Solved papers for DUMET Medical DUMET Medical Solved Paper-2010

DUMET Medical Solved Paper-2010 Total Questions - 200

1) If the internal energy of\[{{n}_{1}}\]moles of Heat temperature 10 T is equal to the internal energy of\[{{n}_{2}}\] mole of hydrogen at temperature 6T. The ratio of \[{{n}_{1}}\]/\[{{n}_{2}}\] is

A)

3/5

B)

2

C)

1

D)

5/3

View Answer
2) Six identical metallic rods are joined together in a pattern as shown in the figure. Points A and D are maintained at temperatures 60°C and 240°C. The temperature of the junction B will be

A)

\[120{}^\circ C\]

B)

\[150{}^\circ C\]

C)

\[60{}^\circ C~~\]

D)

\[80{}^\circ C\]

View Answer
3) The motion of a particle executing SHM in one dimension      is      described      by x = - 0.3 sin\[(t+\pi /4),\]where x is in metre and \[t\]in second. The frequency of oscillation in Hz is

A)

\[3\]

B)

\[1/2\pi \]

C)

\[\pi /2\]

D)

\[1/\pi \]

View Answer
4) \[At\,t=0,\] a stone of mass 10 g is thrown straight up from the ground level with a speed 10 m/s. After 1 s a second stone of the same mass is thrown from the same position with a speed 20 m/s. What is the position of the 1st stone from the ground level at that moment? (take g =10 m/s2)

A)

10 m

B)

1 m

C)

2m

D)

5 m

View Answer
5) Two stars of masses m, and m2 are part of a binary star system. The radii of their orbits are \[{{r}_{1}}\]and \[{{r}_{2}}\] respectively, measured from the CM of the system. The magnitude of acceleration of \[{{m}_{1}}\] is

A)

\[\frac{{{m}_{1}}{{m}_{2}}G}{{{({{r}_{1}}+{{r}_{2}})}^{2}}}\]

B)

\[\frac{{{m}_{1}}G}{{{({{r}_{1}}+{{r}_{2}})}^{2}}}\]

C)

\[\frac{{{m}_{2}}G}{{{({{r}_{1}}+{{r}_{2}})}^{2}}}\]

D)

\[\frac{{{m}_{1}}+{{m}_{2}}}{{{({{r}_{1}}+{{r}_{2}})}^{2}}}\]

View Answer
6) A pendulum is made to hang from the ceiling of an elevator. It has period of T sec [for small angles). The elevator is made to accelerate upwards with\[10\text{ }m/{{s}^{2}}\]. The period of the pendulum now will be (Take g \[=10\text{ }m/{{s}^{2}}\])

A)

\[T\sqrt{2}\]

B)

infinite

C)

\[T/\sqrt{2}\]

D)

zero

View Answer
7) A person is measuring his weight by standing on a weighing machine inside a lift. When the lift is at rest, the machine shows his weight to be 55 kg. In between the floor when the lift is moving up with a constant speed of 10 km/h, he again measures his weight, which is

A)

55 kg

B)

65kg

C)

50 kg

D)

45 kg

View Answer
8) A child travelling in a train throws a ball outside with a speed v. According to a child who is standing on the ground, the speed of the ball is

A)

same as v

B)

greater than v

C)

less than v

D)

None of these

View Answer
9) A body of mass M at rest explodes into three pieces, two of them of mass M/4 each, are thrown off in perpendicular directions with velocities of 3 m/s and 4 m/s respectively. The third piece will be thrown off with a velocity of

A)

1.5 m/s

B)

2 m/s

C)

2.5 m/s

D)

3 m/s

View Answer
10) A tunnel has been dug through the centre of the earth and a ball is released in it. It executes SHM with time period

A)

42 min

B)

1 day

C)

1 h

D)

84.6 min

View Answer
11) An ideal spring with spring constant k = 200 N/m is fixed on one end of a wall. If the spring is pulled with a force 10 N at the other end along its length, how much it will be extended?

A)

5 cm

B)

2m

C)

2 cm

D)

5 m

View Answer
12) An iron block of mass 5 kg is kept on a trolley. If the trolley is being pushed with an acceleration of 5 m/s2, what will be the force of friction between the block and the trolley surface? (Take the coefficient of static friction between the block and the trolley surface to be 0,8).

A)

Zero

B)

5 N

C)

4 N

D)

25 N

View Answer
13) A ball with charge 50 e is placed at the centre of a hollow spherical shell which has a net charge of - 50 e. What is the charge on the shells outer surface?

A)

-50e

B)

Zero

C)

-100e

D)

+100e

View Answer
14) If the charge on a capacitor is doubled, the value of its capacitance C will be

A)

doubled

B)

halved

C)

remain the same

D)

None of these

View Answer
15) A point mass is placed inside a thin spherical shell of radius \[H\] and mass \[M\] at a distance R/2 from the centre of the shell. The gravitational force exerted by the shell on the point mass is.

A)

\[\frac{GM}{2{{R}^{2}}}\]

B)

\[\frac{GM}{2{{R}^{2}}}\]

C)

zero

D)

\[\frac{GM}{4{{R}^{2}}}\]

View Answer
16)    The magnitude and direction of current \[I\] (in A) Indicated in the following circuit is

A)

\[14\to \]

B)

\[8\to \]

C)

\[\leftarrow 4\]

D)

\[\leftarrow 8\]

View Answer
17) An electric motor operating on 15V supply draws a current of 5 A and yields mechanical power of 60 W. The energy lost as heat in one hour (in kJ) is

A)

0.54

B)

5.4

C)

54

D)

540

View Answer
18) The frequency of cyclotron motion of a charged particle in a magnetic field is dependent of its

A)

charge e

B)

mass m

C)

velocity

D)

elm ratio

View Answer
19) Iron would become paramagnetic at about

A)

\[200{}^\circ C\]

B)

\[400{}^\circ C\]

C)

\[600{}^\circ C\]

D)

\[800{}^\circ C\]

View Answer
20) The electric dipole moment of an electron and a proton 4.3 nm apart is

A)

\[6.88\times {{10}^{-28}}\,\,Cm\]

B)

\[2.56\times {{10}^{-29}}{{C}^{2}}/m\]

C)

\[3.72\times {{10}^{-14}}\,\,C/m\]

D)

\[1.1\times {{10}^{-46}}\,\,{{C}^{2}}m\]

View Answer
21) A parallel plate capacitor of a capacitance of 1 F would have the plate area of about

A)

\[100\text{ }{{m}^{2}}\]

B)

\[1\text{ }k{{m}^{2}}\]

C)

\[100\text{ }k{{m}^{2}}\]

D)

\[1000\text{ }k{{m}^{2}}\]

View Answer
22) The equivalent resistance between the points A and B in the following circuit is

A)

3.120

B)

