Solved papers for J & K CET Medical J & K - CET Medical Solved Paper-2013

done J & K - CET Medical Solved Paper-2013 Total Questions - 225

• question_answer1) Which of the following physical quantity unit is not a fundamental unit?
  A)
   Length            
  done clear
  B)
   Mass
  done clear
  C)
   Magnetic field      
  done clear
  D)
   Current
  done clear
  View Answer play_arrow

• question_answer2) The dimensional formula of electric potential is
  A)
   \[M{{L}^{2}}{{T}^{-3}}{{A}^{-1}}\]     
  done clear
  B)
   \[{{M}^{-1}}{{L}^{2}}{{T}^{-2}}A\]
  done clear
  C)
   \[{{M}^{-1}}{{L}^{2}}{{T}^{-2}}{{A}^{-1}}\]      
  done clear
  D)
   \[M{{L}^{2}}{{T}^{-2}}A\]
  done clear
  View Answer play_arrow

• question_answer3) The motion of a particle in straight line is an example of
  A)
   constant velocity motion
  done clear
  B)
   uniformly accelerated motion
  done clear
  C)
   non-uniformly accelerated motion
  done clear
  D)
   zero velocity motion
  done clear
  View Answer play_arrow

• question_answer4) The velocity vector of the motion described by the position vector of a particle,\[r=2ti+{{t}^{2}}\hat{j}\]is given by
  A)
   \[V=2\hat{i}+2t\,\hat{j}\]
  done clear
  B)
   \[V=2t\,\hat{i}+2t\,\hat{j}\]
  done clear
  C)
   \[V=t\,\hat{i}+{{t}^{2}}\,\hat{j}\]
  done clear
  D)
   \[V=2\,\hat{i}+{{t}^{2}}\,\hat{j}\]
  done clear
  View Answer play_arrow

• question_answer5) The velocity-time graph of particle comes out to be a non-linear curve. The motion is
  A)
   uniform velocity motion
  done clear
  B)
   uniformly accelerated motion
  done clear
  C)
   non-uniform accelerated motion
  done clear
  D)
   nothing can be said about the motion
  done clear
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• question_answer6) A projectile is thrown with initial velocity\[{{\upsilon }_{0}}\]and angle\[30{}^\circ \]with the horizontal. If it remains in the air for 1 s, what was its initial velocity?
  A)
   19.6m/s           
  done clear
  B)
   9.8 m/s
  done clear
  C)
   4.9 m/s            
  done clear
  D)
   1 m/s
  done clear
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• question_answer7) Newtons second law of motion is
  A)
   \[F=dp/dt\]         
  done clear
  B)
   \[F=mv\]
  done clear
  C)
   \[F=m{{v}^{2}}\]          
  done clear
  D)
   \[F={{m}^{2}}v\]
  done clear
  View Answer play_arrow

• question_answer8) The centripetal force is given by the expression
  A)
   \[\frac{M{{v}^{2}}}{R}\]    
  done clear
  B)
   \[\frac{{{M}^{2}}v}{R}\]   
  done clear
  C)
   \[\frac{Mv}{{{R}^{2}}}\]     
  done clear
  D)
   \[\frac{Mv}{R}\]
  done clear
  View Answer play_arrow

• question_answer9) Uniform circular motion is an example of
  A)
   constant speed motion
  done clear
  B)
   constant velocity motion
  done clear
  C)
   non-accelerated motion
  done clear
  D)
   zero accelerated motion
  done clear
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• question_answer10) The scalar product of two vectors \[A=2\hat{i}+2\hat{j}-\hat{k}\] and\[B=-\text{ }\hat{j}+\hat{k},\]is given by
  A)
   \[A.B=3\]            
  done clear
  B)
   \[A.B=4\]
  done clear
  C)
   \[A.B=-4\]          
  done clear
  D)
  \[A.B=-3\]
  done clear
  View Answer play_arrow

• question_answer11) The linear momentum is conserved in
  A)
   elastic collisions    
  done clear
  B)
   inelastic collisions
  done clear
  C)
   Both 1 and 2        
  done clear
  D)
   Neither 1 nor 2
  done clear
  View Answer play_arrow

• question_answer12) The power (P) of an engine lifting a mass of 100 kg upto a height of 10 m in 1 min is
  A)
   P=163.3W
  done clear
  B)
   P = 9800 W
  done clear
  C)
   P = 10000W
  done clear
  D)
   P = 5000 W
  done clear
  View Answer play_arrow

• question_answer13) The conservation of angular momentum demands that
  A)
   the external force on the system must be zero
  done clear
  B)
   the external torque on the system must be zero
  done clear
  C)
   both the external force as well as the external torque must be zero
  done clear
  D)
   neither of them must be zero
  done clear
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• question_answer14) The moment of inertia (7) and the angular momentum (L) are related by the expression
  A)
   \[I=L\omega \]                  
  done clear
  B)
   \[L=I\omega \]
  done clear
  C)
   \[L={{I}^{2}}\omega \]                
  done clear
  D)
  \[\omega =LI\] where co is the angular velocity.
  done clear
  View Answer play_arrow

• question_answer15) The moment of inertia\[(I)\]of a sphere of radius R and mass M is given by
  A)
   \[I=M{{R}^{2}}\]
  done clear
  B)
   \[I=(1/2)M{{R}^{2}}\]
  done clear
  C)
   \[I=(4/3)M{{R}^{2}}\]
  done clear
  D)
   \[I=(2/5)M{{R}^{2}}\]
  done clear
  View Answer play_arrow

• question_answer16) The universal law of gravitation is the force law known also as the
  A)
   triangular law       
  done clear
  B)
   square law
  done clear
  C)
   inverse square law  
  done clear
  D)
   parallelogram law
  done clear
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• question_answer17) The value of acceleration due to gravity at the surface of earth
  A)
   is maximum at the poles
  done clear
  B)
   is maximum at the equator
  done clear
  C)
   remains constant everywhere on the surface of the earth
  done clear
  D)
   is maximum at the intenational timeline
  done clear
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• question_answer18) The escape velocity of a particle from the surface of the earth is given by
  A)
   \[{{(gR)}^{1/2}}\]          
  done clear
  B)
   \[{{(2gR)}^{1/2}}\]
  done clear
  C)
   \[{{(3gR)}^{1/2}}\]        
  done clear
  D)
   \[{{(gR/2)}^{2}}\]
  done clear
  View Answer play_arrow

• question_answer19) The Youngs modulus of a rope of 10 m length and having diameter of 2 cm is\[200\times {{10}^{11}}\]dyne\[/c{{m}^{2}}\]. If the elongation produced in the rope is 1 cm, the force applied on the rope is
  A)
   \[6.28\times {{10}^{5}}N\]      
  done clear
  B)
   \[6.28\times {{10}^{4}}N\]
  done clear
  C)
   \[6.28\times {{10}^{4}}\]dyne   
  done clear
  D)
  \[6.28\times {{10}^{5}}\]dyne
  done clear
  View Answer play_arrow

• question_answer20) The pressure exerted at any point in an enclosed fluid is transmitted equally in all directions. This is known as
  A)
   Archimedes principle
  done clear
  B)
   Law of floatation
  done clear
  C)
   Pascals law        
  done clear
  D)
   Bernoullis principle
  done clear
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• question_answer21) There are two identical small holes on the opposite sides of a tank containing a liquid. The tank is open at the top. The difference in height between the two holes is h. As the liquid comes out of the two holes, the tank will experience   a net   horizontal   force proportional to
  A)
   \[\sqrt{h}\]
  done clear
  B)
   \[h\]
  done clear
  C)
   \[{{h}^{3/2}}\]
  done clear
  D)
   \[{{h}^{2}}\]
  done clear
  View Answer play_arrow

• question_answer22) The zeroth law of thermodynamics for three systems A, B and C in contact demands that
  A)
   A and B are in thermal equilibrium
  done clear
  B)
   B and C are in thermal equilibrium
  done clear
  C)
   A and C are in thermal equilibrium
  done clear
  D)
   A B and C are in thermal equilibrium
  done clear
  View Answer play_arrow

• question_answer23) The efficiency of a Carnot engine kept at the temperatures of\[27{}^\circ C\]and\[127{}^\circ C\]is
  A)
   20%             
  done clear
  B)
   25%
  done clear
  C)
   30%             
  done clear
  D)
   40%
  done clear
  View Answer play_arrow

• question_answer24) The average pressure of an ideal gas is
  A)
   \[p=(1/3)mnV_{av}^{2}\]
  done clear
  B)
   \[p=(1/2)mn{{V}_{av}}\]
  done clear
  C)
   \[p=(1/4)mnV_{av}^{2}\]
  done clear
  D)
   \[p=(1/3)mn{{V}_{av}}\]
  done clear
  View Answer play_arrow

• question_answer25) where symbols have their usual meanings. According to equipartition law of energy each particle in a system of particles have thermal energy E equal to
  A)
   \[E={{k}_{B}}T\]          
  done clear
  B)
   \[E=(1/2){{k}_{B}}T\]
  done clear
  C)
   \[E=3{{k}_{B}}T\]         
  done clear
  D)
   \[E=(3/2){{k}_{B}}T\]
  done clear
  View Answer play_arrow

• question_answer26) The velocity of sound in a gas is 1300 m/s at STP and specific heat at constant pressure is\[6.84\,cal\,{{K}^{-1}}mo{{l}^{-1}}\]. The rms velocity at STP is (R\[=1.98\text{ }cal\text{ }{{K}^{-1}}mo{{l}^{-1}}\])
  A)
   1300 m/s          
  done clear
  B)
   2600 m/s
  done clear
  C)
   1898 m/s          
  done clear
  D)
   650 m/s
  done clear
  View Answer play_arrow

