Solved papers for EAMCET Medical EAMCET Medical Solved Paper-2004

EAMCET Medical Solved Paper-2004 Total Questions - 160

1) A uniform circular disc of radius R lies in the X-Y plane with its centre coincident with the origin. Its moment of inertia about an axis passing through a point of the X-axis at a distances = 2R and perpendicular to the X-Y plane, is equal to its moment of inertia about an axis passing through a point on the F-axis at a distance Y = d and parallel to the X-axis in the X-Y plane. The value of d is:

A)

\[\frac{4R}{3}\]

B)

\[\sqrt{17}\left( \frac{R}{2} \right)\]

C)

\[\sqrt{15}\left( \frac{R}{2} \right)\]

D)

\[\sqrt{13}\left( \frac{R}{2} \right)\]

View Answer
2) Assertion (A): If a body moving in a circular path has constant speed, then there is no force acting on it.                 Reason (R): The direction of the velocity vector of a body moving in a circular path is changing.

A)

                both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

B)

                both A and R ane true but R is not the correct explanation of A

C)

                A is true but R is false

D)

                A is false but R is true

View Answer
3) A spaceship is launched into a circular orbit of radius R close to the surface of earth. The additional velocity to be imparted to the spaceship in the orbit to overcome the earths gravitational pull is : (g = acceleration due to gravity)

A)

                1.4147 Rg

B)

                1.414 \[\sqrt{Rg}\]

C)

                0.414 Rg

D)

                0.414 \[\sqrt{Rg}\]

View Answer
4) The equation of motion of a particle executing SHM is, \[\alpha +16{{\pi }^{2}}x=0.\]In this equation \[\alpha \] is the linear acceleration in \[m/{{s}^{2}},\]of the particle at a displacement x metre. The time period of SHM, in second, is:

A)

                \[\frac{1}{4}\]

B)

                \[\frac{1}{2}\]

C)

                1

D)

                2

View Answer
5) The increase in length of a wire on stretching is 0.025%. If its Poisson ratio is 0.4, then the percentage decrease in the diameter is:

A)

                0.01

B)

                0.02

C)

                0.03

D)

                0.04

View Answer
6) The correct order in which the dimension of Length increases in the following physical quantities is?

A. Permittivity

B. Resistance

C. Magnetic permeability

D. Stress

A)

                A, B, C, D

B)

                D, C, B, A

C)

                A, D,

D)

                C, B, C, A

View Answer
7) A vector \[Q\to \]which has a magnitude of 8 is added to the vector \[P\to \], which lies along the X-axis. The resultant of these two vectors is a third vector \[R\to \], which lies along the Y-axis and has a magnitude twice that of \[P\to \].The magnitude of \[P\to \] is :

A)

                \[\frac{6}{\sqrt{5}}\]

B)

                \[\frac{8}{\sqrt{5}}\]

C)

                \[\frac{12}{\sqrt{5}}\]

D)

                \[\frac{16}{\sqrt{5}}\]

View Answer
8) The maximum height reached by a projectile is 4 m. The horizontal range is 12 m. Velocity of projection in ms-1, is : ( g = acceleration due to gravity)

A)

                \[5\sqrt{\frac{g}{2}}\]

B)

                \[5\frac{g}{\sqrt{2}}\]

C)

                \[\frac{1}{3}\frac{g}{\sqrt{2}}\]

D)

                \[\frac{1}{5}\sqrt{\frac{g}{2}}\]

View Answer
9) A body x with a momentum p collides with another identical stationary body y one dimensionally. During the collision y gives an impulse J to the body x. Then, the coefficient of restitution is:

A)

                \[\frac{2j}{p}-1\]

B)

                \[\frac{j}{p}+1\]

C)

                \[\frac{j}{p}-1\]

D)

                \[\frac{j}{2p}-1\]

View Answer
10) A cannon of mass 1000 kg, located at the base of an inclined plane fires a shell of mass 100 kg in a horizontal direction with a velocity 180 km/h. The angle of inclination of the inclined plane with the horizontal is \[45{}^\circ \]. The coefficient of friction between the cannon and the inclined plane is 0.5. The height, in m, to which the cannon ascends the inclined plane as a result of the recoil is:                 \[(g=10m/{{s}^{2}})\]

A)

                \[\frac{7}{6}\]

B)

                \[\frac{5}{9}\]

C)

                \[\frac{2}{6}\]

D)

                \[\frac{1}{6}\]

View Answer
11)  Four particles, each of mass 1 kg, are placed at the corners of a square of side 1m in the X- Y plane. If the point of intersection of the diagonals of the square, is taken as the origin, the co-ordinates of the centre of mass are:

A)

                (1, 1)

B)

                (-1, 1)

C)

                (1,-1)

D)

                (0, 0)

View Answer
12) The minimum force required to move a body up an inclined plane of inclination \[30{}^\circ \], is found to be thrice the minimum force required to prevent it from sliding down the plane. The coefficient of friction between the body and the plane is:

A)

                \[\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}\]

B)

                \[\frac{1}{2\sqrt{3}}\]

C)

                \[\frac{1}{3\sqrt{3}}\]

D)

                \[\frac{1}{4\sqrt{3}}\]

View Answer
13) The radii of the two columns in a U - tube are r1 and r2. When a liquid of density p (angle of contact is \[0{}^\circ \]) is filled in it, the level difference of the liquid in the two arms is h. The surface tension of the liquid is:                 (g = acceleration due to gravity)

A)

                \[\frac{\rho gh{{r}_{1}}{{r}_{2}}}{2({{r}_{2}}-{{r}_{1}})}\]

B)

                \[\frac{\rho gh({{r}_{1}}-{{r}_{2}})}{{{r}_{2}}{{r}_{1}}}\]

C)

                \[\frac{2({{r}_{1}}-{{r}_{2}})}{\rho gh{{r}_{1}}{{r}_{2}}}\]

D)

                \[\frac{\rho gh}{2({{r}_{2}})-{{r}_{1}}}\]

View Answer
14) When temperature is increased:

A. viscosity of the gas increases

B. viscosity of the gas decreases

C. viscosity of the liquid decreases

D. viscosity of the liquid increases

A)

                A and C are true

B)

                B and C are true

C)

                B and D axe true

D)

                A and D are true

View Answer
15) A tank full of water has a small hole at its bottom. If one-fourth of the tank is emptied in it, seconds and the remaining three-fourths of the tank is emptied in seconds. Then the ratio \[({{t}_{1}}/{{t}_{2}})\]is:

A)

                \[\sqrt{3}\]

B)

                \[\sqrt{2}\]

C)

                \[\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\]

D)

                \[\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}\]

View Answer
16) At constant pressure, the ratio of increase in volume of an ideal gas per degree rise in kelvin temperature to its original volume is:                 (T = absolute temperature of the gas)