1.560

C)

6.24 0

D)

12.48 P

View Answer
23) A galvanometer coil has a resistance of 10 \[\Omega \]and the ammeter shows full scale deflection for a current of 1mA. The shunt resistance required to convert the galvanometer into an ammeter of range 0-100mA is about

A)

10\[\Omega \]

B)

1\[\Omega \]

C)

0.1\[\Omega \]

D)

12.48\[\Omega \]

View Answer
24) A thermo-emf V appears across a conductor maintained at a temperature difference T. The Thomson coefficient is then given by

A)

\[-T\frac{{{d}^{2}}V}{d{{T}^{2}}}\]

B)

\[{{T}^{2}}\frac{dV}{dT}\]

C)

\[-\frac{1}{T}\frac{{{d}^{2}}V}{d{{T}^{2}}}\]

D)

\[-\frac{1}{{{T}^{2}}}\frac{dV}{dT}\]

View Answer
25) How much current should be passed through a silver voltmeter to deposit 200 g of silver per hour on the cathode? (Faraday constant = 96500 C/mol and relative atomic mass of silver is 108)

A)

50mA

B)

50 A

C)

15mA

D)

15 A

View Answer
26) The relative magnetic permeability of ferromagnetic materials is of the order of

A)

10

B)

100

C)

1000

D)

10000

View Answer
27) A solenoid is placed inside another solenoid, the lengths of both being equal carrying same magnitude of current. The other parameters like radius and number of turns are in the ratio 1:2 for the two solenoids. The mutual inductance on each other would be

A)

\[{{M}_{12}}={{M}_{21}}\]

B)

\[{{M}_{12}}=2{{M}_{21}}\]

C)

\[2{{M}_{12}}=2{{M}_{21}}\]

D)

\[{{M}_{12}}=4{{M}_{21}}\]

View Answer
28) The average magnetic energy density of an electromagnetic wave of wavelength\[\lambda \] travelling in free space is given by

A)

\[\frac{{{B}^{2}}}{2\lambda }\]

B)

\[\frac{{{B}^{2}}}{2{{\mu }_{o}}}\]

C)

\[\frac{2{{B}^{2}}}{{{\mu }_{o}}\lambda }\]

D)

\[\frac{B}{{{\mu }_{o}}\lambda }\]

View Answer
29) The numerical aperture for a human eye is of the order of

A)

1

B)

0.1

C)

0.01

D)

0.001

View Answer
30) The radius of a copper nucleus is of the order of

A)

\[{{10}^{-16}}\,m\]

B)

\[{{10}^{-14}}\,m\]

C)

\[{{10}^{-12}}\,m\]

D)

\[{{10}^{-9}}\,m\]

View Answer
31) A material has N atoms in its crystal structure which is a hexagonal close packed. Then the number of electron states in a band is

A)

N

B)

2N

C)

4N

D)

6N

View Answer
32) If \[{{10}^{10}}\] electrons are acquired by a body every second, the time required for the body to get a total charge of 1 C will be

A)

2h

B)

2 days

C)

2yr

D)

20 yr

View Answer
33) The magnetic field in a plane electromagnetic wave   is   given   by \[{{B}_{y}}=2\times {{10}^{-7}}\] \[\sin \,(0.5\times {{10}^{-3}}\times +1.5\times {{10}^{11}}t).\] This electromagnetic wave is

A)

a visible light

B)

an infrared wave

C)

a microwave

D)

a radio wave

View Answer
34) Which of these particles (having the same kinetic energy) has the shortest de-Broglie wave length?

A)

Electron

B)

Alpha particle

C)

Proton

D)

Neutron

View Answer
35) A radioactive isotope has a half-life of T yr. How long will it take the activity to reduce to 1% of its original value?

A)

3.2 Tyr

B)

4.6 Tyr

C)

6.6 Tyr

D)

9.2 Tyr

View Answer
36) Although carbon, silicon and germanium have same lattice structure and four valence electrons each, their band structure leads to the energy gaps as

A)

\[{{E}_{g}}(Si)<{{E}_{g}}(Ge)<{{E}_{g}}(C)\]

B)

\[{{E}_{g}}(Si)>{{E}_{g}}(Ge)<{{E}_{g}}(C)\]

C)

\[{{E}_{g}}(Si)<{{E}_{g}}(Ge)>{{E}_{g}}(C)\]

D)

\[{{E}_{g}}(Si)>{{E}_{g}}(Ge)>{{E}_{g}}(C)\]

View Answer
37) When a lens of refractive index \[{{n}_{1}}\] is placed in a liquid of refractive index \[{{n}_{2}}\] the lens looks to be disappeared only if

A)

\[{{n}_{1}}={{n}_{2}}/2\]

B)

\[{{n}_{1}}=3{{n}_{2}}/4\]

C)

\[{{n}_{1}}={{n}_{2}}\]

D)

\[{{n}_{1}}=5{{n}_{2}}/4\]

View Answer
38) The density of a nucleus of mass number A is proportional to

A)

\[{{A}^{3}}\]

B)

\[{{A}^{1/3}}\]

C)

\[{{A}^{1}}\]

D)

\[A{}^\circ \]

View Answer
39) A p-n-p transistor having AC current gain of 50 is used to make an amplifier of a voltage gain of 5. What will be the power gain of the amplifier?

A)

125

B)

178

C)

250

D)

354

View Answer
40) Which of the following frequencies will be suitable       for       beyond-the-horizon communication?

A)

10 kHz

B)

10 MHz

C)

1 GHz

D)

1000 GHz

View Answer
41) In an air collision between an aeroplane and a bird, the force experienced by the bird as compared to that of the aeroplane is

A)

very high

B)

equal

C)

less

D)

zero

View Answer
42) An iron ball of mass M is hanged from the ceiling by a spring with a spring constant k. It executes a SHM with a period P. If the mass of the ball is increased by four times, the new period will be

A)

4P

B)

P/4

C)

2P

D)

P

View Answer
43) Two stones of equal masses are dropped from a rooftop of height h one after another. Their separation distance against time will

A)

remain the same

B)

increase

C)

decrease

D)

be zero

View Answer
44) The angle subtended by a circular disk of diameter 2 cm at a distance 1000 cm from your eye is

A)

\[0.2{}^\circ \]

B)

\[0.002{}^\circ \]

C)

\[0.11{}^\circ \]

D)

\[0.22{}^\circ \]

View Answer
45) The mass and radius of the sun are \[1.99\times {{10}^{30}}kg\] and \[R=6.96\times 10{}^\circ m\]. The escape velocity of a rocket from the sun is

A)

\[11.2km/s\]

B)

\[2.38\text{ }km/s\]

C)

\[59.5\text{ }km/s\]

D)

\[618\text{ }km/s\]

