Solved papers for CET Karnataka Medical CET - Karnataka Medical Solved Paper-2008

CET - Karnataka Medical Solved Paper-2008 Total Questions - 180

1) Solar spectrum is an example for

A)

line emission spectrum

B)

continuous emission spectrum

C)

band absorption spectrum

D)

line absorption spectrum

View Answer
2) When a piece of metal is illuminated by a monochromatic light of wavelength X, then stopping potential is\[3{{V}_{s}}\]b. When same surface is illuminated by light of wavelength 2/1, then stopping potential becomes\[{{V}_{s}}\]. The value of threshold wavelength for photoelectric emission will be

A)

\[4\lambda \]

B)

\[8\lambda \]

C)

\[\frac{4}{3}\lambda \]

D)

\[6\lambda \]

View Answer
3) The maximum kinetic energy of emitted electrons in a photoelectric effect does not depend upon

A)

wavelength

B)

frequency

C)

intensity

D)

work function

View Answer
4) The ratio of minimum wavelengths of Lyman and Balmer series will be

A)

1.25

B)

0.25

C)

5

D)

10

View Answer
5) Hydrogen atom does not emit -X-rays because

A)

it contains only a single electron

B)

energy levels in it are far apart

C)

its size is very small

D)

energy levels in it are very dose to each other

View Answer
6) The potential difference between A and B in the following figure is

A)

32 V

B)

48 V

C)

24 V

D)

14 V

View Answer
7) The magnetic field at the centre of a circular current carrying conductor of radius r is B. The magnetic field on its axis at a distance r from the centre is Bg. The value of \[{{B}_{c}}:\text{ }{{B}_{a}}\]will be

A)

1 : \[\sqrt{2}\]

B)

1 : 2\[\sqrt{2}\]

C)

2\[\sqrt{2}\] : 1

D)

\[\sqrt{2}\] : 1

View Answer
8) Current I is flowing in conductor shaped as shown in the figure. The radius of the curved part is r and the length of straight portion is very large. The value of the magnetic field at the centre O will be

A)

\[\frac{{{\mu }_{0}}I}{4\pi r}\left( \frac{3\pi }{2}+1 \right)\]

B)

\[\frac{{{\mu }_{0}}I}{4\pi r}\left( \frac{3\pi }{2}-1 \right)\]

C)

\[\frac{{{\mu }_{0}}I}{4\pi r}\left( \frac{\pi }{2}+1 \right)\]

D)

\[\frac{{{\mu }_{0}}I}{4\pi r}\left( \frac{\pi }{2}-1 \right)\]

View Answer
9) Two tangent galvanometers A and B are identical except in their number of turns. They are connected in series. On passing a current through them, deflections of \[60{}^\circ \] and \[30{}^\circ \]are produced. The ratio of the number of turns in A and B is

A)

1 : 3

B)

3 : 1

C)

1 : 2

D)

2 : 1

View Answer
10) The resultant force on the current loop PQRS due to a long current carrying conductor will be

A)

\[{{10}^{-4}}N\]

B)

\[3.6\times {{10}^{-4}}N\]

C)

\[1.8\times {{10}^{-4}}N\]

D)

\[5\times {{10}^{-4}}N\]

View Answer
11) How many 6\[\mu \]F, 200 V condensers are needed to make a condenser of 18 \[\mu \]F, 600 V?

A)

9

B)

18

C)

3

D)

27

View Answer
12) The total energy stored in the condenser system shown in the figure will be

A)

2\[\mu \]J

B)

4\[\mu \]J

C)

8\[\mu \]J

D)

16\[\mu \]J

View Answer
13) A metal wire is subjected to a constant potential difference. When the temperature of the metal wire increases, the drift velocity of the electron ink

A)

increases, thermal velocity of the electron decreases

B)

decreases, thermal velocity of the electron decreases

C)

increases, thermal velocity of the electron increases

D)

decreases, thermal velocity of the electron increases

View Answer
14) The equivalent resistance between the points A and B will be (each resistance is 15\[\Omega \])

A)

30\[\Omega \]

B)

8\[\Omega \]

C)

10\[\Omega \]

D)

40\[\Omega \]

View Answer
15) In the Bohr model of hydrogen atom, the electron is pictured to rotate in a circular orbit of radius\[5\times {{10}^{-11}}m\], at a speed \[2.2\times {{10}^{6}}\]m/s. What is the current associated with electron motion?

A)

1.12 mA

B)

3 mA

C)

0.75 mA

D)

2.25 mA

View Answer
16) A certain current on passing through a galvanometer produces a deflection of 100 divisions. When a shunt of one ohm is connected, the deflection reduces to 1 division. The galvanometer resistance is

A)

100\[\Omega \]

B)

99\[\Omega \]

C)

10\[\Omega \]

D)

9.9\[\Omega \]

View Answer
17) Two similar circular loops carry equal currents in the same direction. On moving coils further apart, the electric current will

A)

increase in both

B)

decrease in both

C)

remain unaltered

D)

increases in one and decreases in the second

View Answer
18) The value of alternating emf E in the given circuit will be

A)

220 V

B)

140 V

C)

100 V

D)

20 V

View Answer
19) A current of 5 A is flowing at 220 V in the primary coil of a transformer. If the voltage produced in the secondary coil is 2200 V and 50% of power is lost, then the current in secondary will be

A)

2.5 A

B)

5 A

C)

0.25 A

D)

0.5 A

View Answer
20) For a series LCR circuit at resonance, the statement which is not true is

A)

Peak energy stored by a capacitor = peak energy stored by an inductor.

B)

Average power = apparent power.

C)

Wattless current is zero.

D)

Power factor is zero.

