C)

unionized in stomach but ionized in intestine

D)

ionized in stomach but unionized in intestine

View Answer
77) In the reaction\[A+B\rightleftharpoons 2C,\]the initial concentrations of A and B are 1.0 and 2.0 mol \[li{{t}^{-1}}\]respectively. If at equilibrium the concentration of C is 0.4 mol\[li{{t}^{-1}}\], the value of equilibrium constant is

A)

0.028

B)

0.111

C)

0.166

D)

0.200

View Answer
78) If a 0.00001 molar solution of\[HCl\]is diluted thousand folds the pH of the resulting solution will be

A)

5

B)

7

C)

8

D)

6.98

View Answer
79) The conjugate acid of\[{{(C{{H}_{3}})}_{2}}NH\]is

A)

\[{{(C{{H}_{3}})}_{2}}N-COOH\]

B)

\[{{(C{{H}_{3}})}_{2}}{{N}^{-}}\]

C)

\[{{(C{{H}_{3}})}_{2}}{{N}^{+}}\]

D)

\[{{(C{{H}_{3}})}_{2}}NH_{2}^{+}\]

View Answer
80) Which of the following solution has the highest osmotic pressure?

A)

\[0.1\text{ }M\text{ }HCl\]

B)

0.1 M urea

C)

\[0.1\,M\,BaC{{l}_{2}}\]

D)

0.1 M glucose

View Answer
81) Which one of the following is a trihydric alcohol containing only secondary hydroxyl groups?

A)

\[\underset{\begin{smallmatrix} | \\ OH \end{smallmatrix}}{\mathop{C{{H}_{2}}}}\,-\underset{\begin{smallmatrix} | \\ OH \end{smallmatrix}}{\mathop{CH}}\,-\underset{\begin{smallmatrix} | \\ OH \end{smallmatrix}}{\mathop{C{{H}_{2}}}}\,\]

B)

\[C{{H}_{3}}-\underset{\begin{smallmatrix} | \\ OH \end{smallmatrix}}{\mathop{CH}}\,-\underset{\begin{smallmatrix} | \\ OH \end{smallmatrix}}{\mathop{CH}}\,-\underset{\begin{smallmatrix} | \\ OH \end{smallmatrix}}{\mathop{CH}}\,-C{{H}_{3}}\]

C)

\[C{{H}_{3}}-\underset{\begin{smallmatrix} | \\ HO \end{smallmatrix}}{\mathop{\overset{\begin{smallmatrix} C{{H}_{3}} \\ | \end{smallmatrix}}{\mathop{C}}\,}}\,-\underset{\begin{smallmatrix} | \\ OH \end{smallmatrix}}{\mathop{CH}}\,-C{{H}_{2}}-OH\]

D)

\[\underset{\begin{smallmatrix} | \\ HO \end{smallmatrix}}{\mathop{C{{H}_{2}}}}\,-\underset{\begin{smallmatrix} | \\ HO \end{smallmatrix}}{\mathop{\overset{\begin{smallmatrix} C{{H}_{3}} \\ | \end{smallmatrix}}{\mathop{C}}\,}}\,-\underset{\begin{smallmatrix} | \\ OH \end{smallmatrix}}{\mathop{CH}}\,-C{{H}_{3}}\]

View Answer
82) Which one of the following compounds is likely to be optically active?

A)

\[C{{H}_{3}}-C{{H}_{2}}-\underset{\begin{smallmatrix} | \\ H \end{smallmatrix}}{\mathop{\overset{\begin{smallmatrix} C{{H}_{3}} \\ | \end{smallmatrix}}{\mathop{C}}\,}}\,-C{{H}_{2}}-C{{H}_{3}}\]

B)

C)

\[C{{H}_{3}}-C{{H}_{2}}-\underset{\begin{smallmatrix} | \\ H \end{smallmatrix}}{\mathop{\overset{\begin{smallmatrix} C{{H}_{3}} \\ | \end{smallmatrix}}{\mathop{C}}\,}}\,-C{{H}_{3}}\]

D)

View Answer
83) Carbon carbon length is the shortest in

A)

ethane

B)

ethene

C)

ethyne

D)

benzene

View Answer
84) Nitrogen in an organic compound can be estimated by

A)

Kjeldahl method

B)

Carius method

C)

Victor Meyers method

D)

Lassaignes method

View Answer
85) Which one has a chiral centre?