View Answer
46) A satellite of mass m is orbiting close to the surface of the earth (Radius\[R=6400\text{ }km\]) has a kinetic energy K. The corresponding kinetic energy of the satellite to escape from the earths gravitational field is

A)

K

B)

2K

C)

mg R

D)

mK

View Answer
47) The height from the earth surface at which the value of acceleration due to gravity reduces to 1/4th of its value at earths surface (assume earth to be sphere of radius 6400 km)

A)

6400 km

B)

2400 km

C)

2946 km

D)

1600 km

View Answer
48) 10 moles of an ideal monoatomic gas at \[10{}^\circ C\] is mixed with 20 moles of another monoatomic gas at\[20{}^\circ C\]. Then the temperature of the mixture is

A)

\[15.5{}^\circ C\]

B)

\[15{}^\circ C\]

C)

\[16{}^\circ C\]

D)

\[16.6{}^\circ C\]

View Answer
49) An ideal gas is made to go through a cyclic thermodynamical process in four steps. The amounts of heat involved are\[{{Q}_{1}}=100\,J,\] \[{{Q}_{2}}=300\,J,\]   \[{{Q}_{2}}=400\,J,\]   and   \[{{Q}_{4}}=100\,J,\] respectively.   The   corresponding   work involved are\[{{W}_{1}}=300\,J,\] \[{{W}_{2}}=-100\,J,\] \[{{W}_{3}}=400\,J\]and \[{{W}_{4.}}\] What is the value of\[{{W}_{4.}}\]?

A)

100 J

B)

- 100 J

C)

500 J

D)

- 700 J

View Answer
50) Two cylinders of equal sizes are filled with equal amounts of ideal diatomic gas at room temperature. Both the cylinders are fitted with pistons. In cylinder A, the piston is free to move, while in cylinder B the piston is fixed. When same amount of heat is supplied to both the cylinders, the temperature of the gas in cylinder A raises by 30K. What will be the rise in temperature of the gas in cylinder B?

A)

42 K

B)

30 K

C)

20 K

D)

56 K

View Answer
51) Which one of the following is the correct increasing order of the magnitude of ionic radii of \[C{{e}^{3+}},L{{a}^{3+}},P{{m}^{3+}}\] and\[Y{{b}^{3+}}\]?

A)

\[Y{{b}^{3+}}<P{{m}^{3+}}<L{{a}^{3+}}<C{{e}^{3+}}\]?

B)

\[Y{{b}^{3+}}<P{{m}^{3+}}<C{{e}^{3+}}<L{{a}^{3+}}\]

C)

\[P{{m}^{3+}}<L{{a}^{3+}}<C{{e}^{3+}}<Y{{b}^{3+}}\]

D)

\[C{{e}^{3+}}<Y{{b}^{3+}}<P{{m}^{3+}}<L{{a}^{3+}}\]

View Answer
52) The number of unpaired electrons in tetrahedral \[[Ni{{(CO)}_{4}}]\] is

A)

0

B)

2

C)

3

D)

4

View Answer
53) Choose the correct order regarding the bond order.

A)

\[O_{2}^{2-}>O_{2}^{+}>O_{2}^{-}>{{O}_{2}}\]

B)

\[O_{2}^{+}>O_{2}^{2-}>O_{2}^{-}>{{O}_{2}}\]

C)

\[O_{2}^{+}>{{O}_{2}}>O_{2}^{-}>O_{2}^{2-}\]

D)

\[{{O}_{2}}>O_{2}^{-}>O_{2}^{2-}>O_{2}^{+}\]

View Answer
54) Which one of the following metal ions is essential inside the cell for the metabolism of glucose/synthesis of proteins?

A)

\[C{{a}^{2+}}\]

B)

\[M{{g}^{2+}}\]

C)

\[N{{a}^{+}}\]

D)

\[{{K}^{+}}\]

View Answer
55) Which noble gas is most abundant in atmosphere?

A)

He

B)

Ne

C)

Ar

D)

Kr

View Answer
56) On \[\alpha \]-decay \[_{92}^{238}U\] produces

A)

\[_{93}^{238}Np\]

B)

\[_{90}^{234}Th\]

C)

\[_{91}^{234}Pa\]

D)

\[_{92}^{234}U\]

View Answer
57) Which of the following methods is used for obtaining aluminium metal?

A)

Electrolysing fused \[A{{l}_{2}}{{O}_{3}}\] and cryolite

B)

By heating \[A{{l}_{2}}{{O}_{3}}\] with carbon

C)

By heating \[A{{l}_{2}}{{O}_{3}}\] in Muffle furnace

D)

By a process called pyrometallurgy

View Answer
58) A hydroxy acid on heating gives a 5-membered lactone. The acid is

A)

\[C{{H}_{2}}OHC{{H}_{2}}C{{H}_{2}}COOH\]

B)

\[C{{H}_{3}}CHOHC{{H}_{2}}COOH\]

C)

\[C{{H}_{3}}C{{H}_{2}}CHOHCOOH\]

D)

\[C{{H}_{3}}CHOHCHOHCOOH\]

View Answer
59) Which of the following statements is not correct?

A)

Caprolactam is the monomer of nylon-6

B)

Terylene is a polyester polymer

C)

Phenol formaldehyde resin is known as bakelite

D)

The monomer of natural rubber is butadiene

View Answer
60) The anticodon of transfer RNA for the messenger RNA codon G-C-A is

A)

T-G-A

B)

G-U-T

C)

A-G-T

D)

C-G-U

View Answer
61) The secondary structure of proteins is derived from

A)

peptide linkages

B)

hydrogen bonding

C)

disulphide linkages

D)

folding of chains

View Answer
62) The source of energy in a cellular reaction is

A)

chemical energy

B)

light energy

C)

heat energy

D)

solar radiation

View Answer
63) The final product in the following Jaction sequence is p-chloroamime \[\xrightarrow[{{O}^{o}}C-{{5}^{o}}C]{NaN{{O}_{2}},\,HCl}?\xrightarrow{KCN}?\xrightarrow{LiAl{{H}_{4}}}\]?

A)

p -chlorobenzamide

B)

p -chlorophenol

C)

p -chlorobenzylamine

D)

p -chlorobenzylalcohol

View Answer
64) Which of the following is not a biliquid propellant?

A)

\[{{N}_{2}}{{O}_{4}}+\] unsymmetrical dimethyl hydrazine

B)

Nitroglycerine + nitrocellulose

C)

Hydrazine \[+{{N}_{2}}{{O}_{4}}\]

D)

Kerosene oil + liquid oxygen

View Answer
65) The dyes which are used in reduced state and are then oxidised in the fabric by air are called

A)

azo dyes

B)

dispersed dyes

C)

basic dyes

D)

vat dyes

View Answer
66) Which of the following compounds will not give Lassaignes test for nitrogen?