• question_answer27) The time period of a simple pendulum of length 9.8 m is
  A)
   0.159s            
  done clear
  B)
   3.14s
  done clear
  C)
   6.5s              
  done clear
  D)
   6.28s
  done clear
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• question_answer28) The displacement, velocity and acceleration in a simple harmonic motion are related as the
  A)
   displacement, velocity and acceleration all act in the same direction
  done clear
  B)
   displacement and velocity act in the same direction but acceleration in the opposite direction
  done clear
  C)
   velocity and acceleration are parallel and both are perpendicular to the displacement
  done clear
  D)
   displacement and acceleration are antiparallel and both perpendicular to the velocity
  done clear
  View Answer play_arrow

• question_answer29) The beats are the examples of
  A)
   simple harmonic motion
  done clear
  B)
   interference of two or more waves having same amplitude but slightly different frequencies in the same direction
  done clear
  C)
   interference of two or more waves having different amplitude but same frequencies in the same direction
  done clear
  D)
   interference of two or more waves having same amplitude out slightly different frequencies in the perpendicular direction
  done clear
  View Answer play_arrow

• question_answer30) The fundamental frequency of an open pipe of length 1 m, if the speed of sound in air is 340 m/s is
  A)
   340 Hz           
  done clear
  B)
   170 Hz
  done clear
  C)
   680 Hz           
  done clear
  D)
   85 Hz
  done clear
  View Answer play_arrow

• question_answer31) A whistle with frequency 1020 Hz is blown at a station. A man travelling in train moving towards the station at 30 m/s hears the sound of the whistle. If the speed of sound is 340 m/s, the apparent frequency heard by him is
  A)
   1020 Hz          
  done clear
  B)
   1110 Hz
  done clear
  C)
   2040 Hz          
  done clear
  D)
   610 Hz
  done clear
  View Answer play_arrow

• question_answer32) An electric charge does not have which of hte following properties?
  A)
   Total charge conservation
  done clear
  B)
   Quantization of charge
  done clear
  C)
   Two type of charge
  done clear
  D)
   Circular line of force
  done clear
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• question_answer33) The net electric force on a charge of\[+3\mu C\]at the mid-point on the line joining two charges of magnitude\[+2\mu C\]and\[-2\mu C\]separated by the distance of 6 mm, is
  A)
   6000 N            
  done clear
  B)
   500 N
  done clear
  C)
   60 N              
  done clear
  D)
   zero
  done clear
  View Answer play_arrow

• question_answer34) A hollow sphere of radius 0.1 m has a charge of\[5\times {{10}^{-8}}C\]. The potential at a distance of 5 cm from the centre of the sphere is \[\left( \frac{1}{4\pi {{\varepsilon }_{0}}}=9\times {{10}^{9}}N{{m}^{2}}{{C}^{-2}} \right)\]
  A)
   4000V            
  done clear
  B)
   4500V
  done clear
  C)
   5000V            
  done clear
  D)
   6000V
  done clear
  View Answer play_arrow

• question_answer35) A parallel plate capacitor of capacitance 5 microfarad is charged to 120 V and then connected to another uncharged capacitor. If the potential falls to 40 V, and capacitance of the second capacitor is
  A)
   5 microfarad      
  done clear
  B)
   10 microfarad
  done clear
  C)
   15 microfarad     
  done clear
  D)
   20 microfarad
  done clear
  View Answer play_arrow

• question_answer36) Two identical capacitors are first connected in series and then in parallel. The ratio of equivalent capacitance is
  A)
   \[1:1\]     
  done clear
  B)
   \[1:2\]      
  done clear
  C)
   \[1:3\]     
  done clear
  D)
   \[1:4\]
  done clear
  View Answer play_arrow

• question_answer37) An electron revolves in a circle at the rate of \[{{10}^{19}}\]rounds per second. The equivalent current is\[(e=1.6\times {{10}^{-19}}C)\]
  A)
   1.0 A                
  done clear
  B)
   1.6 A
  done clear
  C)
   2.0 A                
  done clear
  D)
   2.6 A
  done clear
  View Answer play_arrow

• question_answer38) A silver wire of radius 0.1 cm carries a current of2A. If the charge density in silver is \[5.86\times {{10}^{28}}{{m}^{-3}},\]the drift velocity is
  A)
   \[0.2\times {{10}^{-3}}m/s\]     
  done clear
  B)
   \[0.4\times {{10}^{-4}}m/s\]
  done clear
  C)
   \[0.68\times {{10}^{-4}}m/s\]    
  done clear
  D)
   \[7\times {{10}^{-4}}m/s\]
  done clear
  View Answer play_arrow

• question_answer39) Aim long wire of diameter of 0.31 mm has a resistance of\[4.2\,\Omega \]. If it is replaced by another wire of same material of length 1.5 m and diameter 0.155 mm, the resistance of wire is
  A)
   \[25.2\,\Omega \]          
  done clear
  B)
   \[0.6\,\Omega \]
  done clear
  C)
   \[26.7\,\Omega \]         
  done clear
  D)
   \[0.8\,\Omega \]
  done clear
  View Answer play_arrow

• question_answer40) cells of emf 1.5 V each having internal resistance of 1 ohm are connected to an external resistance of 1.5 ohms. To get maximum current
  A)
   all cells are connected in series combination
  done clear
  B)
   all cells are connected in parallel combination
  done clear
  C)
   4 cells in each row are connected in series and 6 such rows are connected in parallel
  done clear
  D)
   6 cells in each row are connected in series and 4 such rows are connected in parallel
  done clear
  View Answer play_arrow

• question_answer41) The temperature coefficient of the resistance of a wire is 0.00125 per\[{}^\circ C\]. At 300 K its resistance is\[1\,\Omega \]. The resistance of wire will be\[2\,\,\Omega \]at
  A)
   1154K            
  done clear
  B)
   1100K
  done clear
  C)
   1400 K            
  done clear
  D)
   1127K
  done clear
  View Answer play_arrow

• question_answer42) A long straight wire is carrying a current of 12 A. The magnetic field at a distance of 8 cm is\[({{\mu }_{0}}=4\pi \times {{10}^{-7}}N/{{A}^{2}})\]
  A)
   \[2\times {{10}^{-4}}Wb/{{m}^{2}}\]
  done clear
  B)
   \[3\times {{10}^{-5}}Wb/{{m}^{2}}\]
  done clear
  C)
   \[4\times {{10}^{-4}}Wb/{{m}^{2}}\] 
  done clear
  D)
   \[4\times {{10}^{-5}}Wb/{{m}^{2}}\]
  done clear
  View Answer play_arrow

• question_answer43) The magnetic field at a point on the axis of a long solenoid having 5 turns per cm length when a current of 0.8 A flows through it is
  A)
   \[5.024\times {{10}^{-8}}Wb/{{m}^{2}}\]
  done clear
  B)
   \[6.024\times {{10}^{-8}}Wb/{{m}^{2}}\]
  done clear
  C)
   \[7.024\times {{10}^{-8}}Wb/{{m}^{2}}\]
  done clear
  D)
   \[8.024\times {{10}^{-8}}Wb/{{m}^{2}}\]
  done clear
  View Answer play_arrow

• question_answer44) Two straight wires each 10 cm long are parallel to one another and separated by 2 cm. When the current flowing in them is 30 A and 40 A respectively, the force experienced by either of the wires is
  A)
   \[1.2\times {{10}^{-3}}N\]      
  done clear
  B)
   \[12\times {{10}^{-3}}N\]
  done clear
  C)
   \[11.2\times {{10}^{-3}}N\]     
  done clear
  D)
   \[10.2\times {{10}^{-3}}N\]
  done clear
  View Answer play_arrow

• question_answer45) The horizontal and vertical components of earths magnetic field at a place are 0.3 G and 0.52 G. The earths magnetic field and the angle of dip are
  A)
   \[0.3\text{ }G\text{ }and\text{ }\delta =30{}^\circ \]
  done clear
  B)
   \[0.4\text{ }G\text{ }and\text{ }\delta =40{}^\circ \]
  done clear
  C)
   \[0.5\text{ }G\text{ }and\text{ }\delta =50{}^\circ \]  
  done clear
  D)
   \[0.6\text{ }G\text{ }and\text{ }\delta =60{}^\circ \]
  done clear
  View Answer play_arrow

• question_answer46) A bar magnet of pole strength 10 Am is cut into two equal parts breadthwise. The pole strength of each magnet is
  A)
   5 Am   
  done clear
  B)
   10 Am
  done clear
  C)
   15 Am
  done clear
  D)
   20 Am
  done clear
  View Answer play_arrow

• question_answer47) A conductor of length 5 cm is moved parallel to itself with a speed of 2 m/s, perpendicular to a uniform magnetic field of\[{{10}^{-3}}Wb/{{m}^{3}}\]. The induced e.m.f. generated is
  A)
   \[2\times {{10}^{-3}}V\]      
  done clear
  B)
   \[1\times {{10}^{-3}}V\]
  done clear
  C)
   \[1\times {{10}^{-4}}V\]        
  done clear
  D)
   \[2\times {{10}^{-4}}V\]
  done clear
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• question_answer48) The induced emf in a coil of 10 H inductance in which current varies from 9 A to 4 A in 0.2 s is
  A)
   200V             
  done clear
  B)
   250V
  done clear
  C)
   300V             
  done clear
  D)
   350V
  done clear
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• question_answer49) The alternating current in a circuit is given by\[I=50\,sin\,314t\]. The peak value and frequency of the current are
  A)
   \[{{I}_{0}}=25\,A\]and\[r=100\,Hz\]
  done clear
  B)
   \[{{I}_{0}}=50\,A\]and\[r=50\,Hz\]
  done clear
  C)
   \[{{I}_{0}}=50\,A\]and\[r=100\,Hz\]
  done clear
  D)
   \[{{I}_{0}}=25\,A\]and\[r=50\,Hz\]
  done clear
  View Answer play_arrow