A)

2-methylpentane

B)

3-methylpentane

C)

2, 3-dimethylpentane

D)

2, 3, 4-trimethylpentane

View Answer
86) How much copper is supposed to be deposited when a current of 0.75 amperes passes through a copper sulphate solution for 25 minutes?

A)

0.34 g

B)

0.33 g

C)

0.35 g

D)

( d) 0.37 g

View Answer
87) Which of the following metals will not react with solution of\[CuS{{O}_{4}}\]?

A)

\[Fe\]

B)

\[Zn\]

C)

\[Mg\]

D)

\[Ag\]

View Answer
88) The decay from\[_{92}^{235}U\]to\[_{82}^{211}Pb\]involves the emission of

A)

\[2\alpha \] and\[6\beta \]particles

B)

\[5\alpha \] and\[6\beta \]particles

C)

\[6\alpha \] and\[2\beta \]particles

D)

\[10\alpha \] and\[6\beta \]particles

View Answer
89) In the reaction\[_{1}^{2}H+_{1}^{2}H\to _{2}^{4}He,5.5\times {{10}^{8}}\]K cal/mole of energy is produced. Calculate the energy per gram of He

A)

\[5.50\times {{10}^{8}}K.cal\]

B)

\[1.10\times {{10}^{8}}K.cal\]

C)

\[2.75\times {{10}^{8}}K.cal\]

D)

\[1.37\times {{10}^{8}}K.cal\]

View Answer
90) The missing particle in the radioactive decay is\[_{15}^{30}P\xrightarrow[{}]{{}}\,_{14}^{30}Si+?\]

A)

electron

B)

hydrogen atom

C)

positron

D)

neutron

View Answer
91) \[R\,C{{H}_{2}}\,C{{H}_{2}}\,CN\]can be easily obtained by which of the following reaction?

A)

\[RCH=C{{H}_{2}}+HCN\]

B)

\[R\,C{{H}_{2}}C{{H}_{3}}+HCN\]

C)

\[R\,C{{H}_{2}}C{{H}_{2}}-Br+KCN\]

D)

\[R\,C{{H}_{2}}-CON{{H}_{2}}+{{P}_{2}}{{O}_{5}}\]

View Answer
92) Which one of the following chemicals can be used in the preparation of paracetamol?

A)

B)

C)

D)

View Answer
93) Ethyne can be oxidised to oxalic acid by using

A)

chromic acid

B)

alkaline\[KMn{{O}_{4}}\]

C)

hypochlorous acid

D)

all reagents

View Answer
94) Enzymes are essential as bio-catalysts. They function well in

A)

aqueous medium, temp\[\simeq 30-35{}^\circ C;pH\simeq 7\]

B)

organic medium (solvent)

C)

aqueous medium in extreme pH conditions

D)

none of them

View Answer
95) Which compound/set of compounds is used in the manufacture of Nylon 6?

A)

\[HOOC(C{{H}_{2}})COOH+N{{H}_{2}}{{(C{{H}_{2}})}_{6}}N{{H}_{2}}\]

B)

C)

D)

\[C{{H}_{2}}=CH-\overset{\begin{smallmatrix} C{{H}_{3}} \\ | \end{smallmatrix}}{\mathop{C}}\,=C{{H}_{2}}\]

View Answer
96) In the reaction This reactive species (most likely) is

A)

\[NO_{2}^{-}\]

B)

\[NO_{2}^{+}\]

C)

\[N{{O}_{2}}\]

D)

None of these

View Answer
97) Identify the compound which has a nitro group in it

A)

\[C{{H}_{3}}-O-N=O\]

B)

C)

\[C{{H}_{3}}-N=O\]

D)

View Answer
98) Which reagent is effective in direct conversion of a carboxylic group with a\[1{}^\circ -\] alcoholic group? \[(-COOH\to -C{{H}_{2}}OH)\]

A)

Na-Ethanol

B)

\[NaB{{H}_{4}}\]

C)

Catalytic hydrogenation

D)

\[LiAl{{H}_{4}}\]

View Answer
99) For the preparation of t-butyl methyl ether which one of the following methods should be recommended?