A)

                \[{{T}^{2}}\]

B)

                T

C)

                \[\frac{1}{T}\]

D)

                \[\frac{1}{{{T}^{2}}}\]

View Answer
17) At \[0{}^\circ C\], the densities of a cork and a liquid, in which the cork floats are \[{{S}_{1}}\] and \[{{S}_{2}}\] respectively. The coefficients of expansion of the material of the cork and the liquid are 100r and respectively. If the cork sinks when temperature of the liquid is t \[{}^\circ C\], then the \[\left( \frac{{{P}_{2}}}{{{P}_{1}}} \right)\] is:

A)

\[\frac{1+100\gamma t}{1+\gamma t}\]

B)

\[\frac{1+\gamma t}{1+100\,\gamma t}\]

C)

                \[\frac{100+\gamma t}{1+\gamma t}\]

D)

                \[\frac{1+\gamma t}{100+\gamma t}\]

View Answer
18) Three samples of the same gas, X, Y and Z, for which the ratio of specific heat \[\gamma =\frac{3}{2},\] have initially the same volume. The volumes of each sample is doubled, by adiabatic process in the case of X, by isobaric process in the case of Y and by isothermal process in the case of Z. If the initial pressures of the samples X,Y and Z are in the ratio, then the ratio of their final pressures is:

A)

                2 : 1 : 1

B)

                1 : 1 : 1

C)

                1 : 2 : 1

D)

                1 : 1 : 2

View Answer
19) An ideal gas is heated at constant pressure and absorbs amount of hert Q. If the adiabatic exponent is y, then the fraction of heat absorbed m raising the internal energy and performing the work, is:

A)

                \[1-\frac{1}{\gamma }\]

B)

                \[1+\frac{1}{\gamma }\]

C)

                \[1-\frac{2}{\gamma }\]

D)

                \[1+\frac{2}{\gamma }\]

View Answer
20) The absolute temperature of a body A is four times that of another body B. For the two bodies, the difference in wavelengths, at which energy radiated is maximum is 3\[\mu \]. Then, the wavelength, at which the body B radiates maximum energy, in micrometer, is:

A)

                2

B)

                2.5

C)

                4.00

D)

                4.5

View Answer
21) Consider the following statements A and B given below and identify the correct answers:

A: The reverberation time is dependent on the shape of the enclosure, position of the sources and observer.

B: The unit of absorption coefficient in MKS system is metric sabine.

A)

                both A and B are true

B)

                both A and B are false

C)

                A is true but B is false

D)

                A is false but B is true

View Answer
22) Two identical strings of the same material, same diameter and same length are in unison, when stretched by the same tension. If the tension on one string is increased by 21%, the number of beats heard per second is ten. The frequency of the note in hertz, when the strings are in unison is:

A)

                210

B)

                200

C)

                110

D)

                100

View Answer
23) A thin converging lens is made up of glass of refractive index 1.5. It acts like a concave lens of focal length 50 cm, when immersed in a liquid of refractive index \[\left( \frac{15}{8} \right)\]. The focal length of the converging lens in air is, in metre:

A)

                0.15

B)

                0.20

C)

                0.25

D)

                0.40

View Answer
24) One face AC of the glass prism is silvered as shown and the principal section of a glass prism is an isosceles triangle ABC with AB=AC. The ABAC, if the ray incident normally on the face AB and after two reflections, it energies from the base BC. perpendicular to it, is:

A)

\[70{}^\circ \]

B)

\[36{}^\circ \]

C)

\[72{}^\circ \]

D)

\[44{}^\circ \]

View Answer
25) The phenomenon used in optical fibres for transmission of light energy is:

A)

total internal reflection

B)

scattering

C)

diffraction

D)

refraction

View Answer
26) Assertion (A): In Youngs interference experiment the incident light used is white. When one slit is covered with red filter and the other with a blue filter, the phase difference at any point on the screen will continuously change producing uniform illumination, Reason (R): Two independent sources of light would no longer act as coherent sources.

A)

                                both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

B)

                                both A and R ane true but R is not the correct explanation of A

C)

                A is true but R is false

D)

                A is false but R is true

View Answer
27) Two magnetic isolated north poles each of strength m A m, are placed one at each of the two vertices of an equilateral triangle of side \[\alpha \]. The resultant magnetic induction at the third vertex is:                 (\[{{\mu }_{0}}\]is permeability of free space)

A)

                \[\frac{{{\mu }_{0}}}{4\pi }\left( \frac{m}{{{a}^{2}}} \right)\]

B)

                \[\frac{{{\mu }_{0}}}{4\pi }\frac{\sqrt{2}m}{{{a}^{2}}}\]

C)

                \[\frac{{{\mu }_{0}}}{4\pi }\frac{\sqrt{3}\,m}{{{a}^{2}}}\]

D)

                \[\frac{{{\mu }_{0}}m}{2\pi {{a}^{2}}}\]

View Answer
28) A bar magnet used in a vibration magnetometer is heated so as to reduce its magnetic moment by 36%. The time period of the magnet (neglecting the changes in the dimensions of the magnet):

A)

                increases by 36%

B)

                decreases by 36%

C)

                increases by 25%

D)

                decreases by 25%

View Answer

29) A parallel plate capacitor filled with a material of dielectric constant k is charged to a certain voltage. The dielectric material is removed. Then:

(A) the capacitance decreases by a factor k

(B) the electric field reduces by a factor k

(D) the charge stored in the capacitor increases by a factor k

A and B are true

A and C are true

B and C are true

B and D are true

View Answer

30) Capacitance of a capacitor becomes \[\frac{7}{6}\] time its original value if a dielectric slab of thickness t=\[\frac{2}{3}\]d is introduced in between the plates d. is the separation between the plates. The dielectric constant of the dielectric slab is:

A)

                \[\frac{14}{11}\]

B)

                \[\frac{11}{14}\]

C)

                \[\frac{7}{11}\]

D)

                \[\frac{11}{7}\]

View Answer
31) An electrical meter of internal resistance 20\[\Omega \] gives a full scale deflection when one miliampere current flows through it. The maximum current, that can be measured by using three resistors of resistance 120 each, in milliampere is:

A)

                10

B)

                8

C)

                6

D)

                4

View Answer
32) The temperature coefficient of resistivity of a material is 0.0004/K. When the temperature of the material is increased by \[50{}^\circ C\], its resistivity increases by \[2\times {{10}^{-8}}\]ohm- metre. The initial resistivity of the material in ohm- metre is:

A)

                \[50\times {{10}^{-8}}\]

B)

                \[90\times {{10}^{-8}}\]

C)

                \[100\,\times \,{{10}^{-8}}\]

D)

                \[200\times {{10}^{-8}}\]

View Answer
33) Assertion (A): Dud dells then no galvanometer can be used to measure alternating current and direct currents.                 Reason (R): Heat produced in a resistance does not depend on direction of currents.

