Solved papers for DUMET Medical DUMET Medical Solved Paper-2011

DUMET Medical Solved Paper-2011 Total Questions - 200

1) Which of the following principles is being used in Sonar Technology?

A)

Reflection of ultrasonic waves

B)

Newtons laws of motion

C)

Reflection of electromagnetic waves

D)

Laws of thermodynamics

View Answer
2) What is the dimension of surface tension?

A)

\[\text{ }\!\![\!\!\text{ M}{{\text{L}}^{\text{1}}}{{\text{T}}^{\text{o}}}\text{ }\!\!]\!\!\text{ }\]

B)

\[\text{ }\!\![\!\!\text{ M}{{\text{L}}^{\text{1}}}{{\text{T}}^{\text{-1}}}\text{ }\!\!]\!\!\text{ }\]

C)

\[\text{ }\!\![\!\!\text{ M}{{\text{L}}^{o}}{{\text{T}}^{\text{-2}}}\text{ }\!\!]\!\!\text{ }\]

D)

\[\text{ }\!\![\!\!\text{ }{{\text{M}}^{1}}{{\text{L}}^{o}}{{\text{T}}^{\text{-2}}}\text{ }\!\!]\!\!\text{ }\]

View Answer
3) The speed-time graph of a particle moving along a solid curve is shown below. The distance traversed by the panicle from t =0 tor =3 is

A)

\[\frac{10}{2}s\]

B)

\[\frac{10}{4}s\]

C)

\[\frac{10}{3}s\]

D)

\[\frac{10}{5}s\]

E)

None of these

View Answer
4) Which of the following is correct relation between an arbitrary vector A and null vector O?

A)

\[\text{A+O+A }\!\!\times\!\!\text{ O=A}\]

B)

\[\text{A+O+A }\!\!\times\!\!\text{ O}\ne \text{A}\]

C)

\[\text{A+O+A }\!\!\times\!\!\text{ O=O}\]

D)

None of the above

View Answer
5) An object is being thrown at a speed of 20 m/s in a direction 45° above the horizontal- The rime taken by the object to return to the same level is

A)

20/g

B)

20 g

C)

20\[\sqrt{2}\]/g

D)

20\[\sqrt{2}\]g

View Answer
6) An object is moving on a plane surface with uniform velocity 10ms1 in presence of a force 10 N. The frictional force between the object and the surface is

A)

IN

B)

-ION

C)

10 N

D)

100 N

View Answer
7) A body of mass M starts sliding down on the inclined plane where the critical angle is Z ACB =30° as shown in figure. The coefficient of kinetic friction will be

A)

\[Mg/\sqrt{3}\]

B)

\[\sqrt{3}Mg\]

C)

\[\sqrt{3}\]

D)

None of these

View Answer
8) In non-inertial frame, the second law of motion is written as

A)

\[F=ma\]

B)

\[F=ma+{{F}_{P}}\]

C)

\[F=ma-{{F}_{P}}\]

D)

\[F=2ma\] Where \[{{F}_{p}}\] is pseudo-force while a is the acceleration of the body relative to non-inertial frame.

View Answer
9) The work done by an applied variable force\[F=x+{{x}^{3}}\] from\[x=o\,m\,to\,x\,=2,\,m\] where \[x\] is displacement, is

A)

6J

B)

8J

C)

10 J

D)

12 J

View Answer
10) The coefficient of restitute, e, for a perfectly elastic collision is

A)

0

B)

-1

C)

1

D)

\[\infty \]

View Answer
11) A particle of mass mi moves with velocity\[{{v}_{1}}\] and collides with another particle at rest of equal mass. The velocity of the second panicle after the elastic collision is

A)

\[2{{v}_{1}}\]

B)

\[{{v}_{1}}\]

C)

\[-{{v}_{1}}\]

D)

0

View Answer
12) The centre of mass of a solid cone along the line from the centre of the base to the vertex is at

A)

one-fourth of the height

B)

one-third of the height

C)

one-fifth of the height

D)

None of the above

View Answer
13) A solid cylinder is rolling without slipping on a plane having inclination \[\theta \] and The coefficient of static friction\[{{\mu }_{s.}}\] The relation between \[\theta \] and \[{{\mu }_{s.}}\] is

A)

tan\[\theta >3{{\mu }_{s}}\]

B)

tan \[\theta \le 3{{\mu }_{s}}\]

C)

tan\[\theta <3{{\mu }_{s}}\]

D)

None of these

View Answer
14) The reduced mass of two panicles having masses m and 2m is

A)

2m

B)

3m

C)

2m/3

D)

m/2

View Answer
15) Which of the following graphs shows the variation of acceleration due to gravity g with depth h from the surface of the earth?

A)

B)

C)

D)

View Answer
16) At what altitude (\[h\]) above the earths surface would the acceleration due to gravity be one fourth of its value at the earths surface?

A)

h=R

B)

h=4R

C)

h=2R

D)

n=16R where, R is the radius of the earth.

View Answer
17) According to CE van der Waal, the in teratomic potential veries with the average in teratomic distance (R) as

A)

\[{{R}^{-1}}\]

B)

\[{{R}^{-2}}\]

C)

\[{{R}^{-4}}\]

D)

\[{{R}^{-6}}\]

View Answer
18) A sphere of radius 3 cm is subjected to a pressure of 100 an n. Its volume decreases by 0.3 cc. What will be its bulk modulus?

A)

\[4\pi \times {{10}^{5}}\] atm

B)

\[4\pi \times {{103}^{4}}\] atm

C)

\[4\pi \times {{10}^{6}}\]atm

D)

\[4\pi \times {{10}^{8}}\]

E)

None of these

View Answer
19) A vertical tank with depth H is full with water. A hole is made on one side of the walls at a depth h below the water surface. At what distance from the foot of the wall does the emerging stream of water strike the foot?

A)

\[\sqrt{h(H-h)}\]

B)

\[2\sqrt{h/(H-h)}\]

C)

\[2(H-h)\sqrt{h/(H-h)}\]

D)

\[\sqrt{2h/(H-h)}\]

View Answer
20) The mean free path of collision of gas molecules varies with its diameter of the molecules as

A)

\[d{{-}^{1}}\]

B)

\[d{{-}^{2}}\]

C)

\[d{{-}^{3}}\]

D)

\[d{{-}^{4}}\]

View Answer
21) Consider two insulated chambers (A, B) of same volume connected by a closed knob, S. 1 mole of perfect gas is confined in chamber What is the change in entropy of gas when knob S is opened? R = 8.31 J mo1 -1K-1

A)

1.46 J/K

B)

3.46 J/K

C)

5.46 J/K

D)

7.46 J/K

View Answer
22) A Carnot engine has efficiency 25%. It operates between reservoirs of constant temperatures with temperature difference of 80°C. What is the temperature of the low-temperature reservoir?