• question_answer50) A 50 Hz AC signal is applied in a circuit of inductance of\[(1/\pi )H\]and resistance\[2100\text{ }\Omega \]. The impedance offered by the circuit is
  A)
   \[1500\text{ }\Omega \]            
  done clear
  B)
   \[1700\text{ }\Omega \]
  done clear
  C)
   \[2102\text{ }\Omega \]          
  done clear
  D)
   \[2500\text{ }\Omega \]
  done clear
  View Answer play_arrow

• question_answer51) If the alternating current\[I={{I}_{1}}\cos \omega t+{{I}_{2}}\] \[\sin \omega t\] then   the  rms current is given by
  A)
   \[\frac{{{I}_{1}}+{{I}_{2}}}{\sqrt{2}}\]
  done clear
  B)
   \[\frac{|{{I}_{1}}+{{I}_{2}}|}{\sqrt{2}}\]
  done clear
  C)
   \[\sqrt{\left( \frac{I_{1}^{2}+I_{2}^{2}}{\sqrt{2}} \right)}\]
  done clear
  D)
   \[\sqrt{\frac{I_{1}^{2}+I_{2}^{2}}{\sqrt{2}}}\]
  done clear
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• question_answer52) The transverse nature of electromagnetic waves is proved by which of the following?
  A)
   Interference phenomena
  done clear
  B)
   Diffraction phenomena
  done clear
  C)
   Dispersion phenomena
  done clear
  D)
   Polarization phenomena
  done clear
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• question_answer53) Which component of electromagnetic spectrum have maximum wavelength?
  A)
   Radio waves       
  done clear
  B)
   Visible spectrum
  done clear
  C)
   Gamma rays       
  done clear
  D)
   X-rays
  done clear
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• question_answer54) An object is 8 cm high. It is desired to form a real image 4 cm high at 60 cm from the mirror. The type of mirror needed with the focal length is
  A)
   convex mirror with focal length\[f=40\text{ }cm\]
  done clear
  B)
   convex mirror with focal length \[f=20\text{ }cm\]
  done clear
  C)
   concave mirror with focal length\[f=-40\text{ }cm\]
  done clear
  D)
   concave mirror with focal length\[f=-20\text{ }cm\]
  done clear
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• question_answer55) When an object is placed 40 cm from a diverging lens, its virtual image is formed 20 cm from the lens. The focal length and power of lens are
  A)
   \[F=-20cm,P=-5D\]
  done clear
  B)
   \[F=-40cm,P=-5D\]
  done clear
  C)
   \[F=-40cm,P=-2.5D\]
  done clear
  D)
   \[F=-20cm,\text{ }P=-2.5\text{ }D\]
  done clear
  View Answer play_arrow

• question_answer56) A magnifying glass of focal length 5 cm is used to view an object by a person whose smallest distance of distinct vision is 25 cm. If he holds the glass close to eye, the magnification is
  A)
   5     
  done clear
  B)
   6     
  done clear
  C)
   2.5   
  done clear
  D)
   3
  done clear
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• question_answer57) A person has a minimum distance of distinct vision as 50 cm. The power of lenses required to read a book at a distance of 25 cm is
  A)
   3D                  
  done clear
  B)
   1D
  done clear
  C)
   2D                   
  done clear
  D)
   4D
  done clear
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• question_answer58) If two slits in Youngs experiment are 0.4 mm apart and fringe width on a screen 200 cm away is 2 mm the wavelength of light illuminating the slits is
  A)
   500 nm           
  done clear
  B)
   600 nm
  done clear
  C)
   400 nm          
  done clear
  D)
   300 nm
  done clear
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• question_answer59) Electric field strength due to a diple at a point on the axial line of dipole is
  A)
   from positive charge to negative charge
  done clear
  B)
   from negative charge to positive charge
  done clear
  C)
   along the equatorial line
  done clear
  D)
   at an angle to axial line
  done clear
  View Answer play_arrow

• question_answer60) The distance of moon form the earth is \[3.8\times {{10}^{5}}\]km. Supposing that the eye is most sensitive to the light of wavelength 550 nm, the separation of two points on the moon that can be resolved by a 500 cm telescope is
  A)
   50 m               
  done clear
  B)
   55 m
  done clear
  C)
   51 m               
  done clear
  D)
   60 m
  done clear
  View Answer play_arrow

• question_answer61) Unpolarized light falls on two polarizing sheets placed one on top of other. If the intensity of transmitted light is one fourth of the incident light, the angle between them is
  A)
   \[35{}^\circ \]  
  done clear
  B)
   \[40{}^\circ \]   
  done clear
  C)
   \[45{}^\circ \]  
  done clear
  D)
   \[50{}^\circ \]
  done clear
  E)
   None of the above
  done clear
  View Answer play_arrow

• question_answer62) The Brewsters law is given by the expression
  A)
   \[\mu =\frac{\sin i}{\sin r}\]
  done clear
  B)
   \[\mu =\tan {{\theta }^{p}}\]
  done clear
  C)
   \[\mu =\cos \theta \]
  done clear
  D)
   \[\mu =\sin \theta \]
  done clear
  View Answer play_arrow

• question_answer63) Einstein photoelectric equation is
  A)
   \[{{E}_{\max }}=hv-\phi \]
  done clear
  B)
   \[E=m{{c}^{2}}\]
  done clear
  C)
   \[{{E}^{2}}={{p}^{2}}{{c}^{2}}+m_{0}^{2}{{c}^{4}}\]
  done clear
  D)
   \[E=\left( \frac{1}{2} \right)m{{v}^{2}}\]
  done clear
  View Answer play_arrow

• question_answer64) The Davission-Germer experiment is the direct evidence of
  A)
   particle nature of electrons
  done clear
  B)
   wave nature of electrons
  done clear
  C)
   wave nature of light
  done clear
  D)
   particle nature of light
  done clear
  View Answer play_arrow

• question_answer65) The Rutherford scattering experiment porves that an atom consists of
  A)
   a sphere of positive charge in which electrons are embedded like seeds of water-melon
  done clear
  B)
   a sphere of negative charge in which protons are embedded like seeds of water-melon
  done clear
  C)
   a sphere of electron cloud in which the positive charge in placed at the centre of the sphere
  done clear
  D)
   a sphere of neutral charge
  done clear
  View Answer play_arrow

• question_answer66) According to Bohr model of hydrogen atom, only those orbits are permissible which satisfy the condition
  A)
   \[mv=nh\]
  done clear
  B)
   \[\frac{m{{v}^{2}}}{r}=n\left( \frac{h}{2\pi } \right)\]
  done clear
  C)
   \[mvr=n\left( \frac{h}{2\pi } \right)\]
  done clear
  D)
   \[mv{{r}^{2}}=n\left( \frac{h}{2\pi } \right)\]
  done clear
  View Answer play_arrow

• question_answer67) The radioactive decay of thorium (A = 232, Z = 90) releases six alpha and four beta particles. The atomic number and mass number of the final product is
  A)
   Z = 80, A = 207
  done clear
  B)
   Z = 82, A = 208
  done clear
  C)
   Z = 92, A = 209
  done clear
  D)
   Z=90, A=207
  done clear
  View Answer play_arrow

• question_answer68) Polonium has a half-life of 140 days. If we take 20 g of polonium initially then the amount of it that remains after 280 days is
  A)
   2.5 g               
  done clear
  B)
   5 g
  done clear
  C)
   10 g                
  done clear
  D)
   15 g
  done clear
  View Answer play_arrow

• question_answer69) Based on the band theory of conductors, insulators  and  semi-conductors,  the forbidden gap is smallest in
  A)
   conductors         
  done clear
  B)
   insulators
  done clear
  C)
   semi-conductors    
  done clear
  D)
   All of these
  done clear
  View Answer play_arrow

• question_answer70) Based on the I-V characteristics of the diode, we can classify diode as
  A)
   bi-directional device
  done clear
  B)
   ohmic device
  done clear
  C)
   non-ohmic device   
  done clear
  D)
   passive element
  done clear
  View Answer play_arrow

• question_answer71) The Boolean expression for the XOR gate is
  A)
   \[Y=A+B\]         
  done clear
  B)
   \[Y=A-B\]
  done clear
  C)
   \[V=AB-BA\]       
  done clear
  D)
   \[V=A\oplus B\]
  done clear
  View Answer play_arrow

• question_answer72) Which of the following logic gates are also known as the Universal gates?
  A)
   AND, OR, NOT gate
  done clear
  B)
   XOR, XNOR gate
  done clear
  C)
   NAND, NOR gate
  done clear
  D)
   All logic gates
  done clear
  View Answer play_arrow

• question_answer73) The length of antenna (L) required to propagate a signal of wavelength\[\lambda \]is given as
  A)
   \[L=\frac{\lambda }{2}\]
  done clear
  B)
   \[L=2\lambda \]
  done clear
  C)
   \[L=\frac{\lambda }{3}\]
  done clear
  D)
   \[L=\frac{\lambda }{4}\]
  done clear
  View Answer play_arrow

• question_answer74) The modulation is the process in which the
  A)
   modulating signal is sent by antenna in the air
  done clear
  B)
   carrier signal is sent by the antenna in the air
  done clear
  C)
   modulated signal formed by the mixing of modulating signal with the carrier signal is sent by the antenna
  done clear
  D)
   modulated signal formed by the mixing of modulating signal with the carrier signal is received by a receiver antenna
  done clear
  View Answer play_arrow

• question_answer75) The demodulator or detector circuit consists of a
  A)
   resistor             
  done clear
  B)
   transistor
  done clear
  C)
   diode
  done clear
  D)
  capacitor
  done clear
  View Answer play_arrow

