Solved papers for J & K CET Medical J & K - CET Medical Solved Paper-2005

J & K - CET Medical Solved Paper-2005 Total Questions - 225

1) A boat carrying a number of large stones is floating in a water tank. What would happen to the water level, if a few stones are unloaded

A)

into water?

B)

Rises

C)

Falls

D)

Remains unchanged

View Answer
2) Rises rill half the number of stones are unloaded and then begins to fall A container who square base of side a is filled up to a height H with a liquid. A hole is made at a depth h from the free surface of water. With what acceleration the container must be accelerated, so that the water does not come out?

A)

g

B)

\[\frac{g}{2}\]

C)

\[\frac{2gH}{2}\]

D)

\[\frac{2gh}{a}\]

View Answer
3) If two soap bubbles of equal radii r coalesce, then the radius of curvature of interface between two bubbles will be :

A)

r

B)

zero

C)

infinity

D)

\[\frac{1}{2r}\]

View Answer
4) What is the mass of 2 L of nitrogen at 22.4 atm pressure and 273 K ?

A)

28 g

B)

\[14\times 22.4\text{ }g\]

C)

56 g

D)

None of these

View Answer
5) 2 g of water condenses when passed through 40 g of water initially at \[25{}^\circ C\]. The condensation of steam raises the temperature ot water to \[54.3{}^\circ C\]. What is the latent heat of steam?

A)

540 cal/g

B)

536 cal/g

C)

270 cal/g

D)

480 cal/g

View Answer
6) Petrol engine does the work during :

A)

suction stroke

B)

exhaust stroke

C)

adiabatic expansion

D)

combustion

View Answer
7) The spectral energy distribution of a star is maximum at twice temperature as that of sun. The total energy radiated by star is :

A)

twice as that of the sun

B)

same as that of the sun

C)

sixteen times as that of the sun

D)

one-sixteenth of sun

View Answer
8) Two simple pendulums of lengths 1.44 m and m start swinging together. After how many vibrations will they again start swinging together?

A)

5 oscillations of smaller pendulum

B)

6 oscillations of smaller pendulum

C)

4 oscillations of bigger pendulum

D)

6 oscillations of bigger pendulum

View Answer
9) A wave has velocity u in medium P and velocity 2u in medium Q. If the wave is incident in medium P at an angle \[30{}^\circ \], then the angle of refraction will be :

A)

\[30{}^\circ \]

B)

\[45{}^\circ \]

C)

\[60{}^\circ \]

D)

\[90{}^\circ \]

View Answer
10) In 1 m long open pipe what is the harmonic of resonance obtained with a tuning fork of frequency 480 Hz?

A)

First

B)

Second

C)

Third

D)

Fourth

View Answer
11) Three sources of equal intensities with frequencies 400,401 and 402 vib/s are sounded together. The number of beat/s is :

A)

zero

B)

1

C)

2

D)

4

View Answer
12) Two pendulums begin to swing simultaneously. If the ratio of the frequency of oscillations of the two is 7 : 8, then the ratio of lengths of the two pendulums will be :

A)

7 : 8

B)

8 : 7

C)

49 : 64

D)

64 : 49

View Answer
13) In a resonance pipe the first and second resonances are obtained at depths 22.7 cm and 70.2 cm respectively. What will be the end correction?

A)

1.05 cm

B)

115.5 cm

C)

92.5 cm

D)

113.5 cm

View Answer
14) The intensity level of sound A is 30 dB greater than of B. How many times more intense is the sound A than B?

A)

10

B)

100

C)

1000

D)

2

View Answer
15) An open tube is in resonance with string. If tube is dipped in water, so that 75% of length of tube is inside water, then the ratio of the frequency (va) of tube to string is :

A)

\[{{v}_{0}}\]

B)

2v0

C)

\[\frac{2}{3}{{v}_{0}}\]

D)

\[\frac{3}{2}{{v}_{0}}\]

View Answer
16) Two masses m1 and m2 are suspended together by a massless spring of constant k. When the masses are in equilibrium, nij is removed without disturbing the system. The amplitude of oscillations is :

A)

\[\frac{{{m}_{1}}g}{k}\]

B)

\[\frac{{{m}_{2}}g}{k}\]

C)

\[\frac{({{m}_{1}}+{{m}_{2}})g}{k}\]

D)

\[\frac{({{m}_{1}}-{{m}_{2}})g}{k}\]

View Answer
17) If a conducting medium is placed between two charges, then the electric force between will become:

A)

zero

B)

infinity

C)

IN

D)

1 dyne

View Answer
18) If an electron moves from rest from a point at which potential is 50 V to another point at which potential is 70 V, then its kinetic energy in the final state will be :

A)

\[3.2\times {{10}^{-20}}J\]

B)

\[3.2\times {{10}^{-18}}J\]

C)

\[3.2\times {{10}^{-19}}J\]

D)

zero

View Answer
19)  In the following diagram the work done in moving a point charge from point P to point A, B and C is respectively as \[{{W}_{A}},\text{ }{{W}_{B}}\]and \[{{W}_{c}},\]then :

A)

\[{{W}_{A}}={{W}_{B}}={{W}_{C}}\]

B)

\[{{W}_{A}}=\text{ }{{W}_{B}}={{W}_{C}}=\text{ }0\]

C)

\[{{W}_{A}}>W>{{W}_{C}}\]

D)

\[{{W}_{A}}<{{W}_{B}}<{{W}_{C}}\]

View Answer
20) The electric field due to an electric dipole at a distance r from its centre in axial position is E. If the dipole is rotated through an angle of 90 about its perpendicular axis, the electric field at the same point will be :

A)

E

B)

\[\frac{E}{4}\]

C)

\[\frac{E}{2}\]

D)

2E

View Answer
21) If eight similar charge drops combine to form a bigger drop, then the ratio of capacitance of bigger drop to that of smaller drop will be :

A)

2 : 1

B)

8:1

C)