A)

\[-25{}^\circ C\]

B)

\[25{}^\circ C\]

C)

\[-33{}^\circ C\]

D)

\[33{}^\circ C\]

View Answer
23) During the phenomenon of resonance

A)

the amplitude of oscillation becomes large

B)

the frequency of oscillation becomes large

C)

the time period of oscillation becomes large

D)

All of the above

View Answer
24) The longitudinal wave can be observed in

A)

elastic media

B)

inelastic media

C)

Both of the above

D)

None of these

View Answer
25) The two waves of the same frequency moving in the same direction give rise to

A)

beats

B)

interference

C)

stationary waves

D)

None of these

View Answer
26) Domestic electrical wiring has three wires

A)

positive, negative and neutral

B)

positive, negative and earth

C)

live, neutral and earth

D)

positive, negative and live

View Answer
27) Which of the following is not true?

A)

For a point charge, the electrostatic potential varies as 1/r

B)

For a dipole, the potential depends on the position vector and dipole moment vector

C)

The electric dipole potential varies as 1/r at large distance

D)

For a point charge, the electrostatic field varies as 1/r2

View Answer
28) The mobility of charge carriers increases with

A)

increase in the average collision time

B)

increase in the electric field

C)

increase in the mass of the charge carriers

D)

decrease in the charge of the mobile carriers

View Answer
29) When an AC voltage is applied to a L-C-R circuit, which of the following is true?

A)

\[I\]and V are out of phase with each other In R

B)

\[I\] and V are in phase in L with in C, they are out of phase

C)

\[I\] and V are out of phase in both, C and L

D)

\[I\]and V are out of phase in L and in phase In C

View Answer
30) For a medium with permittivity\[\varepsilon \]and permeability\[\mu ,\]the velocity of light is given by

A)

\[\sqrt{\mu /\varepsilon }\]

B)

\[\sqrt{\mu \varepsilon }\]

C)

\[1/\sqrt{\varepsilon /\mu }\]

D)

\[\sqrt{\varepsilon /\mu }\]

View Answer
31) In optical fibres, the refractive index of the core is

A)

greater than that of the cladding

B)

equal to that of the cladding

C)

smaller than that of the cladding

D)

in dependent of that of the cladding

View Answer
32) For a wavelength of light\[\lambda \]and scattering object of size a, all wavelengths are scattered nearly equally, if

A)

\[a=\lambda \]

B)

\[a>>\lambda \]

C)

\[a<<\lambda \]

D)

\[a+\ge \lambda \]

View Answer
33) For a telescope having \[{{f}_{o}}\]as the focal length of the objective and \[{{f}_{e}}\] as the focal length of the eyepiece, the length of the telescope tube is

A)

\[{{f}_{e}}\]

B)

\[{{f}_{o}}-{{f}_{e}}\]

C)

\[{{f}_{o}}\]

D)

\[{{f}_{o}}+{{f}_{e}}\]

View Answer
34) If two sources have a randomly varying phase difference \[\phi (t),\] the resultant intensity will be given by

A)

\[1/2{{I}_{o}}\]

B)

\[{{I}_{o}}/2\]

C)

\[2{{I}_{o}}\]

D)

\[{{I}_{o}}/\sqrt{2}\]

View Answer
35) For an aperture of size a illuminated by a parallel beam of light having wavelength \[\lambda ,\] the Fresnel distance is

A)

\[\approx a/\lambda \]

B)

\[\approx {{a}^{2}}/\lambda \]

C)

\[\approx {{a}^{2}}\lambda \]

D)

\[\approx a/{{\lambda }^{2}}\]

View Answer
36) The maximum kinetic energy of the photoelectrons varies

A)

inversely with the intensity and is independent of the frequency of the incident radiation

B)

inversely with the frequency and is independent of the intensity of the incident radiation

C)

linearly with the frequency and the intensity of the incident radiation

D)

linearly with the frequency and is independent of the intensity of the incident radiation

View Answer
37) The work function for A1, K and Pt is 4.28eV, 2.30eV and 5.65eV respectively. Their respective threshold frequencies would be

A)

\[\text{PtA1K}\]

B)

\[\text{A1PtK}\]

C)

\[\text{KA1Pt}\]

D)

\[\text{A1KPt}\]

View Answer
38) When helium nuclei bombard beryllium nuclei, then

A)

electrons are emitted

B)

protons are emitted

C)

neutrons are emitted

D)

protons and neutrons are emitted

View Answer
39) When two nuclei (with A = 8) join to form a heavier nucleus, the binding energy (BE) per nucleon of the heavier nuclei is

A)

more than the BE per nucleon of the lighter nuclei

B)

same as the BE per nucleon of the lighter nuclei

C)

less than the BE per nucleon of the lighter nuclei

D)

double the BE per nucleon of the lighter nuclei

View Answer
40) In a revrese-biased p-n junction, when the applied bias voltage is equal to the breakdown voltage, then

A)

current remains constant while voltage increases sharply

B)

voltage remains constant while current increases sharply

C)

current and voltage increase

D)

current and voltage decrease

View Answer
41) A charged cloud system produces an electric field in the air near the earths surface. A particle of charge \[-2\times {{10}^{-9}}C\] is acted on by a downward electrostatic force of \[3\times {{10}^{-6}}N\] when placed in this field. The gravitational and electrostatic force, respectively, exerted on a proton placed in this field are

A)

\[\text{1}\text{.64 }\!\!\times\!\!\text{ 1}{{\text{0}}^{\text{-26}}}\,\text{N,2}\text{.4 }\!\!\times\!\!\text{ 1}{{\text{0}}^{\text{-16}\,}}\text{N}\]

B)

\[\text{1}\text{.64 }\!\!\times\!\!\text{ 1}{{\text{0}}^{\text{-26}}}\,\text{N,1}\text{.5 }\!\!\times\!\!\text{ 1}{{\text{0}}^{\text{-3}\,}}\text{N}\]

C)

\[\text{1}\text{.56 }\!\!\times\!\!\text{ 1}{{\text{0}}^{\text{-18}}}\,\text{N,2}\text{.4 }\!\!\times\!\!\text{ 1}{{\text{0}}^{\text{-16}}}\text{N}\]

D)

\[\text{1}\text{.5 }\!\!\times\!\!\text{ 1}{{\text{0}}^{\text{-3}}}\,\text{N,2}\text{.4 }\!\!\times\!\!\text{ 1}{{\text{0}}^{\text{-16}}}\text{N}\]

View Answer
42) The frequency of oscillation of an electric dipole moment having dipole moment p and rotational inertia\[I,\] oscillating in a uniform electric field E is given by

A)

\[(1/2\pi )\sqrt{I/PE}\]

B)

\[(1/2\pi )\sqrt{{{P}^{E}}/I}\]

C)

\[(2\pi )\sqrt{{{P}^{E}}/I}\]

D)

\[(2\pi )\sqrt{/I{{P}^{E}}}\]

View Answer
43) What is the net charge on a conducting sphere of radius 10 cm? Given that the electric field 15 cm from the centre of the sphere is equal to \[3\times {{10}^{3}}\]N/C and is directed inward

A)

\[-7.5\times {{10}^{-5}}C\]

B)

\[-7.5\times {{10}^{-9}}C\]

C)

\[-7.5\times {{10}^{-5}}C\]

D)

\[-7.5\times {{10}^{-9}}C\]

View Answer
44) How many\[1\mu F\] capacitors must be connected in parallel to store a charge of 1 C with a potential of 110 V across the capacitors?