• question_answer76) Which of the following would contain the same number of atoms as 20 g of calcium? [At. masses:\[Ca=40,\text{ }Mg=24,\text{ }C=12\]]
  A)
   24 g of magnesium
  done clear
  B)
   12 g of carbon
  done clear
  C)
   24 g of carbon     
  done clear
  D)
   12 g of magnesium
  done clear
  View Answer play_arrow

• question_answer77) 100 mL of\[1N\,{{H}_{2}}S{{O}_{4}}\]is mixed with 100 mL of 1 \[M\text{ }NaOH\]solution. The resulting Solution will be
  A)
   highly acidic         
  done clear
  B)
   neutral
  done clear
  C)
   highly basic         
  done clear
  D)
   slightly acidic
  done clear
  View Answer play_arrow

• question_answer78) The bond order of N3 on the basis of molecular orbital theory is [Atomic number of\[N=71\]
  A)
   3       
  done clear
  B)
   2.5     
  done clear
  C)
   2       
  done clear
  D)
   1.5
  done clear
  View Answer play_arrow

• question_answer79) What is the total number of electrons that can have the values\[n=2,\text{ l}=1,\text{ }s=1/2\]in the electronic configuration\[1{{s}^{2}}2{{s}^{2}}2{{p}^{3}}\]?
  A)
   1       
  done clear
  B)
   3       
  done clear
  C)
   5       
  done clear
  D)
   7
  done clear
  View Answer play_arrow

• question_answer80) Calculate the wavelength associated with an electron moving with a velocity of\[106\text{ }m/s\](mass   of   electron\[=9.1\times {{10}^{-31}}kg,\]\[h=6.6\times {{10}^{-34}}kg\,{{m}^{2}}{{s}^{-1}}\])
  A)
   \[6.2\times {{10}^{-8}}m\]
  done clear
  B)
   \[7.25\times {{10}^{-8}}m\]
  done clear
  C)
   \[6.25\overset{o}{\mathop{\text{A}}}\,\]
  done clear
  D)
   None of the above
  done clear
  View Answer play_arrow

• question_answer81) Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
  A)
   Hunds rule  -   In orbitals of equivalent energy electron spins remain unpaired if possible
  done clear
  B)
   Paulis exclusion principle  -   No two electrons can have all the four quantum numbers identical
  done clear
  C)
   Zeeman effect   -  The effect of magnetic field on the atomatic spectra
  done clear
  D)
   Uncertainty principle  -   It is impossible to determine the position of an electron
  done clear
  View Answer play_arrow

• question_answer82) The orbital diagram in which Aufbau principle is violated is
  A)
   
  done clear
  B)
   
  done clear
  C)
   
  done clear
  D)
   
  done clear
  View Answer play_arrow

• question_answer83) The\[{{[OH]}^{-}}\]in a solution is\[1\text{ }mol\text{ }{{L}^{-1}}\]. The pH of the solution is
  A)
   1       
  done clear
  B)
   0      
  done clear
  C)
   14     
  done clear
  D)
   \[{{10}^{-14}}\]
  done clear
  View Answer play_arrow

• question_answer84) The solubility of\[Fe{{(OH)}^{3}}\]is\[x\text{ }mol\text{ }{{L}^{-1}}\]. Its\[{{K}_{sp}}\]would be
  A)
   \[9{{x}^{3}}\]    
  done clear
  B)
   \[3{{x}^{4}}\]    
  done clear
  C)
   \[27{{x}^{4}}\]  
  done clear
  D)
   \[9{{x}^{4}}\]
  done clear
  View Answer play_arrow

• question_answer85) In which of the following reactions, increase in pressure will favour the forward reaction?
  A)
   \[PC{{l}_{5}}(g)PC{{l}_{3}}(g)+C{{l}_{2}}(g)\]
  done clear
  B)
   \[2NO(g)+{{O}_{2}}(g)2N{{O}_{2}}(g)\]
  done clear
  C)
   \[C(s)+{{H}_{2}}O(g)CO(g)+{{H}_{2}}(g)\]
  done clear
  D)
   \[2HI(g){{H}_{2}}(g)+{{I}_{2}}(g)\]
  done clear
  View Answer play_arrow

• question_answer86) Which of the following is a Lewis acid?
  A)
   \[BF_{4}^{-}\]              
  done clear
  B)
   \[O{{H}^{-}}\]
  done clear
  C)
   \[AlC{{l}_{3}}\]             
  done clear
  D)
   \[RN{{H}_{2}}\]
  done clear
  View Answer play_arrow

• question_answer87) According to collision theory of chemical reactions rates of the reaction increase with increase in the temperature of a reaction because of
  A)
   increase in the velocity of the reacting molecules
  done clear
  B)
   increase in the number of collisions
  done clear
  C)
   increase in the number of molecules having the activation energy (threshold energy)
  done clear
  D)
   None of the above
  done clear
  View Answer play_arrow

• question_answer88) Consider the reaction, \[2{{N}_{2}}{{O}_{5}}(g)\xrightarrow[{}]{{}}4N{{O}_{2}}(g)+{{O}_{2}}(g)\] The rate law for this reaction is \[rate=k[{{N}_{2}}{{O}_{5}}]\] Which of the following statements is true regarding the above reaction?
  A)
   Its order is 1 and molecularity is 1
  done clear
  B)
   Its order is 1 and molecularity is 2
  done clear
  C)
   Its order is 2 and molecularity is 2
  done clear
  D)
   Its order is 2 and molecularity is 1
  done clear
  View Answer play_arrow

• question_answer89) A catalyst is a substance which
  A)
   increases the rate of forward reaction in reversible reaction
  done clear
  B)
   increases the rate of both forward and backward reaction in a reversible reaction
  done clear
  C)
   does not influence a reversible reaction
  done clear
  D)
   increases the rate of backward reaction in a reversible reaction.
  done clear
  View Answer play_arrow

• question_answer90) Which of the following solutions will have the highest boiling point?
  A)
   1 M glucose solution
  done clear
  B)
   1 M sodium nitrate solution
  done clear
  C)
   1 M barium chloride solution
  done clear
  D)
   1 M aluminium chloride solution
  done clear
  View Answer play_arrow

• question_answer91) Which of the following is a colligative property?
  A)
   Lowering of vapour pressure
  done clear
  B)
   Osmotic pressure
  done clear
  C)
   Boiling point
  done clear
  D)
   Change in entropy
  done clear
  View Answer play_arrow

• question_answer92) vant Hoff factor for\[Ca{{(N{{O}_{3}})}_{2}}\]is
  A)
   1                     
  done clear
  B)
   2
  done clear
  C)
   3                     
  done clear
  D)
   4
  done clear
  View Answer play_arrow

• question_answer93) What will be the freezing point of 1% solution of glucose in water, given that molal depression constant for water is\[1.84\text{ }K\text{ }mo{{l}^{-1}}\]
  A)
   272.898 K         
  done clear
  B)
   \[0.102{}^\circ C\]
  done clear
  C)
   273 K             
  done clear
  D)
   \[0.108{}^\circ C\]
  done clear
  View Answer play_arrow

• question_answer94) If\[\Delta H\]and\[\Delta S\]are positive for a reaction, the reaction will be spontaneous only when
  A)
   \[T\Delta S=\Delta H\]         
  done clear
  B)
   \[T\Delta S>\Delta H\]
  done clear
  C)
   \[T\Delta S<\Delta H\]       
  done clear
  D)
  \[T\Delta S\]is negative
  done clear
  View Answer play_arrow

• question_answer95) Calculate the enthalpy change for the reaction, \[{{C}_{2}}{{H}_{4}}(g)+{{H}_{2}}(g)\xrightarrow[{}]{{}}{{C}_{2}}{{H}_{6}}(g)\] using the data given below \[{{C}_{2}}{{H}_{4}}(g)+3{{O}_{2}}(g)\xrightarrow[{}]{{}}2C{{O}_{2}}(g)+2{{H}_{2}}O(l)\]       \[\Delta H=-\text{ }1415\text{ }kJ\] \[{{C}_{2}}{{H}_{6}}(g)+\frac{7}{2}{{O}_{2}}(g)\xrightarrow[{}]{{}}2C{{O}_{2}}(g)+3{{H}_{2}}O\]        \[\Delta H=-1566\text{ }kJ\] \[{{H}_{2}}(g)+\frac{1}{2}{{O}_{2}}(g)\xrightarrow[{}]{{}}{{H}_{2}}O(l);\]        \[\Delta H=-286\text{ }kJ\]
  A)
   \[-437kJ\]          
  done clear
  B)
   135kJ
  done clear
  C)
   \[-135\text{ }kJ\]          
  done clear
  D)
   None of these
  done clear
  View Answer play_arrow

• question_answer96) In thermodynamics, a quantity whose value simply depends upon the initial and final state of the system is called
  A)
   a thermodynamic quantity
  done clear
  B)
   a state function
  done clear
  C)
   an adiabatic quantity
  done clear
  D)
   a path function
  done clear
  View Answer play_arrow

• question_answer97) All naturally occurring processes proceed spontaneously in a direction which leads to
  A)
   increase in enthalpy of system
  done clear
  B)
   decrease in entropy of system
  done clear
  C)
   decrease in free energy of system
  done clear
  D)
   increase in free energy of system
  done clear
  View Answer play_arrow

• question_answer98) When an electrolytic solution conducts electricity, the current is carried by
  A)
   the electrons
  done clear
  B)
   cations and anions
  done clear
  C)
   neutral molecules
  done clear
  D)
   the atoms of the electrolyte
  done clear
  View Answer play_arrow

