Solved papers for CET Karnataka Medical CET - Karnataka Medical Solved Paper-2014

done CET - Karnataka Medical Solved Paper-2014

  • question_answer1) A solenoid has length 0.4 cm, radius 1 cm and 400 turns of wire. If a current of 5 A is passed through this solenoid, what is the magnetic field inside the solenoid?

    A) \[6.28\times {{10}^{-7}}T~\]

    B) \[6.28\times {{10}^{-4}}T\]

    C) \[6.28\times {{10}^{-6}}T\]

    D) \[6.28\times {{10}^{-3}}T\]

    E) None of the Above

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  • question_answer2) A gyromagnetic ratio of the electron revolving in a circular orbit of hydrogen atom is\[8.8\times {{10}^{10}}C\text{ }k{{g}^{-1}}\]. What is the mass of the electron? Given charge of the electron \[=1.6\times {{10}^{-19}}C\].

    A) \[1.1\times {{10}^{-29}}kg\]

    B) \[1\times {{10}^{-29}}kg\]

    C) \[\frac{1}{11}\times {{10}^{-29}}kg\]

    D) \[0.1\times {{10}^{-29}}kg\]

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  • question_answer3) What is the value of shunt resistance required to convert a galvanometer of resistance \[100\Omega \] into an ammeter of range 1A? Given: Full scale deflection of the galvanometer is 5 mA.

    A) \[0.5\Omega \]

    B) \[\frac{5}{9.95}\Omega \]

    C) \[0.05\Omega \]

    D) \[\frac{9.95}{5}\Omega \]

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  • question_answer4) A circular coil of radius 10 cm and 100 turns carries a current 1 A. What is the magnetic moment of the coil?

    A) \[3.142A\,{{m}^{2}}\]

    B) \[3.142\times {{10}^{4}}\text{ }A\text{ }{{m}^{2}}\]

    C) \[3A\,{{m}^{2}}\]

    D) \[{{10}^{4}}A\,{{m}^{2}}\]

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  • question_answer5) A susceptibility of a certain magnetic material is 400. What is the class of the magnetic material?

    A) Ferromagnetic

    B) Diamagnetic

    C) Ferroelectric

    D) Paramagnetic

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  • question_answer6) A solenoid of inductance 2 H carries a current of 1 A. What is the magnetic energy stored in a solenoid?

    A) \[4J\]

    B) \[2J\]

    C) \[5J\]

    D) \[1J\]

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  • question_answer7) A multimeter reads a voltage of a certain A.C. source as 100 V. What is the peak value of voltage of A.C. source?

    A) \[141.4V\]

    B) \[200V\]

    C) \[400V\]

    D) \[100V\]

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  • question_answer8) A series LCR circuit contains inductance 5 mH, capacitance \[2\mu F\] and resistance \[10\Omega \]. If a frequency A.C. source is varied, what is the frequency at which maximum power is dissipated?

    A) \[\frac{2}{\pi }\times {{10}^{5}}Hz\]

    B) \[\frac{{{10}^{5}}}{\pi }Hz\]

    C) \[\frac{5}{\pi }\times {{10}^{3}}Hz\]

    D) \[\frac{{{10}^{-5}}}{\pi }Hz\]

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  • question_answer9) A step down transformer has 50 turns on secondary and 1000 turns on primary winding. If a transformer is connected to 220 V 1 A A.C. source, what is output current of the transformer?

    A) \[100A\]

    B) \[\frac{1}{20}A\]

    C) \[2A\]

    D) \[20A\]

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  • question_answer10) The average power dissipated in A.C. circuit is 2 watt. If a current flowing through a circuit is 2 A and impedance is \[1\Omega \], what is the power factor of the A.C. circuit?

    A) \[0\]

    B) \[0.5\]

    C) \[\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\]

    D) \[1\]

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  • question_answer11) A plane electromagnetic wave of frequency 20 MHz travels through a space along x direction. If the electric field vector at a certain point in space is \[6V\text{ }{{m}^{-1}}\], what is the magnetic field vector at that point?

    A) \[2T\]

    B) \[2\times {{10}^{-8}}T\]

    C) \[\frac{1}{2}T\]

    D) \[1\times {{10}^{-8}}T\]

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  • question_answer12) Two capacitors of 10 PF and 20 PF are connected to 200 V and 100 V sources respectively. If they are connected by the wire, what is the common potential of the capacitors?

    A) \[300volt\]

    B) \[133.3volt\]

    C) \[400volt\]

    D) \[150volt\]

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  • question_answer13) A physical quantity Q is found to depend on observables x, y and z, obeying relation \[Q=\frac{{{x}^{2}}\,{{y}^{2}}}{z}\]. The percentage error in the measurements of x, y and z are 1%, 2% and 4% respectively. What is percentage error in the quantity Q?

    A) \[11%\]

    B) \[4%\]

    C) \[1%\]

    D) \[3%\]

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  • question_answer14) Which of the following is not a vector quantity?

    A) Momentum

    B) Weight

    C) Potential energy

    D) Nuclear spin

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  • question_answer15) A car moves from A to B with a speed of 30 kmph and from B to A with a speed of 20 km ph. What is the average speed of the car?

    A) \[50kmph\]

    B) \[25kmph\]

    C) \[10kmph\]

    D) \[24kmph\]

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  • question_answer16) A body starts from rest and moves with constant acceleration for t s. It travels a. distance \[{{x}_{1}}\] in first half of time and \[{{x}_{2}}\] in next half of time, then

    A) \[{{x}_{2}}=3{{x}_{1}}\]

    B) \[{{x}_{2}}={{x}_{1}}\]

    C) \[{{x}_{2}}=4{{x}_{1}}\]

    D) \[{{x}_{2}}=2{{x}_{1}}\]

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  • question_answer17) A person is driving a vehicle at uniform speed of \[5m\text{ }{{s}^{-1}}\]on a level curved track of radius 5 m. The coefficient of static friction between tyres and road is 0.1. Will the person slip while taking the turn with the same speed? Take \[g=10m{{s}^{-2}}\] Choose the correct statement.

    A) A person will slip if \[{{v}^{2}}<5m\,{{s}^{-1}}\].

    B) A person will slip if \[{{v}^{2}}=5m\,{{s}^{-1}}\].

    C) A person will not slip if \[{{v}^{2}}>10\,m\,{{s}^{-1}}\].

    D) A person will slip if \[{{v}^{2}}>5\text{ }m\text{ }{{s}^{-1}}\].

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  • question_answer18) A stone is thrown vertically at a speed of \[30m{{s}^{-1}}\]making an angle of \[{{45}^{o}}\] with the horizontal. What is the maximum height reached by the stone? Take \[g=10m\,{{s}^{-2}}\]

    A) \[15m\]

    B) \[30m\]

    C) \[10m\]

    D) \[22.5m\]

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  • question_answer19) A force \[\overrightarrow{F}=5\hat{i}+2\hat{j}-5\hat{k}\]acts on a particle whose position vector is \[\overrightarrow{r}=\hat{i}-2\hat{j}+\hat{k}\]. What is the torque about the origin?

    A) \[8\hat{i}-10\hat{j}-8\hat{k}\]

    B) \[8\hat{i}+10\hat{j}+12\hat{k}\]

    C) \[10\hat{i}-10\hat{j}-\hat{k}\]

    D) \[8\hat{i}+10\hat{j}-12\hat{k}\]

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  • question_answer20) What is a period of revolution of earth satellite? Ignore the height of satellite above the surface of earth. Given:

    (1) The value of gravitational acceleration\[g=10\,m\,{{s}^{-2}}\].
    (2) Radius of earth \[{{R}_{E}}=6400\text{ }km\]. Take \[\pi =3.14\].

    A) \[83.73\text{ }minutes~\]

    B) \[85\text{ }minutes\]

    C) \[90minutes\]

    D) \[156\text{ }minutes\]

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  • question_answer21) A period of geostationary satellite is

    A) \[30h\]

    B) \[24h\]

    C) \[48h\]

    D) \[12h\]

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  • question_answer22) What is the source temperature of the Carnot engine required to get 70% efficiency? Given sink temperature \[={{27}^{o}}C\]

    A) \[{{270}^{o}}C\]

    B) \[{{1000}^{o}}C\]

    C) \[{{727}^{o}}C\]

    D) \[{{90}^{o}}C\]

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  • question_answer23) A 10 kg metal block is attached to a spring of spring constant\[1000N\text{ }{{m}^{-1}}\]. A block is displaced from equilibrium position by 10 cm and released. The maximum acceleration of the block is

    A) \[200m{{s}^{-2}}\]

    B) \[10m{{s}^{-2}}\]

    C) \[0.1m\text{ }{{s}^{-2}}\]

    D) \[100m\text{ }{{s}^{-2}}\]

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  • question_answer24) A metallic wire of 1 m length has a mass of \[10\times {{10}^{-3}}kg\]. If a tension of 100 N is applied to a wire, what is the speed of transverse wave.