A)

990

B)

900

C)

9090

D)

909

View Answer
45) A 1250 W heater operates at 115 V. What is the resistance of the heating coil?

A)

1.6\[\Omega \]

B)

13.5\[\Omega \]

C)

1250\[\Omega \]

D)

10.6\[\Omega \]

View Answer
46) A proton travelling at \[23{}^\circ \]w.r.t. the direction of a magnetic field of strength 2.6 mT experiences a magnetic force of \[6.5\times {{10}^{-17}}\,N\]what is the speed of the proton?

A)

\[2\times {{10}^{-5}}\,m/s\]

B)

\[4\times {{10}^{-5}}\,m/s\]

C)

\[6\times {{10}^{-5}}\,m/s\]

D)

\[6\times {{10}^{-5}}\,m/s\]

View Answer
47) What uniform magnetic field applied perpendicular to a beam of electrons moving at 1.3x106 m/s, is required to make the electrons travel in a circular arc of radius 0.35 m?

A)

\[2.1\times {{10}^{-5}}\,G\]

B)

\[6\times {{10}^{-5}}\,T\]

C)

\[2.1\times {{10}^{-5}}\,T\]

D)

\[6\times {{10}^{-5}}\,G\]

View Answer
48) A transformer has 500 primary turns and 10 secondary turns. If the secondary has a resistive load of 15 \[\Omega \] the currents in the primary and secondary respectively, are

A)

\[\text{0}\text{.16A,3}\text{.2 }\!\!\times\!\!\text{ 1}{{\text{0}}^{\text{-3}}}\text{A}\]

B)

\[\text{3}\text{.2 }\!\!\times\!\!\text{ 1}{{\text{0}}^{\text{-3}}}\text{A,}\,\text{0}\text{.16A}\]

C)

\[\text{0}\text{.16A, }\!\!\times\!\!\text{ }\,\text{0}\text{.16A}\]

D)

\[\text{3}\text{.2 }\!\!\times\!\!\text{ 1}\,\text{0}{{\text{.}}^{\text{-3}}}\text{A,}\,\text{3}\text{.2 }\!\!\times\!\!\text{ 1}{{\text{0}}^{\text{-3}}}\text{A}\]

View Answer
49) For a radio signal to travel 150 km from the transmitter to a receiving antenna, it takes

A)

\[\text{5 }\!\!\times\!\!\text{ 1}\,\text{0}{{\text{.}}^{\text{-4}}}s\]

B)

\[\text{4}\text{.5 }\!\!\times\!\!\text{ 1}\,{{\text{0}}^{\text{-3}}}s\]

C)

\[\text{5 }\!\!\times\!\!\text{ 1}\,{{\text{0}}^{\text{-8}}}s\]

D)

\[\text{4}\text{.5 }\!\!\times\!\!\text{ 1}\,{{\text{0}}^{\text{-6}}}s\]

View Answer
50) In Youngs double-slit experiment, if the distance between the slits is halved and the distance between the slits and the screen is doubled, the fringe width becomes

A)

half

B)

double

C)

four times

D)

eight times

View Answer
51) In the given structure of a compound, the correct various bond moments direction involving are shown as

A)

\[Br\underline{\leftarrow }N\underline{\leftarrow }C{{H}_{2}}\underline{\to }Si{{H}_{2}}\underline{\leftarrow }C{{H}_{2}}\underline{\to }O\underline{\leftarrow }C{{H}_{3}}\]

B)

\[Br\underline{\leftarrow }N\underline{\leftarrow }C{{H}_{2}}\underline{\leftarrow }Si{{H}_{2}}\underline{\leftarrow }C{{H}_{2}}\underline{\to }O\underline{\leftarrow }C{{H}_{3}}\]

C)

\[Br\underline{\leftarrow }N\underline{\to }C{{H}_{2}}\underline{\leftarrow }Si{{H}_{2}}\to C{{H}_{2}}\underline{\to }O\underline{\leftarrow }C{{H}_{3}}\]

D)

\[Br\underline{\leftarrow }N\underline{\to }C{{H}_{2}}\underline{\to }Si{{H}_{2}}\underline{\leftarrow }C{{H}_{2}}\underline{\to }O\underline{\to }C{{H}_{3}}\]

View Answer
52) For the given alkane The IUPAC name is

A)

1,1 dimethyl-5-ethyl octane

B)

6-ethyl-2-methyl nonane

C)

4-ethyl-8-methyl nonane

D)

2-methyl, -6-propyl octane

View Answer
53) Which will undergo fastest 82 substitution reaction when treated with NaOH?

A)

\[{{H}_{5}}{{C}_{2}}-\overset{\begin{smallmatrix} C{{H}_{3}} \\ | \end{smallmatrix}}{\mathop{\underset{\begin{smallmatrix} | \\ H \end{smallmatrix}}{\mathop{C}}\,}}\,-Br\]

B)

\[C{{H}_{3}}-\overset{\begin{smallmatrix} C{{H}_{3}} \\ | \end{smallmatrix}}{\mathop{\underset{\begin{smallmatrix} | \\ C{{H}_{3}} \end{smallmatrix}}{\mathop{C}}\,}}\,-Br\]

C)

\[H-\overset{\begin{smallmatrix} C{{H}_{3}} \\ | \end{smallmatrix}}{\mathop{\underset{\begin{smallmatrix} | \\ {{C}_{2}}{{H}_{5}} \end{smallmatrix}}{\mathop{C}}\,}}\,-Br\]

D)

\[H-\overset{\begin{smallmatrix} H \\ | \end{smallmatrix}}{\mathop{\underset{\begin{smallmatrix} | \\ Br \end{smallmatrix}}{\mathop{C}}\,}}\,-C{{H}_{2}}-C{{H}_{2}}-C{{H}_{3}}\]

View Answer
54) (main product) In this reaction, y is

A)

hexane

B)

cyclohexane

C)

cyclohexylcyclohexane

D)

cyclohexylether

View Answer
55) Most stable carbocation is

A)

B)

C)

D)

View Answer
56) Which one of the following alkylbromides undergoes most rapid solvolysis in methanol solution to give corresponding methyl ether?

A)

B)

C)

D)

View Answer
57) In the conversion of

A)

\[{{H}_{2}}/Pt\]

B)

Zn-Hg/HCl

C)

\[Li/N{{H}_{3}}\]

D)

\[NaB{{H}_{4}}\]

View Answer
58) Which is not the correct statement about RNA and DNA?