• question_answer99) An electrochemical cell has two half cell reactions as, \[{{A}^{2+}}+2{{e}^{-}}\xrightarrow[{}]{{}}A;\] \[E_{{{A}^{2+}}/A}^{0}=0.34\,V\] \[X\xrightarrow[{}]{{}}{{X}^{2+}}+2{{e}^{-}};\]\[E_{{{X}^{2+}}/X}^{0}=-2.37\,V\] The cell voltage will be
  A)
   2.71 V             
  done clear
  B)
   2.03 V
  done clear
  C)
   \[-2.71\text{ }V\]           
  done clear
  D)
   \[-2.03V\]
  done clear
  View Answer play_arrow

• question_answer100) In the electrolysis of dilute\[{{H}_{2}}S{{O}_{4}}\]using platinum electrode
  A)
   \[{{H}_{2}}\] is liberated at cathode
  done clear
  B)
   \[{{O}_{2}}\] is produced at cathode
  done clear
  C)
   \[C{{l}_{2}}\] is obtained at cathode
  done clear
  D)
   \[N{{H}_{3}}\] is produced at anode
  done clear
  View Answer play_arrow

• question_answer101) When a solution of sodium hydroxide is added to acetic acid  solution, the conductivity of the resulting solution will
  A)
   increase          
  done clear
  B)
   remain unchanged
  done clear
  C)
   decrease          
  done clear
  D)
   become zero
  done clear
  View Answer play_arrow

• question_answer102) The behaviour of a real gas approaches ideal behaviour at
  A)
   low temperature, low pressure
  done clear
  B)
   high temperature, high pressure
  done clear
  C)
   low temperature, high pressure
  done clear
  D)
   high temperature, low pressure
  done clear
  View Answer play_arrow

• question_answer103) Which of the following is not the postulate of the kinetic theory of gases?
  A)
   Gas molecules are in a permanent state of random motion
  done clear
  B)
   Pressure of gas is due to molecular impacts on the walls
  done clear
  C)
   The molecules are perfectly elastic
  done clear
  D)
   The molecular collisions are elastic
  done clear
  View Answer play_arrow

• question_answer104) When a cation leaves its normal position in the crystal and moves to some interstitial space, the defect in the crystal is known as
  A)
   Schottky defect
  done clear
  B)
   F-centre
  done clear
  C)
   Frenkei defect
  done clear
  D)
   non-stoichiometric defect
  done clear
  View Answer play_arrow

• question_answer105) Fog is a colloidal system of
  A)
   gas in liquid        
  done clear
  B)
   liquid in gas
  done clear
  C)
   gas in gas          
  done clear
  D)
   gas in solid
  done clear
  View Answer play_arrow

• question_answer106) The purification of a colloidal solution could be done by
  A)
   sedimentation       
  done clear
  B)
   ultrafiltration
  done clear
  C)
   filtration         
  done clear
  D)
   precipitation
  done clear
  View Answer play_arrow

• question_answer107) Bakelite is a product of the reaction between
  A)
   formaldehyde and\[NaOH\]
  done clear
  B)
   aniline and urea
  done clear
  C)
   phenol and methanol
  done clear
  D)
   phenol and chloroform
  done clear
  View Answer play_arrow

• question_answer108) How does electron affinity change when we move from left to right in a period in the Periodic Table?
  A)
   It increases
  done clear
  B)
   It decreases
  done clear
  C)
   It remains unchanged
  done clear
  D)
   It first increases and then decreases
  done clear
  View Answer play_arrow

• question_answer109) Which of the following statements is not correct?
  A)
   lonisation energy increases on going down a group in the Periodic Table
  done clear
  B)
   Among  alkaline earth  metals,  reducing character increases down the group
  done clear
  C)
   Fluorine is the most electronegative element
  done clear
  D)
   Metallic character increases on going down a group in the Periodic Table
  done clear
  View Answer play_arrow

• question_answer110) Which of the following species has a trigonal planar shape?
  A)
   \[{}_{\bullet }^{\bullet }CH_{3}^{-}\]             
  done clear
  B)
   \[CH_{3}^{+}\]
  done clear
  C)
   \[BF_{4}^{-}\]               
  done clear
  D)
   \[Si{{H}_{4}}\]
  done clear
  View Answer play_arrow

• question_answer111) Which of the following will have maximum dipole moment?
  A)
   \[N{{F}_{3}}\]              
  done clear
  B)
  \[N{{H}_{3}}\]
  done clear
  C)
   \[C{{H}_{4}}\]              
  done clear
  D)
  \[PC{{l}_{3}}\]
  done clear
  View Answer play_arrow

• question_answer112) Which of the following forces is the strongest?
  A)
   Hydrogen bonding 
  done clear
  B)
   Dipole-dipole forces
  done clear
  C)
   van der Waals forces
  done clear
  D)
   Coordinate bonding
  done clear
  View Answer play_arrow

• question_answer113) Which of the following statements is correct?
  A)
  \[s{{p}^{3}}-\]hybrid orbitals have equal s and? character
  done clear
  B)
   The bond angle decreases with the decrease of s character of a hybridized orbital
  done clear
  C)
   Resonance decreases the stability of a molecule
  done clear
  D)
   Resonance is due to delocalization of sigma electrons
  done clear
  View Answer play_arrow

• question_answer114) Which of the following is the correct order of increasing oxidising character of oxoacids of chlorine?
  A)
   \[HCl{{O}_{3}}<HCl{{O}_{4}}<HCl{{O}_{2}}<HClO\]
  done clear
  B)
   \[HCl{{O}_{4}}<HCl{{O}_{3}}<HCl{{O}_{2}}<HClO\]
  done clear
  C)
   \[HClO<HCl{{O}_{4}}<HCl{{O}_{3}}<HCl{{O}_{2}}\]
  done clear
  D)
   \[HClO<HCl{{O}_{2}}<HCl{{O}_{3}}<HCl{{O}_{4}}\]
  done clear
  View Answer play_arrow

• question_answer115) Which of the following oxides of group 16 has the highest boiling point?
  A)
   \[{{H}_{2}}O\]
  done clear
  B)
   \[{{H}_{2}}S\]
  done clear
  C)
   \[{{H}_{2}}Se\]
  done clear
  D)
   \[{{H}_{2}}Te\]
  done clear
  View Answer play_arrow

• question_answer116) The +1 oxidation state of thallium is more stable than its +3 oxidation state because of
  A)
   its atomic size      
  done clear
  B)
   its ionization potential
  done clear
  C)
   inert pair effect     
  done clear
  D)
   diagonal relationship
  done clear
  View Answer play_arrow

• question_answer117) Which of the following statements is false regarding alkali metals?
  A)
   Alkali metals are soft and can be cut with the help of knife
  done clear
  B)
   Alkali metals do not occur in free state in nature
  done clear
  C)
   Alkali metals are highly electropositive elements
  done clear
  D)
   Alkali metal hydrides are covalent in character
  done clear
  View Answer play_arrow

• question_answer118) Among the following outermost configurations of transition metals, which shows the highest oxidation state?
  A)
   \[3{{d}^{3}}4{{s}^{2}}\]            
  done clear
  B)
   \[3{{d}^{5}}4{{s}^{1}}\]
  done clear
  C)
   \[3{{d}^{5}}4{{s}^{2}}\]           
  done clear
  D)
   \[3{{d}^{2}}4{{s}^{2}}\]
  done clear
  View Answer play_arrow

• question_answer119) The tendency of transition metals to form stable complexes is due to their
  A)
   low ionization energies
  done clear
  B)
   variable oxidation states
  done clear
  C)
   strong electropositive nature
  done clear
  D)
   high charge/size ratio and vacant d orbitals
  done clear
  View Answer play_arrow

• question_answer120) The transition metal ions are generally paramagnetic in nature because
  A)
   they have coloured salts
  done clear
  B)
   they have one or more unpaired\[d-\]electrons
  done clear
  C)
   they have one or more paired s-electrons
  done clear
  D)
   they are reducing agents
  done clear
  View Answer play_arrow

• question_answer121) The most common oxidation state of lanthanides is
  A)
   +4                  
  done clear
  B)
   +3
  done clear
  C)
   +6                  
  done clear
  D)
   + 2
  done clear
  View Answer play_arrow

• question_answer122) Specify the coordination number of cobalt in\[{{[Co(CN)({{H}_{2}}O){{(en)}^{2}}]}^{2+}}\]
  A)
   6       
  done clear
  B)
   4       
  done clear
  C)
   0       
  done clear
  D)
   3
  done clear
  View Answer play_arrow

• question_answer123) Which of the following complexes is square planar and diamagnetic?
  A)
   \[{{[NiC{{l}_{4}}]}^{2-}}\]          
  done clear
  B)
   \[{{[Ni{{(CN)}_{4}}]}^{2-}}\]
  done clear
  C)
   \[{{[Cr{{(N{{H}_{3}})}_{6}}]}^{3+}}\]      
  done clear
  D)
   \[{{[CuC{{l}_{4}}]}^{2-}}\]
  done clear
  View Answer play_arrow

• question_answer124) Which type of isomerism is exhibited by\[[Pt{{(N{{H}_{3}})}_{2}}C{{l}_{2}}]\]?
  A)
   Coordination isomerism
  done clear
  B)
   Linkage isomerism
  done clear
  C)
   Optical isomerism
  done clear
  D)
   Geometrical isomerism
  done clear
  View Answer play_arrow

• question_answer125) Ethylene diamine tetraacetate ion is a
  A)
   unidentate ligand   
  done clear
  B)
   bidentate ligand
  done clear
  C)
   pentadentate ligand
  done clear
  D)
   hexadentate ligand
  done clear
  View Answer play_arrow

• question_answer126) Which of the following is an ore of zinc?
  A)
   Galena            
  done clear
  B)
   Pyrolusite
  done clear
  C)
   Sphalerite          
  done clear
  D)
   Magnetite
  done clear
  View Answer play_arrow

• question_answer127) The impurities associated with the ore after mining are collectively called
  A)
   flux                
  done clear
  B)
   slag
  done clear
  C)
   minerals           
  done clear
  D)
   gangue
  done clear
  View Answer play_arrow