View Answer
21) If \[{{\mu }_{0}}\]permeability of free space and \[{{\varepsilon }_{0}}\] is permittivity of free space, the speed of light in vacuum is given by

A)

\[\sqrt{{{\mu }_{0}}{{\varepsilon }_{0}}}\]

B)

\[\sqrt{\frac{{{\mu }_{0}}}{{{\varepsilon }_{0}}}}\]

C)

\[\sqrt{\frac{1}{{{\mu }_{0}}{{\varepsilon }_{0}}}}\]

D)

\[\sqrt{\frac{{{\varepsilon }_{0}}}{{{\mu }_{0}}}}\]

View Answer
22) In Youngs double slit experiment, a third slit is made in between the double slits. Then

A)

intensity of fringes totally disappears

B)

only bright light is observed on the screen

C)

fringes of unequal width are formed

D)

contrast between bright and dark fringes is reduced

View Answer
23) In a two slit experiment with monochromatic light fringes are obtained on a screen placed at some distance from the slits. If the screen is moved by \[5\times {{10}^{-2}}\]m towards the slits, the change in fringe width is\[3\times {{10}^{-5}}m\]. If separation between the slits is\[{{10}^{-3}}m\], the wavelength of light used is

A)

\[6000{{A}^{o}}\]

B)

\[5000{{A}^{o}}\]

C)

\[3000{{A}^{o}}\]

D)

\[4500{{A}^{o}}\]

View Answer
24) In a Fraunhofer diffraction experiment at a single slit using a light of wavelength 400 nm, the first minimum is formed at an angle of 30°. The direction 6 of the first secondary maximum is given by

A)

\[{{\sin }^{-1}}\left( \frac{2}{3} \right)\]

B)

\[{{\sin }^{-1}}\left( \frac{3}{4} \right)\]

C)

\[{{\sin }^{-1}}\left( \frac{1}{4} \right)\]

D)

\[ta{{n}^{-1}}\left( \frac{2}{3} \right)\]

View Answer
25) Maximum diffraction takes place in a given slit for

A)

\[\gamma \]-rays

B)

ultraviolet light

C)

infrared light

D)

radiowaves

View Answer
26) If an electron and a proton have the same de-Broglie wavelength, then the kinetic energy of the electron is

A)

zero

B)

less than that of a proton

C)

more than that of a proton

D)

equal to that of a proton

View Answer
27) Two protons are kept at a separation of\[40{{A}^{o}}\]. \[{{F}_{n}}\] is the nuclear force and \[{{F}_{e}}\]is the electrostatic force between them. Then

A)

\[{{F}_{n}}>>{{F}_{e}}\]

B)

\[{{F}_{n}}={{F}_{e}}\]

C)

\[{{F}_{n}}<<{{F}_{e}}\]

D)

\[{{F}_{n}}={{F}_{e}}\]

View Answer
28) Blue colour of sea water is due to

A)

interference of sunlight reflected from the water surface

B)

scattering of sunlight by the water molecules

C)

image of sky in water

D)

refraction of sunlight

View Answer
29) The ratio of the nuclear radii of elements with mass numbers 216 and 125 is

A)

216 : 125

B)

\[\sqrt{216}:\sqrt{125}\]

C)

6 : 5

D)

None of these

View Answer
30) On bombarding \[{{U}^{235}}\]by slow neutron, 200 MeV energy is released. If the power output of atomic reactor is 1.6 MW, then the rate of fission will be

A)

\[5\times {{10}^{22}}/s\]

B)

\[5\times {{10}^{16}}/s\]

C)

\[8\times {{10}^{16}}/s\]

D)

\[20\times {{10}^{16}}/s\]

View Answer
31) A ray of light enters from a rarer to a denser medium. The angle of incidence is i. Then the reflected and refracted rays are mutually perpendicular to each other. The critical angle for the pair of media is

A)

\[{{\sin }^{-1}}\left( \tan \,i \right)\]

B)

\[ta{{n}^{-1}}\left( sin\,i \right)\]

C)

\[si{{n}^{-1}}\left( \cot \,i \right)\]

D)

\[{{\cos }^{-1}}\left( \tan \,i \right)\]

View Answer
32) A fish in water (refractive index n) looks at a bird vertically above in the air. If y is the height of the bird and x is the depth of the fish from the surface, then the distance of the bird as estimated by the fish is

A)

\[x+y\left( 1-\frac{1}{n} \right)\]

B)

\[x+ny\]

C)

\[x+y\left( 1+\frac{1}{n} \right)\]

D)

\[y+x\left( 1-\frac{1}{n} \right)\]

View Answer
33) Figure shows a mixture of blue, green and red colored rays incident normally on a right angled prism. The critical angles of the material of the prism for red, green and blue are\[46{}^\circ \], \[44{}^\circ \] and \[43{}^\circ \]respectively. The arrangement will separate

A)

red colour from blue and green

B)

blue colour from red and green

C)

green colour from red and blue

D)

all the three colours

View Answer
34) A convex and a concave lens separated by distance d are then put in contact. The focal length of the combination

A)

decreases

B)

increases

C)

becomes 0

D)

remains the same

View Answer
35) A convex lens is made of 3 layers of glass of 3 different materials as in the figures. A point object is placed on its axis. The number of images of the object are

A)

1

B)

2

C)

3

D)

4

View Answer
36) An unpolarised beam of intensity l0 falls on a Polaroid. The intensity of the emergent light is

A)

\[\frac{{{I}_{0}}}{2}\]

B)

\[{{I}_{0}}\]

C)

\[\frac{{{I}_{0}}}{4}\]

D)

Zero

View Answer
37) Which of the following as a dichroic crystal?