A)

\[N{{H}_{2}}N{{H}_{2}}\]

B)

\[{{C}_{6}}{{H}_{5}}NHN{{H}_{2}}\]

C)

\[PhN=NPh\]

D)

\[N{{H}_{2}}CON{{H}_{2}}\]

View Answer
67) The compound with molecular formula \[{{C}_{8}}{{H}_{10}}\] which will give two isomers on electrophilic substitution with \[C{{l}_{2}}/FeC{{l}_{3}}\]or \[HN{{O}_{3}}/{{H}_{2}}S{{O}_{4}}\] is

A)

p-dimethyl benzene

B)

m-dimethyl benzene

C)

o-dimethyl benzene

D)

ethyl benzene

View Answer
68) Decreasing order of reactivity in Williamson ether synthesis of the following is (I) \[M{{e}_{3}}CC{{H}_{2}}Br\], (II) \[C{{H}_{3}}C{{H}_{2}}C{{H}_{2}}Br\], (III) \[C{{H}_{2}}=CHC{{H}_{2}}Cl\], (IV) \[C{{H}_{3}}C{{H}_{2}}C{{H}_{2}}Cl\]

A)

\[III>II>IV>I\]

B)

\[I>II>IV>III\]

C)

\[II>III>IV>I\]

D)

\[I>III>II>IV\]

View Answer
69) Identify the product in the reaction \[PhC\equiv CMe\xrightarrow{{{H}_{3}}{{O}^{+}},H{{g}^{2+}}}\]?

A)

\[phC{{H}_{2}}C{{H}_{2}}CHO\]

B)

\[phCOC{{H}_{2}}C{{H}_{3}}\]

C)

\[phC{{H}_{2}}COC{{H}_{3}}\]

D)

\[phCOCOMe\]

View Answer
70) The order of rate of hydrolysis of alkyl halides \[{{1}^{o}},{{2}^{o}},{{3}^{o}}\] and \[C{{H}_{3}}X\] by the \[{{S}_{N}}2\] pathway is

A)

\[{{1}^{o}}>{{2}^{o}}>{{3}^{o}}>C{{H}_{3}}X\]

B)

\[C{{H}_{3}}X>{{3}^{o}}>{{2}^{o}}>{{1}^{o}}\]

C)

\[C{{H}_{3}}X>{{1}^{o}}>{{2}^{o}}>{{3}^{o}}\]

D)

\[{{3}^{o}}>{{2}^{o}}>{{1}^{o}}>C{{H}_{3}}X\]

View Answer
71) Compound A undergoes formation of cyanohydrin which on hydrolysis gives lactic acid\[(C{{H}_{3}}CHOHCOOH)\]. Therefore, compound A is

A)

formaldehyde

B)

acetaldehyde

C)

acetone

D)

benzaldehyde

View Answer
72) Which of the following is a pair of geometric isomers?

(i)

(ii)

(ii)

(iv)

A)

(i) and (ii)

B)

(i) and (in)

C)

(i) and (iv)

D)

(ii) and (iii)

View Answer
73) How many chiral stereoisomers can be drawn for 2-bromo-3-chlorobutane?

A)

2

B)

3

C)

4

D)

5

View Answer
74) Which of the following statements is not correct?

A)

Aldehydes and ketones undergo micleophilic additions

B)

Aldehydes and ketones undergo olectrophilic substitutions

C)

Aldehydes and betones contain polar carbonyl groups

D)

Lower members of aldehydes and ketones are soluble in water due to hydrogen bonding

View Answer
75) How many gram of ice at \[{{0}^{o}}C\] can be melted by the addition of 500 J of heat? (The molar heat of fusion for ice is 6.02 k] \[mo{{l}^{-1}}\])

A)

0.0831 g

B)

1.50 g

C)

3.01 g

D)

12.0 g

View Answer
76) A 1.0 g sample of substance A at \[{{100}^{o}}C\] is added to 100 mL of \[{{H}_{2}}O\] at \[{{25}^{o}}C\]. Using separate 100 mL portions of \[{{H}_{2}}O\], the procedure is repeated with substance B and then with substance C. How will the final temperatures of the water compare?

Substance Specific heat

A \[0.60\,\,J{{g}^{-1}}\,{{\,}^{o}}{{C}^{-1}}\]

B \[0.40\,\,J{{g}^{-1}}\,{{\,}^{o}}{{C}^{-1}}\]

C \[0.20\,\,J{{g}^{-1}}\,{{\,}^{o}}{{C}^{-1}}\]

A)

\[{{T}_{C}}>{{T}_{B}}>{{T}_{A}}\]

B)

\[{{T}_{B}}>{{T}_{A}}>{{T}_{C}}\]

C)

\[{{T}_{A}}>{{T}_{B}}>{{T}_{C}}\]

D)

\[{{T}_{A}}={{T}_{B}}={{T}_{C}}\]

View Answer
77) By what factor does the average velocity of a gaseous molecule increase when the absolute temperature is doubled?

A)

1.4

B)

2.0

C)

2.8

D)

4.0

View Answer
78) When solid lead iodide is added to water, the equilibrium concentration of \[{{I}^{-}}\] becomes\[2.6\times {{10}^{-3}}M\]. What is the \[{{K}_{sp}}\] for \[Pb{{I}_{2}}\]?

A)

\[2.6\times {{10}^{-3}}M\]

B)

\[8.8\times {{10}^{-9}}\]

C)

\[1.8\times {{10}^{-8}}\]

D)

\[3.5\times {{10}^{-8}}\]

View Answer
79) Which values can be obtained from the information represented by the vapour pressure curve of a quid? [a] Normal boiling point [b] Normal freezing point [c] Enthalpy of vaporisation

A)

[A] only

B)

[A] and [B] only

C)

[A] and [C] only

D)

[A], [B] and [C]

View Answer
80) The free energy of formation of NO is 78 kJ \[mo{{l}^{-1}}\] at the temperature of an automobile engine (1000 K). What is the equilibrium constant for this reaction at 1000 K? \[\frac{1}{2}{{N}_{2}}(g)+\frac{1}{2}{{O}_{2}}(g)NO(g)\]

A)

\[8.4\times {{10}^{-5}}\]

B)

\[7.1\times {{10}^{-9}}\]

C)

\[4.2\times {{10}^{-10}}\]

D)

\[1.7\times {{10}^{-19}}\]

View Answer
81) The first-order reaction, \[2{{N}_{2}}O(g)\to 2{{N}_{2}}(g)+{{O}_{2}}(g)\] has a rate constant of \[1.3\times {{10}^{-11}}{{s}^{-1}}\] at \[{{270}^{o}}C\]and \[4.5\times {{10}^{-10}}{{s}^{-1}}\]at\[{{350}^{o}}C\]. What is the activation energy for this reaction?