• question_answer128) During extraction of iron, the iron obtained at the bottom of blast furnace is known as
  A)
   steel              
  done clear
  B)
   wrought iron 
  done clear
  C)
   cast iron          
  done clear
  D)
   None of these
  done clear
  View Answer play_arrow

• question_answer129) Select the molecule which has only one\[\pi -\]bond       
  A)
   \[CH\equiv CH\]                              
  done clear
  B)
   \[C{{H}_{2}}=CH-CHO\]                     
  done clear
  C)
   \[C{{H}_{3}}CH=C{{H}_{2}}\]
  done clear
  D)
   \[C{{H}_{3}}CH=CHCOOH\]
  done clear
  View Answer play_arrow

• question_answer130) Which of the following groups is ortho and para directing?
  A)
   \[COCl\]
  done clear
  B)
   \[CHO\]
  done clear
  C)
   \[OH\]           
  done clear
  D)
   \[COC{{H}_{3}}\]
  done clear
  View Answer play_arrow

• question_answer131) Amongst the given cations, the most stable carbonium ion is
  A)
   \[^{+}C{{H}_{3}}\]
  done clear
  B)
   \[{{(C{{H}_{3}})}_{3}}{{C}^{+}}\]
  done clear
  C)
   \[C{{H}_{3}}C{{H}_{2}}\]
  done clear
  D)
   \[{{(C{{H}_{3}})}_{2}}\overset{+}{\mathop{C}}\,H\]
  done clear
  View Answer play_arrow

• question_answer132) The hybridization of carbon atoms in\[C-C\]single bond of\[HC\equiv CCH=C{{H}_{2}}\]is
  A)
   \[s{{p}^{3}}-s{{p}^{2}}\]          
  done clear
  B)
  \[s{{p}^{2}}-s{{p}^{3}}\]
  done clear
  C)
   \[sp-s{{p}^{2}}\]            
  done clear
  D)
  \[s{{p}^{3}}-s{{p}^{3}}\]
  done clear
  View Answer play_arrow

• question_answer133) The number of optical isomers of the compound\[C{{H}_{3}}CHBrCHBrCOOH\]is
  A)
   0                     
  done clear
  B)
   1
  done clear
  C)
   3                       
  done clear
  D)
   4
  done clear
  View Answer play_arrow

• question_answer134) Electrolysis of an aqueous solution of sodium ethanoate gives
  A)
   methane           
  done clear
  B)
   ethane
  done clear
  C)
   butane             
  done clear
  D)
   methyl ethanoate
  done clear
  View Answer play_arrow

• question_answer135) Which of the following compounds will exhibit cis-trans (geometrical) isomerism?
  A)
   2-butene            
  done clear
  B)
   2-butyne
  done clear
  C)
   2-butanol           
  done clear
  D)
   1-butanol
  done clear
  View Answer play_arrow

• question_answer136) The reaction given below is an example of which of the following? \[2C{{H}_{3}}Br+2Na\xrightarrow[{}]{dry\,ether}{{C}_{2}}{{H}_{6}}+2NaBr\]
  A)
   Reimer-Tiemann reaction
  done clear
  B)
   Wurtz reaction
  done clear
  C)
   Hoffman bromamide reaction
  done clear
  D)
   Aldol condensation
  done clear
  View Answer play_arrow

• question_answer137) Chlorobenzene can be prepared by reacting aniline with
  A)
   hydrochloric acid in the presence of nitrous acid
  done clear
  B)
   cuprous chloride in the presence of aluminium chloride
  done clear
  C)
   chlorine in the presence of aluminium chloride
  done clear
  D)
   nitrous acid followed by heating with cuprous chloride
  done clear
  View Answer play_arrow

• question_answer138) Phenol on treatment with cone.\[HN{{O}_{3}}\]gives
  A)
   o-nitrophenol       
  done clear
  B)
   p-nitrophenol
  done clear
  C)
   o-and p-nitrophenol
  done clear
  D)
   2,4,6-trinitrophenol
  done clear
  View Answer play_arrow

• question_answer139) Which of the following compounds will be formed when methoxy benzene is reacted with\[HBr\]?
  A)
   Phenol and bromomethane
  done clear
  B)
   Methanol and bromobenzene
  done clear
  C)
   Phenol and methanol
  done clear
  D)
   Bromobenzene and bromomethane
  done clear
  View Answer play_arrow

• question_answer140) When ethanol and \[{{I}_{2}}\]are heated in the presence of\[N{{a}_{2}}C{{O}_{3}},\]the yellow crystals obtained are of
  A)
   \[{{C}_{2}}{{H}_{5}}I\]
  done clear
  B)
   \[C{{H}_{3}}I\]
  done clear
  C)
   \[CH{{I}_{3}}\]
  done clear
  D)
   \[C{{H}_{2}}{{I}_{2}}\]
  done clear
  View Answer play_arrow

• question_answer141) Identify B in the following series of reaction \[C{{H}_{3}}CHO\xrightarrow[{}]{C{{H}_{3}}MgX}A\xrightarrow[{}]{HOH}B\]
  A)
   2-propanol         
  done clear
  B)
   1-propanol
  done clear
  C)
   ethanol            
  done clear
  D)
   None of these
  done clear
  View Answer play_arrow

• question_answer142) Which of the following compounds has maximum acidic character?
  A)
   Dichloroacetic acid  
  done clear
  B)
   Acetic acid
  done clear
  C)
   Trichloroacetic acid 
  done clear
  D)
   Triflouoroacetic acid
  done clear
  View Answer play_arrow

• question_answer143) Among the following, the least reactive aldehyde is
  A)
   \[HCHO\]          
  done clear
  B)
   \[{{C}_{6}}{{H}_{5}}CHO\]
  done clear
  C)
   \[C{{H}_{3}}CHO\]        
  done clear
  D)
   \[{{C}_{2}}{{H}_{5}}CHO\]
  done clear
  View Answer play_arrow

• question_answer144) Propanal  on  reaction  with  lithium aluminium hydride gives
  A)
   1-propanol
  done clear
  B)
   2-propanol
  done clear
  C)
   ethanol
  done clear
  D)
   butanol
  done clear
  View Answer play_arrow

• question_answer145) Idenitfy Z in the following sequence \[C{{H}_{3}}C{{H}_{2}}I\xrightarrow[{}]{KCN}X\xrightarrow[{}]{{{H}_{3}}{{O}^{+}}/{{H}_{2}}O}Y\] \[\xrightarrow[\Delta ]{{{H}_{3}}{{O}^{+}}/{{H}_{2}}O}Z\]
  A)
   \[C{{H}_{3}}COCl\]        
  done clear
  B)
   \[C{{H}_{3}}CON{{H}_{2}}\]
  done clear
  C)
   \[C{{H}_{3}}COOH\]       
  done clear
  D)
   \[C{{H}_{3}}C{{H}_{2}}COOH\]
  done clear
  View Answer play_arrow

• question_answer146) Treatment of aniline with bromine water produces
  A)
   2,4,6-tribromoaniline
  done clear
  B)
   a mixture of ortho and para bromoaniline
  done clear
  C)
   bromobenzene
  done clear
  D)
   N-bromoaniline
  done clear
  View Answer play_arrow

• question_answer147) \[{{C}_{6}}{{H}_{5}}COCl\xrightarrow[{}]{N{{H}_{3}}}X\xrightarrow[{}]{{{P}_{2}}{{O}_{5}}}Y\xrightarrow[{{H}_{2}}]{Ni}Z\]The end product in the above sequence of reactions is
  A)
   benzoic acid       
  done clear
  B)
   aniline
  done clear
  C)
   benzyl amine       
  done clear
  D)
   benzonitrile
  done clear
  View Answer play_arrow

• question_answer148) Which of the following is least reactive to nitration?
  A)
   Benzene          
  done clear
  B)
   Nitrobenzene
  done clear
  C)
   Chlorobenzene    
  done clear
  D)
   Aniline
  done clear
  View Answer play_arrow

• question_answer149) Nucleic acids are polymers of
  A)
   nucleotides
  done clear
  B)
   nucleosides
  done clear
  C)
   nuclei of heavy metals
  done clear
  D)
   proteins
  done clear
  View Answer play_arrow

• question_answer150) Which of the following enzymes helps in digestion of proteins?
  A)
   Invertase
  done clear
  B)
   Trypsin
  done clear
  C)
   Tryosinase
  done clear
  D)
   Urease
  done clear
  View Answer play_arrow

• question_answer151) Unicellular algae, diatoms and protozoans are the members of
  A)
   Monera             
  done clear
  B)
   Fungi
  done clear
  C)
   Protista            
  done clear
  D)
   Plantae
  done clear
  View Answer play_arrow

• question_answer152) Which of the following is also known as amphibian of the plant kingdom?
  A)
   Algae            
  done clear
  B)
   Bryophytes
  done clear
  C)
   Pteridophytes      
  done clear
  D)
   Gymnosperms
  done clear
  View Answer play_arrow

• question_answer153) Yeast is not included in protozoas in fungi because
  A)
   chlorophyll is absent
  done clear
  B)
   it has eukaryotic organisation
  done clear
  C)
   cell wall is made up of cellulose and reserve food material as starch
  done clear
  D)
   some fungal hyphae grow in such a way that they give the appearance of pseudomycelium
  done clear
  View Answer play_arrow

• question_answer154) An association between roots of higher plants and fungi is called
  A)
   lichen             
  done clear
  B)
   fern
  done clear
  C)
   mycorrhiza        
  done clear
  D)
   None of these
  done clear
  View Answer play_arrow

• question_answer155) The arrangement of vascular bundles in dicot roots are
  A)
   conjoint             
  done clear
  B)
   collateral
  done clear
  C)
   radial                
  done clear
  D)
   bicollateral
  done clear
  View Answer play_arrow