4:1

D)

16 : 1

View Answer
22) The value of current I in figure is :

A)

4 A

B)

6 A

C)

3 A

D)

5 A

View Answer
23) The plates of a charged condenser are connected to a voltmeter. If the plates are moved apart, the reading of voltmeter will:

A)

increase

B)

decrease

C)

remain unchanged

D)

information is insufficient

View Answer
24) The n rows each containing m cells in series are joined in parallel. Maximum current is taker, from this combination across an extreme resistance of 3 Q resistance. If the total number of cells used are 24 and internal resistance c: each cell is 0.50 then :

A)

m = 8, n = 3

B)

m = 6, n = 4

C)

m = 12, n = 2

D)

m = 2, n = 12

View Answer
25) A railway compartment is lit up by thirteer. lamps each taking 2.1 A at 15 V. The hea: generated per second in each lamp will be :

A)

4.35 cal

B)

5.73 cal

C)

7.5 cal

D)

2.5 cal

View Answer
26) The chemical equivalent of copper and zinc are 32 and 108 respectively. When copper and silver voltameter are connected in series and electric current is passed through for sometimes, 1.6 g of copper is deposited. Then, the mass of silver deposited will be :

A)

3.5 g

B)

2.8 g

C)

5.4 g

D)

none of these

View Answer
27) If the emf of a thermocouple, one junction of which is kept 00C is given by\[e=at+\frac{1}{2}b{{t}^{2}},\] then the neutral temperature will be :

A)

\[\frac{a}{b}\]

B)

\[-\frac{a}{b}\]

C)

\[\frac{a}{2b}\]

D)

\[-\frac{a}{ab}\]

View Answer
28) The direction of magnetic lines of force produced by passing a direct current in a conductor is given by :

A)

Lenzs law

B)

Flemings left hand rule

C)

Right hand palm rule

D)

Maxwells law

View Answer
29) A proton, a deuteron and an alpha particle are accelerated through same potential difference and then they enter a normal uniform magnetic field. The ratio of their kinetic energies will be :

A)

2 : 1 : 3

B)

1 : 1 : 2

C)

1 : 1 : 1

D)

1 : 2 : 4

View Answer
30) For the magnetic field to be maximum due to a small element of current carrying conductor at a point, the angle between the element and the line joining the element to the given point must be :

A)

\[0{}^\circ \]

B)

\[90{}^\circ \]

C)

\[180{}^\circ \]

D)

\[45{}^\circ \]

View Answer
31) A circular coil of 20 turns and radius 10 cm is placed in uniform magnetic field of 0.10 T normal to the plane of the coil. If the current in coil is 5 A, then the torque acting on the coil will be:

A)

31.4 Nm

B)

3.14 Nm

C)

0.314 Nm

D)

zero

View Answer
32) The earths magnetic field inside an iron box as compared to that outside the box is:

A)

less

B)

more

C)

zero

D)

same

View Answer
33) The intensity of magnetic field due to an isolated pole of strength m at a point distant r from it will be :

A)

\[\frac{m}{{{r}^{2}}}\]

B)

\[m{{r}^{2}}\]

C)

\[\frac{{{r}^{2}}}{m}\]

D)

\[\frac{m}{r}\]

View Answer
34) The dimensions of self-inductance L are :

A)

\[[M{{L}^{2}}{{T}^{2}}{{A}^{-2}}]\]

B)

\[[M{{L}^{2}}{{T}^{-1}}{{A}^{-2}}]\]

C)

\[[M{{L}^{2}}{{T}^{-1}}{{A}^{-1}}]\]

D)

\[[M{{L}^{2}}{{T}^{-2}}{{A}^{-2}}]\]

View Answer
35) Quantity that remains unchanged in a transformer is:

A)

voltage

B)

current

C)

frequency

D)

none of these

View Answer
36) If the capacity of a condenser is 1 F, then its resistance in a DC circuit will be :

A)

zero

B)

infinity

C)

\[1\Omega \]

D)

\[\frac{1}{2}\Omega \]

View Answer
37) The time taken by an alternating current of 50 Hz in reaching from zero to its maximum value will be :

A)

0.5 s

B)

0.005 s

C)

0.05 s

D)

5 s

View Answer
38) If the area to be covered for TV telecast is doubled, then height of transmitting antenna (TV tower) will have to be :

A)

doubled

B)

halved

C)

quadrupled

D)

kept unchanged

View Answer
39) An electromagnetic radiation has an energy 14.4 eV. To which region of electromagnetic spectrum does it belong?

A)

Ultraviolet region

B)

Visible region

C)

X-ray region

D)

y-ray region

View Answer
40) When a ray of light is incident normally on a surface, then:

A)

total internal reflection takes place

B)

it passes undeviated

C)

it undergoes dispersion

D)

it gets absorbed by the surface

View Answer
41) A ray of light passes through a glass plate of thickness t and refractive index n. If the speed of light in vacuum is c, then the time taken by light in passing through the plate will be :

A)

\[\mu t\]

B)

\[\frac{\mu t}{c}\]

C)

\[\frac{tc}{\mu }\]

D)

\[\frac{t}{\mu c}\]

View Answer
42) In Youngs double slit experiment with monochromatic light, the central fringe will be:

A)

coloured

B)

white

C)

bright

D)

black

View Answer
43) In the phenomenon of interference, energy is:

A)

destroyed at bright fringes

B)

created at dark fringes

C)

conserved but it is redistributed

D)

same at all points

View Answer
44) A very thin film that reflects white light appears:

A)

coloured

B)

white

C)

black

D)

red

View Answer
45) The size of an obstacle in order to observe diffraction of light must be :

A)

of any order

B)

of the order of wavelength

C)

much larger than wavelength

D)

much smaller than wavelength

View Answer
46) If the binding energies of a deuteron and an alpha-particle are 1.125 MeV and 7.2 MeV, respectively, then the more stable of the two is:

A)

deuteron

B)

alpha-particle

C)

both (a) and (b)

D)

sometimes deuteron and sometimes alpha particle

View Answer
47) The particle A is converted in to C via following reaction,\[A\to B{{+}_{2}}H{{e}^{4}},B\to C+2eThan:\]Then :

A)

A and C are isobars

B)

A and C are isotopes

C)

A and B are isobars

D)

A and B are isotopes

View Answer
48) On bombardment of \[{{U}^{235}}\]by slow neutrons, 200 MeV energy is released. If the power output of atomic reactor is 1.6 MW, then the rate of fission will be :

A)

\[5\times {{10}^{16}}/s\]

B)

\[10\times {{10}^{16}}/s\]

C)

\[15\times {{10}^{16}}/s\]

D)

\[20\times {{10}^{16}}/s\]

View Answer
49) The fussion process is possible at high temperatures, because at higher temperatures :

A)

the nucleus disintegrates

B)

the molecules disintegrates

C)

atoms become ionized

D)

the nucleus get sufficient energy to overcome the strong forces of repulsion

View Answer
50) For maintaining sustained chain reaction, the following is required :

A)

protons

B)

electrons

C)

neutrons

D)

positrons

View Answer
51) Sun maintains its shining because of the :

A)

fission of helium

B)

chemical reaction

C)

fusion of hydrogen nuclei

D)

burning of carbon

View Answer
52) Atomic reactor is based on :

A)

controlled chain reaction

B)

uncontrolled chain reaction

C)

nuclear fission

D)

nuclear fission

View Answer
53) If the frequency of light incident on metal surface is doubled, then kinetic energy o: emitted electron will become :

A)

doubled

B)

less than double

C)

more than double

D)

nothing can be said

View Answer
54) The energy gap of silicon is 1.14 eV. At wha: wavelength the silicon will stop to absorb the photon?

A)

\[10877\overset{\text{o}}{\mathop{\text{A}}}\,\]

B)

\[9888\overset{\text{o}}{\mathop{\text{A}}}\,\]

C)

\[1087.7\overset{\text{o}}{\mathop{\text{A}}}\,\]

D)

\[1000\overset{\text{o}}{\mathop{\text{A}}}\,\]

View Answer
55) n-p-n transistor are preferred to p-n-f transistor because they have :

A)

low cost

B)

low dissipation energy

C)

capability of handling large power

D)

electrons having high mobility than holes

View Answer
56) In a transistor in common-emitter configuration. the ratio of power gain to voltage gain is :

A)

\[\alpha \]

B)

\[\frac{\beta }{\alpha }\]

C)

\[\beta \times \beta \]

D)

\[\beta \]

View Answer
57) The ionic bond is absent in :

A)

\[NaCl\]

B)

\[CsCl\]

C)

\[LiF\]

D)

\[{{H}_{2}}O\]

View Answer
58) As the temperature rises the resistance offered by metal:

A)

increases

B)

decreases

C)

remains same

D)

none of these

View Answer
59) Density of liquid in CGS system is \[0.625\text{ }g/c{{m}^{3}}.\] What is its magnitude in SI system?

A)

0.625

B)

0.0625

C)

0.00625

D)

625

View Answer
60) If the length of rod A is \[3.25\text{ }\pm \text{ }0.01\text{ }cm\]and that of B is \[4.19\text{ }\pm \text{ }0.01\text{ }cm,\] then the rod B is longer than rod A by :

A)

\[0.94\text{ }\pm \text{ }0.00\text{ }cm\]

B)

\[0.94\text{ }\pm \text{ }0.01\text{ }cm\]

C)

\[0.94\text{ }\pm \text{ }0.02\text{ }cm\]

D)

\[0.94\text{ }\pm \text{ }0.005\text{ }cm\]

View Answer
61) A man is 45 m behind the bus, when the bus start accelerating from rest with acceleration \[2.5\text{ }m/{{s}^{2}}.\] With what minimum velocity should the man start running to catch the bus ?

A)

12 m/s

B)

14 m/s

C)

15 m/s

D)

16 m/s

View Answer
62) A particle moves along x-axis as: \[x=4(t-2)+a{{(t2)}_{2}}\]Which of the following is true?

A)

The initial velocity of particle is 4

B)

The acceleration of particle is 2a

C)

The particle is at origin at t = 0

D)

None of the above

View Answer
63) The momentum of the particle at any instant is given by \[3\cos 4t\hat{i}+3\sin 4t\hat{j}\]What is the angle between momentum and force acting on it?

A)

\[60{}^\circ \]

B)

\[30{}^\circ \]

C)

\[45{}^\circ \]

D)

\[90{}^\circ \]

View Answer
64) A boat moves with a speed of 5 km/h relative to water in a river flowing with a speed of 3 km/h and having a width of 1 km. The time taken around a round trip is :

A)

5 min

B)

60 min

C)

20 min

D)

30 min

View Answer
65) A man is standing at the centre of frictioniess pond of ice. How can he get himself to the shore?

A)

By throwing his shirt in vertically upward direction

B)

By spitting horizontally

C)

He will wait for the ice to melt in pond

D)

Unable to get at the shore

View Answer
66) If the heart pushes 1 cc of blood in 1 s under pressure \[20000\text{ }N{{m}^{2}},\] the power of heart is :

A)

\[0.02\text{ }W\]

B)

\[400\text{ }W\]

C)

\[5\times {{10}^{-10}}W\]

D)

\[0.2\text{ }W\]

View Answer
67) A body of mass 4 kg moving with velocity 12 m/s collides with another body of mass 6 kg at rest. If two bodies stick together after collision, then the loss of kinetic energy of system is :

A)

zero

B)

288 J

C)

172.8 J

D)

144 J

View Answer
68) A man does a given amount of work in 10 s. Another man does the same amount of work in 20 s. The ratio of the output power of first man to the second man is :

A)

1

B)

½

C)

2/1

D)

none of these

View Answer
69) Turning effect is produced by :

A)

tangential component of force

B)

radial component of force

C)

transverse component of force

D)

none of the above

View Answer
70) For spheres each of mass M and radius R are placed with their centres on the four corners A, B, C and D of a square of side b. The spheres A and B are hollow and C and D are solids. The moment of inertia of the system about side AD of square is :

A)

\[\frac{8}{3}M{{R}^{2}}+2M{{b}^{2}}\]

B)

\[\frac{8}{5}M{{R}^{2}}+2M{{b}^{2}}\]

C)

\[\frac{32}{15}M{{R}^{2}}+2M{{b}^{2}}\]

D)

\[32M{{R}^{2}}+4M{{b}^{2}}\]

View Answer
71) A particle describes a horizontal circle in a conical funnel whose inner surface is smooth with speed of 0.5 m/s. What is the height of the plane of circle from vertex of the funnel?