A)

DNA is active in virus where RNA never appears in virus

B)

DNA exists as dimer while RNA is usually single stranded

C)

DNA contains deoxyribose as its sugar and RNA contains ribose

D)

RNA contains uracil in place of thymine (found in DNA) as a base

View Answer
59) What is the nature of glucose-glucose linkage in starch that makes its so susceptible to acid hydrolysis?

A)

Starch is hemiacetal

B)

Starch is acetal

C)

Starch is polymer

D)

Starch contains only few molecules of glucose

View Answer
60) In the conversion The sequence of the reagents used are

A)

(i) \[SOC{{l}_{2}}\] (ii) \[N_{3}^{-}\] (iii) H20, heat

B)

(i) \[SOC{{l}_{2}}\] (ii) \[N{{H}_{3}}\]

C)

(i) \[SOC{{l}_{2}}\] (ii)\[N{{H}_{3}}\] (iii) Heat

D)

(i) \[SOC{{l}_{2}}\] (ii) KCN (iii) \[LiAlH\]

View Answer
61) In the reaction \[2{{H}_{2}}{{O}_{2}}\xrightarrow{{}}2{{H}_{2}}O+{{O}_{2}}\]

A)

oxygen is oxidised only

B)

oxygen is reduced only

C)

oxygen is neither oxidised nor reduced

D)

oxygen is both oxidised and reduced

View Answer
62) Which one of the following is not acid-base conjugate pair?

A)

\[HONO,\,NO_{2}^{-}\]

B)

\[C{{H}_{3}}NH_{3}^{+},C{{H}_{3}}N{{H}_{2}}\]

C)

\[{{C}_{6}}{{H}_{5}}COOH,{{C}_{6}}{{H}_{5}}CO{{O}^{-}}\]

D)

\[{{H}_{3}}{{O}^{+}},O{{H}^{-}}\]

View Answer
63) Which one of the following has the strongest O - O bond?

A)

\[O_{2}^{+}\]

B)

\[O_{2}^{0}\]

C)

\[O_{2}^{-}\]

D)

\[O_{2}^{2-}\]

View Answer
64) For the reactions \[{{I}_{2}}(aq){{I}_{2}}\] (oil); equilibrium constant is \[{{K}_{1}}\] \[{{I}_{2}}\] (oil) \[{{I}_{2}}\] (ether); equilibrium constant is \[{{K}_{2}}\] for the reaction \[{{I}_{2}}(aq){{I}_{2}}\] (ether); equilibrium constant is \[{{K}_{3}}\] The relation between \[{{K}_{1}},{{K}_{2}},{{K}_{3}}\] is

A)

\[{{K}_{3}}={{K}_{1}}+{{K}_{2}}\]

B)

\[{{K}_{3}}={{K}_{1}}{{K}_{2}}\]

C)

\[{{K}_{3}}={{K}_{1}}/{{K}_{2}}\]

D)

\[{{K}_{3}}={{K}_{2}}/{{K}_{1}}\]

View Answer
65) The geometry of electron pairs around I in \[I{{F}_{5}}\] is

A)

octahedral

B)

trigonal bipyramidal

C)

square pyramidal

D)

pentagonal planar

View Answer
66) Which statement is/are not correct?

A)

Rate of an exothermic reaction increases with temperature

B)

Solubility of NaOH increases with temperature

C)

\[{{K}_{p}}\]for \[{{N}_{2}}(g)+3{{H}_{2}}(g)2N{{H}_{3}}(g)\]increases with increase in pressure

D)

For gaseous reaction \[2\,B\xrightarrow{{}}A\,;{{K}_{p}}\] is smaller than \[{{K}_{e}}\]

View Answer
67) Which of the following changes require an oxidising agent?

A)

\[2{{S}_{2}}O_{3}^{2-}{{S}_{4}}O_{6}^{2-}\]

B)

\[Z{{n}^{2+}}Zn\]

C)

\[Cl{{O}^{-}}C{{l}^{-}}\]

D)

\[S{{O}_{3}}SO_{4}^{2-}\]

View Answer
68) Given the following reactions involving A, B, C and D (i) \[C+{{B}^{+}}\to {{C}^{+}}+B\] (ii) \[{{A}^{+}}+D\to \] No reaction (iii) \[{{C}^{+}}+A\to \] No reaction (iv) \[D+{{B}^{+}}\to {{D}^{+}}+B\] The correct arrangement of A, B, C, D in order of their decreasing ability as reducing agent

A)

D > B > C > A

B)

A > C > D > B

C)

C > A > B > D

D)

C > A > D > B

View Answer
69) Which ion has the largest radius?

A)

\[S{{e}^{2-}}\]

B)

\[{{F}^{-}}\]

C)

\[{{O}^{2-}}\]

D)

\[R{{b}^{+}}\]

View Answer
70) Which is correct statement about \[C{{r}_{2}}O_{7}^{2-}\]structure?

A)

It has neither Cr - Cr bonds nor O - O bonds

B)

It has one Cr - Cr bond and six O - O bonds

C)

It has no Cr - Cr bond and has six O - O bonds

D)

It has one Cr - Cr bond and seven Cr - O bonds

View Answer
71) Which reaction, with the following values of \[\Delta H,\,\,\Delta S\]at 400 K is spontaneous and endothermic?

A)

\[\Delta H=-48\,kJ;\,\,\Delta S=+135\,J/K\]

B)

\[\Delta H=-48\,kJ;\,\,\Delta S=-135\,J/K\]

C)

\[\Delta H=+48\,kJ;\,\,\Delta S=+135\,J/K\]

D)

\[\Delta H=+48\,kJ;\,\,\Delta S=-135\,J/K\]

View Answer
72) The correct decreasing order of dipole moment in \[C{{H}_{3}}Cl,\,C{{H}_{3}}\] Br and \[C{{H}_{3}}F\] is

A)

\[C{{H}_{3}}F>C{{H}_{3}}Cl>C{{H}_{3}}Br\]

B)

\[C{{H}_{3}}F>C{{H}_{3}}Br>C{{H}_{3}}Cl\]

C)

\[C{{H}_{3}}Cl>C{{H}_{3}}F>C{{H}_{3}}Br\]

D)

\[C{{H}_{3}}Cl>C{{H}_{3}}Br>C{{H}_{3}}F\]

View Answer
73) Given exothermic reaction \[CoCl_{4}^{2-}(aq)+6{{H}_{2}}O(l){{[Co{{({{H}_{2}}O)}_{6}}]}^{2+}}\]\[+4C{{l}^{-}}\] Which one of the following will decrease the equilibrium concentration of \[CoCl_{4}^{2-}\]?

A)

Addition of \[HCl\]

B)

Addition of \[Co{{(N{{O}_{3}})}_{2}}\]

C)

The solution is diluted with water

D)

The temperature is increased

View Answer
74) Hydrogen is prepared from \[{{H}_{2}}O\] by adding

A)

Ca, which acts as reducing agent

B)

Al, which acts as oxidising agent

C)

Ag, which acts as reducing agent

D)

Au, which acts as oxidising agent

View Answer
75) For preparing a buffer solution of pH = 7.0, which buffer system will you choose?