    A) \[200m{{s}^{-1}}\]

    B) \[100m{{s}^{-1}}\]

    C) \[0.1m\text{ }{{s}^{-1}}\]

    D) \[10m\text{ }{{s}^{-1}}\]

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  • question_answer25) A train is approaching towards a platform with a speed of \[10m\text{ }{{s}^{-1}}\]while blowing a whistle of frequency 340 Hz. What is the frequency of whistle heard by a stationary observer on the platform? Given speed of sound \[=340m\text{ }{{s}^{-1}}\].

    A) \[340Hz\]

    B) \[330Hz\]

    C) \[360Hz\]

    D) \[350Hz\]

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  • question_answer26) A rotating wheel changes angular speed from 1800 rpm to 3000 rpm in 20 s. What is the angular acceleration assuming to be uniform?

    A) \[2\pi \text{ }rad\text{ }{{s}^{-2}}\]

    B) \[60\pi \text{ }rad\text{ }{{s}^{-2}}\]

    C) \[40\pi \text{ }rad\text{ }{{s}^{-2}}\]

    D) \[90\pi \text{ }rad\text{ }{{s}^{-2}}\]

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  • question_answer27) A flow of liquid is streamline if the Reynold number is

    A) between 2000 to 3000

    B) less than 1000

    C) between 4000 to 5000

    D) greater than 1000

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  • question_answer28) A pipe of 30 cm long and open at both the ends produces harmonics. Which harmonic mode of pipe resonates a 1.1 kHz source? Given speed of sound in air \[=330m\text{ }{{s}^{-1}}\].

    A) Third harmonic

    B) Fifth harmonic

    C) Second harmonic

    D) Fourth harmonic

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  • question_answer29) In anomalous expansion of water, at what temperature, the density of water is maximum?

    A) \[>{{4}^{o}}C\]

    B) \[{{4}^{o}}C\]

    C) \[{{10}^{o}}C\]

    D) \[<{{4}^{o}}C\]

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  • question_answer30) An aero plane executes a horizontal loop at a speed of 720 km ph with its wings banked at\[{{45}^{o}}\]. What is the radius of the loop? Take \[g=10m{{s}^{-2}}\].

    A) \[7.2km\]

    B) \[4km\]

    C) \[2km\]

    D) \[4.5km\]

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  • question_answer31) A body having a moment of inertia about its axis of rotation equal to \[3kg\text{ }{{m}^{2}}\]is rotating with angular velocity of\[3\text{ }rad\text{ }{{s}^{-1}}\]. Kinetic energy of this rotating body is same as that of a body of mass 27 kg moving with velocity v. The value of r is

    A) \[2m\text{ }{{s}^{-1}}\]

    B) \[1m\text{ }{{s}^{-1}}\]

    C) \[1.5m{{s}^{-1}}\]

    D) \[0.5m{{s}^{-1}}\]

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  • question_answer32) A cycle tyre bursts suddenly. What is the type of this process?

    A) Isochoric

    B) Isothermal

    C) Isobaric

    D) Adiabatic

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  • question_answer33) An object is placed at 20 cm in front of a concave mirror produces three times magnified real image. What is focal length of the concave mirror?

    A) \[10cm\]

    B) \[15cm\]

    C) \[7.5cm\]

    D) \[6.6cm\]

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  • question_answer34) A focal length of a lens is 10 cm. What is power of a lens in dioptre?

    A) \[15D\]

    B) \[0.1D\]

    C) \[20D\]

    D) \[10D\]

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  • question_answer35) A microscope is having objective of focal length 1 cm and eyepiece of focal length 6 cm. If tube length is 30 cm and image is formed at the least distance of distinct vision, what is the magnification produced by the microscope? Take \[D=25\text{ }cm\].

    A) \[25\]

    B) \[6\]

    C) \[6\]

    D) \[150\]

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  • question_answer36) A -fringe width of a certain interference pattern is \[\beta =0.002cm\]. What is the distance of 5th dark fringe from centre?

    A) \[1.1\times {{10}^{-2}}cm\]

    B) \[1\times {{10}^{-2}}cm\]

    C) \[3.28\times {{10}^{6}}cm\]

    D) \[11\times {{10}^{-2}}cm\]

    E) None of the Above

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  • question_answer37) Diameter of the objective of a telescope is 200 cm. What is the resolving power of a telescope? Take wavelength of light =\[\text{5000}\overset{\text{o}}{\mathop{\text{A}}}\,\].

    A) \[1\times {{10}^{6}}\]

    B) \[6.56\times {{10}^{6}}\]

    C) \[3.28\times {{10}^{6}}\]

    D) \[3.28\times {{10}^{5}}\]

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  • question_answer38) A polarized light of intensity \[{{I}_{0}}\] is passed through another polarizer whose pass axis makes an angle of \[{{60}^{o}}\] with the pass axis of the former. What is the intensity of emergent polarized light from second polarizer?

    A) \[I={{I}_{0}}/5\]

    B) \[I={{I}_{0}}\]

    C) \[{{I}_{0}}/4\]

    D) \[I={{I}_{0}}/6\]

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  • question_answer39) What is the de Broglie wavelength of the electron accelerated through a potential difference of 100 volt?

    A) \[0.1227\overset{\text{o}}{\mathop{\text{A}}}\,\]

    B) \[12.27\overset{\text{o}}{\mathop{\text{A}}}\,\]

    C) \[0.001227\overset{\text{o}}{\mathop{\text{A}}}\,\]

    D) \[1.227\overset{\text{o}}{\mathop{\text{A}}}\,\]

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  • question_answer40) The maximum kinetic energy of the photoelectrons depends only on

    A) incident angle

    B) potential

    C) pressure

    D) frequency

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  • question_answer41) Which of the following spectral series of hydrogen atom is lying in visible range of electromagnetic wave?

    A) Lyman series

    B) Paschen series

    C) Balmer series

    D) Pfund series

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  • question_answer42) What is the energy of the electron revolving in third orbit expressed in eV?

    A) \[4.53eV\]

    B) \[1.51eV\]

    C) \[4eV\]

    D) \[3.4eV\]

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  • question_answer43) The relation between half-life (T) and decay constant \[(\lambda )\] is

    A) \[\lambda T={{\log }_{e}}2\]

    B) \[\lambda T=1\]

    C) \[\lambda =\log 2T\]

    D) \[\lambda T=\frac{1}{2}\]

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  • question_answer44) A force between two protons is same as the force between proton and neutron. The nature of the force is

    A) electrical force

    B) weak nuclear force

    C) gravitational force

    D) strong nuclear force

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  • question_answer45) In n type semiconductor, electrons are majority charge carriers but it does not show any negative charge. The reason is

    A) mobility of electrons is extremely small

    B) electrons are stationary

    C) atom is electrically neutral

    D) electrons neutralize with holes

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  • question_answer46) For the given digital circuit, write the truth table and identify the logic gate it represents

    A) NAND gate

    B) OR gate

    C) AND gate

    D) NOR gate

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  • question_answer47) If \[\alpha \]-current gain of a transistor is 0.98. What is the value of R-current gain of the transistor?

    A) \[4.9\]

    B) \[0.49\]

    C) \[5\]

    D) \[49\]

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  • question_answer48) A tuned amplifier circuit is used to generate a carrier frequency of 2 MHz for the amplitude modulation. The value of \[\sqrt{LC}\] is

    A) \[\frac{1}{3\pi \times {{10}^{6}}}\]

    B) \[\frac{1}{2\pi \times {{10}^{6}}}\]

    C) \[\frac{1}{4\pi \times {{10}^{6}}}\]

    D) \[\frac{1}{2\times {{10}^{6}}}\]

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  • question_answer49) If a charge on the body is\[1\text{ }nC\], then how many electrons are present on the body?