A)

0.25 cm

B)

2 cm

C)

4 cm

D)

2.5 cm

View Answer
72) Two masses \[{{m}_{1}}\]and \[{{m}_{2}}\]\[({{m}_{1}}>{{m}_{2}})\] are connected by massless flexible and inextensible string passed over massless and frictioniess pulley. The acceleration of centre of mass is :

A)

\[{{\left( \frac{{{m}_{1}}-{{m}_{2}}}{{{m}_{1}}+{{m}_{2}}} \right)}^{2}}g\]

B)

\[\frac{{{m}_{1}}-{{m}_{2}}}{{{m}_{1}}+{{m}_{2}}}g\]

C)

\[\frac{{{m}_{1}}+{{m}_{2}}}{{{m}_{1}}-{{m}_{2}}}g\]

D)

zero

View Answer
73) A satellite moves in a circle around the earth. The radius of this circle is equal to one-half of the radius of the moons orbit. The satellite completes one revolution is :

A)

\[\frac{1}{2}\]lunar month

B)

\[\frac{2}{3}\] lunar month

C)

\[{{2}^{3/2}}\] lunar month

D)

\[{{2}^{3/2}}\]lunar month

View Answer
74) Earth binds the atmosphere because of:

A)

gravity

B)

oxygen between earth and atmosphere

C)

both (a) and (b)

D)

none of the above

View Answer
75) A geostationary satellite is revolving around the earth. To make it escape from gravitational field of earth, its velocity must be increased :

A)

100%

B)

41.4%

C)

50%

D)

59.6%

View Answer
76) Who used the quantum theory for the first time to explain the structure of atom?

A)

de-Broglie

B)

Bohr

C)

Heisenberg

D)

Einstein

View Answer
77) The boiling point of water decreases at high altitudes because:

A)

the atmospheric pressure is low

B)

the temperature is low

C)

the atmospheric pressure is high

D)

the temperature is high

View Answer
78) In a solid lattice, the cation has left a lattice site and is located at interstitial position, the lattice defect is:

A)

interstitial defect

B)

vacancy defect

C)

Frenkel defect

D)

Schottky defect

View Answer
79) The entropy of crystalline substances at absolute zero going by the third law of thermodynamics should be taken as:

A)

100

B)

50

C)

zero

D)

different for different substances

View Answer
80) \[\Delta G\]for a spontaneous reaction is:

A)

zero

B)

negative

C)

positive

D)

could be positive or negative

View Answer
81) The IUPAC name for \[C{{H}_{3}}CO-C{{H}_{3}}\] is:

A)

dimethyl ketone

B)

acetone

C)

propanal

D)

propanone

View Answer
82) Which of the following is not an endothermic reaction?

A)

Dehydrogenation

B)

Ethane to ethane

C)

Combustion of propane

D)

Change of chlorine molecule into chlorine atoms

View Answer
83) A process in which the system does not exchange heat with the surroundings is known as:

A)

isothermal

B)

isobaric

C)

isochoric

D)

adiabatic

View Answer
84) Which of the following is not a non-eletrolyte?

A)

Acetic acid

B)

Glucose

C)

Ethanol

D)

Urea

View Answer
85) The unit\[oh{{m}^{-1}}\]is used for:

A)

molar conductivity

B)

equivalent conductivity

C)

specific conductivity

D)

conductance

View Answer
86) The tendency of an electrode to lose electrons is known as:

A)

eletrode potential

B)

reduction potential

C)

oxidation potential

D)

emf

View Answer
87) For the feasibility of a redox reaction in a cell, the emf should be:

A)

positive

B)

fixed

C)

zero

D)

negative

View Answer
88) If the rate of reaction\[A\to B\]doubles on increasing the concentration of A by 4 times, the order of the reaction is:

A)

2

B)

1

C)

\[\frac{1}{2}\]

D)

4

View Answer
89) Fog is a colloidal solution of:

A)

solid in gas

B)

liquid in gas

C)

gas in liquid

D)

gas in solid

View Answer
90) Muddy water can be purified through coagulation using:

A)

common salt

B)

alums

C)

sand

D)

lime

View Answer
91) Formation of ammonia from\[{{H}_{2}}\]and\[{{N}_{3}}\]by Habeas process using Fe is an example of:

A)

heterogeneous catalysis

B)

homogeneous catalysis

C)

enzyme catalysis

D)

non-catalytic process

View Answer
92) The reason for almost doubling the rate of reaction on increasing the temperature of the reaction system by \[{{10}^{o}}C\] is:

A)

the value of threshold energy increases

B)

collision frequency increases

C)

the fraction of the molecule having energy equal to threshold energy or more increases

D)

activation energy decreases

View Answer
93) The pH of an aqueous solution having hydroxide ion concentration as\[1\times {{10}^{-5}}\]is:

A)

5

B)

9

C)

4.5

D)

11

View Answer
94) Which of the following is not a Lewis acid?

