question_answer 1) Dimensional formula for \[{{\varepsilon }_{0}}\] is
A)
\[\text{ }\!\![\!\!\text{ }{{\text{M}}^{\text{-1}}}{{\text{L}}^{\text{-2}}}{{\text{A}}^{\text{2}}}{{\text{T}}^{\text{2}}}\text{ }\!\!]\!\!\text{ }\]
done
clear
B)
\[\text{ }\!\![\!\!\text{ M}{{\text{L}}^{\text{-2}}}{{\text{A}}^{\text{-2}}}{{\text{T}}^{4}}\text{ }\!\!]\!\!\text{ }\]
done
clear
C)
\[\text{ }\!\![\!\!\text{ }{{\text{M}}^{-1}}{{\text{L}}^{-3}}{{\text{A}}^{\text{2}}}{{\text{T}}^{4}}\text{ }\!\!]\!\!\text{ }\]
done
clear
D)
\[\text{ }\!\![\!\!\text{ M}{{\text{L}}^{3}}{{\text{A}}^{\text{-2}}}{{\text{T}}^{-4}}\text{ }\!\!]\!\!\text{ }\]
done
clear
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question_answer 2) The velocity v (in cm/s) of a particle is given in terms of time t (in sec) by the relation \[y=at+\frac{b}{t+c};\] the dimensions of a, b and c are
A)
\[a\,\text{=}\,\text{ }\!\![\!\!\text{ }{{\text{L}}^{\text{2}}}\text{ }\!\!]\!\!\text{ ,}\,\text{b}\,\text{=}\,\text{ }\!\![\!\!\text{ T }\!\!]\!\!\text{ ,}\,\text{c}\,\text{=}\,\text{ }\!\![\!\!\text{ L}{{\text{T}}^{\text{2}}}\text{ }\!\!]\!\!\text{ }\]
done
clear
B)
\[a\,\text{=}\,\text{ }\!\![\!\!\text{ L}{{\text{T}}^{\text{2}}}\text{ }\!\!]\!\!\text{ ,}\,\text{b}\,\text{=}\,\text{ }\!\![\!\!\text{ LT }\!\!]\!\!\text{ ,}\,\text{c}\,\text{=}\,\text{ }\!\![\!\!\text{ L }\!\!]\!\!\text{ }\]
done
clear
C)
\[a\,\text{=}\,\text{ }\!\![\!\!\text{ L}{{\text{T}}^{\text{-2}}}\text{ }\!\!]\!\!\text{ ,}\,\text{b}\,\text{=}\,\text{ }\!\![\!\!\text{ L }\!\!]\!\!\text{ ,}\,\text{c}\,\text{=}\,\text{ }\!\![\!\!\text{ T }\!\!]\!\!\text{ }\]
done
clear
D)
\[a\,\text{=}\,\text{ }\!\![\!\!\text{ L }\!\!]\!\!\text{ ,}\,\text{b}\,\text{=}\,\text{ }\!\![\!\!\text{ LT }\!\!]\!\!\text{ ,}\,\text{c}\,\text{=}\,\text{ }\!\![\!\!\text{ }{{\text{T}}^{2}}\text{ }\!\!]\!\!\text{ }\]
done
clear
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question_answer 3) Car A starts initially with the acceleration \[{{a}_{1}},\] after 2 s the car B starts with acceleration \[{{a}_{2}}.\]If in \[{{\text{5}}^{\text{th}}}\text{s}\] both car travels same distance, then the ratio of a \[{{a}_{1}}\] and \[{{a}_{2}}\] will be
A)
5 : 9
done
clear
B)
5 : 7
done
clear
C)
9 : 5
done
clear
D)
9 : 7
done
clear
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question_answer 4)
The \[\text{v-t}\] graph of a moving object is given in figure. The maximum acceleration is
A)
\[1\text{ }cm/{{s}^{2}}\]
done
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B)
\[\text{2 }cm/{{s}^{2}}\]
done
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C)
\[\text{3 }cm/{{s}^{2}}\]
done
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D)
\[\text{6 }cm/{{s}^{2}}\]
done
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question_answer 5) A 2 kg stone at the end of a string 1 m long is whirled in a vertical circle at a constant speed. The speed of the stone is 4 m/s. The tension in the string will be 52 N, when the stone is
A)
at the top of the circle
done
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B)
at the bottom of the circle
done
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C)
halfway down
done
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D)
None of the above
done
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question_answer 6)
Figure shows four paths for a kicked football. Ignoring the effects of air on the flight, rank the paths according to initial horizontal velocity component, highest first
A)
1, 2, 3, 4
done
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B)
2, 3, 4,1
done
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C)
3, 4, 1, 2
done
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D)
4, 3, 2, 1
done
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question_answer 7)
A body floats in a liquid contained in a beaker. If the whole system as shown in figure falls freely under gravity, then the upthrust on the body due to liquid is
A)
zero
done
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B)
equal to the weight of liquid displaced
done
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C)
equal to the weight of the body in air
done
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D)
None of the above
done
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question_answer 8)
Two carts of masses 200 kg and 300 kg on horizontal rails are pushed apart. Suppose the coefficient of friction between the carts and the rails are same. If the 200 kg cart travels a distance of 36 m and stops, then the distance travelled by the cart weighing 300 kg is
A)
32m
done
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B)
24m
done
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C)
16m
done
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D)
12m
done
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question_answer 9) The force constant of weightless spring is 16 N/m. A body of mass 1.0 kg suspended from it is pulled down through 5 cm and then released. The maximum kinetic energy of the system (spring +body) will be
A)
\[\text{2 }\!\!\times\!\!\text{ 1}{{\text{0}}^{\text{-2}}}\text{J}\]
done
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B)
\[\text{4 }\!\!\times\!\!\text{ 1}{{\text{0}}^{\text{-2}}}\text{J}\]
done
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C)
\[\text{8 }\!\!\times\!\!\text{ 1}{{\text{0}}^{\text{-2}}}\text{J}\]
done
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D)
\[\text{16 }\!\!\times\!\!\text{ 1}{{\text{0}}^{\text{-2}}}\text{J}\]
done
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question_answer 10)
A frictionless track A B C D E ends in a circular loop of radius R. A body slides down the track from point A which is at a height h = S cm. Maximum value of R for the body to successfully complete the loop is
A)
\[\text{5}\,\text{cm}\]
done
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B)
\[\frac{15}{4}\,\text{cm}\]
done
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C)
\[\frac{10}{3}\,\text{cm}\]
done
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D)
\[\text{2}\,\text{cm}\]
done
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question_answer 11) A constant torque acting on a uniform circular wheel changes its angular momentum from \[{{\text{A}}_{\text{0}}}\] to \[\text{4}{{\text{A}}_{\text{0}}}\] in 4 s. The magnitude of this torque is
A)
\[\frac{3{{A}_{0}}}{4}\]
done
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B)
\[{{A}_{0}}\]
done
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C)
\[4{{A}_{0}}\]
done
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D)
\[121{{A}_{0}}\]
done
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question_answer 12) The rotational kinetic energy of a body is KE and its moment of inertia is \[I\] The angular momentum is
A)
\[KEI\]
done
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B)
\[2\sqrt{KEI}\]
done
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C)
\[\sqrt{2KEI}\]
done
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D)
\[KE/I\]
done
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question_answer 13) A planet is moving around the sun in an elliptic orbit. Its speed
A)
is the same at all points of the orbit
done
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B)
is maximum when it is farthest from the sun
done
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C)
is maximum when it is nearest to the sun
done
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D)
is maximum at the two points in which the orbit is intersected by the line which passes through the focus of the orbit and which is perpendicular to its major axis
done
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question_answer 14) Rohini satellite at a height of 500 km and INSAT-B at a height of 3600 km from surface of earth, then relation between their orbital velocity \[({{v}_{R,}}{{v}_{I}})\] is
A)
\[({{v}_{R}}>{{v}_{I}})\]
done
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B)
\[({{v}_{R}}<{{v}_{I}})\]
done
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C)
\[{{v}_{R}}={{v}_{I}})\]
done
clear
D)
No relation
done
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question_answer 15) A wire of cross-sectional area 3 mm2 is first stretched between two fixed points at a temperature of \[20{}^\circ C\]. Determine the tension when the temperature falls to \[10{}^\circ C\]. Coefficient of linear expansion \[a={{10}^{5}}{{\,}^{\text{o}}}{{\text{C}}^{-1}}\]and
A)
20 N
done
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B)
30 N
done
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C)
60 N
done
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D)
120 N
done
clear
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question_answer 16) If the length of a wire is reduced to half, then it can hold the................. load
A)
half
done
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B)
same
done
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C)
double
done
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D)
one-fourth
done
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question_answer 17) If two soap bubbles of different radii are in communication with each other
A)
Air flows from larger bubble into the smaller one
done
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B)
The size of the bubbles remains the same
done
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C)
Air flows from the smaller bubble into the larger one and the larger bubble grows at the expense of the smaller one
done
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D)
The air flows from the larger
done
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question_answer 18) Two capillary tubes of same diameter are put vertically one each in two liquids whose relative densities are 0.8 and 0.6 and surface tensions are 60 and 50 dyne cm respectively ratio of heights of liquids in the two tubes is
A)
10/9
done
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B)
3/10
done
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C)
10/3
done
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D)
9/10
done
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question_answer 19) At which temperature the velocity of \[{{O}_{2}}\] molecules will be equal to the velocity of \[{{N}_{2}}\] molecules at \[O{{\,}^{\text{o}}}\text{C}\] ?
A)
\[40{}^\circ C\]
done
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B)
\[93{}^\circ C\]
done
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C)
\[39{}^\circ C\]
done
clear
D)
Cannot be calculated
done
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question_answer 20) If the volume of the gas containing m number of molecules is V, then the pressure will decrease due to force of intermolecular attraction in the proporation.
A)
\[n/V\]
done
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B)
\[n/{{V}^{2}}\]
done
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C)
\[~{{(n/V)}^{2}}\]
done
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D)
\[1/{{V}^{2}}\]
done
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question_answer 21) Work done in converting one gram of ice at WC into steam at \[100{}^\circ C\] is
A)
3045 J
done
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B)
6056 J
done
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C)
721 J
done
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D)
616 J
done
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question_answer 22) A Carnot engine working between 300 K and 600 K has a work output of 800 J per cycle. What is the amount of heat energy supplied to the engine from source per cycle ?
A)
1200 J/cycle
done
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B)
1600 J/cycle
done
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C)
1400 J/cycle
done
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D)
None of the above
done
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question_answer 23) Two large closely spaced concentric spheres (both are black body radiators) are maintained at temperature of 200 K and 300 K respectively. The space between them is evacuated. The net rate of energy transfer between the two spheres will be (\[\sigma \]\[=5.672\times {{10}^{8}}MKS\] unit)
A)
368.68W/m2
done
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B)
3686.8 W/m2
done
clear
C)
36.868 W/m2
done
clear
D)
36868 W/m2
done
clear
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question_answer 24) Two identical vessels made up of same material are filled with same amount of ice. If in the vessels the ice melts in time \[{{t}_{1}}\] and \[{{t}_{2}}\] respectively, then the ratio of their thermal conductivities will be
A)
\[{{t}_{2}}:{{t}_{1}}\]
done
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B)
\[{{t}_{1}}:{{t}_{2}}\]
done
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C)
\[t_{2}^{2}:t_{1}^{2}\]
done
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D)
\[t_{1}^{2}:t_{2}^{2}\]
done
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question_answer 25)
The velocity-time diagram of harmonic oscillator is shown in the adjoining figure. The frequency of oscillation is
A)
\[\text{25}\,\text{Hz}\]
done
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B)
\[\text{50}\,\text{Hz}\]
done
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C)
\[12.25\,\text{Hz}\]
done
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D)
\[33\,\text{Hz}\]
done
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question_answer 26)
The frequency of oscillation of system shown in the figure will be
A)
\[\frac{1}{2\pi }\sqrt{\frac{k}{M}}\]
done
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B)
\[\frac{1}{2\pi }\sqrt{\frac{2k}{5M}}\]
done
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C)
\[\frac{1}{2\pi }\sqrt{\frac{k}{5M}}\]
done
clear
D)
\[\frac{1}{2\pi }\sqrt{\frac{2k}{M}}\]
done
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question_answer 27)
On a smooth inclined plane, a body of mass M b attached between two springs. The other ends of the springs are fixed to firm supports. If each spring has force constant k, the period of oscillation of the body (assuming the springs as massless) is
A)
\[2\pi {{\left( \frac{M}{2k} \right)}^{1/2}}\]
done
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B)
\[2\pi {{\left( \frac{2M}{k} \right)}^{1/2}}\]
done
clear
C)
\[2\pi \frac{Mg\,\sin \,\text{ }\!\!\theta\!\!\text{ }}{2k}\]
done
clear
D)
\[2\pi {{\left( \frac{2Mg}{k} \right)}^{1/2}}\]
done
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question_answer 28)
in the arrangement shown in the figure, for vertical oscillations of the mass m, the period is
A)
\[T=2\pi \sqrt{\frac{m}{{{k}_{1}}-{{k}_{2}}}}\]
done
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B)
\[T=2\pi \sqrt{\frac{{{k}_{1}}+{{k}_{2}}}{m}}\]
done
clear
C)
\[T=2\pi \sqrt{\frac{m({{k}_{1}}+{{k}_{2}})}{{{k}_{1}}{{k}_{2}}}}\]
done
clear
D)
\[T=2\pi \sqrt{\frac{mg}{{{k}_{1}}+{{k}_{2}}}}\]
done
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question_answer 29) A string fixed at both the ends is vibrating in two segments. The wavelength of the corresponding time is
A)
\[l/4\]
done
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B)
\[l/2\]
done
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C)
\[l\]
done
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D)
\[2l\]
done
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question_answer 30) A sitar wire vibrates with frequency 330 vib/s. If its length is increased three times and tension is increased four times, then the frequency of the wire will be
A)
330 Hz
done
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B)
220 Hz
done
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C)
110 Hz
done
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D)
440 Hz
done
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question_answer 31) A wire of 1m length and \[9\times {{10}^{3}}g/{{m}^{3}}\] density is clamped between two points. If its extension on loading is 0.36 mm, then frequency of small transverse vibration is (Young's modulus \[=9\times {{10}^{10}}N/{{m}^{2}}\])
A)
30 Hz
done
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B)
40 Hz
done
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C)
50 Hz
done
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D)
60 Hz
done
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question_answer 32) The length of a sonometer wire AB is 110 cm. Where should the two bridges be placed from A to divide the wire in 3 segments whose fundamental frequencies are in the ratio of =1:2:3
A)
30 cm and 60 cm
done
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B)
40 cm and 80 cm
done
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C)
60 cm and 90 cm
done
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D)
30 cm and 90 cm
done
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question_answer 33) If the amplitude ratio of two sources producing interference is 3 : 5, the ratio of intensities at maxima and minima is
A)
25 : 16
done
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B)
5 : 3
done
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C)
16 : 1
done
clear
D)
25 : 9
done
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question_answer 34) In two separate set-ups of the Young's double slit experiment fringes of equal width are observed when lights of wavelengths in the ratio 1:2 are- used. If the ratio of the slit separation in the two cases is 2:1 the ratio of the distance between the plane of the slits and the screen in the two set-ups is
A)
4:1
done
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B)
1:1
done
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C)
1:4
done
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D)
2:1
done
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question_answer 35) Radius of curvature of concave mirror is 40 cm and the size of image is twice as that of object, then the object distance is
A)
60 cm
done
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B)
20 cm
done
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C)
40cm
done
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D)
30cm
done
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question_answer 36) If an object is placed 10 cm in front of a concave mirror of focal length 20 cm, the image will be
A)
diminished, upright, virtual
done
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B)
enlarged, upright, virtual
done
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C)
diminished, inverted, real
done
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D)
enlarged, upright, real
done
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question_answer 37) It is desired to photograph the image of an object placed at a distance of 3 m from the plane mirror. The camera which is at a distance of 4.5 m from the mirror should be focused for a distance of
A)
3 m
done
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B)
4.5 m
done
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C)
6 m
done
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D)
7.5 m
done
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question_answer 38) A white screen illuminated by green and red light appears to be
A)
green
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B)
red
done
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C)
yellow
done
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D)
white
done
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question_answer 39) The critical angle of light passing from glass to air is minimum for
A)
red light
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B)
yellow light
done
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C)
green light
done
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D)
violet light
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question_answer 40)
A ray of light is incident on a equilateral prism kept on a horizontal table (as shown). Which of the following statement is wrong for the angle of minimum deviation ?