• question_answer156) An inflorescence with a single central achlamydeous female flower surrounded by a member of achlamydeous male flower is
  A)
   cyathium           
  done clear
  B)
   hypanthodium
  done clear
  C)
   spadix             
  done clear
  D)
   verticillaster
  done clear
  View Answer play_arrow

• question_answer157) Cladode is a modification of
  A)
   stem   
  done clear
  B)
   root    
  done clear
  C)
   leaf    
  done clear
  D)
   petiole
  done clear
  View Answer play_arrow

• question_answer158) Movement    of    water    through semipermeable membrane produces
  A)
   wall pressure      
  done clear
  B)
   turgor pressure
  done clear
  C)
   suction pressure
  done clear
  D)
   osmotic pressure
  done clear
  View Answer play_arrow

• question_answer159) Rate of transpiration is measured by which the following apparatus?
  A)
   Porometer        
  done clear
  B)
   Respirometer
  done clear
  C)
   Ganongs potometer
  done clear
  D)
   Auxanometer
  done clear
  View Answer play_arrow

• question_answer160) Which of the following in the site for glycolysis or EMP?
  A)
   Mitochondria      
  done clear
  B)
   Cytoplasm
  done clear
  C)
   Nucleus           
  done clear
  D)
   Chloroplast
  done clear
  View Answer play_arrow

• question_answer161) In\[{{C}_{4}}\]plants, chloroplast also occurs in
  A)
   epidermis         
  done clear
  B)
   guard cells
  done clear
  C)
   spongy parenchyma
  done clear
  D)
   bundle sheath cells
  done clear
  View Answer play_arrow

• question_answer162) Quantasomes occur on the surface of
  A)
   cristae            
  done clear
  B)
   thylakoids
  done clear
  C)
   plasmalemma     
  done clear
  D)
   nuclear envelope
  done clear
  View Answer play_arrow

• question_answer163) Which is the direction of food through the phloem?
  A)
   From below upward
  done clear
  B)
   From tip to bottom
  done clear
  C)
   From leaves to roots
  done clear
  D)
   From roots to stem
  done clear
  View Answer play_arrow

• question_answer164) Plant cooling is due to
  A)
   assimilation         
  done clear
  B)
   guttation
  done clear
  C)
   photorespiration    
  done clear
  D)
   transpiration
  done clear
  View Answer play_arrow

• question_answer165) In short day plants, flowering is inhibited by interruption of dark by
  A)
   white or red light
  done clear
  B)
   far-red light
  done clear
  C)
   red light followed by far-red light
  done clear
  D)
   far red light, then red light and again by far red light
  done clear
  View Answer play_arrow

• question_answer166) In angiosperms, triple fusion is required for
  A)
   embryo           
  done clear
  B)
   endosperm
  done clear
  C)
   suspensor         
  done clear
  D)
   fruit wall
  done clear
  View Answer play_arrow

• question_answer167) Which of the following is the function of tapetum?
  A)
   Respiratory         
  done clear
  B)
   Nutritive
  done clear
  C)
   Reproductive       
  done clear
  D)
   Protective
  done clear
  View Answer play_arrow

• question_answer168) Which of the following presents premature fall of fruit?
  A)
   \[G{{A}_{3}}\]               
  done clear
  B)
   Zeatin
  done clear
  C)
   NAA              
  done clear
  D)
   Ethylene
  done clear
  View Answer play_arrow

• question_answer169) Which  part  of the  plant  shows thigmotropism?
  A)
   Leaf lamina        
  done clear
  B)
   Tendrils
  done clear
  C)
   Root apex         
  done clear
  D)
   Thorns
  done clear
  View Answer play_arrow

• question_answer170) Given below is the diagram of a embryo sac. Choose the option in which all the four parts A, B, C and D are correctly identified.
  A)
   A-Synergids, B-Antipodal cells, C-Egg cell, D-Polar nuclei
  done clear
  B)
   A-Egg cell, B-Synergids, C-Polar nuclei, D-Antipodal cells
  done clear
  C)
   A-Egg cell, B-Polar nuclei, C-Synergids, D-Antipodal cells
  done clear
  D)
   A-Antipodal cells, B-Egg cell, C-Polar nuclei, D-Synergids
  done clear
  View Answer play_arrow

• question_answer171) Which of the following pairs of bacteria are generally used in genetic engineering experiments?
  A)
   Nitrosomonas and Azotobacter
  done clear
  B)
   Klebsiella and Rhizobium
  done clear
  C)
   Escherichia and Agrobacterium
  done clear
  D)
   Diplococcus and Nitrosomonas
  done clear
  View Answer play_arrow

• question_answer172) If a heterozygous tall plant is crossed with a homozygous dwarf plant, the proportion of dwarf progeny will be
  A)
   25%
  done clear
  B)
   50%
  done clear
  C)
   75%             
  done clear
  D)
   100%
  done clear
  View Answer play_arrow

• question_answer173) The process that involves the transfer of genetic material from one bacterium to another   through   the   agency   of bacteriophage is
  A)
   transformation      
  done clear
  B)
   transcription
  done clear
  C)
   transduction        
  done clear
  D)
   translocation
  done clear
  View Answer play_arrow

• question_answer174) Genes that are involved in turning on or off the transcription of a set of structural genes are called
  A)
   polymorphic genes 
  done clear
  B)
   operator genes
  done clear
  C)
   represser genes    
  done clear
  D)
   regulatory genes
  done clear
  View Answer play_arrow

• question_answer175) Which of the following enzymes cleaves DNA at specific sites producing sticky end?
  A)
   Lyases
  done clear
  B)
   Proteases
  done clear
  C)
   Restriction endonuclease
  done clear
  D)
   Cleaving enzyme
  done clear
  View Answer play_arrow

• question_answer176) A man, whose father is colourblind, marries a lady who is daughter of a colour blindman. Their off springs will be
  A)
   all normal
  done clear
  B)
   all colourblind
  done clear
  C)
   all sons colourblind
  done clear
  D)
   some sons colourblind and some normal
  done clear
  View Answer play_arrow

• question_answer177) A sedentary sea anemone gets attached to the shell lining of hermit crab. The association is called
  A)
   symbiosis         
  done clear
  B)
   commensalism
  done clear
  C)
   parasitism        
  done clear
  D)
   ectoparasitism
  done clear
  View Answer play_arrow

• question_answer178) Pseudomonas is an important component of nitrogen cycle. It
  A)
   fixes elemental nitrogen
  done clear
  B)
   produces elemental nitrogen
  done clear
  C)
   transfers elemental nitrogen
  done clear
  D)
   changes ammonium nitrogen to nitrate state
  done clear
  View Answer play_arrow

• question_answer179) Biochemical oxygen demand measures
  A)
   air pollution
  done clear
  B)
   industrial pollution
  done clear
  C)
   pollution capacity of effluents
  done clear
  D)
   dissolved oxygen needed by microbes to decompost wastes
  done clear
  View Answer play_arrow

• question_answer180) The most common indicator organism which represents polluted water is
  A)
   S. typhi
  done clear
  B)
   Vibrio cholerae
  done clear
  C)
   E. coli
  done clear
  D)
   Entamoeba histolytica
  done clear
  View Answer play_arrow

• question_answer181) Submerged hydrophytes have a well developed
  A)
   root system       
  done clear
  B)
   aerenchyma
  done clear
  C)
   stomata          
  done clear
  D)
   vascular system
  done clear
  View Answer play_arrow

• question_answer182) Dominant   species   represents   most abundant
  A)
   first tree
  done clear
  B)
   shrub that appears for the first time
  done clear
  C)
   herb that binds the soil and provides organic matter to it
  done clear
  D)
   species having major effect on physical environment
  done clear
  View Answer play_arrow

• question_answer183) The mammals (animals) from colder climate generally have shorter hair and not fully developed ear, eyes and other phenotypic characters. This known as
  A)
   Dalls law          
  done clear
  B)
   Aliens rule
  done clear
  C)
   Copes law        
  done clear
  D)
   Bergmanns law
  done clear
  View Answer play_arrow

• question_answer184) Which of the following is the causative organism of influenza?
  A)
   Salmonella          
  done clear
  B)
   Streptococcus
  done clear
  C)
   Myxovirus influenza
  done clear
  D)
   Rhinovirus
  done clear
  View Answer play_arrow

• question_answer185) Addiction of LSD leads to
  A)
   hallucination
  done clear
  B)
   damage to kidneys
  done clear
  C)
   damage to lungs
  done clear
  D)
   mental and emotional disturbances
  done clear
  View Answer play_arrow

• question_answer186) A disease sometimes found in persons above 40 years of age and is characterized by poor. GNS coordination, forgetfulness and tremor of hands is
  A)
   epilepsy           
  done clear
  B)
   alzheimers disease
  done clear
  C)
   migraine           
  done clear
  D)
   schizophrenia
  done clear
  View Answer play_arrow

• question_answer187) Which of the following is an auto-immune disease?
  A)
   AIDS              
  done clear
  B)
   Haemophilia
  done clear
  C)
   Allergy            
  done clear
  D)
   Rheumatoid arthritis
  done clear
  View Answer play_arrow

• question_answer188) Taxon is the unit of
  A)
   species           
  done clear
  B)
   order
  done clear
  C)
   genus            
  done clear
  D)
   taxonomy
  done clear
  View Answer play_arrow

• question_answer189) A virus can be considered a living organism because it
  A)
   respires
  done clear
  B)
   responds to touch stimuli
  done clear
  C)
   can cause disease
  done clear
  D)
   reproduces (inside the host)
  done clear
  View Answer play_arrow

• question_answer190) The basic unit or the lowest taxonomic category is
  A)
   species           
  done clear
  B)
   family
  done clear
  C)
   order             
  done clear
  D)
   kingdom
  done clear
  View Answer play_arrow