A)

\[C{{H}_{3}}Br+\overset{+}{\mathop{Na}}\,\overline{O}-\underset{\begin{smallmatrix} | \\ C{{H}_{3}} \end{smallmatrix}}{\overset{\begin{smallmatrix} C{{H}_{3}} \\ | \end{smallmatrix}}{\mathop{C}}}\,-C{{H}_{3}}\]

B)

\[C{{H}_{3}}\overline{O}\overset{+}{\mathop{Na}}\,+C{{H}_{3}}-\underset{\begin{smallmatrix} | \\ C{{H}_{3}} \end{smallmatrix}}{\overset{\begin{smallmatrix} C{{H}_{3}} \\ | \end{smallmatrix}}{\mathop{C}}}\,-Br\]

C)

\[C{{H}_{3}}OH+HO-\underset{\begin{smallmatrix} | \\ C{{H}_{3}} \end{smallmatrix}}{\overset{\begin{smallmatrix} C{{H}_{3}} \\ | \end{smallmatrix}}{\mathop{C}}}\,-C{{H}_{3}}\xrightarrow[{}]{conc/{{H}_{2}}S{{O}_{4}}}\]

D)

\[C{{H}_{3}}-\underset{\begin{smallmatrix} | \\ C{{H}_{3}} \end{smallmatrix}}{\overset{\begin{smallmatrix} C{{H}_{3}} \\ | \end{smallmatrix}}{\mathop{C}}}\,-Br+C{{H}_{3}}OH\xrightarrow[{}]{\overset{-}{\mathop{HO}}\,\overset{+}{\mathop{Na}}\,}\]

View Answer
100) Reaction of phenol with\[CC{{l}_{4}}\]and\[NaOH\] followed by hydrolysis is likely to give

A)

B)

C)

D)

View Answer
101) Municipal waste, containing human and animal excreta, food residues, detergents etc. and rich in bacteria and organic substances, is called

A)

sewage

B)

sewer

C)

sewerage

D)

none of these.

View Answer
102) BOD stand for

A)

bacterial overgrowth database

B)

biological oxygen demand

C)

biological and organic diversity

D)

none of the above.

View Answer
103) The pulling strength of community waste water is usually characterized by its

A)

BOD

B)

CFC

C)

MIC

D)

ABS.

View Answer
104) When the pollutant flow is conveyed in well defined channels as municipal or industrial waste it is called

A)

diffuse source

B)

non-point source

C)

point source

D)

all of these.

View Answer
105) Water comes polluted due to the presence or addition of

A)

inorganic substances

B)

organic substances

C)

biological agents

D)

all of these.

View Answer
106) Photochemical combination of hydrocarbons and nitrogen oxides emitted by automobiles produces health threatening

A)

acid rains

B)

CFC

C)

fly ash

D)

smog.

View Answer
107) The removal of lead and its products from petrol used in automobiles is necessary because lead

A)

causes cancer of skin

B)

impairs respiration

C)

hampers haemoglobin formation

D)

all of the above.

View Answer
108) Large quantities of carbon monoxide, produced by gas heaters, charcoal stoves, coal mines etc., usually prove fatal as the pollutant

A)

is carcinogenic

B)

impairs respiration

C)

is combustible

D)

none of these.

View Answer
109) Air pollution is caused by excess of

A)

dinitrogen

B)

hydrogen

C)

water vapour

D)

none of these.

View Answer
110) The indiscriminate use of chemical fertilizers and pesticides may cause pollution of

A)

air

B)

soil

C)

water

D)

all of these.

View Answer
111) Spadix is an inflorescence found only in

A)

monocots

B)

dicots

C)

poaceae

D)

asteraceae.