A)
P Q should be parallel to the base
done
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B)
Q R should be parallel to the base
done
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C)
RS should be parallel to the base
done
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D)
Any one of PQ and RS should be horizontal
done
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question_answer 41) A person cannot see objects clearly beyond 50 cm. They power of the lens to correct the vision is
A)
-5.0D
done
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B)
-0.5D
done
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C)
+2D
done
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D)
-2D
done
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question_answer 42) The focal length of objective and eye lens of microscope are 1.6 cm and 2.5 cm respectively. The distance between the two lenses is 21.7 cm. If the final image is formed at infinity, then the distance between the object lens and object is
A)
1.80 cm
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B)
1.70 cm
done
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C)
1.65 cm
done
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D)
1.75 cm
done
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question_answer 43) The minimum magnifying power of a telescope is m. If the focal length of its eye lens is halved, the magnifying power will become
A)
m/2
done
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B)
2m
done
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C)
3m
done
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D)
4m
done
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question_answer 44) The rest energy of an electron is 0.511 Me V. The electron is accelerated from rest to a velocity 0.5c. The change in its energy will be
A)
0.026 MeV
done
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B)
0.051 MeV
done
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C)
0.079 MeV
done
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D)
0.105 MeV
done
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question_answer 45) An electron beam has a kinetic energy equal to 100 eV. Find its wavelength associated with a beam, if mass of electron \[=9.1\times {{10}^{-31}}\]kg and 1 eV\[=1.6\times {{10}^{-19}}\]J/eV (Planck's constant \[=6.6\times {{10}^{-34}}\text{J-s})\]
A)
\[6.3\,\,\overset{\text{o}}{\mathop{\text{A}}}\,\]
done
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B)
\[3.8\,\,\overset{\text{o}}{\mathop{\text{A}}}\,\]
done
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C)
\[24.6\,\,\overset{\text{o}}{\mathop{\text{A}}}\,\]
done
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D)
\[0.12\,\,\overset{\text{o}}{\mathop{\text{A}}}\,\]
done
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question_answer 46) The energy of a photon of light of wavelength 450 nm is
A)
\[4.4\times {{10}^{-19}}\text{J}\]
done
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B)
\[2.5\times {{10}^{-19}}\text{J}\]
done
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C)
\[1.25\times {{10}^{-17}}\text{J}\]
done
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D)
\[2.5\times {{10}^{-17}}\text{J}\]
done
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question_answer 47) The wavelength of the most energetic X-ray emitted when a metal target is bombarded by 100 ke V electrons is approximately.
A)
\[12\,\,\overset{\text{o}}{\mathop{\text{A}}}\,\]
done
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B)
\[4\,\,\overset{\text{o}}{\mathop{\text{A}}}\,\]
done
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C)
\[0.31\,\,\overset{\text{o}}{\mathop{\text{A}}}\,\]
done
clear
D)
\[0.124\,\,\overset{\text{o}}{\mathop{\text{A}}}\,\]
done
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question_answer 48) For production of characteristic \[{{K}_{\text{ }\!\!\beta\!\!\text{ }}}\] X-rays, the electron transition is
A)
\[n=2\,to\,n=1\]
done
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B)
\[n=3\,to\,n=2\]
done
clear
C)
\[n=3\,to\,n=1\]
done
clear
D)
\[n=4\,to\,n=2\]
done
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question_answer 49) An X-ray tube operates on 30 kV. What is the minimum wave length emitted ? \[c=3\times {{10}^{8}}\text{m}{{\text{s}}^{\text{-1}}}\text{,}\]\[e=1.6\times {{10}^{-19}}C)\] \[e=1.6\times {{10}^{-19}}C)\]
A)
\[0.133\,\,\overset{\text{o}}{\mathop{\text{A}}}\,\]
done
clear
B)
\[0.4\,\,\overset{\text{o}}{\mathop{\text{A}}}\,\]
done
clear
C)
\[1.2\,\,\overset{\text{o}}{\mathop{\text{A}}}\,\]
done
clear
D)
\[6.6\,\,\overset{\text{o}}{\mathop{\text{A}}}\,\]
done
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question_answer 50) Atomic hydrogen is excited to the \[{{\text{n}}^{\text{th}}}\] energy level. The maximum number of spectral lines which it can emit while returning to the ground state is
A)
\[\frac{1}{2}n(n-1)\]
done
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B)
\[\frac{1}{2}n(n+1)\]
done
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C)
\[n(n-1)\]
done
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D)
\[n(n+1)\]
done
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question_answer 51) \[a\]-particles of energy 400 ke V are bombarded on nucleus of \[_{\text{82}}\text{Pb}\text{.}\] In scattering of \[a\]-particles, its minimum distance form nucleus will be
A)
0.59 nm
done
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B)
\[0.59\,\,\overset{\text{o}}{\mathop{\text{A}}}\,\]
done
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C)
5.9pm
done
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D)
0.59pm
done
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question_answer 52) If half-life of a radioactive atom is 2.3 days, then its decay constant would be
A)
0.1
done
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B)
0.2
done
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C)
0.3
done
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D)
2.3
done
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question_answer 53) In a good conductor the energy gap between the conduction band and the valence band is
A)
infinite
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B)
wide
done
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C)
narrow
done
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D)
zero
done
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question_answer 54) A semiconductor has an electron concentration density of\[8\times {{10}^{14}}\text{/c}{{\text{m}}^{\text{3}}}\] and that of holes is \[5\times {{10}^{12}}\text{/c}{{\text{m}}^{\text{3}}}\text{.}\] The semiconductor is
A)
n-type
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B)
p-type
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C)
intrinsic
done
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D)
p-n-p type
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question_answer 55) The current relationship between two current gains a and \[\text{ }\!\!\beta\!\!\text{ }\] in a transistor is
A)
\[\text{ }\!\!\beta\!\!\text{ }\,\text{=}\,\frac{a}{1+a}\]
done
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B)
\[\text{ }\!\!\beta\!\!\text{ }\,\text{=}\,\frac{a+1}{a}\]
done
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C)
\[a\,\text{=}\,\frac{\text{ }\!\!\beta\!\!\text{ }}{a+\text{ }\!\!\beta\!\!\text{ }}\]
done
clear
D)
\[\,\text{ }\!\!\beta\!\!\text{ =}\,\frac{\text{ }\!\!\beta\!\!\text{ +1}}{\text{ }\!\!\beta\!\!\text{ }}\]
done
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question_answer 56) Two bar magnets of the same mass, length and breadth but magnetic moments M and 2 M respectively, when placed in same position, time period is 3 s. What will be the time period when they are placed in different position?
A)
\[\sqrt{2}\,s\]
done
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B)
\[3\sqrt{3}\,s\]
done
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C)
3 s
done
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D)
6 s
done
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question_answer 57) Vibration magnetometer works on the principle of
A)
torque acting on the bar magnet
done
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B)
force acting on the bar magnet
done
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C)
Both the force and the torque acting on the bar magnet
done
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D)
None of the above
done
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question_answer 58) The time period of a freely suspended magnet is 2 s. If it is broken in length into two equal parts and one part is suspended in the same way, then its time period will be
A)
4s
done
clear
B)
2s
done
clear
C)
\[\sqrt{2}\,s\]
done
clear
D)
1 s
done
clear
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question_answer 59) Which of the following charge is not possible?
A)
\[1.6\times {{10}^{-19}}C\]
done
clear
B)
\[4.8\times {{10}^{-19}}C\]
done
clear
C)
\[8\times {{10}^{-19}}C\]
done
clear
D)
\[6\times {{10}^{-19}}C\]
done
clear
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question_answer 60) If dielectric constant of water is 81, then its permittivity is
A)
\[7.2\times {{10}^{10}}\frac{{{\text{C}}^{\text{2}}}}{\text{N-}{{\text{m}}^{\text{2}}}}\]
done
clear
B)
\[8.86\times {{10}^{-9}}\frac{{{\text{C}}^{\text{2}}}}{\text{N-}{{\text{m}}^{\text{2}}}}\]
done
clear
C)
\[1.02\times {{10}^{-12}}\frac{{{\text{C}}^{\text{2}}}}{\text{N-}{{\text{m}}^{\text{2}}}}\]
done
clear
D)
None of these
done
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question_answer 61) An electron of 100 eV energy is projected towards large negatively charged plate having charge density \[-2\times 10{{-}^{6}}C/{{m}^{2}}.\] Then, what must be the distance of electron, so it does not strike the plate?
A)
0.44mm
done
clear
B)
0.44cm
done
clear
C)
044m
done
clear
D)
None of these
done
clear
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question_answer 62) Two opposite and equal charges of \[4\times {{10}^{-8}}C\] when placed \[2\times {{10}^{-2}}cm\] away form a dipole. If this dipole is placed in an external electric field \[4\times {{10}^{8}}N/C,\] the value of maximum torque and the work done in rotating it through \[180{}^\circ C\] will be
A)
\[64\times {{10}^{-4}}Nm\text{ }and\text{ }64\times {{10}^{-4}}J\]
done
clear
B)
\[32\times {{10}^{-4}}Nm\text{ }and\text{ }32\times {{10}^{-4}}J\]
done
clear
C)
\[64\times {{10}^{-4}}Nm\text{ }and\text{ }32\times {{10}^{-4}}J\]
done
clear
D)
\[32\times {{10}^{-4}}Nm\text{ }and\text{ }64\times {{10}^{-4}}J\]
done
clear
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question_answer 63) Water is a good solvent because its molecules are
A)
neutral
done
clear
B)
polar
done
clear
C)
non-polar
done
clear
D)
anode
done
clear
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question_answer 64)
In Figure, \[a<r<b\] then intensity at r distance from centre is
A)
\[\frac{1}{4\pi {{\varepsilon }_{0}}}\left[ \frac{3q}{{{r}^{2}}}-\frac{q}{{{(b-r)}^{2}}} \right]\]
done
clear
B)
\[\frac{1}{4\pi {{\varepsilon }_{0}}}\left[ \frac{-q}{{{r}^{2}}} \right]\]
done
clear
C)
\[\frac{1}{4\pi {{\varepsilon }_{0}}}\left( \frac{3q}{{{r}^{2}}} \right)\]
done
clear
D)
\[\frac{1}{4\pi {{\varepsilon }_{0}}}\frac{3q}{{{a}^{2}}}\]
done
clear
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question_answer 65) An electron falls through 4 cm in uniform field f \[5\times {{10}^{4}}\text{N/C,}\] then time required must be
A)
\[2.99\times {{10}^{-7}}\text{s}\]
done
clear
B)
\[2.99\times {{10}^{-8}}\text{s}\]
done
clear
C)
\[2.99\times {{10}^{-9}}\text{s}\]
done
clear
D)
\[2.99\times {{10}^{-10}}\text{s}\]
done
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question_answer 66) A capacitor of \[6\mu F\] capacitance is charged up to 100 V. It is touched and then removed with another uncharged capacitor of \[14\mu F,\] then ratio of charges on both and potential at \[6\mu F\] capacitor is
A)
6/14 and 50V
done
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B)
3/7 and 30V
done
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C)
7/3 and 30V
done
clear
D)
None of these
done
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question_answer 67) Capacity of parallel plate capacitor is \[10\mu F,\] when gap between plates is 8 cm, then what will be its capacity if gap is reduced to 4 cm?