A)

\[{{H}_{3}}P{{O}_{4}},{{H}_{2}}PO_{4}^{-}\]

B)

\[{{H}_{2}}PO_{4}^{-},PO_{4}^{3-}\]

C)

\[HPO_{4}^{2-},PO_{4}^{3-}\]

D)

\[{{H}_{3}}P{{O}_{4}},\,PO_{4}^{3-}\]

View Answer
76) Which element undergoes disproportionation in water?

A)

\[C{{l}_{2}}\]

B)

\[{{F}_{2}}\]

C)

K

D)

Cs

View Answer
77) Which one of the following species acts only as a base?

A)

\[{{H}_{2}}S\]

B)

\[H{{S}^{-}}\]

C)

\[{{S}^{2-}}\]

D)

\[{{H}_{2}}O\]

View Answer
78) For the following reaction \[{{C}_{6}}{{H}_{12}}{{O}_{6}}(aq)+{{H}_{2}}(g){{C}_{6}}{{H}_{14}}{{O}_{6}}(aq)\] Which one of the following is not affected by the addition of catalyst?

A)

Rate of forward reaction

B)

Rate of backward reaction

C)

Time required to reach the equilibrium

D)

Spontaneity

View Answer
79) Which is not the correct statement?

A)

The \[{{S}_{8}}\] ring is not planar

B)

Oxygen is more electronegative than sulphur

C)

\[S{{F}_{4}}\] exists, but \[O{{F}_{4}}\] does not exist

D)

\[S{{O}_{3}}\] and \[SO_{3}^{2-}\] both have trigonal planar geometry

View Answer
80) Which can exist both as diastereoisomer and enantiomer?

A)

\[{{[Pt{{(en)}_{3}}]}^{4+}}\]

B)

\[{{[Pt{{(en)}_{2}}ClBr]}^{2+}}\]

C)

\[{{[Ru{{(N{{H}_{3}})}_{4}}C{{l}_{2}}]}^{0}}\]

D)

\[{{[PtC{{l}_{2}}B{{r}_{2}}]}^{0}}\]

View Answer
81) Number of isomeric forms (constitutional and stereoisomers) for \[[Rh{{(en)}_{2}}(N{{O}_{2}})\,{{(SCN)}^{+}}\] are

A)

three

B)

six

C)

nine

D)

twelve

View Answer
82) For transition metal octahedral complexes, the choice between high spin and low spin electronic configurations arises only for

A)

\[{{d}^{1}}\] to \[{{d}^{3}}\] complexes

B)

\[{{d}^{4}}\] to \[{{d}^{7}}\]complexes

C)

\[{{d}^{7}}\]to \[{{d}^{9}}\] complexes

D)

\[{{d}^{1}},\,{{d}^{2}}\]and \[{{d}^{8}}\] complexes

View Answer
83) For a chemical reaction of the type \[AB,\,K=2.0\] and \[BC,\,K=0.01\]Equilibrium constant for the reaction \[2C2A\] is

A)

25

B)

50

C)

2500

D)

\[4\times {{10}^{-4}}\]

View Answer
84) A chemical reaction proceeds into the following steps

Step I,          \[2AX\] fast

Step II,         \[X+BY\] slow

Step III,         \[Y+B\]Product fast

The rate law for the overall reaction is

A)

Rate \[=k{{[A]}^{2}}\]

B)

Rate \[=k{{[B]}^{2}}\]

C)

Rate \[=k[A][B]\]

D)

Rate \[=k{{[A]}^{2}}[B]\]

View Answer
85) A solution is 0.1 M with respect to \[A{{g}^{+}},C{{a}^{2+}},M{{g}^{2+}}\]and \[A{{l}^{3+}}\], which will precipitate at lowest concentration of \[[PO_{4}^{3-}]\] when solution of \[N{{a}_{3}}P{{O}_{4}}\] is added?

A)

\[A{{g}_{3}}P{{O}_{3}}({{K}_{sp}}=1\times {{10}^{-6}})\]

B)

\[C{{a}_{3}}{{(P{{O}_{4}})}_{2}}({{K}_{sp}}=1\times {{10}^{-33}})\]

C)

\[M{{g}_{3}}{{(P{{O}_{4}})}_{2}}({{K}_{sp}}=1\times {{10}^{-24}})\]

D)

\[AlP{{O}_{4}}({{K}_{sp}}=1\times {{10}^{-20}})\]

View Answer
86) In Tollens test, aldehydes

A)

are oxidised to acids

B)

are reduced to alcohol

C)

neither reduced nor oxidised

D)

precipitate Ag+ as AgCl

View Answer
87) The half-life time of 2g sample of radioactive nuclide X is 15 min. The half-life time of 1g sample of X is

A)

7.5 min

B)

15 min

C)

22.5 min

D)

30 min

View Answer
88) Given a gas phase reaction \[2A(g)+B(g)C(g)+D(g)\]Which one of the following changes will

A)

B)

C)

D)

View Answer
89) affect the value of \[{{K}_{c}}\]?

A)

Addition of inert gas

B)

Addition of catalyst

C)

Addition of reactants

D)

Increasing in temperature

View Answer
90) Lowest \[p{{K}_{a}}\] is associated with Monobromination of 2-methylbutane gives how many distinct isomers?

A)

One

B)

Two

C)

Three

D)

Four

View Answer
91) \[\alpha -(D)\]glucose\[\beta -(D)\]glucose, equilibrium constant for this is 1.8. The percentage of \[\alpha \]- glucose at equilibrium is

A)

35.7

B)

55.6

C)

44.4

D)

64.3

View Answer
92) Equal weights of \[C{{H}_{4}}\] and \[{{H}_{2}}\] are mixed in a container at \[{{25}^{o}}C\]. Fraction of total pressure exerted by methane is

A)

\[\frac{1}{2}\]

B)

\[\frac{1}{3}\]

C)

\[\frac{1}{9}\]

D)

\[\frac{8}{9}\]

View Answer
93) In which one of the given formulae of xenon compounds there are five \[\alpha \]-bonds and three \[\pi \]-bonds in it?

A)

XeFO

B)

\[Xe{{F}_{2}}{{O}_{2}}\]

C)

\[Xe{{F}_{3}}{{O}_{2}}\]

D)

\[Xe{{F}_{2}}{{O}_{3}}\]

View Answer
94) More acidic than ethanol is

A)

\[C{{H}_{3}}C{{H}_{2}}C{{H}_{2}}C{{H}_{2}}C{{H}_{2}}C{{H}_{2}}C{{H}_{2}}C{{H}_{3}}\]

B)

\[C{{H}_{3}}C{{O}_{2}}C{{H}_{2}}C{{H}_{3}}\]

C)

\[C{{H}_{3}}COC{{H}_{2}}COC{{H}_{3}}\]

D)

\[C{{H}_{3}}COC{{H}_{3}}\]

View Answer
95) Of the following compounds, the oxime of which shows geometrical isomerism, is

A)

acetone

B)

diethylketone

C)

formaldehyde

D)

benzaldehyde

View Answer
96) Decreasing order of reactivity of hydrogen halide acids in the conversion of \[ROH\to RX\]is

A)

\[HCl>HBr>HI>HF\]

B)

\[HI>HBr>HCl>HF\]

C)

\[HF>HCl>HBr>HI\]

D)

\[HF>HBr>HI>HCl\]

View Answer
97) Which is correct statement?