    A) \[6.25\times {{10}^{27}}\]

    B) \[1.6\times {{10}^{19}}\]

    C) \[6.25\times {{10}^{28}}\]

    D) \[6.25\times {{10}^{9}}\]

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  • question_answer50) Two equal and opposite charges of masses \[{{m}_{1}}\] and \[{{m}_{2}}\] are accelerated in an uniform electric field through the same distance. What is the ratio of their accelerations if their ratio of masses is \[\frac{{{m}_{1}}}{{{m}_{2}}}=0.5\]?

    A) \[\frac{{{a}_{1}}}{{{a}_{2}}}=2\]

    B) \[\frac{{{a}_{1}}}{{{a}_{2}}}=0.5\]

    C) \[\frac{{{a}_{1}}}{{{a}_{2}}}=3\]

    D) \[\frac{{{a}_{1}}}{{{a}_{2}}}=1\]

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  • question_answer51) What is the nature of Gaussian surface involved in Gauss law of electrostatic?

    A) Magnetic

    B) Scalar

    C) Vector

    D) Electrical

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  • question_answer52) What is the electric potential at a distance of 9 cm from 3 nC?

    A) \[300V\]

    B) \[270V\]

    C) \[30V\]

    D) \[3V\]

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  • question_answer53) A voltmeter reads 4 V when connected to a parallel plate capacitor with air as a dielectric. When a dielectric slab is introduced between plates for the same configuration, voltmeter reads 2 V. What is the dielectric constant of the material?

    A) \[8\]

    B) \[0.5\]

    C) \[10\]

    D) \[2\]

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  • question_answer54) A spherical conductor of radius 2 cm is uniformly charged with 3 nC. What is the electric field at a distance of 3 cm from the centre of the sphere?

    A) \[3\times {{10}^{4}}V{{m}^{-1}}~\]

    B) \[3\times {{10}^{6}}V{{m}^{-1}}\]

    C) \[3\times {{10}^{-4}}V{{m}^{-1}}\]

    D) \[3V{{m}^{-1}}\]

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  • question_answer55) A carbon film resistor has colour code Green Black Violet Gold. The value of the resistor is

    A) \[500\pm 5%\text{ }M\Omega \]

    B) \[50M\Omega \]

    C) \[-500\pm 10%M\Omega \]

    D) \[500M\Omega \]

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  • question_answer56) Two resistors of resistances\[2\Omega \]. and \[6\Omega \]. Are connected in parallel. This combination is then connected to a battery of emf 2 V and internal resistance\[0.5\Omega \]. What is the current flowing through the battery?

    A) \[\frac{4}{17}A\]

    B) \[4A\]

    C) \[1A\]

    D) \[\frac{4}{3}A\]

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  • question_answer57) The equivalent resistance of two resistors connected in series is \[6\Omega \] and their parallel equivalent resistance is\[\frac{4}{3}\Omega \]. What are the values of resistances?

    A) \[4\Omega ,\,2\Omega \]

    B) \[4\Omega ,\,6\Omega \]

    C) \[6\Omega ,\,2\Omega \]

    D) \[8\Omega ,\,1\Omega \]

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  • question_answer58) In a potentiometer experiment of a cell of emf 1.25 V gives balancing length of 30 cm. If the cell is replaced by another cell, balancing length is found to be 40 cm. What is the emf of second cell?

    A) \[\simeq 1.47V\]

    B) \[\simeq 1.57V\]

    C) \[\simeq 1.37V\]

    D) \[\simeq 1.67V\]

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  • question_answer59) A charged particle experiences magnetic force in the presence of magnetic field. Which of the following statement is correct?

    A) The particle is stationary and magnetic field is perpendicular.

    B) The particle is moving and magnetic field is perpendicular to the velocity.

    C) The particle is stationary and magnetic field is parallel.

    D) The particle is moving and magnetic field is parallel to velocity.

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  • question_answer60) If a velocity has both perpendicular and parallel field, what is the path followed by a charged particle?

    A) Linear

    B) Circular

    C) Helical

    D) Elliptical

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  • question_answer61) The IUPAC name of B is

    A) 3-methylbutan-2-ol

    B) 2-methylbutan-3-ol

    C) 2-methylbutan-2-ol

    D) , pentan-2-ol.

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  • question_answer62) For Freundlich isotherm a graph of \[\log \frac{x}{m}\] is plotted against log P. The slope of the line and its y-axis intercept, respectively corresponds to

    A) \[\frac{1}{n},k\]

    B) \[\log \frac{1}{n},k\]

    C) \[\frac{1}{n},logk\]

    D) \[\log \frac{1}{n},\,\log k\]

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  • question_answer63) A plot of \[\frac{1}{T}\]vs k for a reaction gives the slope\[-1\times {{10}^{4}}K\]. The energy of activation for the reaction is (Given: \[R=8.314\text{ }J\text{ }{{K}^{-1}}mo{{l}^{-1}}\])

    A) \[8314\text{ }J\text{ }mo{{l}^{-1}}\]

    B) \[1.202kJ\text{ }mo{{l}^{-1}}\]

    C) \[12.02\text{ }J\text{ }mo{{l}^{-1}}\]

    D) \[83.14\text{ }kJ\text{ }mo{{l}^{-1}}\]

    E) None of the Above

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  • question_answer64) The IUPAC name of the complex ion formed when gold dissolves in aqua regia is

    A) Tetrachloridoaurate (III)

    B) Tetrachloridoaurate (I)

    C) Tetrachloridoaurate (II)

    D) Dichloridoaurate (III).

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  • question_answer65) The correct sequence of reactions to be performed to convert benzene into m-bromoaniline is

    A) nitration, reduction, bromination

    B) bromination, nitration, reduction

    C) nitration, bromination, reduction

    D) reduction, nitration, bromination.

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  • question_answer66) Y is

    A)

    B)

    C)

    D)

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  • question_answer67) \[{{A}_{(g)}}\xrightarrow{\Delta }{{P}_{(g)}}+{{Q}_{(g)}}+{{R}_{(g)}}\], follows first order kinetics with a half-life of \[69.3s\]at\[{{500}^{o}}C\]. Starting from the gas A enclosed in a container at \[{{500}^{o}}C\] and at a pressure of\[0.4atm\], the total pressure of the system after \[230s\]will be

    A) \[1.15atm\]

    B) \[1.32atm\]

    C) \[1.22atm\]

    D) \[1.12atm\]

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  • question_answer68) \[Mn{{O}_{2}}+HCl\xrightarrow{\Delta }{{A}_{(g)}}\] \[{{A}_{(g)}}+{{F}_{2(excess)}}\xrightarrow{573K}{{B}_{(g)}}\] \[{{B}_{(l)}}+{{U}_{(s)}}\xrightarrow{{}}{{C}_{(g)}}+{{D}_{(g)}}\] The gases A, B, C and D are respectively

    A) \[C{{l}_{2}},ClF,U{{F}_{6}},Cl{{F}_{3}}\]

    B) \[C{{l}_{2}},Cl{{F}_{3}},U{{F}_{6}},ClF\]

    C) \[{{O}_{2}},O{{F}_{2}},{{U}_{2}}{{O}_{3}},{{O}_{2}}{{F}_{2}}\]

    D) \[{{O}_{2}},{{O}_{2}}{{F}_{2}},{{U}_{2}}{{O}_{3}},O{{F}_{2}}\]

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  • question_answer69) Acetophenone cannot be prepared easily starting from

    A) \[{{C}_{6}}{{H}_{5}}CH(OH)C{{H}_{3}}\]

    B) \[{{C}_{6}}{{H}_{5}}C{{H}_{3}}\]

    C) \[{{C}_{6}}{{H}_{5}}C\equiv CH\]

    D) \[{{C}_{6}}{{H}_{6}}\]

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  • question_answer70) One mole of ammonia was completely absorbed in one litre solution each of (1)\[1M\text{ }HCl\], (2) \[1M\text{ }C{{H}_{3}}COOH\]and (3) \[1M\text{ }{{H}_{2}}S{{O}_{4}}\]at 298 K. The decreasing order for the pH of the resulting solutions is (Given: \[{{K}_{b}}(N{{H}_{3}})=4.74\])

    A) \[2>3>1\]

    B) \[1>2>3\]

    C) \[2>1>3\]

    D) \[3>2>1\]

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  • question_answer71) \[5.5\text{ }mg\]of nitrogen gas dissolves in \[180g\]of water at \[273K\]and one atm pressure due to nitrogen gas. The mole fraction of nitrogen in \[180g\]of water at 5 atm nitrogen pressure is approximately