A)

15kJ

B)

30kJ

C)

68 kJ

D)

120 kJ

View Answer
82) A 0.010 M solution of maleic acid, a monoprotic organic acid, is 14% ionised. What is \[{{K}_{a}}\] for maleic acid?

A)

\[2.3\times {{10}^{-3}}\]

B)

\[2.3\times {{10}^{-4}}\]

C)

\[2.0\times {{10}^{-4}}\]

D)

\[2.0\times {{10}^{-6}}\]

View Answer
83) What will happen to the volume of a bubble of air found under water in a lake, where the temperature is \[{{15}^{o}}C\] and the pressure is 1.5 atm, if the bubble then rises to the surface where the temperature is \[{{25}^{o}}C\]and the pressure is 1.0 atm?

A)

Its volume will become greater by a factor of 2.5

B)

Its Volume will become greater by a factor of 1.6

C)

Its volume will become greater by a factor of 1.1

D)

Its volume will become smaller by a factor of 0.70

View Answer
84) Which of these change (s) with time for a first order reaction? [A] Rate of reaction [B] Rate constant [C] Half-life

A)

[A] only

B)

[C] only

C)

[A] and [B] only

D)

[B] and [C] only

View Answer
85) What is the \[[{{H}^{+}}]\] in a 0.40 M solution of\[HOCl,\,{{K}_{a}}=3.5\times {{10}^{-8}}\]?

A)

\[1.4\times {{10}^{-8}}M\]

B)

\[1.2\times {{10}^{-4}}M\]

C)

\[1.9\times {{10}^{-4}}M\]

D)

\[3.7\times {{10}^{-4}}M\]

View Answer
86) Sodium chloride, NaCI, usually crystallizes in a face-centered cubic lattice. How many ions are in contact with any single \[N{{a}^{+}}\] ion?

A)

4

B)

6

C)

8

D)

1

View Answer
87) Which of these species has a standard enthalpy of formation equal to zero?

A)

\[{{F}_{2}}(g)\]

B)

\[F(g)\]

C)

\[HF(aq)\]

D)

\[{{F}^{-}}(aq)\]

View Answer
88) What is the osmotic pressure of a 0.0020 mol \[d{{m}^{-3}}\] sucrose \[({{C}_{12}}{{H}_{22}}{{O}_{11}})\] solution at \[{{20}^{o}}C\]? (Molar gas constant, \[R=8.314\,J{{K}^{-1}}mo{{l}^{-1}}\];\[1\,\,d{{m}^{3}}=0.001\,{{m}^{3}}\])

A)

4870 Pa

B)

4.87 Pa

C)

0.00487 Pa

D)

0.33 Pa

View Answer
89) Calculate the wavelength of light required to break the bond between two chlorine atoms in a chlorine molecule. The Cl-Cl bond energy is 243kJ\[mo{{l}^{-1}}\]. (\[h=6.6\times {{10}^{-34}}J.\,s;c=3\times {{10}^{8}}m/s;\]; Avogadros number \[=6.02\times {{10}^{23}}mo{{l}^{-1}}\]).

A)

\[8.18\times {{10}^{-31}}m\]

B)

\[6.26\times {{10}^{-21}}m\]

C)

\[4.93\times {{10}^{-7}}m\]

D)

\[4.11\times {{10}^{-6}}m\]

View Answer
90) As \[{{O}_{2}}(l)\] is cooled at 1 atm pressure, it freezes to form solid I at 54.5 K. At a lower temperature, solid I rearranges to solid II, which has a different crystal structure. Thermal measurements show that for the phase transition solid I to solid \[II,\,\Delta H=-743.1\,J\,mo{{l}^{-1}}\]and\[\Delta S=-17.0\,\,J{{K}^{-1}}\,mo{{l}^{-1}}\]. At what temperature are solids I and II in equilibrium?

A)

2.06 K

B)

31.5 K

C)

43.7 K

D)

53.4 K

View Answer
91) The hybridisation in \[{{[Co{{(N{{H}_{3}})}_{6}}]}^{3+}}\] is

A)

\[ds{{p}^{3}}\]

B)

\[s{{p}^{3}}{{d}^{2}}\]

C)

\[s{{p}^{3}}\]

D)

\[{{d}^{2}}s{{p}^{3}}\]

View Answer
92) Which of the following configuration of ions has zero CFSE in both strong and weal ligand fields?

A)

\[{{d}^{10}}\]

B)

\[{{d}^{8}}\]

C)

\[{{d}^{6}}\]

D)

\[{{d}^{4}}\]

View Answer
93) pi \[(\pi )\] bond is formed by the overlap of

A)

p-p orbitals

B)

s-s orbitals

C)

s-p orbitals

D)

s-d orbitals

View Answer
94) Which of the following is diamagnetic in nature?

A)

\[C{{o}^{3+}}\], octahedral complex with weak field ligands

B)

\[C{{o}^{3+}}\], octahedral complex with strong field ligands

C)

\[C{{o}^{2+}}\]in tetrahedral complex

D)

\[C{{o}^{2+}}\]in square planar complex

View Answer
95) Which of the following complexes has minimum magnitude of Ape?

A)

\[{{[Cr{{(CN)}_{6}}]}^{3-}}\]

B)

\[{{[Co{{(NH)}_{3}})}_{6}}{{]}^{3+}}\]

C)

\[{{[CoCl]}_{6}}{{]}^{3-}}\]

D)

\[{{[Cr{{({{H}_{2}}O)}_{6}}]}^{3+}}\]

View Answer
96) The polarity of the covalent bond among the following is maximum in

A)

F?F

B)

0?F

C)

N?F

D)

C?F

View Answer
97) Which one of the following ions will give a coloured solution?

A)

\[C{{u}^{+}}\]

B)

\[F{{e}^{2+}}\]

C)

\[Z{{n}^{2+}}\]

D)

\[A{{g}^{+}}\]

View Answer
98) On adding excess of \[N{{H}_{4}}OH\] to copper sulphate solution,

A)

a deep blue solution is obtained

B)

a blue precipitate of \[Cu{{(OH)}_{2}}\] is obtained

C)

a black precipitate of CuO is obtained

D)

No change takes place

View Answer
99) In \[Fe{{(CO)}_{5}}\], the \[Fe\leftarrow CO\,\sigma \] bond results by the overlap between filled sp hybrid orbital of C-atom of CO molecule and vacant hybrid orbital of Fe atom.