A)

o-nitrobenzoic acid is stronger than 3, 5 dinitrobenzoic acid in \[{{H}_{2}}O\]

B)

Branched carboxylic acids are more acidic than unbranched acids

C)

is stronger acid than

D)

Butanoic acid is stronger acid than succinic acid

View Answer
98) Maximum efficiency of a commercial refrigerator which operates between -10°C (inside temperature) and \[{{25}^{o}}C\](outside temperature) is

A)

13.3%

B)

11.45%

C)

24.75%

D)

20%

View Answer
99) \[1\times {{10}^{-3}}m\] solution of \[Pt{{(N{{H}_{3}})}_{4}}C{{l}_{4}}\] in \[{{H}_{2}}O\]shows depression in freezing point by\[{{0.0054}^{o}}C\]. The structure of the compound will be [Given, \[{{K}_{f}}({{H}_{2}}O)=1.860\,\,k{{m}^{-1}}\]]

A)

\[[Pt{{(N{{H}_{3}})}_{4}}]C{{l}_{4}}\]

B)

\[[Pt{{(N{{H}_{3}})}_{3}}]C{{l}_{3}}\]

C)

\[[Pt{{(N{{H}_{3}})}_{2}}C{{l}_{2}}]C{{l}_{2}}\]

D)

\[[Pt(N{{H}_{3}})C{{l}_{3}}]Cl\]

View Answer
100) The typical range of molar enthalpies for the strongest intermolecular (hydrogen) bonds is

A)

200 - 300 kJ

B)

300 - 500 kJ

C)

4 - 25 kJ

D)

4 - 25 J

View Answer
101) The most important factor which determined the increase in human population in India during the 20th century.

A)

Natality

B)

Mortality

C)

Immigration

D)

Emigration

View Answer
102) Vascular bundles in monocotyledons are considered closed because

A)

xylem is surrounded all around by phloem

B)

there are no vessels with perforations

C)

a bundle sheath surrounds each bundle

D)

there is no secondary growth

View Answer
103) When there are two haploid nuclei per cell in some fungi before the formation of diploid, this stage is called

A)

diplotene

B)

diplophase

C)

dikaryophase

D)

dikaryote

View Answer
104) In blood group typing in human, if an allele contributed by one parent is \[{{I}^{4}}\] and an allele contributed by the other parent is \[i\], the resulting blood group of the offspring will be

A)

A

B)

B

C)

AB

D)

0

View Answer
105) A population growing in a habitat with limited resources shows four phases of growth in the following sequence.

A)

Acceleration - Deceleration - Lag phase - Asymptote

B)

Asymptote - Acceleration - Deceleration Lag phase

C)

Lag phase - Acceleration - Deceleration - Asymptote

D)

Acceleration - Lag phase - Deceleration -Asymptote

View Answer
106) Necrosis in crops is due to the deficiency of

A)

Ca, K, S and Mo

B)

N, K, S and Mo

C)

N.S. Fe and Zn

D)

Mg, S, Mn and Ca

View Answer
107) Presence of bundle sheath is a characteristic of:

A)

xerophytic plants

B)

members of grass family

C)

\[{{C}_{4}}\]-plants

D)

\[{{C}_{3}}\]-plants

View Answer
108) Which one of the following would not lead to formation of clones?

A)

Double fertilization

B)

Apomixis

C)

Vegetative reproduction

D)

Tissue culture

View Answer
109) A plant species which has been exploited for the production of Hirudin is

A)

Brassica napus

B)

Zea mays

C)

Solanun nigrum

D)

Oryza sativa

View Answer
110) The variation/difference in the off springs of a species from their parents constitutes an important component of

A)

genetics

B)

speciation

C)

species fixation

D)

heredity

View Answer
111) If two pea plants having red (dominant) coloured flowers with unknown genotypes are crossed, 75% of the flowers are red and 25% are white. The genotypic constitution of the parents having red coloured flowers will

A)

be both homozygous

B)

one homozygous and other heterozygous

C)

both heterozygous

D)

both hemizygous

View Answer
112) If the total amount of adenine and thymine in a double-stranded DNA is 60%, the amount of guanine in this DNA will be

A)

15%

B)

20%

C)

30%

D)

40%

View Answer
113) The protein products of the following Bt toxin genes cry I Ac and cry II Ab are responsible for controlling

A)

bollworm

B)

roundworm

C)

moth

D)

fruit fly

View Answer
114) In a flowering plant, the pollen tube first arrives in

A)

egg

B)

an antipodal cell

C)

a synergid

D)

central cell

View Answer
115) A peculiar odour that prevails in marshy areas and cow-sheds is on account of a gas produced by

A)

mycoplasma

B)

archaebacteria

C)

slime moulds

D)

cyanobacteria

View Answer
116) A germplasm collection is a

A)

collection of specimens of all the species of an area in a herbarium or botanical garden

B)

collection of modern varieties of a crop

C)

collection of plants or seeds having diverse alleles of all genes in a crop

D)

collection of seeds or pollen of rare and threatened species of a group or area

View Answer
117) Walter Sutton is famous for his contribution to

A)

genetic engineering

B)

to tipotency

C)

quantitative genetics

D)

chromosomal theory of inheritance

View Answer
118) The reaction, Amino acid + ATP\[\to \] Aminoacyl AMP + P-P depicts

A)

amino acid assimilation

B)

amino acid transformation

C)

amino acid activation

D)

amino acid translocation

View Answer
119) The problem of blindness in poor countries can be taken care of by using the following

A)

golden rice

B)

transgenic tomato

C)

transgenic maize

D)

Bt brinjal

View Answer
120) The transcription of any gene is the indication of its

A)

induction

B)

activity

C)

stimulation

D)

hypersensitivity

View Answer
121) In C4-plants, the bundle sheath cells

A)

have thin walls to facilitate gaseous exchange

B)

have large intercellular spaces

C)

are rich in PE.P carboxylase

D)

have a high density of chloroplasts

View Answer
122) In root nodules of legumes, leghaemoglobin is important because it

A)

transports oxygen to the root nodule

B)

acts as an oxygen scavenger

C)

provides energy to the nitrogen fixing bacterium

D)

acts as a catalyst in transamination

View Answer
123) Darwin judged the fitness of an individual by

A)

ability to defend itself

B)

strategy to obtain food

C)

number of offsprings

D)

dominance over other individuals

View Answer
124) Which of the following statements is wrong?