    A) \[1\times {{10}^{-6}}\]

    B) \[1\times {{10}^{-5}}\]

    C) \[1\times {{10}^{-3}}\]

    D) \[1\times {{10}^{-4}}\]

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  • question_answer72) \[50c{{m}^{3}}\]of \[0.04M\text{ }{{K}_{2}}C{{r}_{2}}{{O}_{7}}\]in acidic medium oxidizes a sample of \[{{H}_{2}}S\] gas to sulphur. Volume of \[0.03M\text{ }KMn{{O}_{4}}\]required to oxidize the same amount of \[{{H}_{2}}S\] gas to sulphur, in acidic medium is

    A) \[60c{{m}^{3}}\]

    B) \[80c{{m}^{3}}\]

    C) \[90c{{m}^{3}}\]

    D) \[120c{{m}^{3}}\]

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  • question_answer73) The compound that reacts the fastest with sodium meth oxide is

    A)

    B)

    C)

    D)

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  • question_answer74) The pair of compounds having identical shapes for their molecules is

    A) \[C{{H}_{4}},S{{F}_{4}}\]

    B) \[BC{{l}_{2}},Cl{{F}_{3}}\]

    C) \[Xe{{F}_{2}},ZnC{{l}_{2}}\]

    D) \[S{{O}_{2}},C{{O}_{2}}\]

    View Answer play_arrow
  • question_answer75) Conductivity of a saturated solution of a sparingly soluble salt AB at 298 K is \[1.85\times {{10}^{-5}}S\,{{m}^{-1}}\]. Solubility product of the salt AB at 298 K is Given: \[\wedge _{m}^{o}(AB)=140\times {{10}^{-4}}S\,{{m}^{2}}\,mo{{l}^{-1}}\]

    A) \[5.7\times {{10}^{-12}}\]

    B) \[1.32\times {{10}^{-12}}\]

    C) \[7.5\times {{10}^{-12}}\]

    D) \[1.74\times {{10}^{-12}}\]

    View Answer play_arrow
  • question_answer76) An incorrect statement with respect to \[{{S}_{N}}1\] and \[{{S}_{N}}2\] mechanisms for alkyi halide is a strong nucleophile in an aprotic

    A) Solvent increases the rate or favours \[{{S}_{N}}2\] Reaction

    B) Competing reaction for an \[{{S}_{N}}2\] reaction is rearrangement

    C) \[{{S}_{N}}1\] Reactions can be catalysed by some Lewis acids

    D) a weak nucleophile and a protic solvent increases the rate or favours \[{{S}_{N}}1\] reaction.

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  • question_answer77) Butylated hydroxy toluene as a food additive acts as

    A) Antioxidant

    B) Flavouring agent

    C) Colouring agent

    D) Emulsifier.

    View Answer play_arrow
  • question_answer78) Terylene is NOT a

    A) Copolymer

    B) Polyester fibre

    C) Chain growth polymer

    D) Step growth polymer.

    View Answer play_arrow
  • question_answer79) The correct statement is

    A) cyclohexadiene and cyclohexene cannot be isolated with ease during controlled hydrogenation of benzene

    B) One mole each of benzene and hydrogen when reacted gives 1/3 mole of cyclohexane and 2/3 mole unreacted hydrogen

    C) Hydrogenation of benzene to cyclohexane is an endothermic process

    D) It is easier to hydrogenate benzene when compared to cyclohexene.

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  • question_answer80) Among the elements from atomic number 1 to 36, the number of elements which have an unpaired electron in their s-subshell is

    A) \[4\]

    B) \[7\]

    C) \[6\]

    D) \[9\]

    View Answer play_arrow
  • question_answer81) The statement that is NOT correct is

    A) Compressibility factor measures the deviation of real gas from ideal behavior

    B) van der Waals constant a measures extent of intermolecular attractive forces for real gases

    C) Critical temperature is the lowest temperature at which liquefaction of a gas first occurs

    D) Boyle point depends on the nature of real gas.

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  • question_answer82) The correct arrangement for the ions in the increasing order of their radii is

    A) \[N{{a}^{+}},C{{l}^{-}},C{{a}^{2+}}\]

    B) \[C{{a}^{2+}},{{K}^{+}},{{S}^{2-}}\]

    C) \[N{{a}^{+}},A{{l}^{3+}},B{{e}^{2+}}\]

    D) \[C{{l}^{-}},{{F}^{-}},{{S}^{2-}}\]

    View Answer play_arrow
  • question_answer83) The correct arrangement of the species in the decreasing order of the bond length between carbon and oxygen in them is

    A) \[CO,C{{O}_{2}},HCO_{2}^{-},CO_{3}^{2-}\]

    B) \[C{{O}_{2}},HCO_{2}^{-},CO,CO_{3}^{2-}\]

    C) \[CO_{3}^{2-},HCO_{2}^{-},C{{O}_{2}},CO\]

    D) \[CO,CO_{3}^{2-},C{{O}_{2}},HCO_{2}^{-}\]

    View Answer play_arrow
  • question_answer84) The species that is not hydrolysed in water is

    A) \[{{P}_{4}}{{O}_{10}}\]

    B) \[Ba{{O}_{2}}\]

    C) \[M{{g}_{3}}{{N}_{2}}\]

    D) \[Ca{{C}_{2}}\]

    View Answer play_arrow
  • question_answer85) For the properties mentioned, the correct trend for the different species is in

    A) strength as Lewis acid - \[BC{{l}_{3}}>AlC{{l}_{3}}>GaC{{l}_{3}}\]

    B) inert pair effect \[-Al>Ga>In\]

    C) oxidising property \[-A{{l}^{3+}}>I{{n}^{3+}}>T{{l}^{3+}}\]

    D) first ionization enthalpy \[-B>Al>Tl\]

    View Answer play_arrow
  • question_answer86) A correct statement is

    A) \[{{[Co{{(N{{H}_{3}})}_{6}}]}^{2+}}\] is paramagnetic

    B) \[{{[MnB{{r}_{4}}]}^{2-}}\] is tetrahedral

    C) \[{{[CoB{{r}_{2}}{{(en)}_{2}}]}^{-}}\] exhibits linkage isomerism

    D) \[{{[Ni{{(N{{H}_{3}})}_{6}}]}^{2+}}\] is an inner orbital complex.

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  • question_answer87) lodoform reaction is answered by all, except

    A) \[C{{H}_{3}}-\underset{OH}{\mathop{\underset{|}{\mathop{C}}\,}}\,H-C{{H}_{2}}-COOH\]

    B) \[C{{H}_{3}}CHO\]

    C) \[C{{H}_{3}}-C{{H}_{2}}-OH\]

    D) \[C{{H}_{3}}-C{{H}_{2}}-C{{H}_{2}}OH\]

    View Answer play_arrow
  • question_answer88) A crystalline solid \[X{{Y}_{3}}\] has ccp arrangement for its element Y. X occupies

    A) 66% of tetrahedral voids

    B) 33% of tetrahedral voids

    C) 66% of octahedral voids

    D) 33% of octahedral voids.

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  • question_answer89) \[{{C}_{6}}{{H}_{5}}COOH\xrightarrow[2.\,\Delta ]{1.\,N{{H}_{3}}}P\xrightarrow{NaOBr}Q\] \[\xrightarrow[2.\,heart\,460K]{1.\,Conc\,{{H}_{2}}S{{O}_{4}}}R\]. R is

    A) o-bromosulphanilic acid

    B) sulphanilamide

    C) sulphanilic acid

    D) p-bromosulphanilamide.

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  • question_answer90) The statement that is NOT correct is

    A) aldose or ketose sugars in alkaline medium do not isomerise

    B) carbohydrates are optically acitve

    C) penta acetate of glucose does not react with hydroxylamine

    D) lactose has glycosidic linkage between \[{{C}_{4}}\] of glucose and \[{{C}_{1}}\] of galactose unit.

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  • question_answer91) Match the reactant in column-I with the reaction in column-II.