A)

\[{{d}^{2}}s{{p}^{3}}\]

B)

\[s{{p}^{3}}\]

C)

\[ds{{p}^{3}}\]

D)

\[ds{{p}^{2}}\]

View Answer
100) The bond angle formed by different hybrid orbitals are in the order

A)

\[s{{p}^{2}}>s{{p}^{3}}>sp\]

B)

\[s{{p}^{3}}<s{{p}^{2}}>sp\]

C)

\[s{{p}^{3}}>s{{p}^{2}}>sp\]

D)

\[sp>s{{p}^{2}}>s{{p}^{3}}\]

View Answer
101) The Wild Life (protection) Act, 1972 was first amended in

A)

1991

B)

1995

C)

2001

D)

2007

View Answer
102) In primary succession on rocks, the pioneer species are usually

A)

algae

B)

fungi

C)

lichens

D)

bryophytes

View Answer
103) The 10 per cent law is related to

A)

Mendelian genetics

B)

non-Mendelian genetics

C)

energy transfer from lower trophic level to higher trophic level

D)

energy consumption during photosynthesis in \[{{C}_{4-}}\] plants

View Answer
104) A nucleoside differs from a nucleotide in not having

A)

sugar

B)

glucose

C)

nitrogen base

D)

phosphate group

View Answer
105) Trichoderma species are potentially useful as

A)

biopesticides

B)

biofertilizers

C)

methanogens

D)

vectors for genetic engineering

View Answer
106) A pea plant parent having violet-coloured flowers with unknown genotype was crossed with a plant having white-coloured flowers. In the progeny, 50% of the flowers were violet and 50% were white. The genotypic constitution of the parent having violet-coloured flowers was

A)

homozygous

B)

merozygous

C)

heterozygous

D)

hemizygous

View Answer
107) If the total amount of adenine and thymine in a double-stranded DNA is 45%, the amount of guanine in this DNA will be

A)

22.5%

B)

27.5%

C)

45%

D)

55%

View Answer
108) Typhoid fever is caused by a species of

A)

Streptococcus

B)

Staphylococcus

C)

Salmonella

D)

Mycobacterium

View Answer
109) HIV is a member of a group of viruses called

A)

bacteriophages

B)

geminiviruses

C)

lysogenic viruses

D)

retroviruses

View Answer
110) The number of linkage group(s) present in Escherichia coli is

A)

one

B)

two

C)

four

D)

seven

View Answer
111) The exchange of segments of non-sister chromatids between chromosomes of a homologous pair is termed as

A)

transformation

B)

translocation

C)

crossing over

D)

chromosomal aberration

View Answer
112) Okazaki is known for his contribution to the understanding of

A)

transcription

B)

translation

C)

DNA replication

D)

mutation

View Answer
113) The beginning of understanding genetic transformation in bacteria was made by

A)

Frederick Griffith

B)

Hershey and Chase

C)

Watson and Crick

D)

T.H. Morgan

View Answer
114) The source of Taq polymeraise used in PCR is a

A)

thermophilic fungus

B)

mesophilic fungus

C)

thermophilic bacterium

D)

halophilic bacterium

View Answer
115) Which of the following is not used as bioweapon?

A)

Bacillus anthracis

B)

Botulmum toxin

C)

Bacillus thunngiensis toxin

D)

Smallpox

View Answer
116) Comparable to angiosparms, which of the following algae exhibits ddplontic life cycle?

A)

Spirogyra

B)

Ectocarpus

C)

Polysiphonia

D)

Fucus

View Answer
117) The cytoplasm of adjacent plant cells is connected to each other by

A)

plasmalemma

B)

desmosome

C)

plasmodesmata

D)

plasmotubule

View Answer
118) With the increase in diameter of the root, the effective RCF (Relative Centrifugal Force) at a fixed RPM (Revolutions Per Minute) will

A)

remain unaffected

B)

increase

C)

decrease

D)

be lower at the bottom of the centrifugal tube

View Answer
119) Which of the following amino acids has hydroxyl methyl group as its R group?

A)

Serine

B)

Proline

C)

Alanine

D)

Arginine

View Answer
120) Formation of both peptide and glycosidic bonds involves

A)

hydration

B)

dehydration

C)

esterification

D)

acidlificaton

View Answer
121) Which of the following events takes place during diplotene stage of prophase-I of meiosis?

A)

Compaction of chromosomes

B)

Formation of synaptonemal complexes

C)

Formation of recombinational nodules

D)

Dissolution of synaptoi-emal complexes

View Answer
122) The number of microtubules in a flagellum including those sharing three protofilaments with each other is

A)

11

B)

20

C)

22

D)

10

View Answer
123) Which of the following statement is correct?

A)

All bacteria are heterotrophic

B)

Bacteria are either heterotrophic or chemoautotrophic

C)

Bacteria can also be photoautotrophic

D)

Bacteria are either photoautotrophic or chemoautotrophic

View Answer
124) Apoplastic movement of water in plants occurs through

A)

casparian strips,

B)

plasma membrane

C)

intracellular spaces

D)

plasmodesmata

View Answer
125) Solute potential of a solution is always

A)

= 0

B)

> 0

C)

< 0

D)

between 0-1

View Answer
126) Simultaneous movement of two molecules across a membrane in the same direction is known as

A)

antiport

B)

symport

C)

uniport

D)

biport

View Answer
127) At the time of shedding, the number of nuclei present in an angiosperm, pollen grain is

A)

one

B)

one or two

C)

two or three

D)

only two

View Answer
128) Taxa differs from taxon due to this being

A)

a higher taxonomic category than taxon

B)

lower taxonomic category than taxon

C)

the plural of taxon

D)

the singular of taxon

View Answer
129) Which of the following wall layers of anther plays a predominant role in its dehiscence?

A)

Epidermis

B)

Endothecium

C)

Middle layers

D)

Tapetum

View Answer
130) The type of pollination involving transfer of pollen grains from anther to the stigma of the same flower is known as

A)

geitonogamy

B)

xenogamy

C)

autogamy

D)

apogamy

View Answer
131) The egg apparatus of angiosperm comprises

A)

an egg cell and two antipodals

B)

an egg cell and two synergids

C)

an egg cell and two polar nuclei

D)

an egg cell and the central cell

View Answer
132) The expression gynoecium is apocarpous implies that the

A)

gynoecium comprises only one pistil which is fused with the stamen

B)

gynoecium comprises more than one carpel which are free from each other

C)

gynoecium comprises only one carpel which is free

D)

gynoecium comprises more than one carpel which are fused

View Answer
133) A mixture containing DNA fragments, a,b,c and d, with molecular weights of a + b = c, a > b and d > c, was subjected to agarose gel electrophoresis. The positions of these fragments from cathode to anode sides of the gel would be.

A)

b,a,c,d

B)

a,b,c,d

C)

c,b,a,d

D)

b,a,d,c

View Answer
134) Which of the following DNA sequences qualifies to be designated as a palindrome?