A)

Quartz

B)

Tourmaline

C)

Mica

D)

Selenite

View Answer
38) Two identical metal spheres charged with \[+12\mu F\]and \[-8\mu F\]are kept at certain distance in air. They are brought into contact and then kept at the same distance. The ratio of the magnitudes of electrostatic forces between them before and after contact is

A)

12 : 1

B)

8 : 1

C)

24 : 1

D)

4 : 1

View Answer
39) A small conducting sphere of radius r is lying concentrically inside a bigger hollow conducting sphere of radius R. The bigger and smaller spheres are charged with Q and q (Q > q)and are insulated from each other. The potential difference between the spheres will be

A)

\[\frac{1}{4\pi {{\varepsilon }_{0}}}\left( \frac{q}{r}-\frac{q}{R} \right)\]

B)

\[\frac{1}{4\pi {{\varepsilon }_{0}}}\left( \frac{q}{R}-\frac{Q}{r} \right)\]

C)

\[\frac{1}{4\pi {{\varepsilon }_{0}}}\left( \frac{q}{r}-\frac{Q}{R} \right)\]

D)

\[\frac{1}{4\pi {{\varepsilon }_{0}}}\left( \frac{Q}{R}-\frac{q}{r} \right)\]

View Answer
40) The charges Q, \[+q\]and \[+q\] are placed at the vertices of an equilateral triangle of side L If the net electrostatic potential energy of the system is zero, then Q is equal to

A)

\[-\frac{q}{2}\]

B)

\[-q\]

C)

\[\frac{+q}{2}\]

D)

Zero

View Answer
41) Dimensional formula for the universal gravitational constant G is

A)

\[\left[ {{M}^{-1}}{{L}^{2}}{{T}^{-2}} \right]~\]

B)

\[\left[ {{M}^{0}}{{L}^{0}}{{T}^{0}} \right]\]

C)

\[\left[ {{M}^{-1}}{{L}^{3}}{{T}^{-2}} \right]~\]

D)

\[\left[ {{M}^{-1}}{{L}^{3}}{{T}^{-1}} \right]\]

View Answer
42) A body is projected vertically upwards. The times corresponding to height h while ascending and while descending are \[{{t}_{1}}\]and \[{{t}_{2}}\]respectively. Then the velocity of projection is (g is acceleration due to gravity)

A)

\[g\sqrt{{{t}_{1}}{{t}_{2}}}\]

B)

\[\frac{g{{t}_{1}}{{t}_{2}}}{{{t}_{1}}+{{t}_{2}}}\]

C)

\[\frac{g\sqrt{{{t}_{1}}{{t}_{2}}}}{2}\]

D)

\[\frac{g\left( {{t}_{1}}+{{t}_{2}} \right)}{2}\]

View Answer
43) A mass of 10 kg is suspended from a spring balance. It is pulled aside by a horizontal string so that it makes an angle of \[60{}^\circ \]with the vertical. The new reading of the balance is

A)

20 kg-wt

B)

10 kg-wt

C)

10\[\sqrt{3}\]kg-wt

D)

20\[\sqrt{3}\] kg-wt

View Answer
44) A body weighs 50 g in air and 40 g in water. How much would it weigh in a liquid of specific gravity 1.5?

A)

30 g

B)

35 g

C)

65 g

D)

45 g

View Answer
45) A body of mass 4 kg is accelerated upon by a constant force, travels a distance of 5 m in the first second and a distance of 2 m in the third second. The force acting on the body is

A)

2 N

B)

4 N

C)

6 N

D)

8 N

View Answer
46) A simple pendulum is suspended from the ceiling of a lift. When the lift is at rest its time period is T. With what acceleration should the lift be accelerated upwards in order to reduce its period to T/2? (\[g\]is acceleration due to gravity).

A)

2 g

B)

3 g

C)

4 g

D)

g

View Answer
47) If y is the ratio of specific heats and R is the universal gas constant, then the molar specific heat at constant volume \[{{C}_{v}}\]is given by

A)

\[\gamma R\]

B)

\[\frac{\left( \gamma -1 \right)R}{\gamma }\]

C)

\[\frac{R}{\gamma -1}\]

D)

\[\frac{\gamma R}{\gamma -1}\]

View Answer
48) An ideal gas is taken via path ABCA as shown in figure. The net work done in the whole cycle is

A)

\[3{{p}_{1}}{{V}_{1}}\]

B)

\[-3{{p}_{1}}{{V}_{1}}\]

C)

\[6{{p}_{1}}{{V}_{1}}\]

D)

Zero

View Answer
49) In which of the processes, does the internal energy of the system remain constant?

A)

Adiabatic

B)

Isochoric

C)

Isobaric

D)

Isothermal

View Answer
50) The coefficient of thermal conductivity of copper is 9 times that of steel. In the composite cylindrical bar shown in the figure, what will be the temperature at the junction of copper and steel?

A)

\[75{}^\circ C~\]

B)

\[67{}^\circ C\]

C)

\[25{}^\circ C~\]

D)

\[33{}^\circ C\]

View Answer
51) The equation of a simple harmonic wave is given by \[y=6\]sin\[2\pi \]\[(2t-0.1\text{ }x)\], where x and y are in mm and t is in seconds. The phase difference between two particles 2 mm apart at any instant is

A)

\[18{}^\circ \]

B)

\[36{}^\circ \]

C)

\[54{}^\circ \]

D)

\[72{}^\circ \]

View Answer
52) With what velocity should an observer approach a stationary sound source, so that the apparent frequency of sound should appear double the actual frequency? (v is velocity of sound).

A)

\[\frac{v}{2}\]

B)

\[3v\]

C)

\[2v\]

D)

\[v\]

View Answer
53) If a black body emits 0.5 J of energy per second when it is at\[27{}^\circ C\], then the amount of energy emitted by it when it is at \[627{}^\circ C\]will be

A)

40.5 J

B)

162 J

C)

13.5 J

D)

135 J

View Answer
54) A string vibrates with a frequency of 200 Hz. When its length is doubled and tension is altered, it begins to vibrate with a frequency of 300 Hz. The ratio of the new tension to the original tension is

A)

9 : 1

B)

1 : 9

C)

3 : 1

D)

1 : 3

View Answer
55) How many times more intense is a 60 dB sound than a 30 dB sound?