View Answer
112) The agency responsible for seed dispersal in cotton, poppy and orchids is

A)

bird

B)

water

C)

man

D)

wind.

View Answer
113) Among the following sets of fruits, those that belong to the same category, from the point of view of classification, are

A)

coconut, chestnut and cashewnut

B)

coconut, mango and almond

C)

coconut, butternut and chestnut

D)

coconut, orange and tomato.

View Answer
114) In general, the feature common to the flowers of spadix, cyathium and hypanthodium is that they are

A)

monandrous

B)

synandrous

C)

diclinous

D)

achlamydeous.

View Answer
115) Floral diagram fails to indicate

A)

epiphylly and epipetaly

B)

aestivation and placentation

C)

position of ovary on the thalamus

D)

cohesion of carpels and stamens.

View Answer
116) Porous dehiscence of capsular fruits is seen in

A)

okra

B)

poppy

C)

cotton

D)

datura

View Answer
117) Explosive fruits are a characteristic of

A)

balsam

B)

poppy

C)

castor

D)

none of these.

View Answer
118) Cladode is a characteristic morphological feature of

A)

Asparagus and Riiscus

B)

Casuarina and Opuntia

C)

Cladophora and Cactus

D)

Citrus and Euphorbia

View Answer
119) Nuclear reactor malfunction in any country is a cause of concern for

A)

the reactors employees and neighbours

B)

the entire human population

C)

some enlightened persons world-wide

D)

some developed and developing countries.

View Answer
120) Eutrophication of water bodies is associated with water

A)

hole

B)

hyacinth

C)

lily

D)

none of these.

View Answer
121) Cork cambium is also called

A)

phellem

B)

phellogen

C)

phelloderm

D)

none of these.

View Answer
122) The division of an individual vascular cambial cell results in the formation of

A)

two xylem mother cells

B)

two phloem mother cells

C)

one xylem and one phloem mother cell

D)

one xylem or one phloem mother cell and one cambium cell.

View Answer
123) The vascular bundles of dicot roots are

A)

endarch and polyarch

B)

exarch and polyarch

C)

exarch and radial

D)

endarch and collateral.

View Answer
124) The difference between alburnum and duramen is the presence in the former of

A)

companion cell

B)

living cells

C)

raw cells

D)

lignified cells.

View Answer
125) Fascicular, interfascicuiar and extra stelar cambium together constitute

A)

lateral meristems

B)

apical meristems

C)

intercalary meristems

D)

ground meristems.

View Answer
126) A monocot root is characterized by vascular bundles that are closed as well as

A)

endarch, collateral and tri-to pentarch

B)

exarch, polyarch and radial

C)

endarch, polyarch and radial

D)

collateral, exarch and polyarch.

View Answer
127) The protective tissue in the plant body consists of

A)

xylem, phloem and cambium

B)

epidermis, cork and bark

C)

sclerenchyma, prosenchyma and collenchyma

D)

all of the above.

View Answer
128) The difference between shoot and root apex lies in lateral appendages being

A)

present in the former

B)

absent in the former

C)

present in the latter

D)

none of these.

View Answer
129) The most highly evolved and perfect type of inflorescence is

A)

hypanthodium

B)

spadix

C)

capitulum

D)

polychasial cyme.

View Answer
130) The flowers in a cyathium resemble the ray florets of sunflower in being

A)

sessile

B)

imperfect

C)

neuter

D)

bisexual.

View Answer
131) Microsporogenesis is the

A)

development of megaspore

B)

development of pollen grain

C)

development of male gametophyte

D)

development of female gametophyte.

View Answer
132) In a mature fertilized angiosperm ovule\[n,2n\]and 3n condition is found respectively in

A)

antipodals, synergids and integuments

B)

egg, antipodals and nucellus

C)

antipodals, egg and endosperm

D)

endosperm, nucellus and egg.

View Answer
133) Pollination brought about by different flowers of the same individual plant is called

A)

allogamy

B)

autogamy

C)

cleistogamy

D)

geitonogamy.