A)

5 - GACCAG ? 3 in one strand

B)

3 - GACCAG ? 5 in one strand

C)

5 - GACGAG - 3 3 - CTGGTC ? 5

D)

5 - AGCGCT ? 3 3 - TCGCGA ? 5

View Answer
135) Restriction enzymes

A)

restrict elongation of DNA

B)

cut DNA at specific locations

C)

link together two pieces of DNA

D)

restrict DNA replication

View Answer
136) Which one of the following does not play any role in photosynthesis?

A)

Phycocyanin

B)

Xanthophylls

C)

Phycoerythrin

D)

Anthocyanin

View Answer
137) Biogas produced by fermentation of manure, sewage, cattle dung, etc predominantly comprises

A)

methane, nitrogen and hydrogen

B)

methane and carbon dioxide

C)

methane and carbon monoxide

D)

methane and nitric oxide

View Answer
138) Lactobacillus mediated conversion of milk to curd results because of

A)

coagulation and partial digestion of milk fats

B)

coagulation and partial digestion of milk proteins

C)

coagulation of milk proteins and complete digestion of milk fats

D)

coagulation of milk fats and complete digestion of milk protein

View Answer
139) The species of Saccharum originally grown in India was

A)

officinarum

B)

barberi

C)

bolardii

D)

munja

View Answer
140) Single cell protein refers to

A)

a specific protein extracted from pure culture of single type of cells

B)

sources of mixed proteins extracted from pure or mixed culture of organisms or cells

C)

proteins extracted from a single cell

D)

a specific protein extracted from a single cell

View Answer
141) The total number of species, that are known and described, range between

A)

0.5--1.0 million

B)

1.1-1.2 million

C)

1.7-1,8 million

D)

2.5-3.0 million

View Answer
142) Which of the following combinations is correct for wheat?

A)

Genus-Triticum, Family-Anacardiaceae, order-Poales, Class-Monocotyledonae

B)

Genus-Tritfcum,         Family-Poaceae, Order-Poales, Class-Dicotyledonae

C)

Genus-Thtirum,         Family-Poaceae, Order-Sapindales, Class-Monocotyledonae

D)

Genus-7rriJcum,         Family-Poaceae, Order-Poales, Class-Monocotyledonae

View Answer
143) IUCN stands for

A)

Indian Union for Conservation of Nature

B)

International Union for Conservation of Nature

C)

Indian Union for Chemical Nomenclature

D)

International Union for Conservation of Nutrients

View Answer
144) A group of related genera, with still less number of similarities as compared to the genus and species, constitutes

A)

order

B)

class

C)

family

D)

division

View Answer
145) The timing of seasonal activities of plants in relation to change in environmental condition is termed as

A)

Dendrochronology

B)

biological clock

C)

lapse rate

D)

Phenology

View Answer
146) Who is considered as the father of Ecology in India?

A)

Ramdeo Misra

B)

M.S. Swaminathan

C)

P. Maheshwari

D)

S.L. Mehta

View Answer
147) A large regional unit characterized by a major vegetation type and associated fauna found in a specific climatic zone constitutes

A)

ecosystem

B)

biological community

C)

biome

D)

habitat

View Answer
148) Cold-blooded animals fall under the category of

A)

ectotherms

B)

psychotherms

C)

endotherms

D)

thermophiles

View Answer
149) figs belong to

A)

critical link species, as they form connecting link between trees and herbs

B)

critical link species, as they establish essential link in the absorbance of nutrients from soil and organic residues .

C)

keystone species, as they produce large quantity of fruits; and their protection leads to conservation of animals dependent on them

D)

keystone species, as they have high degree of animal-dependent pollination

View Answer
150)  Which of the following is a mismatch with respect to inexhaustible natural resources?

A)

Solar energy

B)

Water

C)

Rainfall

D)

Wind power

View Answer
151) Mature erythrocytes cannot utilize glucose because they lack

A)

Golgi complex

B)

enzymes

C)

mitochondria

D)

nucleus

View Answer
152) Oral contraceptive pills help in birth control by

A)

killing sperms

B)

killing ova

C)

preventing ovulation

D)

forming barrier between sperms and ova

View Answer
153) Colour perception in man is due to

A)

rhodopsin pigment in rod cells

B)

iodopsin pigment in cone cells

C)

iodopsin pigment in rod cells

D)

rhodopsin pigment in cone cells

View Answer
154) Which of the following induces parturition?

A)

Vasopressin

B)

Oxytocin

C)

GH

D)

TSH

View Answer
155) Excess carbohydrates and proteins are stored in the body as

A)

amino acids

B)

fats

C)

starch

D)

monosaccharides

View Answer
156) Which of the following vitamins has some physiological effects similar to those of parathormone?

A)

Vitamin-A

B)

Vitamin-D

C)

Vitamin-C

D)

Vitamin-B

View Answer
157) Which of the following microbes is used for commercial production of ethanol?

A)

Clostridium botulinum

B)

Streptococcus

C)

Trichoderma polysporum

D)

Saccharomyces cerevisiae

View Answer
158) Appropriate measures to reduce overall green house gas emissions are the commitments of the

A)

Montreal Protocol

B)

Environment Act

C)

Kyoto Protocol

D)

Earth Summit

View Answer
159) Which one of the following pairs of diseases is viral as well as transmitted by mosquitoes?

A)

Elephantiasis and dengue

B)

Yellow fever and sleeping sickness

C)

Encephalitis and sleeping sickness

D)

Yellow fever and dengue

View Answer
160) Classification of organisms based on evolutionary as well as genetic relationships is called

A)

biosystematics

B)

phonetics

C)

numerical taxonomy

D)

cladistics

View Answer
161) Hyaline cartilage does not have

A)

fibres

B)

lacunae

C)

cells

D)

blood capillaries

View Answer
162) All enzymes are proteins. This statement is now modified because an apparent exception to this biological truth is

A)

arylsulphatase

B)

dehydrogenase

C)

ribozyme

D)

nitroreductase

View Answer
163) Ageing of the skin results in

A)

an increase in collagen and elastic fibres a

B)

decrease in activity of sebaceous glands

C)

a thickening of the skin

D)

an increase in toenail growth

View Answer
164) The example of pivot joint is

A)

hip joint

B)

metacarpophalangeal joint

C)

ankle joint

D)

radio-ulnar joint

View Answer
165) MS- The major function of the in tervertebral discs is to

A)

absorb shock

B)

string the vertebrae together

C)

prevent injuries

D)

prevent hyperextension

View Answer
166) Bile contribution to digestion is

A)

nucleic acid metabolism

B)

phagocytosis

C)

emulsification of dietary lipids

D)

carbohydrate digestion

View Answer
167) The first fossil evidence of life dates from about

A)

4.0 billion years ago

B)

3.6 billion years ago

C)

4.5 billion years ago

D)

2.5 billion years ago

View Answer
168) What will be the correct gene expression pathway?