A)

1000

B)

2

C)

100

D)

4

View Answer
56) The masses of two radioactive substances are same and their half-lives are 1 yr and 2 yr respectively. The ratio of their activities after 4 yr will be

A)

1 : 4

B)

1 : 2

C)

1 : 3

D)

1 : 6

View Answer
57)    \[_{92}{{u}^{235}}\]Undergoes successive disintegrations with the end product of\[_{82}P{{b}^{203}}\]. The number of \[\alpha \] and \[\beta \] particles emitted are

A)

a = 6, p = 4

B)

a = 6, p = 0

C)

a = 8, p = 6

D)

a = 3, p = 3

View Answer
58) The most stable particle in Baryon group is

A)

neutron

B)

omega-particle

C)

proton

D)

lambda-particle

View Answer
59) In an unbiased p-n junction

A)

Potential at p is more than that at n

B)

Potential at p is less than that at n

C)

Potential at p is equal to that at n

D)

Potential at p is +ve and that at n is -ve

View Answer
60) To get an output Y = 1 from the circuit shown, the inputs A, B and C must be respectively

A)

0, 1, 0

B)

1, 0, 0

C)

1, 0, 1

D)

1, 1, 0

View Answer
61) The number of nodal planes present in \[{{\sigma }^{*}}s\] antibonding orbitals is

A)

\[1\]

B)

\[2\]

C)

\[0\]

D)

\[3\]

View Answer
62) Which of the following electrolytic solutions has the least specific conductance?

A)

\[0.02N\]

B)

\[0.2N\]

C)

\[2N\]

D)

\[0.002N\]

View Answer
63) The overlapping of orbitals in benzene is of the type

A)

\[sp-sp\]

B)

\[p-p\]

C)

\[s{{p}^{2}}-s{{p}^{2}}\]

D)

\[s{{p}^{3}}-s{{p}^{3}}\]

View Answer
64) The calculated bond order of superoxide ion \[(O_{2}^{-})\] is

A)

\[2.5\]

B)

\[2\]

C)

\[1.5\]

D)

\[1\]

View Answer
65) Which of the following can be measured by the Ostwald-Walker dynamic method?

A)

Relative lowering of vapour pressure

B)

Lowering of vapour pressure

C)

Vapour pressure of the solvent

D)

All of the above

View Answer
66) Mesomeric effect involves delocalisation of

A)

pi electrons

B)

Sigma electrons

C)

Protons

D)

None of these

View Answer
67) Which of the following has the maximum number of unpaired d electrons?

A)

\[Z{{n}^{2+}}\]

B)

\[F{{e}^{2+}}\]

C)

\[N{{i}^{3+}}\]

D)

\[C{{u}^{+}}\]

View Answer
68) One mole of which of the following has the highest entropy?

A)

Liquid nitrogen

B)

Hydrogen gas

C)

Mercury

D)

Diamond

View Answer
69) Which of the following species does not exert a resonance effect?

A)

\[{{C}_{6}}{{H}_{5}}N{{H}_{2}}\]

B)

\[{{C}_{6}}{{H}_{5}}\overset{+}{\mathop{N}}\,{{H}_{3}}\]

C)

\[{{C}_{6}}{{H}_{5}}OH\]

D)

\[{{C}_{6}}{{H}_{5}}Cl\]

View Answer
70) A complex compound in which the oxidation number of a metal is zero is

A)

\[{{K}_{4}}[Fe{{(CN)}_{6}}]\]

B)

\[{{K}_{3}}[Fe{{(CN)}_{6}}]\]

C)

\[[Ni{{(CO)}_{4}}]\]

D)

\[[Pt{{(N{{H}_{3}})}_{4}}]C{{l}_{2}}\]

View Answer
71) Catalytic dehydrogenation of a primary alcohol gives a

A)

Secondary alcohol

B)

Aldehyde

C)

Ketone

D)

Ester

View Answer
72) Excess of \[PC{{l}_{5}}\] reacts with cone \[{{H}_{2}}S{{O}_{4}}\] giving

A)

Chlorosulphonic acid

B)

Thionyl chloride

C)

Sulphuryl chloride

D)

Sulphurous acid

View Answer
73) If one mole of ammonia and one mole of hydrogen chloride are mixed in a closed container to form ammonium chloride gas, then

A)

\[\Delta H>\Delta U\]

B)

\[\Delta H=\Delta U\]

C)

\[\Delta H<\Delta U\]

D)

there is no relationship

View Answer
74) The compound on dehydrogenation gives a ketone. The original compound is

A)

Primary alcohol

B)

Secondary alcohol

C)

Tertiary alcohol

D)

Carboxylic acid

View Answer
75) Which is the most easily liquefiable rare gas?

A)

\[Xe\]

B)

\[Kr\]

C)

\[Ar\]

D)

\[Ne\]

View Answer
76) Three moles of \[PC{{l}_{5}}\], three moles of \[PC{{l}_{3}}\] and two moles of \[C{{l}_{2}}\] are taken in a closed vessel. If at equilibrium the vessel has 1.5 moles of \[PC{{l}_{5}}\], the number of moles of \[PC{{l}_{3}}\] present in it is

A)

\[5\]

B)

\[3\]

C)

\[6\]

D)

\[4.5\]

View Answer
77) How many optically active stereomers are possible for butan-2,3-diol?

A)

\[1\]

B)

\[2\]

C)

\[3\]

D)

\[4\]

View Answer
78) An octahedral complex is formed when hybrid orbitals of the following type are involved

A)

\[s{{p}^{3}}\]

B)

\[ds{{p}^{2}}\]

C)

\[{{d}^{2}}s{{p}^{3}}\]

D)

\[s{{p}^{2}}{{d}^{2}}\]

View Answer
79) For the reaction \[2HI(g)\rightleftharpoons {{H}_{2}}(g)+{{I}_{2}}(g)-Q\,kJ\],the equilibrium constant depends upon

A)

Temperature

B)

Pressure

C)

Catalyst

D)

Volume

View Answer
80) The angle strain in cyclobutane is

A)

\[{{24}^{o}}44\]

B)

\[{{29}^{o}}16\]

C)

\[{{19}^{o}}22\]

D)

\[{{9}^{o}}44\]

View Answer
81) Methoxy methane and ethanol are

A)

Position isomers

B)

Chain isomers

C)

Functional isomers

D)

Optical isomers

View Answer
82) When the azimuthal quantum number has the value of 2, the number of orbitals possible are

A)

\[7\]

B)

\[5\]

C)

\[3\]

D)

\[0\]

View Answer
83) For the reaction \[F{{e}_{2}}{{O}_{3}}+3CO\xrightarrow{{}}2Fe+3C{{O}_{2}},\]the volume of carbon monoxide required to reduce one mole of ferric oxide is