A)

\[B{{F}_{3}}\]

B)

\[AlC{{l}_{3}}\]

C)

\[S{{O}_{2}}\]

D)

\[{{H}_{2}}O\]

View Answer
95) The precipitation takes place only when the product of concentrations of ions:

A)

exceeds the solubility product

B)

is less than the solubility product

C)

is negligible

D)

is equal to the solubility products

View Answer
96) Which of the following has lowest electron affinity?

A)

\[Cl\]

B)

\[I\]

C)

\[F\]

D)

\[Br\]

View Answer
97) In the calcium fluoride structure the co-ordination number of the cation and anions are respectively:

A)

6, 6

B)

8, 4

C)

4, 4

D)

4, 8

View Answer
98) The total number of orbitals possible for principal quantum number n is:

A)

n

B)

\[{{n}^{2}}\]

C)

2n

D)

\[2{{n}^{2}}\]

View Answer
99) The pair having similar geometry is:

A)

\[PC{{l}_{3}},\text{ }N{{H}_{4}}\]

B)

\[BeC{{l}_{2}},{{H}_{2}}O\]

C)

\[C{{H}_{4}},\text{ }CC{{l}_{4}}\]

D)

\[I{{F}_{5}},P{{F}_{5}}\]

View Answer
100) The d-orbital involved in\[s{{p}^{3}}d-\]hybridisation is:

A)

\[{{d}_{{{x}^{2}}-{{y}^{2}}}}\]

B)

\[{{d}_{xy}}\]

C)

\[{{d}_{{{z}^{2}}}}\]

D)

\[{{d}_{zx}}\]

View Answer
101) If 8.0 g of a radioactive substance has a half-life of 10 h, the half-life of 2.0 g of the same substance is:

A)

2.6 h

B)

5h

C)

10 h

D)

40h

View Answer
102) Loss of a beta paticle is equivalent to:

A)

increase of one neutron only

B)

decrease of one neutron only

C)

both (a) and (b)

D)

none of the above

View Answer
103) Which of the following is incorrect?

A)

Relative lowering of vapour pressure is independent of the nature of the solute and the solvent

B)

The vapour pressure is a colligative property

C)

Vapour pressure of a solution is lower than the vapour pressure of the solvent

D)

The relative lowering of vapour pressure is directly proportional to the original pressure

View Answer
104) The presence of the chlorine atom on benzene ring makes the second substituent enter at a position:

A)

ortho

B)

meta

C)

para

D)

ortho/para

View Answer
105) Hydrogen is not obtained when zinc reacts with:

A)

cold water

B)

hot\[NaOH\]solution

C)

dil. sulphuric acid

D)

dilute\[HCl\]

View Answer
106) The oxidation number of xenon in\[XeO{{F}_{2}}\]is:

A)

zero

B)

2

C)

4

D)

3

View Answer
107) Which of the following is most volatile?

A)

\[HF\]

B)

\[HCl\]

C)

\[HBr\]

D)

\[HI\]

View Answer
108) The form of iron having the highest carbon content is:

A)

cast iron

B)

wrought iron

C)

stainless steel

D)

mild steel

View Answer
109) Which belongs to the actinides series?

A)

\[Ce\]

B)

\[Cf\]

C)

\[Ca\]

D)

\[Cs\]

View Answer
110) Which of the following is planar?

A)

\[Xe{{F}_{2}}\]

B)

\[Xe{{O}_{3}}F\]

C)

\[Xe{{O}_{2}}{{F}_{2}}\]

D)

\[Xe{{F}_{4}}\]

View Answer
111) \[Cr{{O}_{3}}\]dissolves in aqueous\[NaOH\]to give:

A)

\[CrO_{4}^{2-}\]

B)

\[Cr(OH)_{3}^{-}\]

C)

\[C{{r}_{2}}O_{7}^{2-}\]

D)

\[Cr{{(OH)}_{2}}\]

View Answer
112) Which of the following is a tribasic acid?

A)

\[{{H}_{3}}P{{O}_{4}}\]

B)

\[HP{{O}_{3}}\]

C)

\[{{H}_{4}}{{P}_{2}}{{O}_{7}}\]

D)

\[{{H}_{4}}{{P}_{2}}{{O}_{6}}\]

View Answer
113) Ethylene diamine is an example of:

A)

monodentate ligand

B)

bidentate ligand

C)

tridentate ligand

D)

polydentate ligand

View Answer
114) The molecule having a pyramidal shape out of the following is:

A)

\[C{{O}_{2}}\]

B)

\[B{{F}_{3}}\]

C)

\[S{{F}_{4}}\]

D)

\[N{{H}_{3}}\]

View Answer
115) Which of the following doesnt give a ppt. with silver nitrate solution?

A)

Ethyl bromide

B)

Sodium bromide

C)

Calcium chloride

D)

Sodium chloride

View Answer
116) Which is the most stable carbocation?

A)

iso-propyl cation

B)

Triphenylmethyl cation

C)

Ethyl cation

D)

n-propyi cation

View Answer
117) Which is most acidic of the following?

A)

Methane

B)

Acetylene

C)

1-butene

D)

Neo-pentane

View Answer
118) Which is the most reactive of the following?

A)

Ethyl acetate

B)

Acetic anhydride

C)

Acetamide

D)

Acetyl chloride

View Answer
119) Which of the following will be chiral?

A)

\[C{{H}_{3}}CHC{{l}_{2}}\]

B)

\[C{{H}_{3}}CHBrCl\]

C)

\[C{{D}_{2}}C{{l}_{2}}\]

D)

\[C{{H}_{2}}ClBr\]

View Answer
120) Electronic con figuration of deuterium atom is:

A)

\[1{{s}^{1}}\]

B)

\[2{{s}^{2}}\]

C)

\[2{{s}^{1}}\]

D)

\[1{{s}^{2}}\]

View Answer
121) Which of the following is a phenol?

A)

Pentanoic acid

B)

Phthalic acid

C)

Picric acid

D)

Phosphoric acid

View Answer
122) Which of the following is not an organometallic compound?