A)
\[10\text{ }\mu F\]
done
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B)
\[40\text{ }\mu F\]
done
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C)
\[20\text{ }\mu F\]
done
clear
D)
\[30\text{ }\mu F\]
done
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View Answer play_arrow
question_answer 68) Capacitor of 12 pF capacitance is connected to 50V battery then electrostatic potential energy will be
A)
\[1.5\times {{10}^{-8}}\text{J}\]
done
clear
B)
\[2.5\times {{10}^{-7}}\text{J}\]
done
clear
C)
\[3.5\times {{10}^{-5}}\text{J}\]
done
clear
D)
\[4.5\times {{10}^{-2}}\text{J}\]
done
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question_answer 69) Two sphere of radii 4 cm and 6 cm are given \[80\text{ }\mu C\] and \[40\text{ }\mu C\]charges and both are joined by wire, then charge will flow.
A)
\[32\mu C\] from A to B
done
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B)
\[24\text{ }\mu C\] from A to B
done
clear
C)
\[32\text{ }\mu C\] from B to A
done
clear
D)
None of the above
done
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question_answer 70)
If initial capacitance of capacitor is C, then final capacity of capacitor will be
A)
\[KC\]
done
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B)
\[(K+1)C\]
done
clear
C)
\[(K+1)C\text{/2}\]
done
clear
D)
\[(K-1)C\]
done
clear
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question_answer 71)
Potential difference across capacitor of 4.5 µF capacitance is
A)
8/3 V
done
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B)
4V
done
clear
C)
6V
done
clear
D)
8V
done
clear
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question_answer 72)
Equivalent capacitance between A and B for circuit shown in figure.
A)
\[3\mu F\]
done
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B)
\[2\text{ }\mu F\]
done
clear
C)
\[4\text{ }\mu F\]
done
clear
D)
8 µF
done
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question_answer 73) Lengths of two wires are 50 cm, 100 cm respectively and their diameters are 1 mm, 2 mm then ratio between their specific resistances is
A)
1:2
done
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B)
1:1
done
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C)
2 :1
done
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D)
1:4
done
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question_answer 74) A torch battery consisting of two cells of 1.45 V and an internal resistance 0.15\[\Omega \] each cell sending currents through the filament of the lamps having resistance 1.5 \[\Omega .\] The value of current will be.
A)
16.11 A
done
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B)
1.611 A
done
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C)
0.1611 A
done
clear
D)
2.6 A
done
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question_answer 75) Two wires of same material and same lengths having cross-sections 3:1. If resistance of thicker wire is \[10\,\Omega \] and both are joined in series then equivalent resistance is
A)
\[10\,\Omega \]
done
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B)
\[20\,\Omega \]
done
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C)
\[30\,\Omega \]
done
clear
D)
\[40\,\Omega \]
done
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question_answer 76) In the measurement of a resistance by Wheatstone bridge the known and the unknown resistances are interchanged to neutralise
A)
end error
done
clear
B)
index error
done
clear
C)
error due to thermoelectric effect
done
clear
D)
random error
done
clear
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question_answer 77)
Equivalent resistance between A and B of circuit shown in figure.
A)
\[25\,\Omega \]
done
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B)
\[35\,\Omega \]
done
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C)
\[10\,\Omega \]
done
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D)
\[5\,\Omega \]
done
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question_answer 78)
Resistances of \[6\,\Omega \] each are connected in the manner shown in adjoining figure. With the current 0.5 A as shown in figure, the potential difference \[{{\text{V}}_{\text{P}}}\text{-}{{\text{V}}_{\text{Q}}}\] is
A)
3.5V
done
clear
B)
6.0V
done
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C)
3.0V
done
clear
D)
7.2V
done
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question_answer 79) Which of the following are true when the cells are connected in series ?
A)
Current capacity decreases
done
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B)
Current capacity increases
done
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C)
The emf decrease
done
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D)
The emf increases
done
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question_answer 80) 34 kcal heat is liberated when \[1\text{ }g\text{ }{{H}_{1}}(ECE=1.044\times {{10}^{-8}})\] is converted into water. Minimum voltage required for it is
A)
0.75 V
done
clear
B)
1.5 V
done
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C)
3.0V
done
clear
D)
4.5V
done
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question_answer 81) Emf of lead accumulator after complete charging is
A)
2.0V
done
clear
B)
1.8V
done
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C)
1.5V
done
clear
D)
2.2V
done
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question_answer 82) ECE is equal to that mass of substance which is deposited on electrode in half sec by current
A)
5 A
done
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B)
6 A
done
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C)
8A
done
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D)
2A
done
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question_answer 83) Ratio of resistance of two bulbs 40 W and 60 W connected across 220 V source is
A)
3:2
done
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B)
3:8
done
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C)
4:3
done
clear
D)
9:4
done
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question_answer 84) If current is passed through Sb-Bi thermocouple then
A)
heat is produced at junction where current is from Sb the Bi
done
clear
B)
heat is absorbed at junction where current is from Sb to Bi
done
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C)
Both junction will become hot
done
clear
D)
Both junction will become cold
done
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question_answer 85) 100 W-220 V bulb is connected to 110 V source. then power consumed is
A)
25 W
done
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B)
50 W
done
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C)
100 W
done
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D)
200 W
done
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question_answer 86) Thermo emf of a couple is \[3\mu \text{ }V{{/}^{0}}C\] if temperature of cold junction is 20'C and thermo emf is increased to 0.3 mV the r. temperature of hot junction
A)
\[80{}^\circ C\]
done
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B)
\[100{}^\circ C\]
done
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C)
\[120{}^\circ C\]
done
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D)
\[140{}^\circ C\]
done
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question_answer 87) A coil has 25 turns and 10 cm radius. If it carries a 4 A current, then magnetic field at its centre is
A)
\[6.28\times {{10}^{-5}}\text{T}\]
done
clear
B)
\[6.28\times {{10}^{-3}}\text{T}\]
done
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C)
\[6.28\times {{10}^{-4}}\text{T}\]
done
clear
D)
\[6.28\times {{10}^{-2}}\text{T}\]
done
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question_answer 88)
A and B are two concentric circular conductors of centre 0 and carrying currents \[{{\text{I}}_{\text{1}}}\]and \[{{\text{I}}_{2}}\] as shown in the figure. The ratio of their radii is 1: 2 and ratio of the flux densities at 0 due to A and B is 1 : 3.The value of \[{{\text{I}}_{1}}\text{/}{{\text{I}}_{2}}\]will be
A)
1/6
done
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B)
¼
done
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C)
1/2
done
clear
D)
1/3
done
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question_answer 89) A power line carrying 10 A current from east to west in earth's magnetic field of 10-T, then force acting on its 1 m length is
A)
zero
done
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B)
\[{{10}^{-2}}N\]
done
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C)
\[{{10}^{-3}}N\]
done
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D)
\[{{10}^{-4}}N\]
done
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question_answer 90) If an electron moving with the kinetic energy of \[6\times {{10}^{-16}}J\] enters perpendicularly into the magnetic field of intensity \[6\times {{10}^{-3}}Wb/\text{ }{{m}^{2}},\] then the radius of the path described by it will be
A)
3.42cm
done
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B)
4.23cm
done
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C)
5.17cm
done
clear
D)
7.7cm
done
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question_answer 91) A conducting circular loop of radius r carries a constant current \[\text{I}\text{.}\] It is placed in a uniform magnetic field, such that B is perpendicular to the plane of the loop. The magnetic force acting on the loop is given by
A)
\[IrB\]
done
clear
B)
\[2\pi IrB\]
done
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C)
zero
done
clear
D)
\[\pi IrB\]
done
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question_answer 92) Emf of generator is 6V and internal resistance is 0.5\[k\,\Omega .\] If internal resistance of voltmeter is 2.5 \[k\,\Omega .\] then reading of voltmeter must be
A)
10-3V
done
clear
B)
1V
done
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C)
5V
done
clear
D)
10 V
done
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question_answer 93) In a tangent galvanometer a current of 0.1 A produces a deflection of \[30{}^\circ C\]. The current required to produce a deflection of \[60{}^\circ \] will be
A)
0.6 A
done
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B)
0.5 A
done
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C)
0.4 A
done
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D)
0.3 A
done
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question_answer 94) If magnetic flux linked with a coil is given by \[\phi =5{{t}^{2}}+3t+16.\] Then, induced emf in 4th sec is
A)
10 V
done
clear
B)
-10 V
done
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C)
-43V
done
clear
D)
-33V
done
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question_answer 95) Self inductance of coil is L if it is covered with a medium of permeability u, then self inductance becomes
A)
L
done
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B)
\[\mu \,\text{L}\]
done
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C)
\[\mu {{\,}^{\text{2}}}\text{L}\]
done
clear
D)
\[\,\text{L/}\mu \]
done
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question_answer 96) A copper rod of length; is rotated about one end perpendicular to the uniform magnetic field B with the constant angular velocity\[\omega .\]The induced emf between the two ends is
A)
\[B\omega {{l}^{2}}\text{/2}\]
done
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B)
\[B\omega {{l}^{2}}\]
done
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C)
\[2B\omega {{l}^{2}}\]
done
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D)
zero
done
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question_answer 97) The reactance of a coil when used in the domestic AC power supply (220 V, 50 cycles/s) is 50 Q. The inductance of the coil is nearly
A)
2.2 H
done
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B)
0.22 H
done
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C)
1.6 H
done
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D)
0.16 H
done
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question_answer 98) In L-C-R circuit \[{{V}_{L}}={{V}_{C}}={{V}_{R}}=\] 10 V if C is short circuited then voltage across L will be
A)
\[\text{10/}\sqrt{\text{2}}\,\text{V}\]
done
clear
B)
\[20\sqrt{\text{2}}\,\text{V}\]
done
clear
C)
\[10\sqrt{\text{2}}\]
done
clear
D)
\[10\,\text{V}\]
done
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question_answer 99) A coil of resistance R and inductance L is connected to a battery of emf E volts. The final current in the coil is
A)
\[\frac{E}{R}\]
done
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B)
\[\frac{E}{L}\]
done
clear
C)
\[\sqrt{\left( \frac{E}{{{R}^{2}}+{{L}^{2}}} \right)}\]
done
clear
D)
\[\sqrt{\left( \frac{EL}{{{R}^{2}}+{{L}^{2}}} \right)}\]
done
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question_answer 100) Which quantity is increased in step down transformer ?
A)
Current
done
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B)
Voltage
done
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C)
Power
done
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D)
Frequency
done
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question_answer 101) For an electron impossible combination of quantum number is
A)
\[n=3,l=2,{{m}_{l}}=-2,{{m}_{s}}=+\frac{1}{2}\]
done
clear
B)
\[n=3,l=2,{{m}_{l}}=-3,{{m}_{s}}=+\frac{1}{2}\]
done
clear
C)
\[n=4,l=0,{{m}_{l}}=-3,{{m}_{s}}=-\frac{1}{2}\]
done
clear
D)
\[n=5,l=3,{{m}_{l}}=0,{{m}_{s}}=-\frac{1}{2}\]
done
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question_answer 102) The energy of an electron in nth orbit of hydrogen atom is
A)
\[\frac{13.6}{{{n}^{4}}}eV\]
done
clear
B)
\[\frac{13.6}{{{n}^{3}}}eV\]
done
clear
C)
\[\frac{13.6}{{{n}^{2}}}eV\]
done
clear
D)
\[\frac{13.6}{n}eV\]
done
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question_answer 103) Which of the following is not isoelectronic?
A)
\[N{{a}^{+}}\]
done
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B)
\[M{{g}^{2+}}\]
done
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C)
\[{{O}^{2-}}\]
done
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D)
\[C{{l}^{-}}\]
done
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question_answer 104) The number of unpaired electrons is maximum in (Atomic no. \[Ti=22,V=23,Cr=24,Fe=26)\])
A)
\[Fe\]
done
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B)
\[Cr\]
done
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C)
\[Ti\]
done
clear
D)
\[V\]
done
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question_answer 105) On moving from left to right in the second period along the periodic table the gram atomic volume of the element
A)
increases with constant velocity
done
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B)
remains unchanged
done
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C)
first increases and then decreases
done
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D)
decreases
done
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question_answer 106) Which of the following is the correct order of the size of iodine species?
A)
\[I>{{I}^{-}}>{{I}^{+}}\]
done
clear
B)
\[{{I}^{-}}>I>{{I}^{+}}\]
done
clear
C)
\[{{I}^{+}}>I>{{I}^{-}}\]
done
clear
D)
\[I>{{I}^{+}}>{{I}^{-}}\]
done
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question_answer 107) First ionisation potential of \[Be\] and B will be
A)
\[8.8\] and \[8.8\]
done
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B)
\[6.6\] and \[6.6\]
done
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C)
\[6.6\] and \[8.8\]
done
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D)
\[8.8\] and \[6.6\]
done
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question_answer 108) Which of the following electronic configuration will have maximum IP difference between II nd and IIIrd ionisation potential?