    Column-I Column-II
    (i) Acetic acid [A] Stephen
    (ii) Sodium phenate [B] Friedel-Crafts
    (iii) Methyl cyanide [C] HVZ
    (iv) Toluene [D] Kolbes

    A) \[i-C,ii-A,iii-D,iv-B\]

    B) \[i-D,ii-B,iii-C,iv-A\]

    C) \[i-B,ii-C,iii-A,iv-D\]

    D) \[i-C,ii-D,iii-A,iv-B\]

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  • question_answer92) The statement that is NOT correct is

    A) hypo phosphorous acid reduces silver nitrate to silver

    B) in solid state \[PC{{l}_{5}}\] exists as \[{{[PC{{l}_{4}}]}^{+}}{{[PC{{l}_{6}}]}^{-}}\]

    C) pure phosphine is non-inflammable

    D) phosphorous acid on heating disproport- ionates to give met phosphoric acid and phosphine.

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  • question_answer93) In which one of the pairs of ion given, there is an ion that forms a co-ordination compound with both aqueous sodium hydroxide and ammonia and an other ion that forms a co-ordination compound only with aqueous sodium hydroxide?

    A) \[P{{b}^{2+}},C{{u}^{2+}}\]

    B) \[Z{{n}^{2+}},A{{l}^{3+}}\]

    C) \[C{{u}^{2+}},Z{{n}^{2+}}\]

    D) \[A{{l}^{3+}},C{{u}^{2+}}\]

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  • question_answer94) A crystalline solid X reacts with dil. \[HCl\] to liberate a gas Y. Y decolourises acidified \[KMn{{O}_{4}}\]. When a gas Z is slowly passed into an aqueous solution of Y, colloidal sulphur is obtained. X and Z could be, respectively

    A) \[N{{a}_{2}}S,S{{O}_{3}}\]

    B) \[N{{a}_{2}}S{{O}_{4}},{{H}_{2}}S\]

    C) \[N{{a}_{2}}S{{O}_{3}},{{H}_{2}}S\]

    D) \[N{{a}_{2}}S{{O}_{4}},S{{O}_{2}}\]

    View Answer play_arrow
  • question_answer95) An aromatic compound A \[({{C}_{7}}{{H}_{9}}N)\] on reacting with \[NaN{{O}_{2}}/HCl\] at \[{{0}^{o}}C\] forms benzyl alcohol and nitrogen gas. The number of isomers possible for the compound A is

    A) \[5\]

    B) \[7\]

    C) \[3\]

    D) \[6\]

    View Answer play_arrow
  • question_answer96) The statement that is NOT correct is

    A) a furnace lined with Haematite is used to convert cast iron to wrought, iron.

    B) collectors enhance the wettability of mineral particles during froth flotation.

    C) in vapour phase refining, metal should form a volatile compound.

    D) copper from its low grade ores is extracted by hydrometallurgy

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  • question_answer97) A solution of \[1.25g\]of P in \[50g\]of water lowers freezing point by \[{{0.3}^{o}}C\]. Molar mass of P is \[{{K}_{f(water)}}=1.86K\,kg\,mo{{l}^{-1}}\]. The degree of association of Pin water is

    A) \[80%\]

    B) \[60%\]

    C) \[65%\]

    D) \[75%\]

    View Answer play_arrow
  • question_answer98) Volume occupied by single \[CsCl\] ion pair in a crystal is \[7.014\times {{10}^{-23}}\text{ }c{{m}^{3}}\]. The smallest \[Cs-Cs\]internuclear distance is equal to length of the side of the cube corresponding to volume of one \[CsCl\] ion pair. The smallest \[Cs\] to \[Cs\] internuclear distance is nearly

    A) \[4.4\overset{\text{o}}{\mathop{\text{A}}}\,\]

    B) \[4.3\overset{\text{o}}{\mathop{\text{A}}}\,\]

    C) \[4\overset{\text{o}}{\mathop{\text{A}}}\,\]

    D) \[4.5\overset{\text{o}}{\mathop{\text{A}}}\,\]

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  • question_answer99) For \[C{{r}_{2}}O_{7}^{2-}+14{{H}^{+}}+6{{e}^{-}}\to 2C{{r}^{3+}}+7{{H}_{2}}O,\] \[{{E}^{o}}=1.33V\] At \[[C{{r}_{2}}O_{7}^{2-}]=4.5\]mill mole, \[[C{{r}^{3+}}]=15\]milli mole, E is\[1.067V\]. The pH of the solution is nearly equal to

    A) \[2\]

    B) \[3\]

    C) \[5\]

    D) \[4\]

    View Answer play_arrow
  • question_answer100) \[1.78g\]of an optically active L-amino acid is treated with \[NaN{{O}_{2}}/HCl\]at \[{{0}^{o}}C\]. \[448\text{ }c{{m}^{3}}\] of nitrogen gas at STP is evolved. A sample of protein has \[0.25%\]of this amino acid by mass. The molar mass of the protein is

    A) \[36,500g\text{ }mo{{l}^{-1}}\]

    B) \[34,500g\text{ }mo{{l}^{-1}}\]

    C) \[35,400g\text{ }mo{{l}^{-1}}\]

    D) \[35,600g\text{ }mo{{l}^{-1}}\]

    View Answer play_arrow
  • question_answer101) \[10g\]of a mixture of \[BaO\]and \[CaO\]requires \[100c{{m}^{3}}\]of \[2.5M\text{ }HCl\]to react completely The percentage of calcium oxide in the mixture is approximately (Given: molar mass of\[BaO=153\])

    A) \[52.6\]

    B) \[55.1\]

    C) \[44.9\]

    D) \[47.4\]

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  • question_answer102) The ratio of heats liberated at 298 K from the combustion of one kg of coke and by burning water gas obtained from kg of coke is (Assume coke to be 100% carbon) (Given : enthalpies of combustion of \[C{{O}_{2}},CO\]and \[{{H}_{2}}\] as \[393.5kJ\], \[285kJ\], \[285kJ\] respectively all at\[298K\]).

    A) \[0.79:1\]

    B) \[0.69:1\]

    C) \[0.86:1\]

    D) \[0.96:1\]

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  • question_answer103) Impure copper containing \[Fe\], \[Au\], \[Ag\] as impurities is electrolytic ally refined. A current of \[140A\]for \[482.5s\] decreased the mass of the anode by \[22.26g\]and increased the mass of cathode by\[22.011g\]. Percentage of iron in impure copper is (Given : molar mass\[Fe=55.5g\text{ }mo{{l}^{-1}}\], molar mass\[Cu=63.54g\text{ }mo{{l}^{-1}}\])

    A) \[0.95\]

    B) \[0.85\]

    C) \[0.97\]

    D) \[0.90\]

    View Answer play_arrow
  • question_answer104) \[25c{{m}^{3}}\]of oxalic acid completely neutralised \[0.064g\]of sodium hydroxide. Molarity of the oxalic acid solution is

    A) \[0.064\]

    B) \[0.045\]

    C) \[0.015\]

    D) \[0.032\]

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  • question_answer105) The statement that is NOT correct is

    A) angular quantum number signifies the shape of the orbital.

    B) energies of stationary states in hydrogen like atoms is inversely proportional to the square of the principal quantum number.

    C) total number of nodes for 3s orbital is three.

    D) the radius of the first orbit of He+ is half that of the first orbit of hydrogen atom.

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  • question_answer106) For the equilibrium : \[CaC{{O}_{3(s)}}Ca{{O}_{(s)}}+C{{O}_{2(g)}};\,{{K}_{p}}=1.64atm\] at \[1000K\] \[50g\]of \[CaC{{O}_{3}}\]in a 10 litre closed vessel is heated to 1000 K. Percentage of \[CaC{{O}_{3}}\] that remains unreacted at equilibrium is (Given:\[R=0.082L\text{ }atm\text{ }{{K}^{-1}}\text{ }mo{{l}^{-1}}\])

    A)

    B)

    C)

    D) \[20\]

    View Answer play_arrow
  • question_answer107) Conversion of oxygen into ozone is non- spontaneous at

    A) all temperatures

    B) high temperature

    C) room temperature

    D) low temperature.

    View Answer play_arrow
  • question_answer108) Density of carbon monoxide is maximum at

    A) \[2atm\]and \[600K\]

    B) \[0.5atm\]and \[273K\]

    C) \[6atm\]and \[1092K\]

    D) \[4atm\]and \[500K\].