A)

\[{{C}_{2}}{{H}_{5}}ONa\]

B)

\[C{{H}_{3}}MgI\]

C)

Tetraethyl tin

D)

\[K{{C}_{4}}{{H}_{9}}\]

View Answer
123) The correct order of electron affinity is:

A)

\[B<C<O>N\]

B)

\[B>O>N>0\]

C)

\[O>C>B>N\]

D)

\[O<C<B<N\]

View Answer
124) Ziegler Natta catalyst is an organometallic compound containing:

A)

iron

B)

titanium

C)

rhodium

D)

ziroconium

View Answer
125) Which of the following cannot undergo nucleophilic substitution under ordinary conditions?

A)

Chlorobenzene

B)

Terr-butylchloride

C)

Isopropyi chloride

D)

None of the above

View Answer
126) The compound which contains all the four\[{{1}^{o}}\]. \[{{2}^{o}},{{3}^{o}}\]and\[{{4}^{o}}\]carbon atoms is:

A)

2,3-dimethyl pentane

B)

3-chloro-2,3-dimethylpentane

C)

2,3,4-trimethylpentane

D)

3,3-dimethylpentane

View Answer
127) Brass, bronze and german silver have one metal in common. This is:

A)

Zn

B)

Fe

C)

Al

D)

Cu

View Answer
128) Which of the following is the green coloured powder   produced   when   ammonium dichromate is used in fireworks?

A)

Cr

B)

\[Cr{{O}_{3}}\]

C)

\[C{{r}_{2}}{{O}_{3}}\]

D)

\[CrO({{O}_{2}})\]

View Answer
129) The Ti-bonded organo metallic compound which has ethene as one of its component is:

A)

Zeises salt

B)

ferrocene

C)

dibenzene chromium

D)

tetraethyl tin

View Answer
130) Malachite is an ore of:

A)

Fe

B)

Ag

C)

Cr

D)

Cu

View Answer
131) The most acidic of the following is:

A)

\[ClC{{H}_{2}}COOH\]

B)

\[{{C}_{6}}{{H}_{5}}COOH\]

C)

\[C{{D}_{3}}COOH\]

D)

\[C{{H}_{3}}C{{H}_{2}}COOH\]

View Answer
132) Which of the following is an electrophile?

A)

\[{{H}_{2}}O\]

B)

\[S{{O}_{3}}\]

C)

\[N{{H}_{3}}\]

D)

ROR

View Answer
133) An aromatic compound among other things should have a Ti-electron cloud containing (4n + 2) 7i electrons where n cant be:

A)

1/2

B)

3

C)

2

D)

1

View Answer
134) Glycerol is an alcohol which can be classified as:

A)

trihydric

B)

monohydric

C)

dihydric

D)

hexahydric

View Answer
135) The oxidation number of cobalt in \[K[Co{{(CO)}_{4}}]\]is:

A)

+1

B)

+3

C)

-1

D)

-3

View Answer
136) Bromination of alkanes involves:

A)

carbanions

B)

carbocations

C)

carbenes

D)

free radicals

View Answer
137) Methylphenyl ether can be obtained by reacting:

A)

phenolate ions and methyl iodide

B)

methoxide ions and bromobenzene

C)

methanol and phenol

D)

bromo benzene and methyl bromide

View Answer
138) Which is not correct?

A)

Phenol is more acidic than acetic acid

B)

Ethanol is less acidic than phenol

C)

Ethanol has lower boiling point than ethane

D)

Ethane is a non-linear molecule

View Answer
139) Ascorbic acid is also known as:

A)

vitamin A

B)

vitamin B

C)

vitamin C

D)

vitamin D

View Answer
140) Reaction of phenol with chloroform/sodium hydroxide to give o-hydroxy benzaldehyde involves the formation of:

A)

dichloro carbine

B)

trichloro carbine

C)

chlorine atoms

D)

chlorine molecules

View Answer
141) One of the following that cannot undergo dehydrohalogenation is:

A)

iso-propyi bromide

B)

ethanol

C)

ethyl bromide

D)

none of the above

View Answer
142)  Which requires catalyst?

A)

\[S+{{O}_{2}}\to S{{O}_{2}}\]

B)

\[2S{{O}_{2}}+{{O}_{2}}\to 2S{{O}_{3}}\]

C)

\[C+{{O}_{2}}\to C{{O}_{2}}\]

D)

All of these

View Answer
143) Acetic acid will be obtained on oxidation of:

A)

ethanol

B)

propanal

C)

methanal

D)

glyoxal

View Answer
144) A carboxylic acid is converted into its anhydride using:

A)

thionyl chloride

B)

sulphur chloride

C)

sulphuric acid

D)

phosphorus pentaoxide

View Answer
145) Which is false?

A)

Glucose is a disaccharide

B)

Starch is a polysaccharide

C)

Glucose and fructose are not anomers

D)

Invert sugar consists of glucose and fructose

View Answer
146) What kind of isomerism is possible for 1 -chloro-2-nitroethene?

A)

Functional group isomerism

B)

Position isomerism

C)

\[\frac{E}{Z}\]isomerism

D)

Optical isomerism

View Answer
147) KCN reacts readily to give a cyanide with:

A)

ethyl alcohol

B)

ethyl bromide

C)

bromobenzene

D)

chlorobenzene

View Answer
148) Peptides are formed from:

A)

aliphatic amines

B)

carbohydrates

C)

a-amino acids

D)

aromatic amines

View Answer
149) Calcium carbide on reaction with water yields:

A)

methane

B)

ethane

C)

ethene

D)

ethyne

View Answer
150) The correct set of the four quantum numbers of a 4d electron is:

A)

\[4,2,1,-\frac{1}{2}\]

B)

\[4,2,1,0\]

C)

\[4,3,2,+\frac{1}{2}\]

D)

\[4,3,-2,+\frac{1}{2}\]

View Answer
151) The cell as a basic unit of structure of living things was discovered by:

A)

Aristotle

B)

Robert Hooke

C)

Schleiden and Schwann

D)

Gregor Mendel

View Answer
152) Which of the following organelles does not have membrane?