A)
\[1{{s}^{2}}2{{s}^{2}}2{{p}^{6}}3{{s}^{1}}\]
done
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B)
\[1{{s}^{2}}2{{s}^{2}}2{{p}^{6}}3{{s}^{2}}\]
done
clear
C)
\[1{{s}^{2}}2{{s}^{2}}2{{p}^{6}}\]
done
clear
D)
\[1{{s}^{2}}2{{s}^{2}}2{{p}^{5}}\]
done
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question_answer 109) Which of the following is true for a reaction in which all the products are liquid?
A)
\[\Delta H=\Delta E\]
done
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B)
\[\Delta H=\Delta W\]
done
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C)
\[\Delta H>\Delta E\]
done
clear
D)
None of these
done
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question_answer 110) Cell reaction is spontaneous when
A)
\[\Delta {{G}^{o}}\] is negative
done
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B)
\[\Delta {{G}^{o}}\] is positive
done
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C)
\[\Delta E_{red}^{o}\]is positive
done
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D)
\[\Delta E_{red}^{o}\] is negative
done
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question_answer 111) At \[{{27}^{o}}C\]latent heat of fusion of a compound is \[2930\text{ }J/mol,\] then entropy change is
A)
\[9.77J/mol-K\]
done
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B)
\[10.77\text{ }J/mol-K\]
done
clear
C)
\[9.07\text{ }J/mol-K\]
done
clear
D)
\[0.977\text{ }J/mol-K\]
done
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question_answer 112) For the reaction,\[{{C}_{2}}{{H}_{5}}OH(l)+3{{O}_{2}}(g)\xrightarrow{{}}2C{{O}_{2}}(g)+3{{H}_{2}}O(l)\] Which one is true?
A)
\[\Delta H=\Delta E-RT\]
done
clear
B)
\[\Delta H=\Delta E+RT\]
done
clear
C)
\[\Delta H=\Delta E+2RT~\]
done
clear
D)
\[\Delta H=\Delta E-2RT~\]
done
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question_answer 113) \[1.1\]moles of A and \[2.2\] moles of B are mixed in a container of one litre volume to obtain the equilibrium \[A+2B\rightleftharpoons 2C+D.\]. At equilibrium 0.2 moles of C are formed. The equilibrium constant for the above reaction is
A)
\[0.001\]
done
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B)
\[0.002\]
done
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C)
\[0.003\]
done
clear
D)
\[0.004\]
done
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question_answer 114) In which solution/solvent the solubility of \[AgCl\] is minimum?
A)
\[0.01\text{ }M\text{ }NaCl\]
done
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B)
\[0.01\text{ }M\,\,CaC{{l}_{2}}\]
done
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C)
Pure water
done
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D)
\[0.001\text{ }M\,\,AgN{{O}_{3}}\]
done
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question_answer 115) The volume strength of \[1.5\,N\,\,{{H}_{2}}{{O}_{2}}\] solution is
A)
\[8.4\]
done
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B)
\[4.8\]
done
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C)
\[5.2\]
done
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D)
\[8.8\]
done
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question_answer 116) Which one of the following salts gives an acidic solution in water?
A)
\[C{{H}_{3}}COONa\]
done
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B)
\[N{{H}_{4}}Cl\]
done
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C)
\[NaCl\]
done
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D)
\[C{{H}_{3}}COON{{H}_{4}}\]
done
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question_answer 117) A cell, with cell constant \[0.4\text{ }c{{m}^{-1}},\] has the resistance of 40 ohm of a \[0.01\text{ }M\]solution of an electrolyte, then the molar conductivity in \[oh{{m}^{-1}}\text{ }c{{m}^{2}}\text{ }mo{{l}^{-1}}\]will be
A)
\[{{10}^{4}}\]
done
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B)
\[{{10}^{3}}\]
done
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C)
\[{{10}^{2}}\]
done
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D)
\[1\]
done
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question_answer 118) \[{{H}_{2}}{{O}_{2}}\] on oxidation gives
A)
\[{{O}^{2-}}\]
done
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B)
\[O{{H}^{-}}\]
done
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C)
\[O_{2}^{-}\]
done
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D)
\[{{O}_{2}}\]
done
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question_answer 119) If the standard electrode potential for the cell \[Zn|Z{{n}^{2+}}(aq)||C{{u}^{2+}}(aq)|Cu\] is \[1.10V\]then the maximum work done by this cell will be
A)
\[-106.15\text{ }kJ\]
done
clear
B)
\[~-212.30\text{ }kJ\]
done
clear
C)
\[-318.45\text{ }kJ\]
done
clear
D)
\[-424.60\text{ }kJ\]
done
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question_answer 120) The oxidation states of sulphur in the anions \[SO_{3}^{2-},{{S}_{2}}O_{4}^{2-}\] and \[{{S}_{2}}O_{6}^{2-}\] follow the order
A)
\[{{S}_{2}}O_{4}^{2-}<SO_{3}^{2-}<{{S}_{2}}O_{6}^{2-}\]
done
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B)
\[SO_{3}^{2-}<{{S}_{2}}O_{4}^{2-}<{{S}_{2}}O_{6}^{2-}\]
done
clear
C)
\[{{S}_{2}}O_{4}^{2-}<{{S}_{2}}O_{6}^{2-}<SO_{3}^{2-}\]
done
clear
D)
\[{{S}_{2}}O_{6}^{2-}<{{S}_{2}}O_{4}^{2-}<SO_{3}^{2-}\]
done
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question_answer 121) \[3A\xrightarrow{{}}2B,\] rate of reaction \[\frac{+d(B)}{dt}\]is equals to
A)
\[-\frac{3}{2}\frac{d(A)}{dt}\]
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B)
\[-\frac{2}{3}\frac{d(A)}{dt}\]
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C)
\[-\frac{1}{3}\frac{d(A)}{dt}\]
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D)
\[+2\frac{d(A)}{dt}\]
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question_answer 122) \[2A\xrightarrow{{}}B+C\] It would be a zero order reaction when
A)
the rate of reaction is proportional to square of concentration of A
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B)
the rate of reaction remains same at any concentration of A
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C)
the rate remains unchanged at any concentration of B and C
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D)
the rate of reaction doubles if concentration of B is increased to double
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question_answer 123) The activation energy for a simple chemical reaction \[A\xrightarrow{{}}B\]is \[{{E}_{a}}\] in forward direction. The activation energy for reverse reaction
A)
is negative of \[{{E}_{a}}\]
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B)
is always less than \[{{E}_{a}}\]
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C)
can be less than or more than \[{{E}_{a}}\]
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D)
is always double of \[{{E}_{a}}\]
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question_answer 124) The reaction \[A\xrightarrow{{}}B\] follows first order kinetics. The time taken for \[0.8\text{ }mole\]of A to produce 0.6 mole of B is\[1\text{ }h\]. What is the time taken for conversion of \[0.9\text{ }mole\]of A to produce \[0.675\text{ }mole\]of B?
A)
\[1h\]
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B)
\[0.5\text{ }h\]
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C)
\[0.25\text{ }h\]
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D)
\[2\text{ }h\]
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question_answer 125) Which of the following exhibits highest solubility in water?
A)
\[N{{H}_{3}}\]
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B)
\[P{{H}_{3}}\]
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C)
\[As{{H}_{3}}\]
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D)
\[Sb{{H}_{3}}\]
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question_answer 126) Chlorine cannot displace
A)
fluorine from \[NaF\]
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B)
iodine from \[NaI\]
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C)
bromine from \[NaBr\]
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D)
None of these
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question_answer 127) Very dilute nitric acid reacts with zinc to form. zinc nitrate and
A)
ammonium nitrate
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B)
\[N{{O}_{2}}\]
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C)
\[NO\]
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D)
\[{{N}_{2}}O\]
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question_answer 128) The ionic radii of \[{{N}^{3-}},{{O}^{2-}},{{F}^{-}}\] and \[N{{a}^{+}}\] follow the order
A)
\[{{N}^{3-}}>{{O}^{2-}}>{{F}^{-}}>N{{a}^{+}}\]
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B)
\[{{N}^{3-}}>N{{a}^{+}}>{{O}^{2-}}>{{F}^{-}}\]
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C)
\[N{{a}^{+}}>{{O}^{2-}}>{{N}^{3-}}>{{F}^{-}}\]
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D)
\[{{O}^{2-}}>{{F}^{-}}>N{{a}^{+}}>{{N}^{3-}}\]
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question_answer 129) The structure of ionic compound with Schottky defects has
A)
same number of cationic and anionic vacancies
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B)
anionic vacancy and interstitial anion
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C)
cationic vacancies
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D)
cationic vacancies and interstitial cation
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question_answer 130) If a pentavalent impurity is mixed in the crystal-lattice of germanium then the semiconductor formed will be
A)
p-type semiconductor
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B)
n-type semiconductor
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C)
(i) and (ii) both
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D)
None of the above
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question_answer 131) A compound formed by elements X and Y crystallises in a cubic structure in which the X atoms are at the corners of a cube and the Y atoms are at the face centres. The formula of the compound is
A)
\[X{{Y}_{3}}\]
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B)
\[{{X}_{3}}Y\]
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C)
\[XY\]
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D)
\[X{{Y}_{2}}\]
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question_answer 132) In a face centred cubic lattice, a unit cell a shared equally by how many unit cells?
A)
\[4\]
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B)
\[2\]
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C)
\[6\]
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D)
\[8\]
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question_answer 133) Acetic acid dissolved in benzene shows molecular weight
A)
\[60\]
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B)
\[120\]
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C)
\[180\]
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D)
\[240\]
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question_answer 134) The vapour pressure decreases by \[10\text{ }mm\] of \[Hg\]when mole fraction of solute in a solution is\[0.2\] If the vapour pressure decreases to \[20\text{ }mm\]of \[Hg\]then the mole fraction of solute will be
A)
\[0.2\]
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B)
\[0.4\]
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C)
\[0.6\]
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D)
\[0.8\]
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question_answer 135) Volume of \[C{{O}_{2}}\]obtained by the complete decomposition of \[9.85\text{ }g\] \[BaC{{O}_{3}}\] is
A)
\[2.24\text{ }L\]
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B)
\[1.12L\]
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C)
\[0.84\text{ }L\]
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D)
\[0.56\text{ }L\]
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question_answer 136) During osmosis, flow of water through a semipermeable membrane is
A)
from both sides of semipermeable membrane with equal flow rate
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B)
from solution having lower concentration only
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C)
from solution having higher concentration only
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D)
None of the above
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question_answer 137) What is the entropy change (in \[J{{K}^{-1}}\,\,mo{{l}^{-1}}\]) when one mole of ice is converted into water at \[{{0}^{o}}C\]? (The enthalpy change for the conversion of ice to liquid water is \[6.0\text{ }kJ\text{ }mo{{l}^{-1}}\]at\[{{0}^{o}}C\]).
A)
\[20.13\]
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B)
\[2.013\]
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C)
\[2.198\]
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D)
\[21.98\]
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question_answer 138) The molar heat capacity of water at constant pressure, is \[75J\,\,{{K}^{-1}}\text{ }mo{{l}^{-1}}\]. When \[1.0\text{ }kJ\]of heat is supplied to \[100\text{ }g\]of water which is free to expand, the increase in temperature of water is
A)
\[1.2K\]
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B)
\[2.4\text{ }K\]
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C)
\[4.8\text{ }K\]
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D)
\[6.6\text{ }K\]
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question_answer 139) Which of the following pairs of a chemical reaction is certain to result in a spontaneous reaction?