    View Answer play_arrow
  • question_answer109) The acid strength of active methylene group in (i) \[C{{H}_{3}}COC{{H}_{2}}COO{{C}_{2}}{{H}_{5}}\] (ii) \[C{{H}_{3}}COC{{H}_{2}}C{{H}_{3}}\] (iii) \[{{C}_{2}}{{H}_{5}}OOCC{{H}_{2}}COO{{C}_{2}}{{H}_{5}}\] decreases as

    A) \[i>iii>ii\]

    B) \[i>ii>iii\]

    C) \[ii>i>iii\]

    D) \[iii>i>ii\]

    View Answer play_arrow
  • question_answer110) A metallic oxide reacts with water to form its hydroxide, hydrogen peroxide and also liberates oxygen. The metallic oxide could be

    A) \[CaO\]

    B) \[K{{O}_{2}}\]

    C) \[Li{{O}_{2}}\]

    D) \[N{{a}_{2}}{{O}_{2}}\]

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  • question_answer111) \[X\xrightarrow[\text{(Reductive)}]{Ozonolysis}Y+Z\] Y can be obtained by Etards reaction. Z undergoes disproportionation reaction with concentrated alkali. X could be

    A)

    B)

    C)

    D)

    View Answer play_arrow
  • question_answer112) Gold sol is not

    A) a macromolecular colloid

    B) a lyophobic colloid

    C) a multimolecular colloid

    D) negatively charged colloid.

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  • question_answer113) Carbocation as an intermediate is likely to be formed in the reaction:

    A) \[\text{Propene}+C{{l}_{2}}\xrightarrow{hv}2-chloropropane\]

    B) \[Acetone+HCN\xrightarrow{-OH}\] \[acetonecyanohydrin\]

    C) \[Ethyl\,bromide+Aq.\,KOH\xrightarrow{\Delta }\] \[ethyl\,alcohol\]

    D) \[Hexane\xrightarrow{Anhy.AlC{{l}_{3}}/HCl}\]\[\text{2-methylpentane}\]

    View Answer play_arrow
  • question_answer114) For an ideal binary liquid mixture

    A) \[\Delta {{S}_{(mix)}}=0;\,\Delta {{G}_{(mix)}}=0\]

    B) \[\Delta {{H}_{(mix)}}=0;\,\Delta {{S}_{(mix)}}<0\]

    C) \[\Delta {{V}_{(mix)}}=0;\,\Delta {{G}_{(mix)}}>0\]

    D) \[\Delta {{S}_{(mix)}}=0;\,\Delta {{G}_{(mix)}}<0\]

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  • question_answer115) For hydrogen - oxygen fuel cell at one atm and 298 K \[{{H}_{2(g)}}+\frac{1}{2}{{O}_{2(g)}}\to {{H}_{2}}{{O}_{(l)}};\,\,\Delta {{G}^{o}}=-240kJ\] \[{{E}^{o}}\] for the cell is approximately, (Given: \[F=96,500C\])

    A) \[2.48V\]

    B) \[1.24V\]

    C) \[2.5V\]

    D) \[1.26V\]

    View Answer play_arrow
  • question_answer116) Which one of these is not known?

    A) \[CuC{{l}_{2}}\]

    B) \[Cu{{I}_{2}}\]

    C) \[Cu{{F}_{2}}\]

    D) \[CuB{{r}_{2}}\]

    View Answer play_arrow
  • question_answer117) The correct statement is

    A) the earlier members of lanthanoid series resemble calcium in their chemical properties.

    B) the extent of actinoid contraction is almost the same as lanthanoid contraction.

    C) in general, lanthanoids and actinoids do not show variable oxidation states.

    D) \[C{{e}^{4+}}\] in aqueous solution is not known.

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  • question_answer118) \[P\xrightarrow[2.\,{{H}_{3}}{{O}^{+}}]{1.C{{H}_{3}}MgBr}R\xrightarrow[2.\,\Delta ]{1.\,dil\,NaOH}\] 4-methylpent-3-en-2-one P is

    A) Propanone

    B) Ethan amine

    C) Ethane nitrile

    D) Ethanal.

    View Answer play_arrow
  • question_answer119) When \[C{{H}_{2}}=CH-O-C{{H}_{2}}-C{{H}_{3}}\]reacts with one mole of \[HI\], one of the products formed is

    A) ethane

    B) Ethanol

    C) iodoethene

    D) ethanal.

    View Answer play_arrow
  • question_answer120) \[0.44g\]of a monohydric alcohol when added to methyl magnesium iodide in ether liberates at S.T.P., \[112c{{m}^{3}}\]of methane. With PCC the same alcohol forms a carbonyl compound that answers silver mirror test. The monohydnc alcohol is

    A) \[C{{H}_{3}}-\underset{OH}{\mathop{\underset{|}{\mathop{C}}\,}}\,H-C{{H}_{2}}-C{{H}_{3}}\]

    B) \[{{(C{{H}_{3}})}_{3}}C-C{{H}_{2}}OH\]

    C) \[C{{H}_{3}}-\underset{OH}{\mathop{\underset{|}{\mathop{C}}\,}}\,H-C{{H}_{2}}-C{{H}_{2}}-C{{H}_{3}}\]

    D) \[{{(C{{H}_{3}})}_{2}}CH-C{{H}_{2}}OH\]

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  • question_answer121) Floc is__

    A) a mesh-like structure formed by the association of bacteria and fungal filaments in sewage treatment

    B) the primary sludge produced in sewage treatment

    C) the effluent in primary treatment tank obtained during sewage treatment

    D) a type of bio fortified food.

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  • question_answer122) ADA deficiency results in

    A) chromosomal disorders

    B) increased risk of infertility

    C) decrease in the yield of crop plants

    D) inability of the immune system to function normally

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  • question_answer123) Parbhani kranti, a variety of bhindi (lady finger), is resistant to

    A) black rot

    B) bacterial blight

    C) leaf curl

    D) yellow mosaic virus.

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  • question_answer124) The globular head of myosin contains

    A) ATPase enzyme

    B) calcium ions in large quantities

    C) ATP

    D) troponin.

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  • question_answer125) EcoRI is

    A) used to join two DNA fragments

    B) a restriction enzyme

    C) the abbreviation for bacterium Escherichia coli

    D) a plasmid.

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  • question_answer126) Roquefort cheese is ripened by using a

    A) bacterium

    B) type of yeast

    C) cyanobacteria

    D) fungus.

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  • question_answer127) In this diagram showing the L.S. of an embryo of grass, identify the answer having the correct combination of alphabets with the right part.

    A)

    A - Epiblast,
    B - Scutellum,
    C - Coleoptile
    D - Radicle,
    E - Coleorhiza,
    F - Shoot apex

    B)

    A - Root cap,
    B - Coleoptile,
    C - Scutellum,
    D - Coleorhiza,
    E - Epiblast,
    F - Shoot apex

    C)

    A - Epiblast,
    B - Radicle,
    C - Coleoptile,
    D - ScuteUum,
    E - Coleorhiza,
    F - Shoot apex

    D)

    A - Shoot apex,
    B - Epiblast,
    C - Coleorhiza,
    D - Scutellum,
    E - Coleoptile,
    F - Radicle

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  • question_answer128) Mating of two varieties of a cattle breed like Red Dane which have no common ancestors on either side of their pedigree up to 4 - 6 generations is an example for

    A) out crossing

    B) inbreeding

    C) inter-specific hybridization

    D) cross breeding.

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  • question_answer129) Identify the hormones A, B and C that are labelled in the given flow chart.

    A) \[A-GnRH,B-PRL,C-ICSH\]

    B) \[A-GnRH,B-PRL,C-ICSH\]

    C) \[A-GnRH,\text{ }B-ICSH,\text{ }C-ISH\]

    D) \[A-GH,~~B-FSH,\text{ }C-LH\]

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  • question_answer130) Statement A: Photorespiration decreases photosynthetic output. Statement B: In photo respiratory pathway, neither ATP nor NADPH is produced.

    A) Statement A is correct and statement B is wrong.

    B) Both the statements A and B are correct.

    C) Statement B is correct and statement A is wrong.

    D) Both statements A and B are wrong.

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  • question_answer131) Identify the incorrect statement from the following.

    A) Atmospheric inputs of phosphorous through rainfall are much smaller than carbon inputs.

    B) The reservoir pool for phosphorous cycle is earths crust whereas atmosphere is the reservoir pool for carbon cycle.

    C) Gaseous exchanges of phosphorous between organism and environment are negligible.

    D) During carbon cycle and phosphorous cycle, there is very little respiratory release of carbon and phosphorous respectively.

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  • question_answer132) The result of which of the following reaction experiments carried out by Avery et al. on Streptococcus pneumoniae has proved conclusively that DNA is the genetic material?