A)

Ribosome

B)

Nucleus

C)

Chloroplast

D)

Mitochondria

View Answer
153) The prokaryotic cell does not contain :

A)

chromosome

B)

mitochondria

C)

plasma membrane

D)

ribosome

View Answer
154) Plasma membrane helps in :

A)

transportation of only water in and out of cell

B)

protein synthesis

C)

osmoregulation

D)

nucleic acid synthesis

View Answer
155) Which of the following structure is bounded by single membrane?

A)

Chloroplast

B)

Lysosome

C)

Mitochondria

D)

None of these

View Answer
156) The branch of Biology dealing with structure, function and reproduction of cell is:

A)

Cytology

B)

Anatomy

C)

Histology

D)

Cell biology

View Answer
157) The term protoplasm for the cell contents was coined by :

A)

Von Mohl

B)

J.E. Purkinje

C)

J.S. Huxley and Her twig

D)

M. Schultz

View Answer
158) The organelle associated with aerobic respiration is:

A)

chloroplast

B)

centriole

C)

nucleus

D)

mitochondria

View Answer
159) The surface of the Endoplasmic Reticulum (ER) is covered with :

A)

ribosome

B)

DNA

C)

RNA

D)

glucose

View Answer
160) The edible part of the sweet potato is a modified:

A)

stem

B)

root

C)

leaf

D)

flower

View Answer
161) Radish is a modified root and an example of:

A)

napiform root

B)

fusiform root

C)

conical root

D)

tuberous root

View Answer
162) Fibrous root system is mostly found in :

A)

monocot plants

B)

dicot plants

C)

pteridophytes

D)

bryophytes

View Answer
163) The leaves in Utricularia plant are modified into:

A)

hooks

B)

tendrils

C)

bladders

D)

pitchers

View Answer
164) Ginger is an example of underground modified stem called :

A)

rhizome

B)

corm

C)

tuber

D)

bulb

View Answer
165) The reticulate venation is commonly found in the leaves of:

A)

monocot plants

B)

dicot plants

C)

bryophytes

D)

thallophytes

View Answer
166) Pith is a central part of the ground tissues generally made up of :

A)

parenchyma

B)

collenchymas

C)

chiorenchyma

D)

sclerenchyma

View Answer
167) Which of the following is a \[{{C}_{4}}\]plant?

A)

Potato

B)

Mustard

C)

Maize

D)

Wheat

View Answer
168) If two solutions have the same osmoregularity, they are said to be :

A)

hypertonic

B)

hypotonic

C)

isotonic

D)

none of these

View Answer
169) The shedding of leaves, flowers or fruits due to change in the hormonal balance in plants is referred as:

A)

senescence

B)

abscission

C)

photoperiodism

D)

vernalisation

View Answer
170) Equipment used for the measurement of growth in plants is known as :

A)

auxanometer

B)

respirometer

C)

potometer

D)

atmometer

View Answer
171) The movement of organs in response to light is called:

A)

hydrotropism

B)

thigmotropism

C)

phototropism

D)

geotropism

View Answer
172) The potential energy of water is referred as:

A)

water potential

B)

osmotic potential

C)

gravity potential

D)

pressure potential

View Answer
173) Respiration initiated in chloroplasts and occurs in light is called :

A)

aerobic respiration

B)

anaerobic respiration

C)

photorespiration

D)

fermentation

View Answer
174) Development of seedless fruit in an unfertilized flower is called :

A)

parthenocarpy

B)

sporophytic budding

C)

polyembryony

D)

micropropagation

View Answer
175) The flower in which the gynoecium occupies the highest position on the thalamus leaving other parts below is called :

A)

hypogynous

B)

perigynous

C)

epigynous

D)

none of these

View Answer
176) The arrangement of the ovules on the placentae developed from the central axis of the ovary is called :

A)

parietal placentation

B)

axile placentation

C)

basal placentation

D)

marginal placentation

View Answer
177) The fruit developed from the single ovary is said to be:

A)

composite type

B)

simple type

C)

aggregate type

D)

none of these

View Answer
178) Double fertilization results in the production of:

A)

haploid nucleus

B)

diploid nucleus

C)

triploid nucleus

D)

tetraploid nucleus

View Answer
179) The fleshy fruits with hard and stony endocarp are called:

A)

drupe

B)

berry

C)

pepo

D)

pome

View Answer
180) The process of transfer of pollen grains from another to stigematic surface of the. flower the help of water is called:

A)

anemophily

B)

zoophily

C)

hydrophiiy

D)

ornithophily

View Answer
181) The capitulum type of inflorescence is found in :

A)

marigold

B)

Salvia

C)

euphorbia

D)

jasmine

View Answer
182) The period of suspended growth due to exogenous conditions is termed as:

A)

quiscence

B)

dormancy

C)

perennation

D)

hibernation

View Answer
183) Which of the following plants is used as biofertilizer?

A)

Nostoc

B)

Funaria

C)

Volvox

D)

Rhizopus

View Answer
184) Sudden and heritable change in a character of an organism is called :

A)

mutation

B)

heterosis

C)

inbreeding

D)

selection

View Answer
185) Which of the following is a free living nitrogen fixing bacteria present in the soil?

A)

Pseudomonas

B)

Rhizobium

C)

Azotobacter

D)

Nitrosomonas

View Answer
186) Mating between two individuals differing in genotype to produce genetic variation is called:

A)

domestication

B)

introduction

C)

hybridization

D)

mutation

View Answer
187) The conversion of ammonia into nitrites and nitrates is called :

A)

ammonification

B)

nitrification

C)

denitrification

D)

none of these

View Answer
188) In RNA, the thymine is replaced by :

A)

guanine

B)

adenine

C)

uracil

D)

cytosine

View Answer
189) A hereditary disease which is never passed on from father to son is :

A)

autosomal linked disease

B)

X-chromosomal linked disease

C)

Y-chromosomal linked disease

D)

none of the above

View Answer
190) A diploid living organism develops from zygote by which type of repeated cell division?