A)
Endothermic and decreasing disorder
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B)
Exothermic and increasing disorder
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C)
Endothermic and increasing disorder
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D)
Exothermic and decreasing disorder
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question_answer 140) Identify the correct statement for change of Gibbs energy for a system \[(\Delta {{G}_{system}})\] at constant temperature and pressure
A)
If \[\Delta {{G}_{system}}=0,\] the system has attained equilibrium
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B)
If \[\Delta {{G}_{system}}=0,\] the system is still moving in a particular direction
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C)
If \[\Delta {{G}_{system}}=0,\] the process is not spontaneous
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D)
If \[\Delta {{G}_{system}}=0,\]the process is spontaneous
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question_answer 141) In electrolysis of \[NaCl\]when \[Pt\] electrode is taken then \[{{H}_{2}}\] is liberated at cathode while with \[Hg\]electrode it forms sodium amalgam
A)
\[Hg\] is more inert than \[Pt\]
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B)
more voltage is required to reduce \[{{H}^{+}}\] at \[Hg\] than at \[Pt\]
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C)
\[Na\]is dissolved in \[Hg\] while it does not dissolve in \[Pt\]
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D)
concentration of \[{{H}^{+}}\] ions is larger when P\[Pt\] electrode is taken
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question_answer 142) On the basis of the information available from the reaction\[\frac{4}{3}Al+{{O}_{2}}\xrightarrow{{}}\frac{2}{3}A{{l}_{2}}{{O}_{3}},\,\Delta G=-827\,kJ\,mo{{l}^{-1}}\] of \[{{O}_{2}}\], the minimum emf required to carry out an electrolysis of \[A{{l}_{2}}{{O}_{3}}\]is \[(F=96500C\,\,mo{{l}^{-1}})\]
A)
\[2.14V\]
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B)
\[4.28V\]
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C)
6.42V
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D)
\[8.56V\]
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question_answer 143) The standard emf of a galvanic cell involving cell reaction with \[n=2\] is found to be \[0.295\text{ }V\]at \[{{25}^{o}}C\]. The equilibrium constant of the reaction would be
A)
\[2.0\times {{10}^{11}}\]
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B)
\[4.0\times {{10}^{12}}\]
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C)
\[1.0\times {{10}^{2}}\]
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D)
\[1.0\times {{10}^{10}}\] (Given,\[F=96500\text{ }C\text{ }mo{{l}^{-1}};\] \[R=8.314\text{ }J{{K}^{-1}}\text{ }mo{{l}^{-1}}\])
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question_answer 144) 44. \[4.5g\] of aluminium (at. mass 27 u) is deposited at cathode from \[A{{l}^{3+}}\] solution by a certain quantity of electric charge. The volume of hydrogen produced at STP from \[{{H}^{+}}\]ions in solution by the same quantity of electric charge will be
A)
\[44.8\text{ }L\]
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B)
\[11.2L\]
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C)
\[22.4\text{ }L\]
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D)
\[5.6\text{ }L\]
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question_answer 145) The time of completion of \[90%\] of a first order reaction is approximately
A)
1.1 times that of half-life
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B)
2.2 times that of half-life
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C)
3.3 times that of half-life
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D)
4.4 times that of half-life
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question_answer 146) When a biochemical reaction is carried out in laboratory from outside of human body in the absence of enzyme than rate of reaction obtained is \[{{10}^{-6}}\] times, then activation energy of reaction in the presence of enzyme is
A)
\[6/RT\]
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B)
P is required
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C)
different from, \[{{E}_{a}}\] obtained in laboratory
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D)
can't say any things
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question_answer 147) The rate of reaction between two reactants A and B decreases by a factor of 4 if the concentration of reactant B is doubled. The order of this reaction with respect to reactant B is
A)
\[2\]
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B)
\[-1\]
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C)
\[1\]
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D)
\[-2\]
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question_answer 148) In a first-order reaction \[A\xrightarrow{{}}B,\]if fc is rate constant and initial concentration of reactant A is \[0.5\text{ }M\]then the half-life is
A)
\[\frac{In\,\,2}{k}\]
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B)
\[\frac{0.693}{0.5}\]
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C)
\[\frac{\log \,2}{2k}\]
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D)
\[\frac{\log \,2}{k\sqrt{0.5}}\]
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question_answer 149) Which ion is colorless?
A)
\[C{{r}^{4+}}\]
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B)
\[S{{c}^{3+}}\]
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C)
\[T{{i}^{3+}}\]
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D)
\[{{V}^{4+}}\]
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question_answer 150) Which of the following statement is not correct?
A)
\[La{{(OH)}_{3}}\] is less basic than \[Lu{{(OH)}_{3}}\].
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B)
In lanthanide series ionic radius of \[L{{u}^{3+}}\] ion decreases.
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C)
\[La\] is actually an element of transition series rather lanthanide.
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D)
Atomic radius of \[Zr\] and Hf are same because of lanthanide contraction.
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question_answer 151) Four successive members of the first row transition elements are listed below with their atomic numbers. Which one of them is expected to have the highest third ionisation enthalpy?
A)
Vanadium \[(Z=23)\]
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B)
Manganese \[(Z=25)\]
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C)
Chromium \[(Z=24)\]
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D)
Iron \[(Z=26)\]
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question_answer 152) Which of the following will replace \[B{{r}_{2}}\] from the aqueous solution having bromide ion?
A)
\[C{{l}_{2}}\]
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B)
\[I_{3}^{\bigcirc -}\]
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C)
\[{{I}_{2}}\]
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D)
\[C{{l}^{\bigcirc -}}\]
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question_answer 153) If \[2.0\text{ }g\]of a radioactive substance has half-life of 7 days, the half-life of \[1\text{ }g\]sample is
A)
7 days
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B)
14 days
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C)
28 days
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D)
35 days
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question_answer 154) \[_{n}{{X}^{m}}\] emit one a-and two P-particles. It is converted into
A)
\[_{n}{{X}^{m-4}}\]
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B)
\[_{n-1}{{X}^{m-1}}\]
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C)
\[_{n}{{Z}^{m-4}}\]
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D)
None of these
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question_answer 155) \[-{{[NH{{(C{{H}_{2}})}_{6}}NHCO{{(C{{H}_{2}})}_{4}}]}_{n}}-\] is a
A)
addition polymer
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B)
thermosetting polymer
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C)
homopolymer
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D)
copolymer
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question_answer 156) Isoprene is a valuable substance for making
A)
propene
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B)
liquid fuel
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C)
synthetic rubber
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D)
petrol
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question_answer 157) Enzymes are made up of
A)
edible proteins
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B)
proteins with specific structure
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C)
nitrogen containing carbohydrates
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D)
carbohydrates
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question_answer 158) According to the adsorption theory of catalysis. the speed of the reaction increase because
A)
the concentration of reactant molecules at the active centres of the catalyst becomes high due to adsorption
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B)
in the process of adsorption, the activation energy of the molecules becomes large
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C)
absorption produces heat which increases the speed of the reaction
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D)
adsorption lowers the activation energy of the reaction
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question_answer 159) In the metallurgy of which of the following cupellation process is used?
A)
Copper
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B)
Silver
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C)
Iron
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D)
Aluminium
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question_answer 160) Cryolite is used in the electrolytic extraction of aluminium
A)
to obtain more aluminium
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B)
to decompose bauxite
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C)
to protect anodes
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D)
as a reducing agent
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question_answer 161) 18 carat gold contains
A)
\[18%\] gold
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B)
\[24%\] gold
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C)
\[75%\] gold
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D)
\[60%\] gold
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question_answer 162) The brass is an alloy of
A)
gold and copper
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B)
silver and zinc
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C)
copper and zinc
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D)
copper and aluminium
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question_answer 163) Which of the following metals will not form an amalgam?
A)
Gold
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B)
Silver
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C)
Zinc
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D)
Iron
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question_answer 164) Which of the following is pseudo halogen?
A)
\[I{{F}_{7}}\]
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B)
\[{{(CN)}_{2}}\]
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C)
\[ICl_{2}^{-}\]
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D)
\[I_{3}^{-}\]
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question_answer 165) The element which liberates oxygen gas from water is
A)
\[P\]
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B)
\[Na\]
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C)
\[F\]
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D)
\[I\]
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question_answer 166) Which element from group V gives most basic compound with hydrogen?
A)
Nitrogen
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B)
Bismuth
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C)
Arsenic
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D)
Phosphorus
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question_answer 167) Which is the weakest acid out of \[HF,\] \[HCl,\] \[HBr\]and\[HI\]?
A)
\[HF\]
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B)
\[HCl\]
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C)
\[HBr\]
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D)
\[HI\]
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question_answer 168) The molecular formula of bleaching powder is
A)
\[CaC{{l}_{2}}\]
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B)
\[C{{a}_{2}}OC{{l}_{2}}\]
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C)
\[CaOC{{l}_{2}}\]
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D)
\[CaC{{l}_{2}}.CaOCl\]
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question_answer 169) The strongest oxidising agent amongst \[{{F}_{2}},\] \[C{{l}_{2}};\]\[B{{r}_{2}}\] and \[{{I}_{2}}\] is
A)
\[{{F}_{2}}\]
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B)
\[{{I}_{2}}\]
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C)
\[C{{l}_{2}}\]
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D)
\[B{{r}_{2}}\]
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question_answer 170) Point out in which of the following properties oxygen differs from the rest of the members of its family (Group-VIA)?
A)
High value of ionisation energies
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B)
Oxidation states (2, 4, 6)
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C)
Polymorphism
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D)
Formation of hydrides
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question_answer 171) Which of the following properties increases on going down from F to I in group VII-A of the periodic table?
A)
Electronegativity
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B)
Volatile nature
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C)
Ionic radius
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D)
Oxidising power
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question_answer 172) The oxidation state of oxygen is zero in
A)
\[CO\]
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B)
\[{{O}_{3}}\]
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C)
\[S{{O}_{2}}\]
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D)
\[{{H}_{2}}{{O}_{2}}\]
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question_answer 173) A solution of sodium metal in liquid ammonia is a strong reducing agent due to the presence of
A)
sodium atoms
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B)
sodium hydride
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C)
sodium amide
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D)
solvated electron
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question_answer 174) A mixture containing \[C{{u}^{2+}}\] and \[N{{i}^{2+}}\] can be separated for identification by
A)
passing \[{{H}_{2}}S\] in acid medium
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B)
passing \[{{H}_{2}}S\] in alkaline medium
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C)
passing \[{{H}_{2}}S\] in neutral medium
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D)
passing \[{{H}_{2}}S\] in dry mixture
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question_answer 175) The indicator used in the titration of acetic add with sodium hydroxide for quantitative estimation is
A)
phenolphthalein
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B)
methyl orange
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C)
methyl red
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D)
a mixture of methyl red and methyl orange
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question_answer 176) A compound has the empirical formula \[C{{H}_{2}}O\]. Its vapour density is 30. Its molecular formula is
A)
\[{{C}_{2}}{{H}_{4}}{{O}_{2}}\]
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B)
\[{{C}_{2}}{{H}_{6}}O\]
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C)
\[{{C}_{2}}{{H}_{6}}{{O}_{2}}\]
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D)
\[{{C}_{2}}{{H}_{4}}O\]
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question_answer 177) The IUPAC name of the compound \[C{{H}_{3}}-\overset{C{{H}_{3}}}{\mathop{\overset{|}{\mathop{C}}\,}}\,H-\underset{{{C}_{2}}{{H}_{5}}}{\mathop{\underset{|}{\mathop{C}}\,}}\,H-C{{H}_{3}}\]is
A)
\[2-ethyl-3-methyl\text{ }butane\]
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B)
\[2,3-dimethyl\text{ }pentane\]
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C)
\[2-methyl-3-ethyl\text{ }butane\]
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D)
\[3,4-dimethyl\text{ }pentane\]
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question_answer 178) Out of the following fractions of petroleum the one having the lowest boiling point is
A)
kerosene oil
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B)
diesel oil
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C)
gasoline
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D)
heavy oil
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question_answer 179) Coordination number of Fe in the complexes \[{{[Fe{{(CN)}_{6}}]}^{4-}},{{[Fe{{(CN)}_{6}}]}^{3-}}\]and \[{{[FeC{{l}_{4}}]}^{-}}\] would be respectively
A)
\[6,3,4\]
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B)
\[6,6,4\]
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C)
\[2,3,3\]
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D)
\[6,4,6\]
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question_answer 180) Methoxy methane and ethanol are
A)
functional isomers
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B)
chain isomers
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C)
optical isomers
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D)
geometrical isomers
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question_answer 181) Most stable ion is
A)
\[{{C}_{6}}{{H}_{5}}CH_{2}^{+}\]
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B)
\[{{(C{{H}_{3}})}_{3}}-{{C}^{+}}\]
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C)
\[{{(C{{H}_{3}})}_{2}}C{{H}^{+}}\]
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D)
\[C{{H}_{3}}CH_{2}^{+}\]
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question_answer 182) Formation of 2-butene as major product by dehydration of 2-butanol is according to
A)
Markownikoff?s rule
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B)
Saytzeffrule
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C)
Peroxide effect
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D)
Anti-Markownikoff?s rule
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question_answer 183) \[64\text{ }g\]of an organic compound contains \[24\text{ }g\]of carbon, \[\text{8 }g\] of hydrogen and the rest oxygen. The empirical formula of the compound is
A)
\[C{{H}_{2}}O\]
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B)
\[{{C}_{2}}{{H}_{4}}O\]
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C)
\[C{{H}_{4}}O\]
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D)
\[{{C}_{2}}{{H}_{8}}{{O}_{2}}\]
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question_answer 184) \[[Pt{{(N{{H}_{3}})}_{4}}C{{l}_{2}}]B{{r}_{2}}\] and \[[Pt{{(N{{H}_{3}})}_{4}}B{{r}_{2}}]C{{l}_{2}}\] are related to each other as
A)
optical isomers
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B)
coordinate isomers
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C)
ionisation isomers
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D)
linkage isomers
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question_answer 185) Which one of the following substances is used as an anti-knock compound?
A)
Tetra ethyl lead
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B)
Lead tetrachloride
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C)
Lead acetate
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D)
Ethyl acetate
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question_answer 186) How many isomeric butanes are there?
A)
\[2\]
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B)
\[3\]
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C)
\[4\]
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D)
\[5\]
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question_answer 187) Ethene gives with acidic \[KMn{{O}_{4}}\] solution
A)
ethylene glycol
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B)
ethylene oxide
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C)
formaldehyde
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D)
acetaldehyde
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question_answer 188) Which of the following is an organo-metallic compound?