• question_answer191) The excretory organ of cockroach and other insects are
  A)
   nephridia          
  done clear
  B)
   gizzard
  done clear
  C)
   flame cells         
  done clear
  D)
   malpighian tubules
  done clear
  View Answer play_arrow

• question_answer192) The clitellum of Pheretima is present in segments
  A)
   12, 13 and 14     
  done clear
  B)
   13, 14 and 15
  done clear
  C)
   14, 15 and 16     
  done clear
  D)
   15, 16 and 17
  done clear
  View Answer play_arrow

• question_answer193) Which of the following is a loose connective tissue?
  A)
   Adipose tissue     
  done clear
  B)
   Areolar tissue
  done clear
  C)
   Blood             
  done clear
  D)
   Nervous tissue
  done clear
  View Answer play_arrow

• question_answer194) Where does the synthesis of ATP in mitochondria takes place?
  A)
   In matrix           
  done clear
  B)
   In intercristal space
  done clear
  C)
   Upon cristae       
  done clear
  D)
   At outer membrane
  done clear
  View Answer play_arrow

• question_answer195) Golgi apparatus is specialised for
  A)
   energy transduction
  done clear
  B)
   digestion of protein
  done clear
  C)
   glycosidation of proteins and lipids
  done clear
  D)
   digestion of carbohydrates
  done clear
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• question_answer196) Exchange of paternal and maternal chromosomes material during cell division is called
  A)
   dyad formation     
  done clear
  B)
   bivalent formation
  done clear
  C)
   synapsis           
  done clear
  D)
   crossing over
  done clear
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• question_answer197) In mitosis, where does the chromosome duplication occur?
  A)
   Interphase
  done clear
  B)
   Prophase
  done clear
  C)
   Late prophase
  done clear
  D)
   Latetelophase
  done clear
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• question_answer198) Linoleic acid is an unsaturated fatty acid and its content is highest in
  A)
   coconut oil         
  done clear
  B)
   sunflower oil
  done clear
  C)
   groundnut oil       
  done clear
  D)
   cotton oil
  done clear
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• question_answer199) The product of an enzyme-catalysed reaction can act as an inhibitor of the reaction. This mechanism of control is known as
  A)
   feed back inhibition
  done clear
  B)
   competitive inhibition
  done clear
  C)
   represssion
  done clear
  D)
   non-competitive inhibition
  done clear
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• question_answer200) The respiratory centre in brain is stimulated by
  A)
  \[C{{O}_{2}}\]concentration in venous blood
  done clear
  B)
  \[{{O}_{2}}\]concentration in venous blood
  done clear
  C)
   \[{{O}_{2}}\]concentration is arterial blood
  done clear
  D)
   \[C{{O}_{2}}\]concentration in arterial blood
  done clear
  View Answer play_arrow

• question_answer201) Glucose present in glomerular filterate is reabsorbed in
  A)
   Bowmans capsule
  done clear
  B)
   Henles loop
  done clear
  C)
   proximal convoluted tubule
  done clear
  D)
   distal convoluted tubule
  done clear
  View Answer play_arrow

• question_answer202) Which is the largest bone in middle ear?
  A)
   Incus              
  done clear
  B)
   Malleus
  done clear
  C)
   Stapes            
  done clear
  D)
   Cochlea
  done clear
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• question_answer203) Which of the following activities in disturbed,    if    parathyroid    gland degenerates?
  A)
   Growth
  done clear
  B)
   Sodium concentration
  done clear
  C)
   Potassium concentration
  done clear
  D)
   Calcium concentration
  done clear
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• question_answer204) Retina is composed of
  A)
   rods only
  done clear
  B)
   cones only
  done clear
  C)
   rods and cones
  done clear
  D)
   rods, cones and neuroganglion cells
  done clear
  View Answer play_arrow

• question_answer205) Which of the following vertebrate organs receives only oxygenated blood?
  A)
   Gill                 
  done clear
  B)
   Lung
  done clear
  C)
   Liver                
  done clear
  D)
   Spleen
  done clear
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• question_answer206) Which of the following is agranulocyte?
  A)
   Lymphocyte        
  done clear
  B)
   Eosinophill
  done clear
  C)
   Basophill          
  done clear
  D)
   Neutrophill
  done clear
  View Answer play_arrow

• question_answer207) The rate of heart beat is determined by
  A)
   SA node           
  done clear
  B)
   AV node
  done clear
  C)
   Purkinje fibre       
  done clear
  D)
   Papillary muscles
  done clear
  View Answer play_arrow

• question_answer208) The middle piece of the sperm contains
  A)
   centriole            
  done clear
  B)
   nucleus
  done clear
  C)
   protein             
  done clear
  D)
   mitochondria
  done clear
  View Answer play_arrow

• question_answer209) Secretion of progesterone by corpus luteum is initiated by
  A)
   Gh                 
  done clear
  B)
   LH
  done clear
  C)
   thyroxine           
  done clear
  D)
   testosterone
  done clear
  View Answer play_arrow

• question_answer210) The function of oxytocin is to help in
  A)
   child birth          
  done clear
  B)
   growth
  done clear
  C)
   lactation            
  done clear
  D)
   gametogenesis
  done clear
  View Answer play_arrow

• question_answer211) Human gametes differ from all other body cells as they are
  A)
   motile               
  done clear
  B)
   diploid
  done clear
  C)
   haploid             
  done clear
  D)
   without cell wall
  done clear
  View Answer play_arrow

• question_answer212) Which one of the following is initiated by secretion of trophoblast?
  A)
   Blastulation         
  done clear
  B)
   Gastrulation
  done clear
  C)
   Implantation        
  done clear
  D)
   Cleavage
  done clear
  View Answer play_arrow

• question_answer213) Spermatogenesis changes
  A)
   spermatogonium to primary spermatocyte
  done clear
  B)
   primary    spermatocyte    to    secondary spermatocyte
  done clear
  C)
   secondary spermatocyte to spermatid
  done clear
  D)
   spermatid to spermatozoa
  done clear
  View Answer play_arrow

• question_answer214) Which of the following is a hormone releasing IUD?
  A)
   Multiload375      
  done clear
  B)
   Cu-7
  done clear
  C)
   LNG-20           
  done clear
  D)
   CuT
  done clear
  View Answer play_arrow

• question_answer215) Plasmids present in the bacterial cells are
  A)
   linear double helical RNA molecules
  done clear
  B)
   linear double helical DNA molecules
  done clear
  C)
   circular double helical DNA molecules
  done clear
  D)
   circular double helical RNA molecules
  done clear
  View Answer play_arrow

• question_answer216) In which of the following diseases, the man has an extra X-chromosome?
  A)
   Bleeders disease
  done clear
  B)
   Turners syndrome
  done clear
  C)
   Downs syndrome
  done clear
  D)
   Klinefelters syndrome
  done clear
  View Answer play_arrow

• question_answer217) Which of the following takes place in DNA fingerprinting?
  A)
   A positive identification can be made
  done clear
  B)
   Multiple restriction enzyme digests/generates unique fragments
  done clear
  C)
   The polymerase chain reaction amplifies fewer DNA
  done clear
  D)
   The verability of repeated sequences between two restriction sites is evaluated
  done clear
  View Answer play_arrow

• question_answer218) The scientist related with the theory of biogenesis and who has done experiment with swan-necked flask is
  A)
   Haeckel
  done clear
  B)
   Louis Pasteur
  done clear
  C)
   van Helmont
  done clear
  D)
   Miller
  done clear
  View Answer play_arrow

• question_answer219) A plant hormone used for inducing morphogenesis in plant tissue culture is
  A)
   ABA               
  done clear
  B)
   gibberellins
  done clear
  C)
   cytokinins          
  done clear
  D)
   ethylene
  done clear
  View Answer play_arrow

• question_answer220) Triticale is obtained by crossing wheat with
  A)
   oat                
  done clear
  B)
   maize
  done clear
  C)
   barley              
  done clear
  D)
   rye
  done clear
  View Answer play_arrow

• question_answer221) A bio-fertiliser is
  A)
   a cyanobacteria like Anabaena species living in cavities of Azolla leaves
  done clear
  B)
   symbiotic association like Azotobacter which fixed atmospheric nitrogen
  done clear
  C)
   farm yard manure consisting of mixture of cattle dung and crop
  done clear
  D)
   green manure in which a quickly growing crop is cultivated and ploughed under
  done clear
  View Answer play_arrow

• question_answer222) Which one of the following drugs depresses (switch off) the activities of central nervous system, is known as sedative and also gives feeling of calmness,   relaxation   of drowsiness?
  A)
   Opium
  done clear
  B)
   Barbiturate
  done clear
  C)
   Heroin
  done clear
  D)
   Cocaine
  done clear
  View Answer play_arrow

• question_answer223) Which of the following techniques is used to make numerous copies of a specific segment of DNA quickly and accurately?
  A)
   Translation
  done clear
  B)
   Transcription
  done clear
  C)
   Polymerase chain reaction
  done clear
  D)
   Ligase chain reaction
  done clear
  View Answer play_arrow

• question_answer224) Which of the following recent technique is used for separating fragments of DNA?
  A)
   Eastern blotting
  done clear
  B)
   Northern blotting
  done clear
  C)
   Southern blotting
  done clear
  D)
   Western blotting
  done clear
  View Answer play_arrow

• question_answer225) In case of Bacillus thuringiensis. Bacillus itself is not killed by the toxic protein crystals produced by it because Bt toxin
  A)
   protein is not produced in the Bacillus
  done clear
  B)
   cannot causes and damage to Bacillus
  done clear
  C)
   protein is produced in very less amount in the Bacillus
  done clear
  D)
   exist as the inactive toxin
  done clear
  View Answer play_arrow