A)

                both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

B)

                both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A

C)

                A is true but R is false

D)

                A is false but R is true

View Answer
34) A circular coil of radius 2R is carrying current i. The ratio of magnetic fields at the centre of the coil and at a point at a distance 6R from the centre of the coil on the axis of the coil is:

A)

                10

B)

                \[10\sqrt{10}\]

C)

                20\[\sqrt{5}\]

D)

                20\[\sqrt{10}\]

View Answer
35) A magnetic flux of 500 \[\mu \] Wb passing through a 200 turns coil. is reversed in \[20\times {{10}^{-3}}\] seconds. The average emf induced in the coil in volts, is:

A)

                2.5

B)

                5.0

C)

                7.5

D)

                10.0

View Answer
36) K1 and K2 are the maximum kinetic energies of the photoelectrons emitted, when light of wavelengths\[{{\lambda }_{1}}\] and \[{{\lambda }_{2}}\] respectively are incident on a metallic surface. If \[{{\lambda }_{1}}=3{{\lambda }_{2}},\]then:

A)

                \[{{K}_{1}}>\frac{{{K}_{2}}}{3}\]

B)

                \[{{K}_{1}}<\frac{{{K}_{2}}}{3}\]

C)

                \[{{K}_{1}}=3{{K}_{2}}\]

D)

                \[{{K}_{2}}=3{{K}_{1}}\]

View Answer
37) Light rays of wavelengths \[6000\,\overset{\text{o}}{\mathop{\text{A}}}\,\] and photon intensity \[39.6\text{ }watt/{{m}^{2}}\]is incident on a metal surface. If only one percent of photons incident on the surface emit photoelectron, then the number of electrons emitted per second per unit area from the surface will be:                 (Planck constant \[=\text{ }6.64\text{ }x\text{ }{{10}^{-34}}J-s,\] Velocity of light\[=3\times {{10}^{8}}m/s\])

A)

                \[12\times {{10}^{18}}\]

B)

                \[10\times {{10}^{18}}\]

C)

                \[12\times {{10}^{17}}\]

D)

                \[12\times {{10}^{16}}\]

View Answer
38) Consider the following statements and and identify the correct answer given below:                 Statement: Positive values of packing fraction, implies a large value of binding energy.                 Statement: The difference between the mass of the nucleus and the mass number of the nucleus, is called packing fraction.

A)

                A and B are correct

B)

                A and Bare false

C)

                A is true B is false

D)

                A is false, B is true

View Answer
39) A zener diode when used as a voltage regulator is connected:

A. in forward bias

B. in reverse bias

C. in parallel to the load

D. in series with the load

A)

                A and B are correct

B)

                B and C are correct

C)

                only A is correct

D)

                only D is correct

View Answer

40) Matching pairs in the two lists given below are:

	List-I		List-II
A	Gravitons	E.	Hyperons
B	Baryons	F.	Positrons
C	Pions	G.	Particles with zero mass and with a spin of unity
D	Leptons	H.	Decay to \[\mu \]- mesons
		I.	Massless particles with a probable spin of two units.

A-E, B-H, C-G, D-I

A-I, B-E, C-H, D-F

A-H, B-F, C-I, D-E

A-F, B-G, C-E, D-H

View Answer

41) What are X and Y in the reaction\[{{C}_{2}}{{H}_{4}}+{{H}_{2}}S{{O}_{4}}\xrightarrow{80{{\,}^{o}}C}X({{H}_{2}}O./\Delta a)Y\]

A)

\[{{C}_{2}}{{H}_{6}},{{C}_{2}}{{H}_{5}}OH\]

B)

\[{{C}_{2}}{{H}_{2}},{{C}_{2}}{{H}_{5}}SH\]

C)

\[{{C}_{2}}{{H}_{5}}OS{{O}_{3}}H,{{C}_{2}}{{H}_{5}}OH\]

D)

\[{{C}_{2}}{{H}_{2}},C{{H}_{3}}CHO\]

View Answer
42) Xenon hexaflouride reacts with silica to form a xenon compound X. The oxidation state of xenon in X is:

A)

+ 2

B)

+ 4

C)

+ 6

D)

0

View Answer
43) Sulphur reacts with chlorine in 1:2 ratio and forms X. Hydrolysis of X gives a sulphur compound Y. What is the hybridisation state of central atom in the anion of F?

A)

\[s{{p}^{3}}\]

B)

sp

C)

\[s{{p}^{2}}\]

D)

\[s{{p}^{3}}d\]

View Answer
44) Gun metal is an alloy of:

A)

Cu and Fe

B)

Cu, Sn and Zn

C)

Ni, Fe and Cr

D)

Al and Mg                 Gun metal is the alloy of copper, zipc and tin. Their percentage are

View Answer
45) The values of four quantum numbers of valence electron of an element are \[n=4,l=0,m=0\]and \[s=+\frac{1}{2}.\] The element is:

A)

K

B)

Ti

C)

Na

D)

Sc

View Answer
46) An element has 2 electrons in its K-shell, 8 electrons in L-shell, 13 electrons in M-shell and one electron in N-shell. The element is:

A)

Cr

B)

Fe

C)

V

D)

Ti

View Answer
47) 100 mL of 0.015 M HCl solution is mixed "with 100 mL of 0.005 M HCl. What is the pH of the resultant solution?

A)

2.5

B)

1.5

C)

2

D)

1

View Answer
48) What is the formula of calgon?

A)

\[{{(NaP{{O}_{3}})}_{6}}\]

B)

\[M{{g}_{3}}{{(P{{O}_{4}})}_{2}}\]

C)

\[N{{a}_{3}}P{{O}_{4}}\]

D)

\[MgS{{O}_{4}}\]

View Answer
49) The formula of exhausted permutait is:

A)

\[CaAlS{{i}_{2}}{{O}_{8}}.x{{H}_{2}}O\]

B)

\[N{{a}_{2}}A{{l}_{2}}S{{i}_{2}}{{O}_{8}}.x{{H}_{2}}O\]

C)

\[CaB{{}_{2}}S{{i}_{2}}{{O}_{8}}.x{{H}_{2}}O\]

D)

\[{{K}_{2}}A{{l}_{2}}S{{i}_{2}}{{O}_{8}}.x{{H}_{2}}O\]

View Answer
50) The density of an ideal gas is \[0.03\,\text{gc}{{\text{m}}^{-3}}\] Its pressure is \[{{10}^{8}}\,\text{g}\,\text{c}{{\text{m}}^{-1}}\,{{\sec }^{-2}}.\] What is its r. m. s velocity (in cm \[{{\sec }^{-1}}\])?