View Answer
134) The highly resistant biological material of which the exine of a pollen grain is made up is called

A)

cutin

B)

lignin

C)

suberin

D)

none of these.

View Answer
135) The functional megaspore develops after three successive mitotic division into

A)

embryo

B)

embryo sac

C)

ovule

D)

zygote.

View Answer
136) Most plant cells are surrounded by a cell wall. There are some exceptions, for example

A)

bacteria

B)

gametes

C)

stem hairs

D)

root hairs.

View Answer
137) The similarity between palisade and spongy parenchyma of dorsiventral leaf lies in their

A)

arrangement

B)

function

C)

shape

D)

size.

View Answer
138) Some common commercial fibres, like jute and flax, are obtained from

A)

collenchyma

B)

chlorenchyma

C)

sclerenchyma

D)

sclereids.

View Answer
139) Collenchyma resembles parenchyma in being

A)

potentially meristematic

B)

partially cutinised

C)

provided with air spaces

D)

devoid of chloroplasts.

View Answer
140) The nature of sieve elements in the phloem are

A)

dead

B)

enucleate

C)

thick-walled

D)

living but non-functional.

View Answer
141) Maintenance of ecosystems depends upon

A)

food-chains and webs

B)

energy flow

C)

materials cycles

D)

viruses.

View Answer
142) Metabolism, replication and homeostasis are the main characteristics of

A)

eukaryotes

B)

prokaryotes

C)

organisms

D)

viruses.

View Answer
143) The first organisms to appear on earth were

A)

photoautotrophs

B)

chemoautotrophs

C)

chemoheterotrophs

D)

coacervates.

View Answer
144) From the point of view of early chemical evolution that preceded the origin of life on earth, the most important simple organic molecules formed were

A)

sugars and amino-acids

B)

glycerol and fatty acids

C)

purines and pyrimidines

D)

all of the above.

View Answer
145) Whereas todays atmosphere contains gases like\[C{{O}_{2}}\]and\[{{H}_{2}}O\]vapour, but at the time of the origin of life was made up mainly of

A)

\[N{{H}_{3}},C{{H}_{4}}\]and\[{{H}_{2}}O\]vapour

B)

\[NO,N{{O}_{2}}\]and\[C{{O}_{2}}\]

C)

\[N{{H}_{3}},N{{O}_{2}}\]and\[{{H}_{2}}O\]vapour

D)

\[C{{H}_{4}},NO\]and\[C{{O}_{2}}\].

View Answer
146) The long gap of 300 million years between the origin of earth and of life on it was due to lack of

A)

oxygen

B)

water

C)

DNA

D)

suitable temperature.

View Answer
147) Whereas the earth is believed to be 4,500 million years old, life on this planet is estimated to have originated not earlier than

A)

4,200 million years ago

B)

3,500 million years ago

C)

1, 600 million years ago

D)

459 million years ago.

View Answer
148) Pollination by bats is called

A)

anemophily

B)

hydrophily

C)

ornithophily

D)

none of these.

View Answer
149) In nature, allogamy is met within

A)

unisexual flowers only

B)

neuter flowers only

C)

underground flowers only

D)

none of the above.

View Answer
150) Anther culture may be used as a technique for producing haploid plants. However, some diploid plants may also be obtained in the process due to

A)

fusion of male and vegetative cells

B)

development of exine and entine

C)

development of another wall cells

D)

fusion of male cells.

View Answer
151) The theory of continental drift was originally proposed by

A)

Alfred Wegener

B)

Robert I Bowman

C)

Charles Darwin

D)

Alfred Bailey.

View Answer
152) Splint bone is a vestigial structure in

A)

man

B)

whale

C)

horse

D)

Rhea.

View Answer
153) The primitive mammals originated during

A)

triassic period

B)

Jurassic period

C)

cretaceous period

D)

none of these.

View Answer
154) Author of the book Historia Generalis Plantarum is

A)

Caroleus Linnaeus

B)

George Bentham

C)

John Ray

D)

Dalton Hooker.