    A) Live R strain \[+\] DNA from S strain \[+\] RNA ase

    B) Live R strain \[+\] DNA from S strain \[+\]DNA ase

    C) Live R strain \[+\] Denatured DNA of S strain \[+\] protease

    D) Heat killed R strain \[+\] DNA from S strain \[+\] DNAase

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  • question_answer133) Match the storage products listed under Column-1 with the organisms given under Column-11. Choose the appropriate option from the given choices.

    Column-I Column-II
    A. Glycogen p. Sargassum
    B. Pyrenoids q. Nostoc
    C. Laminarin and mannitol r. Polysiphonia
    D. Floridean starch s. Spirogyra
    t. Agaricus

    A) \[A-t;\text{ }B-s;\text{ }C-p;\text{ }D-r\]

    B) \[A-r;\text{ }B-s;\text{ }C-p;\text{ }D-t\]

    C) \[A-q;\text{ }B-p;\text{ }C-s;\text{ }D-r\]

    D) \[A-s;\text{ }B-r;\text{ }C-t;\text{ }D-q\]

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  • question_answer134) Identify the desirable characteristics for a plasmid used in r DNA technology from the following.

    A. Ability to multiply and express outside the host in a bioreactor
    B. A highly active promoter
    C. A site at which replication can be initiated
    D. One or more identifiable marker genes
    E. One or more unique restriction sites

    A) A, C, D and E only

    B) A, C and E only

    C) B, C, D and E only

    D) B, C and E only

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  • question_answer135) Which compounds were used by Miller in his experiment for obtaining amino acids and other organic substances?

    A) Ammonia, methane, hydrogen and water vapour

    B) Carbon dioxide, water vapour and methane

    C) Ammonia, methane and carbon dioxide

    D) Methane, ammonia, water vapour and hydrogen cyanide

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  • question_answer136) Which of the following is true for eutrophicated water body?

    A) Rich species diversity

    B) High mineral content

    C) Low organic content

    D) High oxygen content

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  • question_answer137) lUDs which are used by females.

    A) are implanted under the skin and the release progestogen and estrogen

    B) act as spermicidal jellies

    C) release copper ions in the uterus that increase phagocytosis of sperm

    D) block the entry of sperms into vagina.

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  • question_answer138) Which of the following hormones are secreted in large quantities during pregnancy in women?

    A) LH, estrogen and estradiol

    B) hCG, progesterone, estradiol and FSH

    C) hCG and hPL

    D) hCG, hPL, progesterone, estrogen and LH

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  • question_answer139) The kind of coelom represented in the diagram given below is characteristic of

    A) round worm

    B) earthworm

    C) tapeworm

    D) cockroach.

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  • question_answer140) With respect to angiosperms, identify the incorrect pair from the following.

    A) Primary endosperm nucleus - 3n

    B) Antipodals - 2n

    C) Cells of nucellus of ovule - 2n

    D) Vegetative cell of male gametophyte - n

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  • question_answer141) Statement A: For a particular character in an individual, each gamete gets only one allele. Statement B: Chromatids of a chromosome split (separate) and move towards opposite poles during anaphase of mitosis.

    A) Statement A is correct and statement B is wrong.

    B) Both the statements are correct and B is the reason for A.

    C) Statement B is correct and statement A is wrong.

    D) Both the statements are correct and B is not the reason for A.

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  • question_answer142) Internal bleeding, muscular pain, blockage of the intestinal passage and anaemia are some of the symptoms caused due to infection by

    A) Ascaris

    B) Wuchereria

    C) Plasmodium

    D) Trichophyton.

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  • question_answer143) RNA interference which is employed in making tobacco plantresistant to Meloidogyne incognita is essentially involved in

    A) preventing the process of replication of DNA

    B) preventing the process of translation of mRNA

    C) preventing the process of splicing of hnRNA

    D) preventing the process of transcription.

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  • question_answer144) The success of mammals on earth is largely because

    A) they have the ability to maintain constant body temperature

    B) they can conform to the changes in the environment

    C) they can take care of their young ones as they have mammary glands to suckle them

    D) they can reduce metabolic activity and go into a state of dormancy during unfavourable conditions in the environment.

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  • question_answer145) Which one of the following hormones also produces anti-inflammatory reactions in man and suppresses the immune response in addition to its primary functions?

    A) Thyrocalcitonin

    B) Cortisol

    C) Erythropoietin

    D) Thymosin

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  • question_answer146) Match the microbial products listed under Column-1 with the related microbes given under Column-11. Choose the appropriate option from the given choices.

    Column-I Column-II
    A. Citric acid p. Methanobacterium
    B. Cyclosporin q. Monascuspurpureus
    C. Statin r. Aspergillus niger
    D. Gobar gas s. Trichoderma polysporum
    t. Clostridium butylicum

    A) \[A-q;B-s;C-t;D-r\]

    B) \[A-r;B-s;C-t;D-p\]

    C) \[A-r;B-s;C-q;D-t\]

    D) \[A-t;B-q;C-s;D-r\]

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  • question_answer147) Marchantia is considered as a heterothallic plant because it is

    A) monoecious

    B) heterogametic

    C) dioecious

    D) bisexual.

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  • question_answer148) Identify the set of characteristics related to plants belonging to family Fabaceae from the following.

    A) Papilionaceous, corolla, axile placentation and leguminous fruit.

    B) Actinomorphic flower, syncarpous ovary and marginal placentation.

    C) Vexillaryaestivation of corolla, diadelphous stamens and monocarpellary, unilocular ovary.

    D) Persistent calyx, epipetalous stamens and leguminous fruit.

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  • question_answer149) One of the following statements is incorrect with reference to biodiversity. Identify it.

    A) The richest reservoirs of animal and plant life (high species richness) with few or no threatened species are called biodiversity hotspots.

    B) Biodiversity increases from higher altitudes to lower altitudes.

    C) Biodiversity decreases from the equator to polar regions.

    D) Depletion in genetic diversity of crop plants is niainly due to the introduction of better varieties with high yield, disease resistance, etc.

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  • question_answer150) In castor and maize plant ____.

    A) male and female flowers are borne by different plants

    B) autogamy is prevented but not geitonogamy

    C) the anthers and stigma are placed at different positions to encourage cross pollination

    D) both autogamy and geitonogamy are prevented

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  • question_answer151) In garden pea, round shape of seeds is dominant over wrinkled shape. A pea plant heterozygous for round shape of seed is selfed and 1600 seeds produced during the cross are subsequently germinated. How many seedlings would have the parental phenotype?

    A) \[400\]

    B) \[1600\]

    C) \[1200\]

    D) \[800\]

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  • question_answer152) Which of the following events would occur in Lac operon of E. coli when the growth medium has high concentration of lactose?

    A) The represser protein attaches to the promoter sequence and derepresses the operator.

    B) The structural genes fail to produce polycistronic mRNA.

    C) The inducer molecule binds to represser protein and RNA polymerase binds to promoter sequence.

    D) The represser protein binds to RNA polymerase and prevents translation.

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  • question_answer153) The mature infective stages of malarial parasite which are transferred from mosquito to man are

    A) trophozoites

    B) sporozoites

    C) gametocytes

    D) merozoites.

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  • question_answer154) Which one of the following refers to Aliens rule.

    A) An organism can move from a stressful habitat to a more hospitable area and return when the stressful period is over.

    B) If the stressful conditions are localized or remain only for a short duration, an organism either migrates or suspends itself.

    C) Low atmospheric pressure in higher altitudes results in altitude sickness.

    D) Mammals from colder climates have shorter ears and limbs to minimize heat loss.

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  • question_answer155) Identify the DNA segment which is not a palindromic sequence.

    A) \[5GGATCC3\text{ }3GGTACC\text{ }5\]

    B) \[5GAATTC\text{ }3\text{ }3\text{ }CTTAAG\text{ }5\]

    C) \[5GCGGCCGCy\text{ }3GGCCGGCG5\]

    D) \[5CCCGGG\text{ }3~~3GGGCCC\text{ }5\]

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  • question_answer156) During somatic hybridization in plants.

    A) the cell walls and the middle lamella are digested before fusing the cells

    B) somaclones are produced in large numbers

    C) crop plants with higher levels of vitamins, proteins and minerals are hybridised

    D) the apical meristems are cultured to get virus-free plants.