A)

\[22.4d{{m}^{3}}\]

B)

\[44.8d{{m}^{3}}\]

C)

\[67.2\text{ }d{{m}^{3}}\]

D)

\[11.2\text{ }d{{m}^{3}}\]

View Answer
84) The monomers of buna-S rubber are

A)

Vinyl chloride and sulphur

B)

Butadiene

C)

Styrene and butadiene

D)

Isoprene and butadiene

View Answer
85) An element with atomic number 21 is a

A)

Halogen

B)

Representative element

C)

Transition element

D)

Alkali metal

View Answer
86) n-propyl bromide on treating with alcoholic \[KOH\] produces

A)

Propane

B)

propene

C)

Propyne

D)

propanol

View Answer
87) Mercury is a liquid metal because

A)

It has a completely filled s orbital

B)

It has a small atomic size

C)

It has a completely filled d orbital that prevents d-d overlapping of orbitals

D)

It has a completely filled d orbital that causes d-d overlapping

View Answer
88) A compound is formed by elements A and B. This crystallises in the cubic structure where the A atoms are at the comers of the cube and B atoms are at the body centres. The simplest formula of the compound is

A)

\[AB\]

B)

\[{{A}_{6}}B\]

C)

\[{{A}_{8}}{{B}_{4}}\]

D)

\[A{{B}_{6}}\]

View Answer
89) Anisole can be prepared by the action of methyl iodide on sodium phenate. TW reaction is called

A)

Wurtzs reaction

B)

Williamsons reaction

C)

Fittigs reaction

D)

Etards reaction

View Answer
90) Malleability and ductility of metals can be accounted due to

A)

The presence of electrostatic force

B)

The crystalline structure in metal

C)

The capacity of layers of metal ions to slide over the other

D)

the interaction of electrons with metal ions in the lattice

View Answer
91) The correct order in which the first ionisation potential increases is

A)

\[Na,K,Be\]

B)

\[K,Na,Be\]

C)

\[K,Be,Na\]

D)

\[Be,Na,K\]

View Answer
92) \[10c{{m}^{3}}\]of \[0.1N\]monobasic acid requires \[15\text{ }c{{m}^{3}}\]of sodium hydroxide solution whose normality is

A)

\[1.5N\]

B)

\[0.15N\]

C)

\[0.066N\]

D)

\[0.66N\]

View Answer
93) The IUPAC name for tertiary butyl iodide is

A)

4-iodo butane

B)

2-iodo butane

C)

l-iodo-3-methyl propane

D)

2-iodo-2-methyl propane

View Answer
94) When sulphur dioxide is passed in an acidified \[{{K}_{2}}C{{r}_{2}}{{O}_{7}}\] solution, the oxidation state of sulphur is changed from

A)

\[+4\]to \[0\]

B)

\[+4\] to \[+2\]

C)

\[+4\] to \[+6\]

D)

\[+6\] to \[+4\]

View Answer
95) Mass of \[0.1\] mole of methane is

A)

\[1g\]

B)

\[16g\]

C)

\[1.6g\]

D)

\[0.1g\]

View Answer
96) The maximum number of hydrogen bonds that a molecule of water can have is

A)

\[1\]

B)

\[2\]

C)

\[3\]

D)

\[4\]

View Answer
97) A gas deviates from ideal behavior at a high pressure because its molecules

A)

Attract one another

B)

show the Tyndall effect

C)

have kinetic, energy

D)

are bound by covalent bonds

View Answer
98) The reagent used to convert an alkyne to alkene is

A)

\[Zn/HCl\]

B)

\[Sn/HCl\]

C)

\[Zn-Hg/HCl\]

D)

\[Pd/{{H}_{2}}\]

View Answer
99) When compared to \[\Delta {{G}^{o}}\] for the formation of \[A{{l}_{2}}{{O}_{3}}\], the \[\Delta {{G}^{o}}\] for the formation of \[C{{r}_{2}}{{O}_{3}}\] is

A)

Higher

B)

lower

C)

Same

D)

unpredicted

View Answer
100) In order to increase the volume of a gas by 10%, the pressure of the gas should be

A)

Increased by 10%

B)

Increased by 1%

C)

Decreased by 10%

D)

Decreased by 1%

View Answer
101) Helium is used in balloons in place of hydrogen because it is

A)

Incombustible

B)

Lighter than hydrogen

C)

Radioactive

D)

More abundant than hydrogen

View Answer
102) The basic principle of Cottrells precipitator is

A)

Le-Chateliers principle

B)

Peptisation

C)

Neutralisation of charge on colloidal particles

D)

Scattering of light

View Answer
103) When carbon monoxide is passed over solid caustic soda heated to\[{{200}^{o}}C\], it forms

A)

\[N{{a}_{2}}C{{O}_{3}}\]

B)

\[NaHC{{O}_{3}}\]

C)

\[HCOONa~\]

D)

\[C{{H}_{3}}COONa\]

View Answer
104) \[{{N}_{2}}+3{{H}_{2}}2N{{H}_{3}}+heat\]. What is the effect of the increase of temperature on the equilibrium of the reaction?

A)

Equilibrium is shifted to the left

B)

Equilibrium is shifted to the right

C)

Equilibrium is unaltered

D)

Reaction rate does not change

View Answer
105) Hydrogen gas is not liberated when the following metal is added to dil \[HCl\]

A)

\[Ag\]

B)

\[Zn\]

C)

\[Mg\]

D)

\[Sn\]

View Answer
106) Consider the Born-Haber cycle for the formation of an ionic compound given below and identify the compound (Z) formed.