View Answer
155) Most petroleum bearing regions shows the presence of fossil states of

A)

Tetrahymena

B)

Radiolaria

C)

Paramecium

D)

Trichonympha.

View Answer
156) Sea cucumbers belong to class

A)

echinoidea

B)

holothuroidea

C)

ophiuroidea

D)

asteroidea.

View Answer
157) Skull is dicondylic in

A)

reptilia

B)

aves

C)

mammalia

D)

both [b] and [c].

View Answer
158) Botryoidal tissue is found in

A)

hirudina

B)

polychaeta

C)

oligochaeta

D)

all of these.

View Answer
159) The larva of Petromyzon is known as

A)

redia

B)

spat

C)

ammocoete

D)

tornaria.

View Answer
160) The theory of chemical evolution of life was experimentally proved by

A)

Miller

B)

Haldane

C)

Redi

D)

Spallanzani.

View Answer
161) In presence of vasopressin, the greatest fraction of filtered water is absorbed in the

A)

loop of Henie

B)

proximal tubule

C)

distal tubule

D)

collecting duct.

View Answer
162) Which of the following is not primarily a function of blood plasma?

A)

transport of\[{{O}_{2}}\]

B)

transport of hormones

C)

transport of antibodies

D)

maintenance of RBC size.

View Answer
163) In an ECG, the QRS stands for

A)

arterial depolarization

B)

ventricular depolarization

C)

arterial repolarization

D)

ventricular repolarization.

View Answer
164) Thrombin indirectly deactivates factor VIII and V via

A)

antithrombin II

B)

protein C

C)

tissue factor, pathway inhibtor

D)

plasmin.

View Answer
165) Which one of the following is an example of a conjugated protein?

A)

casein

B)

albumin

C)

globulin

D)

globin.

View Answer
166) Which of the following minerals needed for the activity of enzymes required for the synthesis of oligosaccharides and glycoproteins?

A)

\[Mn\]

B)

\[Mg\]

C)

\[Cu\]

D)

\[Mo\]

View Answer
167) The major fibrous proteins that provide external protection to vertebrates are

A)

collagen

B)

elastin

C)

\[\alpha -\]keratins

D)

none of these.

View Answer
168) Desmosomes are

A)

a special type of chromosomes

B)

a cell organelle

C)

cell junction of connective tissue

D)

cell junction of epithelial tissue.

View Answer
169) The secretory epithelium of sebaceous glands is

A)

cuboidal

B)

stratified squamous

C)

columnar

D)

stratified columnar.

View Answer
170) Argyrophilic fibre is another name for

A)

collagen fibre

B)

reticular fibre

C)

elastic fibre

D)

none of these.

View Answer
171) Diagrammatic representation of the chromosomes of an organism arranged according to their size is called

A)

karyotype

B)

genotype

C)

ecotype

D)

idiogram.

View Answer
172) Glucagon is not normally found in the

A)

pancreas

B)

gastro intestinal tract

C)

adrenal

D)

all of these.

View Answer
173) All hypophysiotropic hormones are peptides except

A)

corticotropin releasing hormone

B)

growth hormone

C)

somatostatin

D)

prolactin release inhibiting hormone.

View Answer
174) Which of the following is not synthesized in both the brain arid endocrine glands?

A)

ACTH

B)

cortisol

C)

oxytocin

D)

somatostatin.

View Answer
175) Cumulus proligerus cells are found around

A)

oviducal funnel

B)

corpus albicans

C)

ovum

D)

ovary.

View Answer
176) Which of the following hormones does not have a particular target organ in the body?

A)

growth hormone

B)

thyroxine

C)

oxytocin

D)

FSH.

View Answer
177) Which one of the following acts as a transmitter at the neuromuscular junction?

A)

gamma aminobutyric acid

B)

acetylcholine

C)

thyroxine

D)

melatonin.

View Answer
178) Refractory period comes in between

A)

resting potential and depolarization

B)

depolarization and repolarization

C)

action potential and depolarization

D)

two cycles of impulse conduction.

View Answer
179) The helicotrema is the communicating link between the

A)

sacculus and cochlea

B)

tympanic and vestibular canals

C)

vestibular and median canals

D)

sacculus and utriculus.