A)

Pollen grains remain viable for several months because their outer covering is made of sporopollenin

B)

No enzyme can degrade sporopollenin

C)

Pollen grains are well represented in fossil strata due to sporopollenin

D)

Pollen wall has cavities containing proteins

View Answer
125) In plant biotechnology, PEG is used in

A)

protoplast isolation

B)

cell culture preparation

C)

protoplast fusion

D)

hardening

View Answer
126) A regulatory body working under Mo EF for the release of transgenic crops is

A)

NBPGR

B)

GEAC

C)

NSC

D)

NIPGR

View Answer
127) Analogous structures are

A)

anatomically different but performing similar functions

B)

anatomically similar but performing different functions

C)

anatomically similar and functioning similarly

D)

anatomically different and functioning differently

View Answer
128) A polygenic trait is controlled by 3 genes A, B and C. In a cross AaBbCc \[\times \]AaBbCc, the phenotypic ratio of the off springs was observed as 1 : 6 : x : 20 : x : 6 : 1 What is the possible value of x?

A)

3

B)

9

C)

15

D)

25

View Answer
129) A transgenic rice (golden rice) has been developed for increased content of

A)

vitamin-A

B)

vitamin-B;

C)

vitamin-C

D)

vitamin-D

View Answer
130) When the conditions are dry, a grass leaf curls inward to minimize water loss due to presence of

A)

thick cuticle

B)

large xylem cavities

C)

parallel venation

D)

bulliform cells

View Answer
131) Long, ribbon-like pollen grains are seen in some

A)

aquatic plants

B)

wind-pollinated grasses

C)

gymnosperms

D)

bird-pollinated flowers

View Answer
132) At present, the concentration of \[C{{O}_{2}}\] in the atmosphere is about

A)

100 ppm

B)

240 ppm

C)

380 ppm

D)

520 ppm

View Answer
133) Littoral zone is located along the

A)

high mountains

B)

sea

C)

rivers

D)

desert

View Answer
134) Which of the following is used as a bioweapon?

A)

Bacillus subtilis

B)

Bacillus licheniformis

C)

Bacillus thuringiensis

D)

Bacillus anthracis

View Answer
135) The chromosome constitution 2n - 2 of an organism represents

A)

monosomic

B)

nullisomic

C)

haploid

D)

trisomic

View Answer
136) Meristem culture is practised in horticulture to get

A)

somaclonal variation

B)

haploids

C)

virus-free plants

D)

slow-growing callus

View Answer
137) Tendrils in plants are an example of

A)

convergent evolution

B)

radiation

C)

divergent evolution

D)

co-evolution

View Answer
138) Haemoglobin is

A)

an oxygen carrier in human blood

B)

a protein used as food supplement

C)

an oxygen scavenger in root nodules

D)

a plant protein with high lysine content

View Answer
139) Stomatal opening is affected by

A)

nitrogen concentration, carbon dioxide concentration and light

B)

carbon dioxide concentration, temperature and light

C)

nitrogen concentration, light an temperature

D)

carbon dioxide concentration, nitrogen concentration and temperature

View Answer
140) Taxonomic hierarchy refers to

A)

step-wise arrangement of all categories for classification of plants and animals

B)

a group of senior taxonomists, who decide the nomenclature of plants and animals

C)

a list of botanists or zoologists, who have worked on taxonomy of a species or group

D)

classification of a species based on fossil record

View Answer
141) Which of the following get accumulated in the vacuoles of guard cells during stomatal opening?

A)

Water, calcium and magnesium

B)

Starch, potassium and chloride ions

C)

Malate, sodium and potassium ions

D)

Malate, potassium and chloride ions

View Answer
142) Which of the following is the most accepted theory for movement of water through plants?

A)

Cohesion theory

B)

Capillarity

C)

Passive transport

D)

Root pressure

View Answer
143) Scutellum in a caryopsis represents

A)

outermost layer of endosperm

B)

a sheath that protects the radicle

C)

the place where the seed is attached to raphe

D)

a cotyledon

View Answer
144) In an annual ring, the light coloured part is known as

A)

early wood

B)

late wood

C)

heartwood

D)

sapwood

View Answer
145) Natural cytokinins are synthesized in tissue that are

A)

senescent

B)

dividing rapidly

C)

storing food material

D)

differentiating

View Answer
146) Resemblance of one organism to another for protection and hiding is

A)

mimicry

B)

predation

C)

adaptation

D)

camouflage

View Answer
147) Spirochaetes is are

A)

a class of insects

B)

a class of viruses

C)

bacteria

D)

fungi

View Answer
148) The metachromatic granules are

A)

present in plant cells at metaphase stage

B)

inclusion bodies in bacteria

C)

produced in insects during metamorphosis

D)

chromatophores in animals skin

View Answer
149) The rough endoplasmic reticulum (RER) in the cells are because of the presence of

A)

mitochondria associated with ER

B)

ribosomes on the surface of ER

C)

volutin granules on the surface of ER

D)

sulphur granules on the surface of ER

View Answer
150) Elaioplasts store

A)

starch

B)

proteins

C)

fats

D)

essential amino acids

View Answer
151) Aggregates of lymphoid tissue present in the distal portion of the small intestine are known as

A)

villi

B)

Peyers patches

C)

rugae

D)

choroid plexus

View Answer
152) Mendels principle of segregation means that the germ cells always receive

A)

one pair of alleles

B)

one quarter of the genes

C)

one of the paired alleles

D)

any pair of alleles

View Answer
153) Rotenone is a

A)

bioherbicide

B)

commonly used biofertilizer

C)

bioinsecticide

D)

juvenile hormone

View Answer
154) Which of the following vitamins has some physiological effects similar to those of parathormone?

A)

Vitamin-A

B)

Vitamin-D

C)

Vitamin-C

D)

Vitamin-B

View Answer
155) Somatostatin

A)

stimulates glucagon release while inhibits insulin release

B)

stimulates release of insulin and glucagon

C)

inhibits release of insulin and glucagon

D)

inhibits glucagon release while stimulates insulin release

View Answer
156) Hiccups can be best described as

A)

forceful sudden expiration

B)

jerky incomplete inspiration

C)

vibration of the soft palate during breathing

D)

sign of indigestion

View Answer
157) ELISA assay

A)

uses complement mediated cell lysis

B)

uses a radiolabelled second antibody

C)

involves addition of substrate which is convened into coloured end product

D)

requires red blood cells

View Answer
158) Complete competitors cannot coexist is true for

A)

character displacement

B)

competitive exclusion

C)

primary succession

D)

secondary sucession

View Answer
159) mRNA directs the building of proteins through a sequence of

A)

introns

B)

codons

C)

exons

D)

anticodons

View Answer
160) Foramen ovale

A)

connects the two atria in the foetal hear

B)

is a condition in which the heart valves do not completely close

C)

is a shallow depression in the interventricular septum

D)

is a connection between the pulmonary trunk and the aorta in the foetus

View Answer
161) Which of the following is a Gram negative bacterium?