A)

\[{{M}^{+}}{{X}^{-}}\]

B)

\[{{M}^{+}}{{X}^{-}}(s)\]

C)

\[MX\]

D)

\[{{M}^{+}}{{X}^{-}}(g)\]

View Answer
107) In the brown ring test, the brown colour of the ring is due to

A)

Ferrous nitrate

B)

Ferric nitrate

C)

A mixture of \[NO\] and \[N{{O}_{2}}\]

D)

Nitrosoferrous sulphate

View Answer
108) Amines behave as

A)

Lewis acid

B)

Lewis base

C)

Aprotic acid

D)

Neutral compound

View Answer
109) Dalda is prepared from oils by

A)

Oxidation

B)

Reduction

C)

Hydrolysis

D)

Distillation

View Answer
110) The chemical name of anisole is

A)

Ethanoic acid

B)

Methoxy benzene

C)

Propanone

D)

Acetone

View Answer
111) The number of disulphide linkages present in insulin are

A)

\[1\]

B)

\[2\]

C)

\[3\]

D)

\[4\]

View Answer
112) 80 g of oxygen contains as many atoms as in

A)

80 g of hydrogen

B)

1 g of hydrogen

C)

10 g of hydrogen

D)

5 g of hydrogen

View Answer
113) Which metal has a greater tendency to form metal oxide?

A)

\[Cr\]

B)

\[Fe\]

C)

\[Al\]

D)

\[Ca\]

View Answer
114) Identify the reaction that does not take place in a blast furnace.

A)

\[CaC{{O}_{3}}\xrightarrow{{}}CaO+C{{O}_{2}}\]

B)

\[CaO+Si{{O}_{2}}\xrightarrow{{}}CaSi{{O}_{3}}\]

C)

\[2F{{e}_{2}}{{O}_{3}}+3C\xrightarrow{{}}4Fe+3C{{O}_{2}}\]

D)

\[C{{O}_{2}}+C\xrightarrow{{}}2CO\]

View Answer
115) Waxes are esters of

A)

Glycerol

B)

Long chain alcohols

C)

Glycerol and fatty acid

D)

long chain alcohols and long chain fatty acids

View Answer
116) An ionic compound is expected to have tetrahedral structure if \[{{r}_{+}}/{{r}_{-}}\] lies in the range of

A)

\[0.414\]to\[0.732\],

B)

\[0.225\]to \[0.414\]

C)

0.155 to \[0.225\]

D)

\[0.732\] to \[1\]

View Answer
117) Among the following, which is least acidic?

A)

Phenol

B)

o-cresol

C)

p-nitrophenol

D)

p-chlorophenol

View Answer
118) A ligand can also be regarded as

A)

Lewis acid

B)

Bronsted base

C)

Lewis base

D)

Bronsted acid

View Answer
119) The colour of sky is due to

A)

Transmission of light

B)

Wavelength of scattered light

C)

Absorption of light by atomspheric gases

D)

All of the above

View Answer
120) Which of the following organic compounds answers to both iodoform test and Fehlings test?

A)

Ethanol

B)

Methanal

C)

Ethanal

D)

Propanone

View Answer
121) A leaf peeling of Tradescantia is kept in a medium having 10% NaCl. After a few minutes if we observe the leaf peel under the microscope, we are likely to see

A)

entry of water into the cell

B)

the cells bursting out

C)

diffusion of NaCl into the cell

D)

exit of water from the cell

View Answer
122) Early leaf spot disease in Arachis hypogea is caused due to infection of

A)

Circospora personata

B)

Gibberella fujikuroi

C)

Agrobacterium tumefaciens

D)

Phytophthora infestans

View Answer
123) Excessive growth of hair on the pinna is a feature found only in males because

A)

the female sex hormone estrogen suppresses the character in females

B)

the gene responsible for the character is present on the Y - chromosome only

C)

the gene responsible for the character is recessive in females and dominant only in males

D)

the character is induced in males as males produce testosterone

View Answer
124) Rapid increase in the blood sugar level of a patient can be immediately reduced by

A)

injecting insulin intravenously

B)

injecting insulin intramuscularly

C)

administering glucagon intravenously

D)

consuming large quantities of insulin tablets

View Answer
125) Which of the following is found exclusively in the sea water?

A)

Crabs

B)

Oysters

C)

Prawns

D)

Trygon

View Answer
126) The problem of necrosis and gradual senescence while performing tissue culture can be overcome by

A)

spraying auxins

B)

spraying cytokinins

C)

suspension culture

D)

subculture

View Answer
127) The immunoglobulin present in mothers milk is

A)

IgD

B)

IgE

C)

IgM

D)

IgA

View Answer
128) The diagram given by the side represents the sectional view of

A)

amphitropous ovule

B)

campylotropous ovule

C)

anatropous ovule

D)

orthotropous ovule

View Answer
129) In CAM plants, \[C{{O}_{2}}\]required for photosynthesis enters the plant body during

A)

day time through the lenticles

B)

night through the stomata which are kept open

C)

day time when the stomata are open

D)

night when the hydathodes are open

View Answer
130) A detritivorous animal of economic importance is

A)

earthworm

B)

giriraja fowl

C)

caterpillar larva

D)

leech

View Answer
131) Human egg is

A)

alecithal

B)

centrolecithal

C)

telolecithal

D)

megalecithal

View Answer
132) There are 64 codons in the genetic dictionary as

A)

there are 3 nonsense codons and 61 sense codons

B)

there are 64 different types of tRNA

C)

there are 64 amino acids to be coded

D)

genetic code has a triplet nature

View Answer
133) Vasopressin released from the neurohypophysis is mainly responsible for

A)

facultative reabsorption of water through Henles loop

B)

obligatory reabsorption of water through Bowmans capsule

C)

facultative reabsorption of water through DCT

D)

obligatory reabsorption of water through PCT

View Answer
134) Identify the substage of prophase - I of meiosis during which synapsis takes place

A)

diplotene

B)

zygotene

C)

leptotene

D)

pachytene

View Answer
135) Protein part of a holoenzyme is called

A)

exoenzyme

B)

endoenzyme

C)

coenzyme

D)

apoenzyme

View Answer
136) A gradual decrease in the size of the tail during metamorphosis in the life cycle of frog is a good example for

A)

programmed cell death

B)

cell necrosis

C)

cell senescence

D)

pinocytic activity

View Answer
137) Spot out the zone of our country considered as the Hot spot of biodiversity and regarded as the Cradle of Speciation.