A)

\[{{10}^{2}}\]

B)

\[3\times {{10}^{4}}\]

C)

\[{{10}^{2}}\]

D)

\[{{10}^{4}}\]

View Answer
51) Which one of the following is an exothermic reaction?

A)

\[{{N}_{2}}(g)+{{O}_{2}}(g)+180.8\,kJ\to 2NO(g)\]

B)

\[{{N}_{2}}(g)+3{{H}_{2}}(g)-92\,kJ\to 2N{{H}_{3}}(g)\]

C)

\[C(g)+{{H}_{2}}O(g)\to CO(g)+{{H}_{2}}(g)\]\[-131.1\,kJ\]

D)

\[C(graphite)+2S(s)\to C{{S}_{2}}(l)-91.9\,kJ\]

View Answer
52) The number of oxygen atoms bonded to each phosphorus atom in \[{{\text{P}}_{\text{4}}}{{\text{O}}_{\text{10}}}\]is:

A)

3

B)

4

C)

5

D)

2

View Answer
53) Aqueous 10% \[\text{NaC}{{\text{O}}_{\text{3}}}\] solution is used as a reagent for identifying X. Which of the following compounds yield X on hydroysis?

A)

\[C{{H}_{3}}C{{O}_{2}}{{C}_{2}}{{H}_{5}}\]

B)

\[{{C}_{2}}{{H}_{2}}-{{O}_{2}}-{{C}_{2}}{{H}_{5}}\]

C)

\[C{{H}_{3}}CHO\]

D)

\[C{{H}_{3}}C{{H}_{2}}OH\]

View Answer
54) If the boiling point of ethanol (molecular weight = 46) is \[\text{78}{{\,}^{\text{o}}}\text{C,}\] what is the boiling point of diethyl ether ? (molecular weight =74)

A)

\[100{{\,}^{o}}C\]

B)

\[78{{\,}^{o}}C\]

C)

\[86{{\,}^{o}}C\]

D)

\[34{{\,}^{o}}C\]

View Answer
55) Aniline reacts with ...... to yield ...... as the final product:

A)

bromine, 2-bromo aniline

B)

bromine, 2,4,6 tribromoaniline

C)

chloroform \[\text{ }\!\!|\!\!\text{ }\,\text{KOH,}\] phenyl cyanide

D)

acetyl chloride, benzanilide

View Answer
56) The reagent used for converting benzene to ethyl benzene is:

A)

\[{{\text{C}}_{2}}{{H}_{5}}Cl,\] anhydrous \[AlC{{l}_{3}}\]

B)

\[{{C}_{2}}{{H}_{5}}Cl,\] aqueous \[AlC{{l}_{3}}\]

C)

\[{{C}_{2}}{{H}_{5}}OH,\] anhydrous \[AlC{{l}_{3}}\]

D)

\[{{C}_{2}}{{H}_{5}}Cl,SOC{{l}_{2}}\]

View Answer
57) The product formed in the aldol condensation of acetaldehyde:

A)

\[C{{H}_{3}}C{{H}_{2}}CH(OH)CHO\]

B)

\[C{{H}_{3}}CH(OH)C{{H}_{2}}CHO\]

C)

\[C{{H}_{3}}CH(OH)COC{{H}_{2}}\]

D)

\[C{{H}_{3}}C{{H}_{2}}C{{H}_{2}}CHO\]

View Answer
58) Which one of the following is a lyophilic colloidal solution?

A)

Smoke

B)

Gold sol

C)

Starch aqueous solution

D)

Cloud

View Answer
59) What are X and Y respectively in the following reaction? \[{{B}_{2}}{{H}_{6}}+2KOH+2X+2Y+6{{H}_{2}}\]

A)

\[{{K}_{2}}O,{{H}_{2}}O\]

B)

\[{{H}_{2}},{{H}_{2}}B{{O}_{3}}\]

C)

\[{{H}_{2}}O,KB{{O}_{2}}\]

D)

\[{{B}_{2}}{{O}_{3}},{{H}_{3}}B{{O}_{3}}\]

View Answer
60) Silica \[(Si{{O}_{2}})\] reacts with Mg to form a magnesium compound X. X reacts with dilute HC and forms Y. Y is:

A)

\[\text{MgO}\]

B)

\[MgC{{l}_{2}}\]

C)

\[MgSiO\]

D)

\[SiC{{l}_{4}}\]

View Answer
61) One of the elements present in carnalite shows flame colouration. The colour of the flame is:

A)

orange

B)

green

C)

yellow

D)

lilac

View Answer
62) The electrolyte used in Castners process of sodium extraction is:

A)

aqueous \[N{{a}_{2}}C{{O}_{3}}\]

B)

aqueous \[NaOH\]

C)

\[NaCl+CaC{{l}_{2}}\]

D)

fused anhydrous \[NaOH\]

View Answer
63) Ammoniacal silver nitrate solution is called:

A)

Fehling solution

B)

Tollens reagent

C)

Benedict solution

D)

Schiffs reagent

View Answer
64) Which one of the following compounds decolourises   cold   alkaline   potassium permanganate solution?

A)

\[{{C}_{2}}{{H}_{6}}\]

B)

\[{{C}_{2}}{{H}_{5}}Cl\]

C)

\[{{C}_{2}}{{H}_{4}}\]

D)

\[{{C}_{2}}{{H}_{5}}OC{{H}_{3}}\]

View Answer
65) Wet ether is not used as a solvent in Wurtz reaction, because the water present in it:

A)

hydrolyses RX to ROH

B)

educes RX to RH

C)

destroy the Na metal

D)

reacts with \[R-R\]

View Answer
66) \[_{19}{{K}^{39}}\]and \[\,{{ }_{20}}C{{a}^{40}}\]are \[\xrightarrow{{}}{{\,}_{19}}{{K}^{39}}\,{{\,}_{20}}C{{a}^{40}}\]

A)

isotopes

B)

isobars

C)

isotones

D)

isodiaphers

View Answer
67) The first ionisation potentials of four consecutive elements, present in the second period of the periodic table, are 8.3, 11.3, 14.5 and 13.6 eV respectively. Which one of the following is the first ionisation potential (in eV) of nitrogen?

A)

13.6

B)

11.2

C)

8.3

D)

14.5

View Answer
68) In which of the following reactions, the concentration of reactant is equal to concentration of product at equilibrium: (K = equilibrium constant)

A)

\[AB;K=0.01\]

B)

\[RP;K=1\]

C)

\[XY;K=10\]

D)

\[LJ;K=0.025\]

View Answer
69) \[\text{10 g}\] of \[\text{CaC}{{\text{O}}_{\text{3}}}\] is completely decomposed to X and \[\text{CaO}\text{.}\,\text{X}\] is passed into an aqueous solution containing one mole of sodium carbonate. What is the number of moles of sodium bicarbonate formed?