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  • question_answer157) Statement A: The secretion of collaterial gland forms the egg case in cockroach. Statement B: The development in cockroach is hemimetabolous.

    A) Statement A is correct and statement B is wrong.

    B) Both the statements A and B are correct and B is the reason for A.

    C) Statement B is correct and statement A is wrong.

    D) Both the statements A and B are correct and B is not the reason for A.

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  • question_answer158) If a plant produces flowers when exposed only to alternating periods of 5 hours light and 3 F hours dark, in a 24-hour cycle, then the plant should be a

    A) short-long day plant

    B) short day plant

    C) day neutral plant

    D) long day plant.

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  • question_answer159) If there was no carbon dioxide in the earths atmosphere, the temperature of the earths surface would be

    A) less than the present level

    B) same as the present level

    C) dependent on the oxygen content in the atmosphere

    D) more than the present level.

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  • question_answer160) Which one of the following is incorrect about cancer cells?

    A) They exhibit mass proliferation.

    B) They exhibit the property of contact inhibition.

    C) They are produced when cellular oncogenes of normal cells are activated.

    D) They are metastatic.

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  • question_answer161) The centrosome duplicates during the

    A) G2 - phase of cell cycle

    B) S -phase of cell cycle

    C) Prophase of cell cycle

    D) Gi - phase of cell cycle.

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  • question_answer162) Match the items listed under Column-1 with those given under Column-11. Choose the appropriate option from the given choices.

    Column-I Column-II
    A. Residual p. 4000 ml - 4600 ml volume (RV)
    B. Inspiratory Reserve Volume (IRV) q. 1100 ml -1200 ml
    C. Vital capacity (VC) r. 1000 ml - 1100 ml
    D. Expiratory Reserve Volume (ERV) s. 3000 ml - 3500 ml
    E. Inspiratory t. 2500 ml - 3000 ml capacity (1C)

    A) A-t B-q C-s D- r E-p

    B) A-q B-r C-s D- t E-p

    C) A- q B-t C-p D- r E- s

    D) A-r B-t C-p D-q E-s

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  • question_answer163) Which of the following statements is correct?

    A) The core of cilium or flagellum is the basal body.

    B) Elaioplasts store starch whereas aleuroplasts store proteins.

    C) Membranous extensions into the cytoplasm in cyanobacteria which contain pigments are called chromatophores.

    D) Acrocentric chromosomes have only one arm.

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  • question_answer164) Sickle cell anaemia is caused due to the substitution of

    A) valine at the 6th position of beta globin chain by glutamine

    B) valine at the 6th position of alpha globin chain by glutamic acid

    C) glycine at the 6th position of alpha globin chain by glutamic acid

    D) glutamic acid at the 6th position of beta globin chain by valine.

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  • question_answer165) Statement A: The primary transcript produced in eukaryotes is translated without undergoing any modification or processing. Statement B: The hnRNA in humans has exons and introns.

    A) Statement B is correct and statement A is wrong.

    B) Both the statements A and B are correct.

    C) Statement A is correct and statement B is wrong.

    D) Both the statements A and B are wrong.

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  • question_answer166) Knee joint is an example for

    A) pivot joint

    B) ball and socket joint

    C) gliding joint

    D) hinge joint.

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  • question_answer167) Carefully read the following reactions carried out by nitrogen fixing bacteria. Identify the statement about these equations which is not true. \[2N{{H}_{3}}+3{{O}_{2}}+2NO_{2}^{-}+2{{H}^{+}}2{{H}_{2}}O\] ...[A] \[2NO_{2}^{-}+{{O}_{2}}\to 2NO_{3}^{-}\]...[B]

    A) Both the steps [A] and [B] can be called nitrification.

    B) Step [A] is carried out by Nitrosomonas or Nitrococcus.

    C) Both the steps occur only in photoauto- trophs.

    D) Step [B] is carried out by Nitrobacter.

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  • question_answer168) Match the vegetative propagules listed under Column-1 with the plants given under Column-11 choose the appropriate option from the given choices.

    Column-I Column-II
    A. Rhizome p. Agave
    B. Offset q. Bryophyllum
    C. Sucker r. Ginger
    D. Leaf buds s. Chrysanthemum
    t. Eichhornia

    A) \[A-r;\text{ }B-t;\text{ }C-s;\text{ }D-q\]

    B) \[A-r;B-s;\text{ }C-p;\text{ }D-q\]

    C) \[A-q;\text{ }B-p;\text{ }C-t;\text{ }D-s\]

    D) \[A-s;B-t;\text{ }C-q;\text{ }D-r\]

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  • question_answer169) Which one of the following causes population explosion?

    A) Decrease in infant mortality rate and increase in death rate.

    B) Decrease in death rate, maternal mortality rate and infant mortality rate.

    C) Decrease in infant mortality rate and decrease in the number of people in reproductive age.

    D) Decrease in death rate and increase in maternal mortality rate.

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  • question_answer170) ___ are the most abundant proteins in the living world.

    A) PEPcase of plants and keratin of animals

    B) Ribozyme of plants and collagen of animals

    C) Alcohol dehydrogenase of plants and melanin of animals

    D) RuB is CO of plants and collagen of animals

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  • question_answer171) One of the chief reasons among the following for the depletion in the number of species making it endangered is

    A) over-hunting and poaching

    B) greenhouse effect

    C) competition and predatioh

    D) habitat destruction.

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  • question_answer172) In humans, what is the ratio of number of gametes produced from one male primary sex cell to the number of gametes produced from one female primarysex cell?

    A) \[1:4\]

    B) \[1:1\]

    C) \[4:1\]

    D) \[1:3\]

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  • question_answer173) Identify the incorrect statement from the following.

    A) Pyramid of biomass in sea is generally inverted as the biomass of fish far exceeds that of phytoplanktons.

    B) Pyramid of energy is mostly upright, but sometimes it may be inverted.

    C) Food chains are generally short with few trophic levels as only 10% of the energy is transferred to each trophic level from the lower trophic level.

    D) Pyramids of number and biomass may be either upright or inverted.

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  • question_answer174) Match the organic compounds listed under Column-1 with the explanation given under Column-11. Choose the appropriate option from the given choices.

    Column-I Column-II
    A. Phosphoenol pyruvate (PEP) p. 6-carbon compound
    B. Ribulose biphosphate (RuBP) q. 2-carbon compound
    C. Oxaloacetic acid (OAA) r. 4-carbon compound
    D. Acetyl co-enzyme-A s. 5-carbon compound
    t. 3-carbon compound

    A) \[A-t;\text{ }B-s;\text{ }C-r;\text{ }D-q\]

    B) \[A-r;\text{ }B-s;\text{ }C-t;\text{ }D-p\]

    C) \[A-t;\text{ }B-p;\text{ }C-q;\text{ }D-r\]

    D) \[A-q;\text{ }B-r;\text{ }C-s;\text{ }D-t\]

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  • question_answer175) Downs syndrome is an example for

    A) syndrome caused due to gene mutation

    B) aneuploidy of sex chromosome

    C) loss of one sex - chromosome from the diploid set

    D) aneuploidy of autosome.

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  • question_answer176) The interaction between the organisms of one of the following pairs is an example for commensalism.

    A) Cattle or sheep and grass

    B) Wasps and fig tree

    C) Orchid and mango tree

    D) Cuckoo and crow

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  • question_answer177) The germ pores in the pollen grain are the regions

    A) which are made upoflignin and suberin

    B) that can withstand high temperature and strong acids and alkalies

    C) which lack sporopollenin

    D) through which sperms are released into the female gametophyte.

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  • question_answer178) Heroin is

    A) commonly called coke or crack

    B) a cannabinoid

    C) used to treat mental illnesses like depression and insomnia

    D) diacetylmorphine (chemically).

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  • question_answer179) Thorns of Bougainvillea and tendrils of Cucurbita are examples for

    A) adaptive radiation

    B) convergent evolution

    C) co-evolution

    D) divergent evolution.

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  • question_answer180) Some of the steps of DNA fingerprinting are given below. Identify the correct sequence from the options given.

    A. Electrophoresis of DNA fragments
    B. Hybridization with DNA probe
    C. Digestion of DNA by RENs
    D. Autoradiography
    E. Blotting of DNA fragments to nitrocellulose membrane

    A) \[C-A-B-E-D\]

    B) \[C-A-E-B-D\]

    C) \[A-E-C-B-D\]

    D) \[A-C-E-D-B\]

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