A)

Escherichia coli

B)

Bacillus subtilis

C)

Streptomyces coelicolor

D)

Ampycolatopsis orientalis

View Answer
162) What is meant by the term Darwin fitness?

A)

The ability to survive and reproduce

B)

High aggressiveness

C)

Healthy appearance

D)

Physical strength

View Answer
163) Absence of one sex chromosome causes

A)

Turners syndrome

B)

Klinefelters syndrome

C)

Downs syndrome

D)

Tay-Sachs syndrome

View Answer
164) Comparing small and large cells, which statement is correct?

A)

Small cells have a small surface area per volume ratio

B)

Exchange rate of nutrients is fast with large cells

C)

Small cells have a large surface area per volume ratio

D)

Exchange rate of nutrients is slow with small cells

View Answer
165) Which one of the following animals shows discontinuous distribution?

A)

Green muscles

B)

Bats

C)

Lung fishes

D)

Pacific salmons

View Answer
166) The number of autosomes in human primary spermatocyte is

A)

46

B)

44

C)

23

D)

22

View Answer
167) The most abundant molecule in cell is

A)

water

B)

carbohydrate

C)

lipid

D)

protein

View Answer
168) How many chromosomes will the cell have at\[{{G}_{1}}\], after S and after M-phase respectively, if it has 14 chromosomes at interphase?

A)

14, 14, 7

B)

14, 14, 14

C)

7, 7, 7

D)

7, 14, 14

View Answer
169) The Golgi apparatus

A)

is found only in animals

B)

is found in prokaryotes

C)

is a site of rapid ATP production

D)

modifies and packages proteins

View Answer
170) Glycolysis

A)

takes place in the mitochondria

B)

produces no ATP

C)

has no connection with electron transport chain

D)

reduces two molecules of \[NA{{D}^{+}}\] for every glucose molecule processed

View Answer
171) Total number of all species of organisms in a given region is known as the regions

A)

biota

B)

flora

C)

fauna

D)

diversity

View Answer
172) The arthropod exoskeleton is composed of

A)

several kinds of polysaccharides

B)

layers of proteins and a polysaccharide called chitin

C)

several kinds of proteins

D)

single complex protein called arthropodin

View Answer
173) Which of the following groups is absolutely essential functional component of the ecosystem?

A)

Producers

B)

Producers and herbivores

C)

Producers and detritivores

D)

Detritivores

View Answer
174) Phagocytosis and pinocytosis are collectively termed as

A)

endocytosis

B)

suspension feeding

C)

omnivores

D)

mucous trap

View Answer
175) PCR proceeds in three distinct steps governed by temperature, they are in order of

A)

denaturation, annealing, synthesis

B)

synthesis, annealing, denaturation

C)

annealing, synthesis, denaturation

D)

denaturation, synthesis, annealing

View Answer
176) Corpus luteum releases

A)

oestrogen

B)

progesterone

C)

oestrogen and progesterone

D)

androgen

View Answer
177) Which of the following organs is devoid of glands?

A)

Uterus

B)

Vagina

C)

Vulva

D)

Oviduct

View Answer
178) Primary spermatocyte differs from spermatogonium in

A)

number of chromosomes

B)

size and volume

C)

DNA content

D)

size of chromosomes

View Answer
179) In human, cleavage divisions are

A)

slow and synchronous

B)

fast and synchronous

C)

slow and asynchronous

D)

fast and asynchronous

View Answer
180) The basic unit of study in Ecology is

A)

population

B)

organism

C)

community

D)

species

View Answer
181) Chimera is produced due to

A)

somatic mutations

B)

reverse mutations

C)

lethal mutations

D)

pleiotropic mutations

View Answer
182) Maltose gives rise to two molecules of

A)

fructose

B)

lactose

C)

glucose

D)

sucrose

View Answer
183) In a lake, phytoplankton grow in abundance in

A)

littoral zone

B)

limnetic zone

C)

profundal zone

D)

benthic region

View Answer
184) Sigmoid growth curve is represented by

A)

\[dN/dt=rN\]

B)

\[dN/dt=rN\,\,(1-N/K)\]

C)

\[Nt/No+B+I-D-E\]

D)

\[dN/dt=1-N/K\]

View Answer
185) Beadle and Tatum showed that each kind of mutant bread mould they studied lacked a specific enzyme. Their experiments demonstrated that

A)

cells need specific enzymes in order to function

B)

genes are made of DNA

C)

genes carry information for making proteins

D)

enzymes are required to repair damaged DNA information

View Answer
186) DNA has equal number of adenine an thymine residues (A = T) and equal number of guanine and cytosine (G = C). These relationships are known as

A)

Chargaff s rule

B)

Coulombs law

C)

Le-Chateliers principle

D)

Vant Hoff plot

View Answer
187) Balancing selection promotes

A)

hoirzygotes

B)

heterozygotes

C)

Polyploids

D)

recessive traits

View Answer
188) Vomiting centre is located in the

A)

medulla oblongata

B)

stomach and sometimes in duodenum

C)

GI tract

D)

hypothalamus

View Answer
189) How many bio-geographical regions are present in India?

A)

3

B)

4

C)

7

D)

10

View Answer
190) Vital stains are employed to study

A)

living cells

B)

frozen tissues

C)

fresh tissues

D)

preserved tissues

View Answer
191) Which of the following organs in earthworm neutralizes humic acid present in humus?

A)

Typhlosole

B)

Calciferous glands

C)

Intestinal caecum

D)

Gizzard

View Answer
192) Fertilized eggs of P. americana are encased in

A)

ootheca

B)

cocoon

C)

genital chamber

D)

phallomere

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193) Insufficient quantities of antidiuretic hormone in blood lead to

A)

diabetes mellitus

B)

glycosuria

C)

diabetes insipidus

D)

uremia

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194) Sphincter of Oddi guards

A)

hepato-pancreatic duct

B)

common bile duct

C)

pancreatic duct

D)

cystic duct

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195) Graveyard for RBCs is

A)

liver

B)

spleen

C)

kidney

D)

lymph glands

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196) Blood cells involved in inflammatory reactions are

A)

basophils

B)

neuti-ophils

C)

eosinophils

D)

monocytes

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197) To obtain a standard ECG, a patient is connected to the machine with three electrodes

A)

one to each wrist and to the left ankle

B)

one to each ankle and to the left wrist

C)

one to each wrist and to the left chest Region

D)

one to each ankle and to the left chest region

View Answer
198) The clavicle articulates with ...... of scapula.

A)

acromion process

B)

glenoid cavity

C)

acetabulum cavity

D)

ball and socket joint

View Answer
199) The age of pyramid with broad base indicates

A)

high percentage of young individuals

B)

low percentage of young individuals

C)

high percentage of old individuals

D)

low percentage of old individuals

View Answer
200) Thymosin hormone is secreted by

A)

thyroid gland

B)

parathyroid gland

C)

thymus gland

D)

hypothalamus

View Answer