A)

0.2

B)

0.1

C)

0.01

D)

10

View Answer
70) 250 mL of a solution contains 6.3g of oxalic acid (mol. wt. =126). What is the volume (in litres) of water to be added to this solution to make it a 0.1 solution?

A)

750

B)

7.5

C)

0.075

D)

0.75

View Answer
71) The standard reduction potentials of Ag, Cu, Co and Zn are 0.799, 0.337, -0.277 and -0.762 V respectively. Which of the following cells will have maximum e. m. f?

A)

\[\text{Zn }\!\!|\!\!\text{ Z}{{\text{n}}^{2+}}\text{(1M) }\!\!|\!\!\text{ }\,\,\text{ }\!\!|\!\!\text{ C}{{\text{u}}^{2+}}(1M)|Cu\]

B)

\[\text{Zn }\!\!|\!\!\text{ Z}{{\text{n}}^{2+}}\text{(1M) }\!\!|\!\!\text{ }\,\,\text{ }\!\!|\!\!\text{ A}{{\text{g}}^{+}}(1M)|Ag\]

C)

\[\text{Cu }\!\!|\!\!\text{ C}{{\text{u}}^{2+}}\text{(1M) }\!\!|\!\!\text{ }\,\,\text{ }\!\!|\!\!\text{ A}{{\text{g}}^{+}}(1M)|Ag\]

D)

\[Zn|Z{{n}^{2+}}(1M)|\,\,|C{{o}^{2+}}(1M)|Co\]

View Answer
72) Which of the following relation is correct for a first order reaction? (k = rate constant, r = rate of reaction, c = cone. of reactant)

A)

\[k=r\times {{c}^{2}}\]

B)

\[k=r\times c\]

C)

\[k=\frac{c}{r}\]

D)

\[k=\frac{r}{c}\]

View Answer
73) Which of the following is not correct?

A)

\[2{{F}_{2}}+4NaOH\to 4NaF+2{{H}_{2}}O\]

B)

\[3{{F}_{2}}+NaOH\to 5NaF+NaF{{O}_{3}}\]

C)

\[{{F}_{2}}+2NaOH\to NaF+NaOF+{{H}_{2}}O\]

D)

\[2{{F}_{2}}+2NaOH\to 2NaF+O{{F}_{2}}+{{H}_{2}}O\]

View Answer
74) Which of the following is not correct?

A)

One of the favourable condition for the formation of cation is low ionization potential

B)

Co-ordination number of Cs in \[\text{CsCl}\]is 8

C)

Ionic bond is directional

D)

Ionic compounds have high melting and boiling points

View Answer
75) Which of the following order is correct for the size of \[\text{F}{{\text{e}}^{\text{3+}}}\text{,Fe}\]and \[\text{F}{{\text{e}}^{\text{2+}}}\]?

A)

\[\text{Fe}\,\text{}\,\text{F}{{\text{e}}^{2+}}<F{{e}^{3+}}\]

B)

\[F{{e}^{2+}}<F{{e}^{3+}}<Fe\]

C)

\[Fe<F{{e}^{3+}}<F{{e}^{2+}}\]

D)

\[F{{e}^{3+}}<F{{e}^{2+}}<Fe\]

View Answer
76) Match the following lists :

List -I List -II

A. \[R-CHO\] 1. Aldehyde

B. \[R-CO-R\] 2. Nitrile

C. \[R-C{{O}_{2}}H\] 3. Ketone

D. \[R-CN\] 4. Ester

5. Carboxylic acid

The correct answer is:

A)

A-1         B-3         C-5         D-2

B)

A-3         B-1         C-5         D-2

C)

A-1         B-2         C-3         D-4

D)

A-4         B-1         C-5         D-3

View Answer
77) Identify the correct sequence of increasing number of a bonds in the structures of the following molecules: I. \[{{H}_{2}}{{S}_{2}}{{O}_{6}}\]                               II. \[{{H}_{2}}S{{O}_{3}}\] III. \[{{H}_{2}}{{S}_{2}}{{O}_{5}}\]

A)

I, II, III

B)

II, III, I

C)

II, I, III

D)

I, III, II

View Answer

78) Study the following table

Compound (molecular wt.)	Weight of compound I (in g) taken
(i) \[C{{O}_{2}}(44)\]	4.4
(ii) \[N{{O}_{2}}(46)\]	2.3
(iii) \[{{H}_{2}}{{O}_{2}}(34)\]	6.8
(iv) \[S{{O}_{2}}(64)\]	1.6

Which two compounds have least weight of oxygen? (molecular weights of compounds are given in brackets)

II and IV

I and III

I and II

III and IV

View Answer

79) Assertion (A): 8 g of methane occupies 11.207 L of volume at 273 K and 1 atm. pressure. Reason (R): One mole of any gas at STP occupies 22.414 litres of volume: The correct answer is

A)

both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

B)

both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A

C)

A is true but R is false

D)

A is false but R is true

View Answer
80) What is the mass number of an atom with nucleus of radius 5.6 fermi?

A)

27

B)

64

C)

125

D)

216

View Answer
81) Infective stage to man of the parasite that causes haemaiuria is:

A)

miracidium

B)

redia

C)

microfilaria

D)

cercaria

View Answer
82) The movement seen in the trichoid joint is:

A)

decrease in angle

B)

restricted in different planes

C)

free in more than one plane

D)

rotatory around a central axis

View Answer
83) The discovery of one of the following is instrumental in the advancement of recombiant DNA technology:

A)

genetic code

B)

t- RNA

C)

endonucleases

D)

antibiotics

View Answer
84) The disease in poultry which reduces immunity    and    spreads    through contaminated food is:

A)

Ranikhet disease

B)

Aflotoxicosis

C)

Thrush

D)

Mareks

View Answer
85) The blubber is formed by:

A)

elastic tissue

B)

reticular tissue

C)

adipose tissue

D)

fibrous tissue

View Answer
86) The intermediate host of the parasite that causes Tashkent ulcers is:

A)

Glossina palpalis

B)

Phlebotomus argentipes

C)

Phlebolomus papatassi

D)

Triatoma infestuna

View Answer
87) In Pheretima, spermathecae are located in:

A)

dorso - lateral sides of 6, 7, 8 and 9th segments

B)

ventro - lateral sides of 6, 7, 8 and 9th segments

C)

ventral surface of 5/6, 6/7, 7/8 and 8/9 segmental grooves

D)

dorsal surface of 5/6, 6/7, 7/8 and 8/9 segmental grooves

View Answer
88) The genotype of blood group A can be:

A)

\[{{\text{I}}^{\text{A}}}{{\text{I}}^{\text{B}}}\,\text{or}\,{{\text{I}}^{\text{B}}}{{\text{I}}^{\text{O}}}\]