A)

Western Ghats

B)

North East

C)

Himalayan base

D)

Deccan Plateau

View Answer
138) In Bt cotton, a transgenic plant, Bt refers to

A)

botanical

B)

beta

C)

biotechnology

D)

Bacillus thurengiensis

View Answer
139) Sequence of cellular layers from the periphery towards the cortex in an old dicot stem is

A)

epidermis, hypodermis, phellogen, phelloderm

B)

epidermis, phellogen, phellum, epidermis

C)

epidermis, hypodermis, cortex, endodermis

D)

epidermis, phellum, phellogen, phelloderm

View Answer
140) Higher frequency of melanine British moths and DDT resistance in mosquitoes are cited as examples for

A)

natural selection

B)

point mutation

C)

arrival of the fittest

D)

genetic drift

View Answer
141) Benedicts reagent test is conducted to confirm the presence of

A)

polysaccharides like starch

B)

lipids

C)

reducing sugars

D)

proteins

View Answer
142) An alkaloid called Reserpine is extracted from

A)

leaves of ashwagandha

B)

roots of sarpagandha

C)

leaves of sarpagandha

D)

roots of ashwagandha

View Answer
143) Nobel Prize for medicine was given for confirming the role of Helicobacter pylori in causing

A)

nephritis

B)

rhinitis

C)

bronchitis

D)

peptic ulcer

View Answer
144) In the sigmoid growth curve given by the side, the alphabets indicate the sequence of events. Choose the correct option where the alphabet specifies the event

A)

A = Phase of slow growth

B = Phase of exponential growth

C = Phase of diminishing growth

D = Stationary phase

B)

A = Phase of rapid growth

B = Phase of diminishing growth

C = Stationary phase

D = Phase of slow growth

C)

A = Diminishing growth

B = Exponential growth

C = Slow growth

D = Stationary growth

D)

A = Stationary phase

B = Phase of slow growth

C = Phase of rapid growth

D = Phase of diminishing growth

View Answer
145) Transformation of the early reducing atmosphere of the earth into an oxidizing atmosphere was mainly due to the activities of

A)

anaerobic photosynthesizers

B)

anaerobic chemoheterotrophs

C)

aerobic photosynthesizers

D)

anaerobic heterotrophs

View Answer
146) Genetically dwarf plants can be induced to grow tall by using

A)

gibberellins

B)

phycobillins

C)

auxins

D)

cytokinins

View Answer

147) Match the phenomenon listed under Column - I with those listed under Column - II. Select the correct answer from the options given

	Column - I		Column - II
A.	Warburg effect	1.	Change in gene frequency by chance
B.	Pasteur effect	2.	Postponing severance in the leaves by applying cytokinin
C.	Emerson effect	3.	Decline in the consumption of respiratory substrate due to a change from anaerobic to aerobic respiration
D.	Wright effect	4.	Inhibitory effect of \[{{O}_{2}}\]on photosynthesis
`		5.	Enhancement of photosynthesis by subjecting chlorophyll to the effect of two different wavelengths of light

A- 4 B-5 C-2 D-3

A-5 B-3 C-1 D-4

A- 5 B-4 C-1 D-2

A-4 B- 3 C-5 D-1

View Answer

148) Which of the following is an agrostologic method of soil conservation?

A)

Basin listing

B)

Terracing

C)

Dry farming

D)

Mulching

View Answer
149) The sequence of events mentioned below are symbolised by alphabets. Choose the correct answer where the alphabets are matched with the processes \[\begin{align} & RNA\xrightarrow[{}]{A}DNA\xrightarrow[{}]{B}DNA \\ & \xrightarrow[{}]{{}}mRNA\xrightarrow[{}]{D}Polypeptide \\ \end{align}\]

A)

A = Replication

B = Transformation

C = Transcription

D = Translation

B)

A = Reverse transcription

B = Replication

C = Transcription

D = Translation

C)

A = Replication

B = Transcription

C = Translation

D = Transduction

D)

A = Reverse transcription

B = Translation

C = Transcription

D = Replication

View Answer
150) Identify the alga known for a biological activity called bioluminescence

A)

Spirogyra

B)

Chlorella

C)

Cydotella

D)

Noctiluca

View Answer
151) Who among the following is recognized as the father of Immunology?

A)

Robert Koch

B)

Ferdinand Kohn

C)

Edward Jenner

D)

Louis Pasteur

View Answer
152) Whether a child died after normal birth or died before birth can be confirmed by measuring

A)

tidal volume of air

B)

residual volume of air

C)

the weight of the child

D)

the dead space air

View Answer
153) Syndactyly, prehensile tail and long protrusible tongue are the unique features of

A)

rhesus monkey

B)

Archaeopteryx

C)

horse fish

D)

Chaemeleon

View Answer

154) Match the hormones listed under Column - I with their functions listed under Column - II. Choose the answer which gives the correct combination of the alphabets of the two columns.

	Column-I		Column-II
A	Oxytocin	1.	Stimulates ovulation
B	Prolactin	2.	Implantation and maintenance of pregnancy
C	Luteinizing hormone	3.	Lactation after child birth
D	Progesteron	4. 5.	Uterine contraction during labour Reabsorption of water by nephrons

A- 4 B-2 C- 3 D- 5

A-5 B-3 C-1 D-4

A-4 B-3 C-1 D-2

A- 5 B-2 C-4 D-3

View Answer

155) A dihybrid test cross-yielding a result of 1 : 1 : 1 : 1 ratio is indicative of

A)

4 different types of gametes produced by the \[{{F}_{1}}\]- dihybrid

B)

homozygous condition of the \[{{F}_{1}}\]- dihybrid

C)

4 different types of \[{{F}_{1}}\]- generation dihybrids

D)

4 different types of gametes produced by the \[{{P}_{1}}\]- parent

View Answer
156) Intercalary meristem is a derivative of

A)

lateral meristem

B)

promeristem

C)

primary meristem

D)

secondary meristem

View Answer
157) Which one of the following is not a device to promote cross - pollination?

A)

Cleistogamy

B)

Heterostyly

C)

Herkogamy

D)

Dichogamy

View Answer
158) Anterior choroid plexus is present on the

A)

floor of diencephalon

B)

cerebral hemispheres

C)

roof of diencephalon

D)

roof of medulla oblongata

View Answer
159) Which of the following statement is true about viruses?