View Answer
180) Trimethylamine oxide is an excretory product in

A)

fresh water teleosts

B)

marine teleosts

C)

marine invertebrate

D)

none of these.

View Answer
181) Among HIV viruses which one is more virulent causing AIDS in 90% of the cases?

A)

HIV-I

B)

HIV-II

C)

HIV-III

D)

all of these.

View Answer
182) Which zone of a lake has no photosynthetic organism?

A)

profundal zone

B)

littoral zone.

C)

limnetic zone

D)

both [b] and [c].

View Answer
183) Terai forest is

A)

tropical forest

B)

coniferous forest

C)

both [a] & [b]

D)

temperate deciduous forest.

View Answer
184) The Wildlife Protection Act was enacted by the Indian Parliament in

A)

1962

B)

1972

C)

1983

D)

1989.

View Answer
185) During which stages (or prophase I substages) of meiosis do you expect to find the bivalents and DNA replication respectively?

A)

pachytene and interphase (between two meiotic divisions)

B)

pachytene and interphase Gust prior to prophase I)

C)

pachytene and S phase (of interphase just prior to prophase I)

D)

zygotene and S phase (of interphase prior to prophase I).

View Answer
186) From a diploid condition of 2N, which condition can arise due to non-disjunction of chromosomes?

A)

3N

B)

5N

C)

\[2N+1\]

D)

N.

View Answer
187) Which is not X-linked?

A)

Duchenne muscular dystrophy

B)

protanopea

C)

G6PD

D)

congenital adrenal hyperplasia.

View Answer
188) Human chromosome number was determined correctly by

A)

Landsteiner

B)

Moorehead

C)

Tijo and Levan

D)

J.L. Hamerton.

View Answer
189) Nucleic acids have multiple negative charges due to

A)

sugars

B)

phosphoryl groups

C)

associated protein

D)

purine and pyrimidines.

View Answer
190) At the end of prophase, nucleolus disappears because of

A)

its enzymatic dissolution into its macromolecules

B)

its dispersion into cytoplasm

C)

its dispersion into nucleoplasm

D)

its poor stainability.

View Answer
191) Waggle dance in honey bees tells about

A)

direction of food source

B)

distance of food source

C)

both [a] and [b]

D)

none of the above.

View Answer
192) Normal functioning of sex glands is regulated by

A)

tocopherol

B)

calciferol

C)

phylloquinone

D)

pyridoxine.

View Answer
193) Riboflavin contains the nucleotides

A)

FMN

B)

FAD

C)

both FMN and FAD

D)

none of these.

View Answer
194) Which of the following has the highest pH?

A)

gastric juice

B)

bile

C)

pancreatic juice

D)

secretion of the intestinal glands.

View Answer
195) The activity of the enzyme threonine deaminase is inhibited by

A)

malonic acid

B)

sulphur drugs

C)

glucose-6-phosphate

D)

isoleucine.

View Answer
196) Which is not a correct situation?

A)

\[ATP\xrightarrow[{}]{~ATPase}\]3, 5, cyclic AMP

B)

\[ATP~\xrightarrow[{}]{Adenylate\,cyclase}\] 3, 5 cyclic AMP

C)

\[ATP~\to ADP+Pi\]

D)

\[ADP~\to AMP+Pi\]

View Answer
197) Sporozoites are

A)

uninucleate

B)

binucleate

C)

multinucleate

D)

none-of these.

View Answer
198) Interferon\[\beta \]is also termed as

A)

immune interferon

B)

fibroblast interferon

C)

leucocyte interferon

D)

anti-immune interferon..

View Answer
199) The causative agent of Hansens disease is

A)

Myobacterium tuberculosis

B)

Myobacterium leprae

C)

Cornybacterium diphtheriae

D)

Clostridium tetani.

View Answer
200) A pure cell line of human cancer cells used for cultivation of viruses are called

A)

malignant cells

B)

myeloma

C)

HeLa cells

D)

none of these.

View Answer

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