A)
Lithium ethoxide
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B)
Ethyl lithium
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C)
Lithium acetate
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clear
D)
Lithium carbide
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
question_answer 189) When phenol is distilled with \[Zn\] dust it gives
A)
benzaldehyde
done
clear
B)
benzoic acid
done
clear
C)
toluene
done
clear
D)
benzene
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
question_answer 190) Ethane is formed by the reaction of methyl iodide and sodium metal in dry ether solution. This reaction is known as
A)
Clemmensen's reduction
done
clear
B)
Kolbe's reaction
done
clear
C)
Wurtz reaction
done
clear
D)
Cannizaro's reaction
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
question_answer 191) At normal room temperature iodoform is
A)
volatile liquid
done
clear
B)
thick viscous liquid
done
clear
C)
gas
done
clear
D)
solid
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
question_answer 192) The compound added to prevent chloroform to form phosgene gas (poisonous gas) is
A)
\[C{{H}_{3}}COOH\]
done
clear
B)
\[C{{H}_{3}}OH\]
done
clear
C)
\[C{{H}_{3}}COC{{H}_{3}}\]
done
clear
D)
\[{{C}_{2}}{{H}_{5}}OH\]
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
question_answer 193) The formula of freon-12 is
A)
\[CCl{{F}_{3}}\]
done
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B)
\[C{{H}_{2}}C{{l}_{2}}\]
done
clear
C)
\[CC{{l}_{2}}{{F}_{2}}\]
done
clear
D)
\[C{{H}_{2}}{{F}_{2}}\]
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
question_answer 194) The reaction of benzaldehyde with alkali gives
A)
phenol + sodium benzoate
done
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B)
benzene + benzyl alcohol
done
clear
C)
benzyl alcohol + sodium benzoate
done
clear
D)
phenol + benzene
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
question_answer 195) The reaction \[{{C}_{2}}{{H}_{5}}ONa+Br{{C}_{2}}{{H}_{5}}\xrightarrow{{}}\]\[{{C}_{2}}{{H}_{5}}-O-{{C}_{2}}{{H}_{5}}+NaBr\]is called
A)
Frank land reaction
done
clear
B)
Wurtz reaction
done
clear
C)
Williamson's synthesis
done
clear
D)
Cannizaro reaction
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
question_answer 196) Diethyl ether on heating with cone. HI gives two moles of
A)
ethyl iodide
done
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B)
ethanol
done
clear
C)
iodoform
done
clear
D)
methyl iodide
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
question_answer 197) Positive Fehling test is shown by
A)
acetaldehyde
done
clear
B)
acetone
done
clear
C)
benzaldehyde
done
clear
D)
acetophenone
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
question_answer 198) \[RCON{{H}_{2}}+B{{r}_{2}}+KOH\xrightarrow{{}}\text{Amine}\]This reaction is
A)
Carbyl amine reaction
done
clear
B)
Mustard oil reaction
done
clear
C)
Hofmann bromide reaction
done
clear
D)
Cannizzaro reaction
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
question_answer 199) Which of the following is reducing agent?
A)
\[LiAl{{H}_{4}}\]
done
clear
B)
\[Zn+HCl\]
done
clear
C)
\[Sn+HCl\]
done
clear
D)
All of these
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
question_answer 200) Reduction of an aldehyde gives
A)
primary alcohol
done
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B)
monocarboxylic acid
done
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C)
secondary alcohol
done
clear
D)
tertiary alcohol
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
question_answer 201) Cells of the epithelial tissue rest on a basement membrane, which is made up of
A)
mono saccharides
done
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B)
muco polysaccharides
done
clear
C)
disaccharides
done
clear
D)
lipids
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
question_answer 202) The cells of a tissue are similar in
A)
structure
done
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B)
function
done
clear
C)
origin
done
clear
D)
Both [a] and [b]
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
question_answer 203) The intercellular matrix is negligible or absent in which of the following tissues?
A)
Connective tissue
done
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B)
Epithelial tissue
done
clear
C)
Muscular tissue
done
clear
D)
Cardiac tissue
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
question_answer 204) The basement membrane acts as
A)
plasma membrane
done
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B)
plasmalemma
done
clear
C)
Both [a] and [b]
done
clear
D)
None of these
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
question_answer 205) The filaments arising from desmosomes are called
A)
tonofibril
done
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B)
tonofilament
done
clear
C)
Both [a] and [b]
done
clear
D)
None of these
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
question_answer 206) Pseudo stratified epithelium is always
A)
single layered
done
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B)
double layered
done
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C)
multilayered
done
clear
D)
uncertain
done
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View Answer play_arrow
question_answer 207) Most of the glands of the body are of
A)
holocrine type
done
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B)
merocrine type
done
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C)
apocrine type
done
clear
D)
None of these
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
question_answer 208) Pyruvic acid before combining with oxaloaceric acid of Krebs' cycle becomes
A)
lactic acid
done
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B)
acetoacetic acid
done
clear
C)
cis-aconitic acid
done
clear
D)
acetyl Co-A
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
question_answer 209) Dissociation curve shifts to the right when
A)
\[C{{O}_{2}}\] concentration decreases
done
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B)
\[C{{O}_{2}}\]concentration increases
done
clear
C)
\[{{O}_{2}}\]concentration decreases
done
clear
D)
\[\text{C}{{\text{l}}^{-}}\] concentration increases
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
question_answer 210) Which of the following glands is present in frog's skin and not in rabbit's skin?
A)
Sebaceous gland
done
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B)
Sweat gland
done
clear
C)
Mucous gland
done
clear
D)
Moll's gland
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
question_answer 211) Cutaneous glands are
A)
gastric glands
done
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B)
sebaceous glands
done
clear
C)
thyroid gluids
done
clear
D)
thymus glands
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
question_answer 212) Teeth are absent in
A)
fishes
done
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B)
reptiles
done
clear
C)
frogs
done
clear
D)
turtle
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
question_answer 213) Ivory of teeth is
A)
enamel
done
clear
B)
dentine
done
clear
C)
Both [a] and [b]
done
clear
D)
None of these
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
question_answer 214) In the gut of a mammal, haustra and taeniae are the parts of
A)
rectum
done
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B)
colon
done
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C)
caecum
done
clear
D)
ileum
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
question_answer 215) Space between incisor and cheek teeth in rabbit is
A)
diapause
done
clear
B)
diastema
done
clear
C)
dialysis
done
clear
D)
diapedesis
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
question_answer 216) Taste buds are absent in
A)
foliate papillae
done
clear
B)
circumvallate papillae
done
clear
C)
fungiform papillae
done
clear
D)
fili form papillae
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
question_answer 217) Which one respires through gills ?
A)
Crocodile
done
clear
B)
Whale
done
clear
C)
Frog
done
clear
D)
Prawn
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
question_answer 218) Fish brought out of water dies because of
A)
absence of pressure
done
clear
B)
inability to respire
done
clear
C)
inability to feed
done
clear
D)
rise in temperature
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
question_answer 219) Skin is an accessory organ of respiration in
A)
human
done
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B)
frog
done
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C)
rabbit
done
clear
D)
lizard
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
question_answer 220) In Pheretima, lymph glands produce
A)
phagocytic cells
done
clear
B)
lymphocytic cells
done
clear
C)
amoebocytic cells
done
clear
D)
oxyntic cells
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
question_answer 221) How many lateral hearts are in Pheretima
A)
4
done
clear
B)
8
done
clear
C)
16
done
clear
D)
12
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
question_answer 222) Four pairs of pulsatile heart in Pheretima are located in segments
A)
7, 9, 12 and 13
done
clear
B)
11,14, 17 and 18
done
clear
C)
10,13,16 and 17
done
clear
D)
4, 5,10 and 13
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
question_answer 223) Open circulatory system is observed in
A)
cockroach
done
clear
B)
frog
done
clear
C)
fish
done
clear
D)
reptiles
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
question_answer 224) Single circuit circulatory system is characteristic of
A)
fishes
done
clear
B)
amphibians
done
clear
C)
aves
done
clear
D)
mammals
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
question_answer 225) Which of the following are uricotelic animals ?
A)
Rohu and frog
done
clear
B)
Lizard and crow
done
clear
C)
Camel and frog
done
clear
D)
Earthworm and eagle
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
question_answer 226) In gout patients, high level of which of the following is found in blood?
A)
Urea
done
clear
B)
Uric add
done
clear
C)
Cholesterol
done
clear
D)
Amino acid
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
question_answer 227) Excretion of nitrogenous waste products in semisolid form occurs in
A)
ureotelic animals
done
clear
B)
ammonotelic animals
done
clear
C)
uricotelic animals
done
clear
D)
ammonites
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
question_answer 228) The phenomenon, which represents terrestrial mode (dry habitat) of life, is
A)
ammonotelism
done
clear
B)
ureotelism
done
clear
C)
uricotelism
done
clear
D)
All of these
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
question_answer 229) Aquatic reptiles are
A)
ammonotelic
done
clear
B)
ureotelic over land
done
clear
C)
ureotelic
done
clear
D)
ureotelic in water
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
question_answer 230) Ammonia is the chief excretory substance in
A)
camel and whale
done
clear
B)
cartilaginous fishes
done
clear
C)
whale and tortoise
done
clear
D)
fresh water fishes
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
question_answer 231) The chief nitrogenous waste in urine of rabbit or terrestrial mammals is
A)
urea
done
clear
B)
uric acid
done
clear
C)
ammonia
done
clear
D)
None of these
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
question_answer 232) The correct sequence of meninges from outer to the inner side is
A)
Arachnoid-piamater-duramater
done
clear
B)
Arachnoid-duramater-piamater
done
clear
C)
Piamater-arachnoid-duramater
done
clear
D)
Duramater-arachnoid-piamater
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
question_answer 233) On the basis of body organization, animals are grouped as
A)
Metazoa and Eumetazoa
done
clear
B)
Protozoa and Parazoa
done
clear
C)
Parazoa and Metazoa
done
clear
D)
Protozoa and Metazoa
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
question_answer 234) Which one of the following cells form the lining of brain ?
A)
Ependymal cells
done
clear
B)
Neurons
done
clear
C)
Schwann cells
done
clear
D)
Neurilemma
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
question_answer 235) Cerebrospinal fluid is produced by
A)
ependymal cells
done
clear
B)
choroid plexuses
done
clear
C)
neuroglial cells
done
clear
D)
neurons
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
question_answer 236) The ventricles of the brain are filled with
A)
cerebrospinal fluid
done
clear
B)
lymph
done
clear
C)
blood
done
clear
D)
amniotic fluid
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
question_answer 237) Which one of the following phenomenon is not common to both oestrous and menstrual cycles?
A)
Growth of ovarian follicles under the influence of FSH and LH
done
clear
B)
Formation of corpus luteum in the ovarian follicles.
done
clear
C)
Sexual receptivity limited to a definite period in the cycle
done
clear
D)
Regulation of cycles by estrogen and progesterone
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
question_answer 238) For ovulation in reflex ovulators
A)
coitus is not necessary
done
clear
B)
coitus is necessary
done
clear
C)
plenty of food is necessary
done
clear
D)
plenty of food is not necessary
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
question_answer 239) Secondary sexual characters in females develop in response to hormone
A)
relaxin
done
clear
B)
progesterone
done
clear
C)
estrogen
done
clear
D)
gonadotropin
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
question_answer 240) The period of restoration of uterine epithelium is called
A)
menstrual phase
done
clear
B)
proliferative phase
done
clear
C)
secretory or luteal phase
done
clear
D)
None of the above
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
question_answer 241) Which one of the following exhibits menstruation ?
A)
Tiger
done
clear
B)
Chimpanzee
done
clear
C)
Civet cat
done
clear
D)
None of these
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
question_answer 242) Glenoid cavity is found in
A)
pelvic girdle
done
clear
B)
pectoral girdle
done
clear
C)
skull
done
clear
D)
humerus
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
question_answer 243) Axis vertebra is identified by
A)
olecranon process
done
clear
B)
odontoid process
done
clear
C)
sigmoid notch
done
clear
D)
odontoblast
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
question_answer 244) When the intensity of light is low during night the light is detected by
A)
rods
done
clear
B)
cones
done
clear
C)
lens
done
clear
D)
Both [a] and [b]
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
question_answer 245) Colourblindness results from
A)
absence of rods
done
clear
B)
absence of cones
done
clear
C)
absence of eyelids
done
clear
D)
inverted retina
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
question_answer 246) Who is the "Father of Endocrinology" ?
A)
Whittaker
done
clear
B)
Einthoven
done
clear
C)
Pasteur
done
clear
D)
T Addison
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
question_answer 247) Steroid is a
A)
thyroid acid
done
clear
B)
vitamin-A
done
clear
C)
cholesterol
done
clear
D)
easter and fatty acid
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
question_answer 248) The feedback control mechanism is related with
A)
bile secretion
done
clear
B)
\[\text{HCl}\]secretion
done
clear
C)
hormonal secretion
done
clear
D)
hering breuer reflex
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
question_answer 249) All functions of the body are regulated and integrated by
A)
respiratory system
done
clear
B)
digestive system
done
clear
C)
neuroendocrine system
done
clear
D)
excretory system
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
question_answer 250) Which of the following does not secrete any hormone ?
A)
Ovary
done
clear
B)
Testis
done
clear
C)
Spleen/liver
done
clear
D)
Pancreas
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
question_answer 251) The name second messenger is given to
A)
ATP
done
clear
B)
Cyclic-AMP
done
clear
C)
GTP
done
clear
D)
Both [a] and [b]
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
question_answer 252) Endocrine glands produce or action of endocrine gland is mediated through
A)
hormones
done
clear
B)
enzymes
done
clear
C)
minerals
done
clear
D)
vitamins
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
question_answer 253) The word 'hormone' means
A)
to move
done
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B)
to exdte
done
clear
C)
to initiate
done
clear
D)
to increase
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
question_answer 254) In which of the following organisms hormones are normally absent?
A)
Monkey
done
clear
B)
Cat
done
clear
C)
Cockroach
done
clear
D)
Bacteria
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
question_answer 255) Which of the following vitamins is Necessary for blood clotting ?
A)
Vitamin-A
done
clear
B)
Vitamin-E
done
clear
C)
Vitamin-C
done
clear
D)
Vitamin-K
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
question_answer 256) Deficiency of vitamin-'C' causes
A)
beri beri
done
clear
B)
rickets
done
clear
C)
scurvy
done
clear
D)
night blindness
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
question_answer 257) The hardest substance of vertebrate body is
A)
keratin
done
clear
B)
enamel
done
clear
C)
dentine
done
clear
D)
chondrin
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
question_answer 258) The term blastocyst is applied to the blastula of which one of the following ?