A)

All viruses known to man are obligate parasites

B)

Some viruses have cellular structure and are saprophytes

C)

Viruses are filterable facultative parasites

D)

Viruses are capable of performing metabolic activities on their own

View Answer
160) A condition where a certain gene is present in only a single copy in a diploid cell is called

A)

heterozygous

B)

monogamous

C)

homozygous

D)

hemizygous

View Answer
161) An autosomal genetic disorder called cri-du-chat is caused due to

A)

non - disjunction

B)

mutation

C)

deletion

D)

duplication

View Answer
162) Notochord, skeletal system and dermis of the skin are the derivatives of

A)

mesoderm

B)

endoderm

C)

ectoderm

D)

all the three layers

View Answer
163) Photosynthesis cannot continue for long if during light reaction, only cyclic photophosphorylation takes place. This is because

A)

only ATP is formed \[NADP{{H}^{+}}+\text{ }{{H}^{+}}\]is not formed

B)

photosystem-I stops getting excited at a wavelength of light beyond 680 nm

C)

there is unidirectional cyclic movement of the electrons

D)

there is no evolution of\[{{O}_{2}}\]

View Answer
164) Which of the following sequence is truely a systemic circulation pathway?

A)

Right ventricle \[\to \] Pulmonary aorta \[\to \] Tissues \[\to \] Pulmonary veins \[\to \] Left auricle

B)

Right auricle \[\to \] Left ventricle \[\to \] aorta \[\to \] Tissues \[\to \] Veins \[\to \] Right auricle

C)

Left auricle \[\to \] Left ventricle \[\to \] pulmonary aorta \[\to \] Tissues \[\to \] Right auricle

D)

Left auricle \[\to \] Left ventricle \[\to \] aorta \[\to \] Arteries \[\to \] Tissues \[\to \] veins \[\to \] Right atrium

View Answer
165) Oxalosuccinic acid, an intermediary compound of Krebs cycle is a

A)

5 carbon compound

B)

6 carbon compound

C)

4 carbon compound

D)

3 carbon compound

View Answer
166) When body tissues are injured resulting in the loss of blood, the process of blood clotting begins and the blood platelets release

A)

fibrinogen

B)

thromboplastin

C)

prothrombin

D)

thrombin

View Answer
167) According to the tac - operon concept, which functional unit of the bacterial genetic material is responsible for suppressing the activity of the operator gene in the absence of lactose?

A)

regulator gene

B)

structural gene

C)

promoter gene

D)

represser protein

View Answer
168) A hybrid where the cytoplasm of two parent cells are fused by retaining only one parental nucleus is called

A)

asymmetric somatic hybrid

B)

cybrid

C)

an interbreed

D)

symmetric somatic hybrid

View Answer
169) A sexually transmitted disease symptomized by the development of chancre on the genitals is caused by the infection of

A)

Treponema pallidum

B)

Neisseria gonorrhoeae

C)

Human Immunodeficiency Virus

D)

Hepatitis - B virus

View Answer
170) A phenomenon where the third base of r RNA at its 5 end can pair with a non - complementary base of mRNA is called

A)

universality

B)

colinearity

C)

degenerency

D)

wobbling

View Answer
171) Given below are two statements A and B. Choose the correct answer related to the statements.

Statement A: Ammo acids are amphoteric in their function.

Statement B: All ammo acids are necessary for our body.

A)

Statement A is correct. Statement B is wrong

B)

Both the Statements A and B are correct

C)

Statement A is wrong. Statement B is correct

D)

Both the Statements A and B are wrong

View Answer
172) Plants like Aegle mormelos, Ocimum sanctum and Ficus religeosa are a group of plants designated as

A)

medicinal plant species

B)

lesser known food plants

C)

traditional food crops

D)

sacred species of plants

View Answer
173) In the diagram given by the side, different parts are indicated by alphabets. Choose the answer in which these alphabets correctly match with the parts they indicate.

A)

A = Rostellum

B = Hooks

C = Sucker

D = Proglottids

B)

A = Suctorial mouth,

B = Hooks,

C = Sucker,

D = Segments

C)

A = Mouth,

B = Tentacles,

C = Sucker,

D = Segments

D)

A = Sucker,

B = Hairs,

C = Ring,

D = Proglottids

View Answer
174) In a vascular bundle, if xylem vessels develop in a centripetal fashion, the xylem is likely to be

A)

mesarch

B)

centrarch

C)

endarch

D)

exarch

View Answer
175) Which of the following plant material is an efficient water imbibant?

A)

Lignin

B)

Pectin

C)

Agar

D)

Cellulose

View Answer
176) Identify the plant parts whose transverse section show a clear and prominent pith

A)

dicot stem and monocot stem

B)

dicot stem and monocot root

C)

dicot root and monocot root

D)

dicot stem and dicot root

View Answer
177) In the diagram of the lateral view of the human brain, parts are indicated by alphabets. Choose the answer in which these alphabets have been correctly matched with the part which they indicate.

A)

A = Temporal lobe

B = Parietal lobe

C = Cerebellum

D = Medulla oblongata

E = Frontal lobe

B)

A = Frontal lobe

B = Temporal lobe

C = Cerebrum

D = Medulla oblongata

E = Occipetal lobe

C)

A = Temporal lobe

B = Parietal lobe

C = Cerebrum

D = Medulla oblongata

E = Frontal lobe

D)

A = Frontal lobe

B = Temporal lobe

C = Cerebellum

D = Medulla oblongata

E = Perietal lobe

View Answer
178) Of all the environmental factors which is the most influential in determining the rate of transpiration?

A)

Light

B)

Water

C)

Relative humidity of atmosphere

D)

Temperature

View Answer
179) Curved portion of the Henles loop of the nephrons are lined by

A)

squamous epithelium

B)

columnar epithelium

C)

ciliated epithelium

D)

cuboidal epithelium

View Answer
180) In succulent plants like Opuntia, the RQ value will be

A)

less than 1

B)

more than 1

C)

infinity

D)

zero

View Answer

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