B)

\[{{\text{I}}^{\text{A}}}{{\text{I}}^{\text{A}}}\,\text{or}\,{{\text{I}}^{\text{A}}}{{\text{I}}^{\text{O}}}\]

C)

\[{{\text{I}}^{\text{A}}}{{\text{I}}^{\text{B}}}\]

D)

\[{{\text{I}}^{\text{O}}}{{\text{I}}^{\text{O}}}\]

View Answer
89) The lateral sclerite in cockroach is called as:

A)

palpiger

B)

arthrodial membrane

C)

pleuron

D)

pellicle

View Answer
90) The leg of cockroach has the following parts:

1. Coxa

2. Femur

3. Tarsus

4. Tibia

5. Trochanter

Identify them form proximal to distal end:

A)

1\[\to \] 2\[\to \] 5\[\to \] 4\[\to \] 3

B)

1\[\to \] 5\[\to \] 2\[\to \] 4\[\to \] 3

C)

1\[\to \] 5\[\to \] 2\[\to \] 3\[\to \] 4

D)

1\[\to \] 3\[\to \] 4\[\to \] 2\[\to \] 5

View Answer
91) In cockroach abdominal ganglion is absent in this segment:

A)

1st

B)

5th

C)

6th

D)

7th

View Answer
92) The site of formation of peritrophic membrane in cockroach is:

A)

crop

B)

gizzard

C)

mesenteron

D)

proctodaeum

View Answer
93) The flagellum without mastigonemes is found in:

A)

Astacia

B)

Monas

C)

Polytoma

D)

Urcelus

View Answer
94) In which group of animals blastocoel is persistent as body cavity in adult?

A)

Arthropoda

B)

Nemathelminthes

C)

Mollusca

D)

Annelida

View Answer
95) Statement: Sub species has a geographical area and geographically isolated form other subspecies. Reason: When members of a species are geographically isolated they give rise to a subspecies.

A)

both statement and reason are correct and the reason is the correct explanation to the statement

B)

reason is the correct explanation to the statement but the statement is not correct

C)

both statement and reason are not correct

D)

only statement is correct and reason is wrong

View Answer
96) Solar radiation of wave length less than 360 millimicrons is:

A)

ultraviolet radiation

B)

infrared radiation

C)

radio waves

D)

visible light

View Answer
97) The percent concentration of carbon dioxide in the alveolar air is:

A)

0.04

B)

4.10

C)

5.5

D)

0.055

View Answer
98) The coelom which arises from the primitive gut is seen in:

A)

Echinoderis

B)

Gorgonia

C)

Gorgonocephalus

D)

Nyctotherus

View Answer
99) A haemolytic proteinaceous secretion from cold blooded amniote is:

A)

Lampheridine

B)

Viperine

C)

Cobradine

D)

Hirildin

View Answer
100) The Salientia Member with digits of fore and hind limbs webbed is:

A)

Rana

B)

Rhacophorus

C)

Proteus

D)

Hyla

View Answer

101) Identify the correct match between List-I and List-II:

	List- I (Insect parts)		List- II (Peculiarity of mouth)
A	Laccifer	1	Elongated gales Well developed
B	Musca	2	mandibles
C	Beetle	3	Saw- like maxillae
D	Moth	4	Pseudotrachae
			Vestigeal mandibles

The correct match is:

A-5 B-4 C-2 D-1

A-3 B-4 C-5 D-1

A-1 B-2 C-3 D-4

A-3 B-4 C-2 D-1

View Answer

102) The bird without pecten is:

A)

Pier opus

B)

Apteryx

C)

Eryx

D)

Callus

View Answer
103) Lymph glands in Pheretima are present in segment (s):

A)

1- 10

B)

15- 26

C)

27th to last segment

D)

13

View Answer
104) The opening of the common bile duct is guarded by this sphincter:

A)

pyloric

B)

ileo- caecal

C)

oddi

D)

muscularismucosa

View Answer
105) The second step in the coagulation of blood is catalyzed by:

A)

thrombin

B)

factor XIII

C)

factor XII

D)

heparin

View Answer
106) The correct sequence of male reproductive structures of rabbit through which sperms pass out is: 1. Rate testes                                    2. Vasa efferentia 3. Epididvmis                      4. Vasa deferentia

A)

1,2,3,4

B)

2,3,4,1

C)

  2,3,1,4

D)

1,3,2,4

View Answer
107) The number of valves that guard the opening at the origin of carotico systemic aorta is:

A)

2

B)

3

C)

4

D)

1

View Answer
108) The cranial nerve in rabbit that is connected to the superior oblique muscle of the eye is:

A)

II

B)

IV

C)

V

D)

VIII

View Answer
109) For muscle contraction, in myofibrils the formation of a protein is essential, such protein was discovered by:

A)

Jean Hanson

B)

Cori and Cori

C)

Albert Szent

D)

Hugh Huxley Gyorgyli

View Answer
110) The following are the statements about Parazoa:

1. Includes red algae, fungi and sponges

2. Multicellular animals

3. Tissues and organ systems are absent

The correct combination is:

A)

1 and 3 only are correct

B)

1 and 2 only are correct

C)

All are correct

D)

2 and 3 only are correct

View Answer
111) In Pheretima, the anterior loops carry blood from:

A)

commissural blood vessels

B)

ventral blood vessel

C)

supra oesophageal

D)

lateral oesophageals

View Answer
112) w- RNA codon which stands for serine is:

A)

AGC

B)

AAA

C)

UGC

D)

UUU

View Answer
113) In a population of 650 rabbits which are in Hardy Weinberg equilibrium and 39 of them express a recessive allele (s) for short ears, estimate the number of homozygous (ss) rabbits.

A)

234

B)

377

C)

432

D)

218

View Answer
114) Hypertrichosis is an example of this inheritance:

A)

holandric

B)

incomplete sex linked

C)

sex influenced

D)

sex limited

View Answer
115) The force responsible for fixing in population of neutral characteristics is:

A)

genetic drift

B)

mutation

C)

reproduction

D)

genetic recombination

View Answer
116) A lineage gives rises to two or more lineages due to branching in:

A)

phyletic change

B)

anagenesis

C)

cladogenesis

D)

paedogonesia

View Answer
117) The incubation period for Hepatitis B virus is:

A)

15-20 days

B)

30-180 days

C)

42-56 days

D)

one week

View Answer
118) Nephridia in Pheretima are formed from:

A)

mesenchyme

B)

endoderm

C)

mesoderm

D)

ectoderm

View Answer
119) Bilateral symmetry is found in:

A)

Cluthrina

B)

Leucosolenia

C)

Ophiopleuteus

D)

Charybdaea

View Answer
120) The Environmental Protection Act of Government of India was brought out in the year:

A)

1974

B)

1977

C)

1981

D)

1986

View Answer

121) Study the following table:

List-I	List-II
A. M.O.P. lyengar	1. Will iamsomasewardiana
B. M.S. Svvaminathan	2. Fertilization of plant in test tubes
C. Birbal Sahni	3. Dwarf varieties of wheat
D. Maheshwari	4. Rust research
	5. Fritschiella

The correct match is:

A-5 B-4 C-3 D-2

A-4 B-2 C-1 D-3

A-5 B-3 C-1 D-2

A-2 B-3 C-4 D-1

View Answer

122) A plant which lives on rocks under water with phtosynthetic roots is:

A)

Tinospora

B)

Podostemom

C)

Taeniophyllum

D)

Yunda

View Answer
123) Study the following statements:

(i) Food is stored in the leaf bases

(ii) Buds develop from leaf apices

(iii) Presence of tunicated bulb Identify the correct combination with reference to Scilla.