A)
Kangaroo
done
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B)
Platypus
done
clear
C)
Monkey
done
clear
D)
Both [a] and [b]
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
question_answer 259) Substances synthesized during growth are
A)
protoplasmic
done
clear
B)
apoplasmic
done
clear
C)
Both [a] and [b]
done
clear
D)
nucleic acid
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
question_answer 260) Growth in the first 10-13 years of age is controlled by
A)
somatotrophic hormone
done
clear
B)
thyroxin
done
clear
C)
thymosin
done
clear
D)
gonadotropic hormone
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
question_answer 261) In old age, there is decrease in amount of urine output and difficulty in micturition it is due to
A)
increase in number of nephrons
done
clear
B)
increase in glomerular filtration
done
clear
C)
decrease in number of nephrons and glomerular filtration
done
clear
D)
Both [a] and [b]
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
question_answer 262) Growth is an irreversible process seen at all organizational levels. It consists of
A)
organ growth
done
clear
B)
subcellular growth
done
clear
C)
cell growth
done
clear
D)
All of the above
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
question_answer 263) When growth takes place only by increase in volume of existing cells it is called as
A)
auxetic growth
done
clear
B)
multiplicative growth
done
clear
C)
accretionary growth
done
clear
D)
differential growth
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
question_answer 264) The following cells cannot be grown under tissue culture conditions
A)
hela cells
done
clear
B)
leucocytes
done
clear
C)
kidney cells
done
clear
D)
nerve cells
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
question_answer 265) Growth in most warm blooded vertebrates is
A)
determinate
done
clear
B)
indeterminate
done
clear
C)
uncontrolled
done
clear
D)
None of these
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
question_answer 266) Wilkins X-ray diffraction showed the diameter of the DNA helix as
A)
\[10\,\,\overset{\text{o}}{\mathop{\text{A}}}\,\]
done
clear
B)
\[20\,\,\overset{\text{o}}{\mathop{\text{A}}}\,\]
done
clear
C)
\[30\,\,\overset{\text{o}}{\mathop{\text{A}}}\,\]
done
clear
D)
\[40\,\,\overset{\text{o}}{\mathop{\text{A}}}\,\]
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
question_answer 267) The number of autosomes in man is
A)
22 pairs
done
clear
B)
11 pairs
done
clear
C)
43 pairs
done
clear
D)
23 pairs
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
question_answer 268) A normal metaphase chromosome with a middle centromere is
A)
metacentric
done
clear
B)
sub-metacentric
done
clear
C)
acrocentric
done
clear
D)
telocentric
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
question_answer 269) Lampbrush chromosomes are found inside
A)
salivary glands of Drosophila
done
clear
B)
salivary glands of silk moth
done
clear
C)
oocytes of frog
done
clear
D)
nucleus of man
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
question_answer 270) Depending upon size and centromere position the 46 chromosomes have been divided into a number of groups
A)
6
done
clear
B)
5
done
clear
C)
7
done
clear
D)
10
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
question_answer 271) Chromosome number is
A)
fixed for a species
done
clear
B)
fixed for an ecosystem
done
clear
C)
fixed for a community
done
clear
D)
fixed for a biosphere
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
question_answer 272) The twenty third pair of chromosomes in man is known as
A)
chromatid
done
clear
B)
heterosome
done
clear
C)
autosome
done
clear
D)
gene
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
question_answer 273) The careers of hereditary material are
A)
chromosomes
done
clear
B)
gene
done
clear
C)
gametes
done
clear
D)
gametocytes
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
question_answer 274) In man, the normal number of chromosomes are
A)
42
done
clear
B)
44
done
clear
C)
46
done
clear
D)
48
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
question_answer 275) The genetic material of virus is
A)
DNA
done
clear
B)
RNA
done
clear
C)
Both [a] and [b]
done
clear
D)
DNA or RNA
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
question_answer 276) The chromosomes as thread like structures in nucleus was first described by
A)
Mendel
done
clear
B)
Strasburger
done
clear
C)
Darwin
done
clear
D)
Levitzky
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
question_answer 277) Genes are made up of
A)
histones
done
clear
B)
lipoproteins
done
clear
C)
polynucleotides
done
clear
D)
hydrocarbons
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
question_answer 278) The function of chromosomes of carrying the genetic information from one cell generation to another is performed by
A)
RNA
done
clear
B)
DNA
done
clear
C)
histones
done
clear
D)
calcium
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
question_answer 279) In chromosomes, the material controlling heredity is
A)
DNA
done
clear
B)
histones
done
clear
C)
chromocentres
done
clear
D)
RNA
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
question_answer 280) Sex ratio in a species indicates the numerical relation between the number of
A)
male and female producing gametes
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B)
black and white
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C)
unisexual and bisexual
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D)
None of the above
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question_answer 281) The aggregate of processes that determine the size and composition of any population is called
A)
population dispersal
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B)
population dynamics
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C)
population explosion
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D)
population density
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question_answer 282) Intracellular digestion is found in the
A)
protozoans only
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B)
porifers only
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C)
in some coelenterates only
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D)
All of the above
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question_answer 283) Radial symmetry is usually exhibited in an which
A)
have one opening of alimentary canal
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B)
have colliery mode of feeding
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C)
are attached to the substratum
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D)
live in water
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question_answer 284) Absence of excretory organs, great power regeneration and exclusively marine animals belong to the phylum
A)
Mollusca
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B)
Echinodermata
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C)
Fishes
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D)
Arthropoda
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question_answer 285) Select the correct statement
A)
birds are poikilothermic
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B)
flatworms are coelomic animal
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C)
earthworm is metameric ally segmented
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D)
fishes are radially symmetrical
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question_answer 286) Characteristic features such as four-chambered heart, feather and pneumatic bone is applicable to the class of vertebrate
A)
Cyclostomata
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B)
Aves
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C)
Reptilia
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D)
Mammalia
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question_answer 287) Which of the following animals is predaceous
A)
Pheretima
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B)
Nereis
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C)
Hirudinaria
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D)
None of these
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question_answer 288) Taxon is the
A)
name of a taxonomy journal
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B)
name of a branch of taxonomy
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C)
a rank of classification as phylum, class, order, species
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D)
group of similarly constituted organisms
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question_answer 289) Which of the following is the oldest living fossil?
A)
Architeuthis
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B)
Neopilina
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C)
Nautilus
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D)
Limulus
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question_answer 290) The non-nucleated, unicellular organisms of Whittaker's (1969) classification are included in the kingdom
A)
Protista
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B)
Monera
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C)
Animalia
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D)
Plantae
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question_answer 291) In human evolution, which is most recent?
A)
Middle paleolithic
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B)
Upper Paleolithic
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C)
Neolithic
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D)
Mesolithic
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question_answer 292) The concept of sudden genetic change, which breeds true in a species is represented as
A)
inheritance of acquired characters
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B)
natural selection
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C)
law of inheritance
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D)
mutation
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question_answer 293) Silkworm is a
A)
fly
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B)
worm
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C)
moth
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D)
beetle
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question_answer 294) Who is referred to as father of pearl industry ?
A)
Iwanovsky
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B)
Louis Pasteur
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C)
Kokichi Mikimoto
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D)
Harvey
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question_answer 295) The biological name of the Java man is
A)
Homo erectus
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B)
Homo sapiens
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C)
Homo habilis
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D)
Pithecanthropus erectus
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question_answer 296) plasmodium in man is in no cleated by
A)
Anopheles male
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B)
Anopheles female
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C)
Both [a] and [b]
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D)
Culex female
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question_answer 297) Smoking addiction is harmful because it produces polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons which cause
A)
reduction in oxygen transport
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B)
increase in blood pressure
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C)
cancer
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D)
retardation of growth of foetus
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question_answer 298) Alcohol addiction is harmful because it causes
A)
protein depositions in liver
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B)
deposition of extra fat in liver
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C)
rise in blood sugar level
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D)
cancer
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question_answer 299) In which state is the Kanha National Park?
A)
Rajasthan
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B)
Uttar Pradesh
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C)
Madhya Pradesh
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D)
Assam
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question_answer 300) The lion tailed monkeys Malaca silenus are found only in these regions
A)
Kaziranga and other pans of Assam
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B)
Eastern ghats and Chennai
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C)
Western ghats including Travancore Mysore
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D)
Himalayan mountains
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question_answer 301) The resolution of light microscope could be improved to 1.5 times by using.
A)
Red light and immersion oil between the specimen and objective
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B)
Blue light and glycerine between the specimen and objective
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C)
Blue light and immersion oil between specimen and objective
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D)
Day light and air between specimen and objective
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question_answer 302) Separation of proteins on the basis of their being polyelectrolytes can be brought about by
A)
centrifugation
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B)
electrophoresis
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C)
chromatography
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D)
crystallography
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question_answer 303) Taylor (1958) studied chromosome replication by using radioactive
A)
uridine
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B)
thymidine
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C)
histones
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D)
phosphate
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question_answer 304) The amount of which of the following elements greatest in protoplasm
A)
hydrogen
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B)
oxygen
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C)
nitrogen
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D)
carbon
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question_answer 305) Normal pH of protoplasm is
A)
7.8
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B)
6.8
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C)
5
done
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D)
6.5
done
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question_answer 306) The theory strongly advocating the morphological nature of protoplasm is
A)
granular theory of Altmann
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B)
fibrical theory of Flemming
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C)
nuclear theory of Altmann
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D)
colloidal theory of Wilson Fischer and Hardy
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question_answer 307) In rotation type of cyclosis, the cytoplasmic matrix flows in
A)
one direction
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B)
two opposite directions
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C)
different directions
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D)
side wise
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question_answer 308) The function of centrosome is
A)
to inhibit cell division
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B)
to initiate cell division
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C)
to increase protein synthesis
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D)
None of the above
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question_answer 309) At which stage of mitosis, chromatids separate and start moving towards poles?
A)
Prophase
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B)
Metaphase
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C)
Anaphase
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D)
Telophase
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question_answer 310) Micro bodies differ from lysosomes in that
A)
micro bodies are surrounded by a single unit membrane, while lysosome membrane is double
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B)
micro bodies are surrounded by double membrane, while lysosome membrane is single unit
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C)
micro bodies contain lytic enzymes, while lysosomes do not
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D)
lysosomes contain lytic enzymes, while micro bodies do not
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question_answer 311) The haploid complement of chromosomes of an organism constitutes
A)
genome
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B)
genotype
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C)
phenotype
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D)
genetic system
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question_answer 312) The cross used to ascertain whether the plant is homozygous or heterozygous is
A)
linkage cross
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B)
reciprocal cross
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C)
test cross
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D)
monohybrid cross
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question_answer 313) The dihybrid ratio in \[{{F}_{2}}\] generation is
A)
1: 1: 1 : 1
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B)
2 : 1: 2
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C)
3 :1
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D)
9 : 3 : 3 :1
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question_answer 314) Which of the following trait of garden pea studied by Mendel was recessive feature?
A)
Round seed shape
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B)
Axial flower position
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C)
Green seed colour
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D)
Green pod colour
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question_answer 315) Which of the following scientist rediscovered Mendel's theory ?
A)
T H Morgan
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B)
W Bateson
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C)
E Strasburger
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D)
E Von Tschermak
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question_answer 316) Which of the following is an example of pleiotropic gene ?
A)
Thalassemia
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B)
Haemophilia
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C)
Colour blindness
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D)
Sickle cell anaemia
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question_answer 317) By double fertilization, is formed
A)
endosperm
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B)
megaspore
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C)
seed
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D)
fruit
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question_answer 318) In split genes, the coding sequences are called
A)
cistrons
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B)
operons
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C)
exons
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D)
introns
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question_answer 319) Extra nuclear genes occur in
A)
plastids and inherited
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B)
plasmid and not inherited
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C)
mitochondria and inherited by male
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D)
mitochondria and inherited by female
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question_answer 320) How many different types of genetically different gametes will be produced by a heterozygous plant having the genotype AA Bb Cc ?
A)
Two
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B)
Four
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C)
Six
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D)
Nine
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question_answer 321) Drosophila melanogaster has
A)
2 pairs of autosomes and 1 pair of as chromosomes
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B)
3 pairs of autosomes and 1 pair of as chromosomes
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C)
1 pair of autosome and 3 pairs of sea chromosomes
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D)
2 pairs of autosomes and 2 pairs of sea chromosomes
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question_answer 322) The four daughter cells derived from a single meiosis differ from each other due to
A)
difference in chromosome number
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B)
crossing over only
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C)
independent assortment of chromosomes
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D)
crossing over as well as independent assortment of chromosomes
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question_answer 323) In which kingdom, would you classify the archaea and nitrogen fixing organisms, if the five kingdom system of classification is used ?
A)
Plantae
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B)
Fungi
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C)
Protista
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D)
Monera
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question_answer 324) Which one of the following is correct for structure of cell wall of fungi and bacteria?