A)

Meiosis

B)

Amitosis

C)

Mitosis

D)

Segmentation

View Answer
191) In Chlamydomonas the meiosis occurs in :

A)

gamete

B)

zygote

C)

sporogonium

D)

zoospore

View Answer
192) Ribosomes are the site for the synthesis of:

A)

protein

B)

starch

C)

hormone

D)

fat

View Answer
193) Organelle important in spindle formation during nuclear division is:

A)

Golgibody

B)

chloroplast

C)

centriole

D)

mitochondrion

View Answer
194) Phosphorus is present in :

A)

protein

B)

DNA

C)

RNA

D)

both (a) and (b)

View Answer
195) Genes were first artificially synthesized by :

A)

Khorana

B)

Watson

C)

Galton

D)

Mendel

View Answer
196) Which of the following disorder is not hereditary?

A)

Haemophilia

B)

Cataract

C)

Sickle cell anaemia

D)

Colourblindness

View Answer
197) Engulfing of food either in solid or liquid is called :

A)

sporozoic nutrition

B)

holozoic nutrition

C)

parasitic nutrition

D)

saprophytic nutrition

View Answer
198) A muscular transverse partition in mammals that separates thorax from abdomen is called:

A)

diaphragm

B)

pharynx

C)

stomach

D)

duodenum

View Answer
199) The functional unit of mammalian kidney is :

A)

ureter

B)

urinary bladder

C)

urethra

D)

nephron

View Answer
200) During the cold the hairs are raised and brought up more or less in vertical position by:

A)

sebaceous glands

B)

hair follicles

C)

capillary plexus

D)

arrectorpili

View Answer
201) Mouth becomes watery when we look on the delicious food is due to :

A)

olfactory response

B)

hormonal response

C)

neural response

D)

optic response

View Answer
202) Both the crown and root of a tooth is covered by a layer of bony hard substance is called :

A)

enamel

B)

dentine

C)

bony socket

D)

cementum

View Answer
203) Animals consuming only plant materials are referred as:

A)

herbivores

B)

carnivores

C)

omnivores

D)

insectivores

View Answer
204) Manifestation of increase in the blood pressure of a person is called :

A)

hypertension

B)

atherosclerosis

C)

arteriosclerosis

D)

none of these

View Answer
205) Substrate for the amylase enzyme is :

A)

nucleic acids

B)

protein

C)

starch

D)

fat

View Answer
206) Goitre disorder is due to the deficiency of:

A)

iron

B)

iodine

C)

protein

D)

retinol

View Answer
207)  Animals spending winter in dormant conditions is referred to as under :

A)

hibernation

B)

aestivation

C)

mimicry

D)

camouflage

View Answer
208) A substance that prevents or delays oxidation is:

A)

bactericidal

B)

hormone

C)

antioxidant

D)

enzyme

View Answer
209) What distinguishes an insect from a crustacean?

A)

Number of appendages

B)

Number of eyes

C)

Presence of wings

D)

Arrangement of nerve cord

View Answer
210) Which of the following respires by gills?

A)

Whale

B)

Turtle

C)

Frog

D)

Prawn

View Answer
211) Which of the following is an egg laying mammal?

A)

Dolphin

B)

Platypus

C)

Whale

D)

Walrus

View Answer
212) Leeches are usually :

A)

herbivores

B)

insectivores

C)

carnivores

D)

sanguivores

View Answer
213) Excretory organs in Taenia are :

A)

flame cells

B)

nephridia

C)

nephrons

D)

kidneys

View Answer
214) Body cavity lined by mesoderm is called :

A)

coelenteron

B)

pseudocoel

C)

coelom

D)

blastocoel

View Answer
215) Dinosaurs were present during the :

A)

Paleozoic era

B)

Coenozoic era

C)

Mesozoic era

D)

Precambrian era

View Answer
216) The organs of different species that are related to each other through common descent though becomes functionally different are called :

A)

Analogous

B)

vestigial

C)

homologous

D)

none of the above

View Answer
217) The idea that life originates from pre-existing life is referred as:

A)

bio-genesis theory

B)

special creation theory

C)

abiogenesis theory

D)

extraterrestrial theory

View Answer
218) Archaeopteryx is a connecting link between :

A)

pisces and amphibians

B)

amphibians and reptiles

C)

reptiles and birds

D)

birds and mammals

View Answer
219) Cirrhosis of the liver is caused by :

A)

cocaine

B)

LSD

C)

alcohol

D)

morphine

View Answer
220) The concepts of natural selection in evolution was proposed by:

A)

Charles Robert Darwin

B)

August Weismann

C)

Hugo de Vries

D)

Jean Baptiste Lamarck

View Answer
221) Harmful effect of cigarette smoking is :

A)

baldness

B)

yellowing of eyes

C)

lung cancer

D)

none of the above

View Answer
222) Disease existing at or before birth is :

A)

congenital

B)

communicable

C)

Non-communicable

D)

none of the above

View Answer
223) The acids rains are caused due to the presence of which of the following gases?

A)

\[N{{O}_{2}}\]and \[S{{O}_{2}}\]

B)

\[N{{H}_{3}}\] and \[S{{O}_{2}}\]

C)

\[CO\] and \[C{{O}_{2}}\]

D)

\[{{O}_{3}}\]and \[C{{O}_{2}}\]

View Answer
224) Universal donor blood group is :

A)

O

B)

AB

C)

A

D)

B

View Answer
225) The ultraviolet radiations in the stratosphere are absorbed by:

A)

\[{{O}_{3}}\]

B)

\[{{O}_{2}}\]

C)

\[C{{O}_{2}}\]

D)

\[{{H}_{2}}S{{O}_{4}}\]

View Answer

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