A)

i, ii and iii are correct

B)

only i and ii are correct

C)

only i and iii are correct

D)

only ii and iii are correct

View Answer
124) Which one of the following statements is correcto with reference to Amentum?

A)

The peduncle is fleshy and bears unisexual flowers and the flowers open in basipetal manner

B)

The peduncle is condensed and bears bisexual flowers and the flowers open in a centripetal manner

C)

The peduncle is weak. drooping and bear unisexual flowers and the flowers open in an acropetal manner

D)

The peduncle grows indefinitely and bears bisexual flowers and flowers open in basipetal manner

View Answer
125) What is the fruit that develops from a tricarpeliary, syncarpous, inferior ovary with parietal placentation?

A)

Pepo

B)

Pome

C)

Cypsela

D)

Capsule

View Answer
126) Which of the following mechanisms is associated with the release of pollen grains in Pilea and Urticu?

A)

Safety mechanism

B)

Piston mechanism

C)

Gun powder mechanism

D)

Censer mechanism

View Answer

127) Study the following table:

List-I (Structure before seed formation)	List-II (Structure after seed formation)
A. Funiculus	1. Hilum
B. Seer of ovule	2. Tegmen
C. Zygote	3. Testa
D. Inner integument.	4. Stalk of seed
	5. Embryo

Identify the correct match:

A-4 B-1 C-5 D-2

A-3 B-4 C-1 D-5

A-5 B-1 C-2 D-4

A-4 B-5 C-3 D-2

View Answer

128) The plants which grow in extreme dry conditions generally show the following adaptation?

A)

Sunken stomata

B)

Thin cuticle

C)

Aerenchyma

D)

Poorly developed xylem

View Answer
129) Each carpel of Gloriosa encloses 60 ovules, out of which 27% became abortive and another 13% could not be fertilized due to various reasons. How many seeds occur in the capsule if all the remaining ovules are fertilized in the lone flower of the plant?

A)

36

B)

76

C)

108

D)

180

View Answer
130) Plerocarpus and Pterolobium belong to two different families. In which character they resemble one another?

A)

Type of fruit

B)

Aestivation of Corolla

C)

Cohesion of stamens

D)

Habit of the plant

View Answer
131) Arrange the following genera in the increasing order of number of carpels in each flower:

1. Abittilon

2. Bauhinia

3. Allium

4. Nicotiana

The correct answer is:

A)

A-2         B-4         C-3         D-1

B)

                A-2         B-3         C-4         D-1

C)

              A-4         B-2         C-3         D-1

D)

              A-1         B-3         C-4         D-2

View Answer
132) These cells provide flexibility and elasticity besides helping the tender plant parts in facing stress and strain:

A)

Bast cells

B)

Collocytes

C)

Transfer cells

D)

Stone cells

View Answer
133) Arrange the following oligosaccharides in the decreasing order based on the number of sugar units they possess?

1. Raffmose

2. Stachyose

3. Verbascose

4. Maltose

The correct sequence is:

A)

3              1              2              4

B)

2              3              4              1

C)

3              2              1              4

D)

1              2              4              3

View Answer
134) Which of the following statements about phelloderm are true?

(i) It is a living tissue.

(ii) It is concerned with the conduction of water and salts.

(iii) It is a photosynthetic tissue.

The correct combination is:

A)

i, ii and iii are correct

B)

only i and ii are correct

C)

only ii and iii are correct

D)

only i and iii are correct

View Answer
135) Study the following table:

List-I List-II

A. Water drops 1. Laticifers

B. Alkaloids 2. Schizogenous cavities

C. Oils 3. Epithem

D. Resins 4. Osmophors

5. Lysigenous cavities

The correct match is:

A)

A-3         B-1         C-5         D-2

B)

A-4         B-2         C-1         D-3

C)

A-1         B-4         C-2         D-5

D)

A-2         B-4         C-3         D-1

View Answer
136) Which of the following characters are related to Spirogyra jogensis?

1.Dioecious conjugation

2.Attached species

3.Morphological anisogamy

The correct combination is :

A)

1, 2 and 3 are correct

B)

only 1 and 2 are correct

C)

only 1 and 3 are correct

D)

only 2 and 3 are correct

View Answer
137) In Rhizopus, dome shaped sterile portions are found on erect structures that arise from stolens. These structures are referred to as:

A)

gametangia

B)

progametangia

C)

zygosporangia

D)

sporangiophores

View Answer
138) What is the ratio of and rocyte mother cells to and rocytes and an the rozoids formed in Funaria?

A)

1:1:1

B)

1:2:2

C)

1 :2 :4

D)

1 :4 : 8

View Answer
139) Haploid brown, hair like, delicate unicellular outgrowths are:

A)

root hairs of gymnosperms

B)

paraphyses of mosses

C)

root nodules of pulses

D)

rhizoids of fern plants

View Answer
140) What is the ratio of equational divisions that take place in Cycas and angiosperm respectively leading to the formation of male gametes from pollen grains?

A)

3:2

B)

3:1

C)

2:1

D)

2:3

View Answer
141) Assertion (A) : Fertilization in Cycas is called zooidogamy. Reason (R) : Fertilization in Cycas takes place by the formation of pollen tube. The correct answer is :

A)

Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of

B)

Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of

C)

(A) is true but (R) is false

D)

(A) is false but (R) is true

View Answer
142) An organism exclusively with 70 S type of ribosomes contains one of the following:

A)

DNA enclosed within a nuclear membrane

B)

Circular naked DNA

C)

Double stranded DNA with Protein coat

D)

Single stranded DNA with protein coat

View Answer

143) Study the following table:

List-I	List-II
A. Devoid of flagella	1. Single spherical bacterium
B. Rod shaped	2. Pneumonia causing bacteria
C. Bacteria in pairs	3. Anthrax causing bacteria
D. Comma shaped	4. Cholera causing bacteria
	5. Pleiomorphic bacteria

The correct match is :

A-1 B-2 C-3 D-5

A-5 B-4 C-2 D-1

A-1 B-3 C-2 D-4

A-5 B-1 C-2 D-4

View Answer

144) Assertion (A): Viruses cause diseases and replicate when they are in the host. Reason (R) : Viruses do not replicate outside the host but they remain alive. The correct answer is:

A)

Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of

B)

Both (A) and (R) ane true but (R) is not the correct explanation of

C)

(A) is true but (R) is false

D)

(A) is false but (R) is true

View Answer
145) Which of the following statements is correct with respect to Collectotrichum falcatum?