A)

Gene-mRNA-Transcription-Translation- Protein

B)

Transcription-Gene-Translation-mRNA- Protein

C)

Gene-Transcription-mRNA-Translation- Protein

D)

Gene-Translation-mRNA-Transcription- Protein

View Answer
169) Cloning is a process, where

A)

gene is cloned in an animal

B)

fragments of DNA are transferred from one organism to another, usually carried on a DNA vector

C)

fragments of DNA cloned in the same organism using carrier

D)

DNA is cloned in plants

View Answer
170) Enzyme that cleaves nucleic acids within the polynucleotide chain is known as

A)

endonuclease

B)

exonuclease

C)

arylsulphatase

D)

phosphotriesterase

View Answer
171) Phylum?Mollusca can be distinguished from other invertebrates by the presence of

A)

bilateral symmetry and exoskeleton

B)

a mantle and gills

C)

shell and non-segmented body

D)

a mantle and non-segmented body

View Answer
172) A logistic growth curve depicting a population that is limited by a definite carrying capacity is shaped like the letter

A)

J

B)

L

C)

M

D)

S

View Answer
173) The urge to inhale in human results from

A)

rising \[{{P}_{C{{O}_{2}}}}\]

B)

rising \[{{P}_{{{O}_{2}}}}\]

C)

falling \[{{P}_{C{{O}_{2}}}}\]

D)

falling \[{{P}_{{{O}_{2}}}}\]

View Answer
174) Rotenone is a

A)

bioherbicide

B)

commonly used biofertilizer

C)

bioinsecticide

D)

juvenile hormone

View Answer
175) A phenomenon when parasite parasitizes themselves is known as

A)

hyperparasitism

B)

parasitoids

C)

monoxenous parasitism

D)

polyxenous parasitism

View Answer
176) Phosphorus-32 emits

A)

\[\alpha \]-particles

B)

\[\beta \]-particles

C)

\[\gamma \]-particles

D)

X-rays

View Answer
177) The long and short arms of chromosome are designated respectively as

A)

p and q arms

B)

q and p arms

C)

m and p arms

D)

\[l\] and s arms

View Answer
178) The amino acid that acts as a carrier of ammonia from skeletal muscle to liver is

A)

alanine

B)

methionine

C)

arginine

D)

glutamine

View Answer
179) The major cause of evolution of genes and protein is

A)

point mutation

B)

chromosomal aberration

C)

sexual reproduction

D)

gene duplication and divergence

View Answer
180) The type of ecosystem with the highest mean plant productivity is

A)

desert

B)

temperate grassland

C)

tropical rain forest

D)

tundra

View Answer
181) A common means of sympatric speciation is

A)

polyploidy

B)

temporal segregation of breeding season

C)

spatial segregation of mating sites

D)

imposition of geographic barrier

View Answer
182) Bacillus thuringiensis is used to control

A)

bacterial pathogens

B)

fungal pathogens

C)

nematodes

D)

insect pests

View Answer
183) Bell-shaped polygonal pyramid indicates

A)

high percentage of young individuals

B)

moderate percentage of young individuals

C)

low percentage of young individuals

D)

low percentage of old individuals

View Answer
184) Probiotics are

A)

cancer inducing microbes

B)

safe antibiotics

C)

food allergens

D)

five microbial food supplements

View Answer
185) Molecules that bear charged groups of opposite polarity are known as

A)

Zwitter ions

B)

cations

C)

anions

D)

negative ions

View Answer
186) Hotspots of biodiversity means

A)

areas of the earth that contain many endemic species

B)

species severes as proxy for entire communities in particular area

C)

species in particular niche/area

D)

species diversity at particular area

View Answer
187) Polio is caused by a

A)

bacteriophage

B)

virus with a single-stranded RNA

C)

virus with a single-stranded DNA

D)

virus with double-stranded DNA

View Answer
188) Disadvantage of MRI is its inability to image

A)

bone

B)

parts of brain

C)

spinal cord

D)

cancerous tissues

View Answer
189) Which of the following is an r-strategist?

A)

Human

B)

Insect

C)

Rhinoceros

D)

Whale

View Answer
190) The internal cavity commonly formed by cell division prior to gastrulation is the

A)

enteron

B)

blastopore

C)

blastocoel

D)

coelom

View Answer
191) Mendels principle of segregation means that the germ cells always receive

A)

one pair of alleles

B)

one quarter of the genes

C)

one of the paired alleles

D)

any pairs of alleles

View Answer
192) Aggregates of lymphoid tissue present in the distal portion of the small intestine are known

A)

villi

B)

Peyers patches

C)

rugae

D)

choroid plexus

View Answer
193) Microfilaments in eukaryotic cells are made up of

A)

actin

B)

albumin

C)

globulin

D)

fibrin

View Answer
194) The membranous areas between the cranial bones of the fetal skull are called

A)

areolas

B)

foramina

C)

sutures

D)

fontanelle

View Answer
195) The predominant antibody in saliva is

A)

IgG

B)

IgA

C)

IgM

D)

IgD

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196) In order for the blood to flow from right ventricle to left ventricle in mammalian heart, it must flow through

A)

right ventricle, pulmonary arteries, lungs, pulmonary veins, left atrium

B)

right ventricle, pulmonary veins, lungs, pulmonary arteries, left atrium

C)

right ventricle, right atrium, lungs, pulmonary veins, left atrium

D)

right ventricle, systemic aorta, lungs, pulmonary veins, left atrium,

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197) Air bladder is present in

A)

Chondrichthyes

B)

star fishes

C)

Actinopterygii

D)

flying fishes

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198) Which of the following is the key intermediate compound linking glycolysis to the Krebs cvcle?

A)

NADH

B)

ATP

C)

Acetyl Co-A

D)

Malic acid

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199) Urea synthesis takes place primarily in liver because

A)

\[N{{H}_{3}}\] and \[C{{O}_{2}}\] are present in liver only

B)

hormone ADH is found in liver only

C)

enzyme arginase is present in liver only

D)

kidney is smaller than liver

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200) A particular enzyme molecule interacts with the specific substrate molecule is explained by

A)

enzyme-substrate concept

B)

activation energy concept

C)

destroyed and re-synthesised concept

D)

lock and key concept

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Substance	Specific heat
A	\[0.60\,\,J{{g}^{-1}}\,{{\,}^{o}}{{C}^{-1}}\]
B	\[0.40\,\,J{{g}^{-1}}\,{{\,}^{o}}{{C}^{-1}}\]
C	\[0.20\,\,J{{g}^{-1}}\,{{\,}^{o}}{{C}^{-1}}\]

(i)
(ii)
(ii)
(iv)

Solved papers for DUMET Medical DUMET Medical Solved Paper-2010

done DUMET Medical Solved Paper-2010 Total Questions - 200

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DUMET Medical Solved Paper-2010 Total Questions - 200