A)
Both have glycopeptide
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B)
Both are made up of N-acetyl glycosamine
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C)
Both are made up of N-acetyl muramic acid
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D)
Both are made up of chitin
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question_answer 325) Muramic acid is present in the cell wall of
A)
bacteria
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B)
green algae
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C)
red algae
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D)
Rhizopus
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question_answer 326) Most of the bacteria can tolerate high temperature due to
A)
type of cell wall
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B)
cell organization
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C)
homopolar bonds in their proteins
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D)
absence of phospholipids in their walls
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question_answer 327) For reproduction, endospores are formed in the following genera
A)
Bacillus and Clostridium
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B)
Mucor and Bacillus
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C)
Mono coccus and Clostridium
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D)
Saccharomyces and Clostridium
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question_answer 328) Plasmids are ideal vectors for gene cloning as they
A)
can be multiplied in a laboratory using enzymes
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B)
can be multiplied by culturing
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C)
are self-replicating
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D)
replicate freely outside the bacterial cells
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question_answer 329) Root nodules for nitrogen fixation in non leguminous trees are produced by species of the genus
A)
Rhizobium
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B)
Azotobacter
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C)
Frankia
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D)
Thiobacillus
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question_answer 330) Activity of one of the following bacteria is very helpful in the preparation and flavouring of tea leaves
A)
Bacillus subtilis
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B)
Bacillus megatherium
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C)
Bacillus aceti
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D)
Bacillus radicicola
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question_answer 331) Why surgical instruments are boiled in water before use?
A)
For killing the pathogens present on them
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B)
So that doctors can use them easily
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C)
Provides pleasure to the patient
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D)
All the saprophytes die on the operative surface
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question_answer 332) Pasteurization of milk involves heating for
A)
60 minute at about
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B)
60 minute at about
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C)
30 minute at about
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D)
30 minute at about
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question_answer 333) Which kingdom incorporates photoautotrophs, chemoautotrophs and heterotrophs?
A)
Monera
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B)
Protista
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C)
Plantae
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D)
Both [b] and [c]
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question_answer 334) Blue-green algae are placed in the kingdom
A)
Plantae
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B)
Protista
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C)
Fungi
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D)
Monera
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question_answer 335) 35. Protozoan, Protista are differentiated on the basis of
A)
Nuclei
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B)
size
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C)
shape
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D)
locomotory structures
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question_answer 336) Endoparasitic protistan protozoans belong to
A)
Sporozoa
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B)
Ciliata
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C)
Sarcodina
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D)
Mastigophora
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question_answer 337) The winged pollen grains are the characteristic feature of
A)
Cycas
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B)
Ephedra
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C)
Gnetum
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D)
Pinus
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question_answer 338) What is the similarity between gymnospenns and angiosperms?
A)
Phloem of both have companian cells
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B)
Endosperm is formed before fertilization in both
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C)
Origin of ovule and seed is similar in both
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D)
Both have leaves, stem and roots
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question_answer 339) Circinate venation is found in
A)
Cycas
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B)
Fern
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C)
Both [a] and [b]
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D)
None of these
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question_answer 340) In gymnosperm, the endosperm is
A)
haploid
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B)
diploid
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C)
triploid
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D)
None of these
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question_answer 341) Primitive types of stomata are found in the
A)
leaves of moss plant
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B)
axis of the moss plant
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C)
apophysis of capsule of moss
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D)
All of the above
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question_answer 342) Paraphysis in moss are
A)
one celled and club shaped
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B)
multicelled and club shaped
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C)
one celled and bottle shaped
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D)
multicelled and bottle shaped
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question_answer 343) The development of a sporophyte without fertilization from the vegetative cells of the gametophyte is called
A)
zygospory
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B)
aplanospory
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C)
apospory
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D)
apogamy
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question_answer 344) One of the following is not a method of asexual reproduction
A)
cutting
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B)
grafting
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C)
budding
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D)
conjugation
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question_answer 345) In Capsella, meiosis takes place during
A)
development of pollen grains
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B)
development of egg
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C)
gemination of zygote
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D)
development of ovule
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question_answer 346) Generally archesporium in an ovule is
A)
single celled and hypodermal in origin
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B)
single celled and lies in the centre of the ovule
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C)
single celled and terminal in origin
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D)
many celled and lie in the centre
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question_answer 347) When the pollen grains are not transferred from anthers to the stigma in flower due to the barrier of fence, it is referred as or when some natural barriers, exist between androecium and gynoecium to check self pollination, it is known as
A)
heterostyly
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B)
herkogamy
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C)
dichogamy
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D)
cleistogamy
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question_answer 348) Aerenchyma is found in
A)
lithophytes
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B)
hydrophytes
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C)
sciophytes
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D)
xerophytes
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question_answer 349) Collenchyma differs from sclerenchyma
A)
retaining protoplasm at maturity
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B)
having thick walls
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C)
having wide lumen
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D)
being meristematic
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question_answer 350) Water stomata are found in
A)
plants inhabiting humid region
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B)
plants inhabiting dry regions
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C)
all plants
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D)
plants lacking normal stomata
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question_answer 351) Multiple epidermis on dorsal and ventral side of the leaf is found in
A)
Zea mays
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B)
Triticum aestivum
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C)
Mangifera indica
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D)
Nerium oleander
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question_answer 352) The axillary buds arise
A)
endogenously from the pericycle
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B)
exogenously from the tissues of the main growing point
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C)
endogenously from the cambial tissues
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D)
exogenously from the innermost cortex
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question_answer 353) Potassium is useful in development of
A)
fibre
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B)
pith
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C)
parenchyma
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D)
None of these
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question_answer 354) Plants absorb sulphur in the form of
A)
\[S{{O}_{4}}\] from soil
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B)
\[S{{O}_{2}}\] from air
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clear
C)
Both [a] and [b]
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D)
\[S{{O}_{3}}\] from soil
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clear
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question_answer 355) Grey spots of oat are caused by deficiency of
A)
Cu
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B)
Zn
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C)
Mn
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D)
Fe
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question_answer 356) Motile leaf in citrus plants is due to deficienp
A)
boron
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B)
magnesium
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C)
zinc
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D)
None of these
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question_answer 357) Nodules with nitrogen fixing bacteria present in roots of
A)
cotton
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B)
gram
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C)
wheat
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D)
maize
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question_answer 358) A pigment, which absorbed red and far-red light is
A)
phytochrome
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B)
carotene
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C)
cytochrome
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D)
xanthophylls
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question_answer 359) 85-90% of all photosynthesis of the world is carried out by
A)
shrubs
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B)
herbs
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C)
oceanic algae
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D)
trees with large branches
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question_answer 360) The role of phycobilins in photosynthes is to
A)
absorb and transfer energy to chlorophyll
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B)
donate electrons to the electron transport system
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C)
fix carbon dioxide
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D)
carry hydrogen or electrons
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question_answer 361) Chlorophyll-b differs from chlorophyll-a in the it does not
A)
CHO
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B)
COOH
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C)
\[C{{H}_{3}}\] and-CH
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clear
D)
None of these
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clear
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question_answer 362) Plants do not store carbohydrate as glucose but do so as starch because glucose
A)
is unstable
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B)
attracts herbivores
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clear
C)
will change nucleic acids
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clear
D)
alters osmotic balance
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clear
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question_answer 363) If oxygen content is reduced to 1%, the rate of respiration becomes
A)
optimum
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B)
minimum
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C)
maximum
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clear
D)
None of these
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question_answer 364) Oxidative phosphorylation is the formation of
A)
\[NADP{{H}_{2}}\] in respiration
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B)
ATP in respiration
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C)
\[NADP{{H}_{2}}\] in photosynthesis
done
clear
D)
ATP in photosynthesis
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question_answer 365) A typical anther wall has
A)
exothecium and endothecium
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B)
endothecium and tapetum
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C)
exothecium, endothecium and tapetum
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clear
D)
exothecium and tapetum
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question_answer 366) The tissue of highest respiratory activity is
A)
meristems
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B)
ground tissue
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C)
phloem
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D)
mechanical tissue
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clear
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question_answer 367) Why do fruit juices turn bitter if kept in an open place for some time?
A)
Juices have something inside them which makes it bitter
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B)
It is due to fermentation brought about by yeast cells
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clear
C)
It is due to the activity of fungi present in the atmosphere
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D)
All of the above
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clear
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question_answer 368) Which one belongs to hydrolase group?
A)
Amylase
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B)
Transaminase
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C)
Citrate synthetase
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clear
D)
Enolase
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question_answer 369) Dry seeds can enduce higher temperature that the germinating seeds because
A)
dry seeds have more reserve food
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B)
hydration makes the enzymes more sensitive to temperature
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C)
dry seeds are hard
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D)
the seedlings are tender
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question_answer 370) Name of the enzyme that acts both as carboxylase at one time and oxygenase at another time
A)
Carbonic anhydrase
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B)
PEP carboxylase
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C)
RuBP carboxylase
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D)
None of the above
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question_answer 371) Enzymes, which act normally with in cells are ailed
A)
apoenzymes
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B)
exoenzymes
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C)
endoenzymes
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D)
ferments
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question_answer 372) A coenzyme is
A)
same enzyme that occurs in different tissues such as heart and muscle
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B)
one that shares the function of other enzyme
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C)
organic or inorganic in nature and helps activate metabolic enzymes
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D)
organic non-protein in nature and helps to activate metabolic enzymes
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question_answer 373) When food supply is poor, the rate of growth is
A)
fast
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B)
slow
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C)
intermediate
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D)
nil
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question_answer 374) Energy for the early growth of a developing bean embryo comes from
A)
sunlight
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B)
water in the soil
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C)
food in the soil
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D)
leaves in the seed
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question_answer 375) Plant response to environment is mainly through
A)
induction of dormancy
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B)
abscission of parts
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C)
synthesis of pigments
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D)
growth
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question_answer 376) Substances, which originate at the tip of stem, root and control the growth of different organs are
A)
enzymes
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B)
hormones
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C)
vitamins
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D)
food substances
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question_answer 377) Gibberellins induce
A)
flowering
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B)
production of hydrolyzing enzymes in germinating seeds
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C)
Both [a] and [c]
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D)
hasten leaf senescence
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question_answer 378) One of the preventive methods of fruit drop is by spraying
A)
auxin
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B)
ethylene gas
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C)
gibberellins
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D)
cytokinin
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question_answer 379) An important finding in Went's experiment was
A)
unequal distribution of elongation promoting substance in Avena coleoptile
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B)
presence of elongation factor in all cells of root
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C)
curvature of coleoptile is proportional to auxin concentration
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D)
curvature occurred due to irregular elongation of cells
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question_answer 380) A bird enters the mouth of crocodile and feed on parasitic leeches. The bird gets food and crocodile gets ribs of blood sucking leeches. Both the partners can live independently. Such an association is
A)
mutualism
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B)
amensalism
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C)
commensalism
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D)
proto co-operation
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question_answer 381) Which of the following species are restricted to a given area ?
A)
Sympatric species
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B)
All opatric species
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C)
Sibling species
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D)
Endemic species
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question_answer 382) The factor governing the structure of earth surface is
A)
topographic
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B)
edaphic
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C)
biotic
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D)
temperature
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question_answer 383) Excessive aerenchyma is characteristic of
A)
hydrophytes
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B)
xerophytes
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C)
mesophytes
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D)
heliophytes
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question_answer 384) Species are considered as
A)
real unit of classification devised by taxonomists
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B)
real basic units of classification
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C)
the lowest units of classification
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D)
artificial concept of human mind, which cannot be defined in absolute terms
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question_answer 385) Mark the correct pair
A)
plants growing in shady - heliophytes places
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B)
plants growing in light - sdophytes
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C)
plants growing in saline - halophytes soil
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D)
roots are absent - xerophytes
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question_answer 386) Ephemerals are xerophytes that are
A)
draught escapers
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B)
true xerophytes
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C)
draught resisting
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D)
None of the above
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question_answer 387) The sun loving plants are referred to as
A)
halophytes
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B)
heliophytes
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C)
heterotrophs
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D)
heliophytes
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question_answer 388) The lentic ecosystem includes, which of the following water?
A)
Rain
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B)
Running
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C)
Standing
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D)
Gravitational
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question_answer 389) Succulent xerophytes are likely to be found in
A)
tropical rain forest
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B)
deciduous forest
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C)
desert
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D)
tundra
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question_answer 390) Which alkaloids are present in opium ?
A)
Codeine
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B)
Morphine
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C)
Perthidine
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D)
All of these
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question_answer 391) Which of the following is used as local an aesthesia?
A)
Aloe
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B)
Cocaine
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C)
Calotropis latex
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D)
None of the above
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question_answer 392) Study of drug plants is known as
A)
Pharmacy
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B)
Pharmacology
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C)
Pharmacognosy
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D)
Pharmaceutical chemistry
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question_answer 393) The correct representation of the alkaloids obtained from opium is
A)
Morphine > Codeine > Pethidine
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B)
Morphine < Codeine < Perthidine
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C)
Morphine > Codeine > Perthidine
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D)
Morphine < Codeine < Nicotine
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question_answer 394) Cinchona plant is also known as
A)
prickly bark
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B)
turmeric bark
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C)
peruvian bark
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D)
devil's dung bark
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question_answer 395) Which is more suitable in jelly preparation?
A)
Sugar
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B)
Salt
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C)
Pectin
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D)
Protein
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question_answer 396) Botulism is a
A)
type of food poisoning due to saprophya Clostridium botulinum bacterium
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B)
disease of man due to parasitic bacterium
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C)
disease in various organisms
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D)
disease of plants due to viruses
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question_answer 397) In fruit preservation, which substance is used as preservative?
A)
Calcium carbonate
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B)
Potassium metabisulphate
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C)
Potassium nitrate
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D)
Ammonium sulphate
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question_answer 398) The main aim of plant breeding is
A)
to produce improved varieties
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B)
to make soil fertile
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C)
to control pollution
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D)
to become more progressive
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question_answer 399) Which cultivation method is most popular in Madhya Pradesh to cultivate rice?
A)
Intensive
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B)
Dry
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C)
Wet
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D)
Tillage
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question_answer 400) Dwarf wheats were developed by
A)
Vavilov
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B)
Borlaug
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C)
Swaminathan
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D)
None of the above
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