A)

The conidia and condiophores are aseptate mycelium and setae are septate

B)

The conidia. condiophores, mycelium and setae are septate

C)

The conidia are aseptate conidiophores, mycelium and setae are septate

D)

The mycelium is septate conidia, conidiophores and setae are aseptate

View Answer
146) The aleurone layer of rice grain is rich in:

A)

vitamin A

B)

vitamin B

C)

vitamin C

D)

vitamin E

View Answer
147) A few steps involved in polypeptide synthesis are given below. In which of them, the /-RNA participates?

1. Activation ofamino acids.

2. Elongation of polypeptide chain

3. Translocation

4. Transcription

Identify the correct combination:

A)

only 1, 3 and 4

B)

only 2, 3 and 4

C)

only 1, 2 and 4

D)

only 1, 2 and 3

View Answer
148) Which method of plant breeding resulted in the production of Hessian fly resistant wheat variety?

A)

Intrageneric hybridization

B)

Back cross

C)

Bulk method

D)

Intraspecific hybridization

View Answer

149) Study the following table :

List-I	List-II
A. Development of haploid plants	1.Embryo culture
B. Induction of polyembryony	2.Anther culture
C. Production of parthenocarpic fruits	3.Ovary culture
D. Method of breaking prolonged domancy of seeds	4.Ovule culture
	5.Endosperm culture

The correct match is:

A-2 B-4 C-3 D-1

A-2 B-3 C-4 D-1

A-4 B-1 C-3 D-2

A-1 B-4 C-3 D-2

View Answer

150) Study the following table : Component character used in

1. Plasmid?Small circular DNA?Gene cloning

2. Cosmid?Restriction enzyme Identification of genes

3. Vector?Restriction enzyme?Isolation of genes Gene transfer?Vector?Gene carrier Two components in above table show correct combination of their character and use.

Identify the correct pair.

1 and 4

2 and 4

1 and 3

2 and 3

View Answer

151) Which of the following statements is correct with respect to Agaricus biaporus?

A)

It contains toxins hence not suitable for consumption

B)

It does not contain essential amino acids

C)

It is a good source of B- Vitamins

D)

Its cultivation on agro wastes is impossible

View Answer

152) Study the following table to match the enzymes of List-I with the reactions given in List-II:

List-I	List-II
A. Oxidoreductases	1.Glutamic acid \[\to \]Glutamine
B. Isomerases	2.Arginosuccinicaci\[\to \]Arginine
C. Lyases	3.Glycolic acid\[\to \]Glyoxylix acid
D. Hydrolases	4.Ribose 5 Phosphate \[\to \]Ribulose 5 Phosphate
	5.Fructose 1, 6 bisphosphate \[\to \]Fructose 6 phosphate

The correct match is:

A-4 B-3 C-2 D-5

A-3 B-4 C-2 D-5

A-4 B-3 C-1 D-5

A-1 B-4 C-2 D-3

View Answer

153) Assertion (A): Lettuce seeds are positive photoblastic. Reason (R): Gibbereli in application effectively works as a substitute in darkness for germination. The correct answer is:

A)

Both A and R are true and is the correct explanation of A

B)

Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A

C)

A is true but R is false

D)

A is false but R is true

View Answer
154) Which of the following reactions of Calvin cycle are directly dependant on the availability of one or both the components of assimilatory power?

1. Formation ofglycerldehyde-3-phosphate

2. Formation offructose-6-phosphate

3. Regeneration of RuBP reaction

Identify the correct combination:

A)

only 1 and 2 are correct

B)

only 1 and 3 are correct

C)

only 2 and 3 are correct

D)

1, 2 and 3 are correct

View Answer

155) Study the following table:

1. Phosphoenol pyruvate \[\to \] Oxaloacetic acid

2. Malic acid \[\to \]Pyruvic acid

3. Ribulose bisphosphate \[\to \] Phosphoglyceric acid

4. Oxaloacetic acid \[\to \] Malic acid In which of the above reactions, the end products are formed as a result of carboxylation reaction.

Identify the correct combination.

1 and 4 only

1 and 3 only

2 and 3 only

2 and 4 only

View Answer

156) The phytohormone which increases the concentration of potassium in guard cells is also responsible for the induction of :

A)

Apical dominance

B)

Triple response growth

C)

Cell division

D)

Abscission

View Answer
157) The phytohormone that induces cell elongation is known to be produced by a fungus. The asexual stage of this fungus is called:

A)

Rhizopus sexualis

B)

Fiisarium monoiliformae

C)

Gibberellafujikuroi

D)

Fusarium oxysporum

View Answer
158) Which one of the following expressions is associated with a "mangrove plant"?

A)

Capable of absorbing water rapidly and retaining it

B)

Capable of minimizing water loss and facilitating aeration to underground parts

C)

Capable of reducing transpiration and able to store absorbed water

D)

Presence of well-organized leaves that are adapted to absorb nitrogenous matter

View Answer
159) Assertion (A): Epidermis in the dicot root is composed of cutinized cells. Reason (R): The exodermis in the root offers protection to the inner parts in the absence of epidermis. The correct answer is:

A)

Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

B)

Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A

C)

A is true but (R) is false

D)

A is false but (R) is true

View Answer
160) According to Bentham and Hooker which pair of the following angiospermous taxa were not divided into cohorts.

A)

Monochalmydeae and Monocotyledonae

B)

Inferae and Heteromerae

C)

Bicarpellatae and Disciflorae

D)

Thalamiflorae and Calyciflorae

View Answer

Study Package

Buy Now

List -I	List -II
A. \[R-CHO\]	1. Aldehyde
B. \[R-CO-R\]	2. Nitrile
C. \[R-C{{O}_{2}}H\]	3. Ketone
D. \[R-CN\]	4. Ester
	5. Carboxylic acid

List-I	List-II
A. Water drops	1. Laticifers
B. Alkaloids	2. Schizogenous cavities
C. Oils	3. Epithem
D. Resins	4. Osmophors
	5. Lysigenous cavities

Solved papers for EAMCET Medical EAMCET Medical Solved Paper-2004

done EAMCET Medical Solved Paper-2004 Total Questions - 160

Study Package

EAMCET Medical Solved Paper-2004 Total Questions - 160