Solved papers for J & K CET Medical J & K - CET Medical Solved Paper-2013

done J & K - CET Medical Solved Paper-2013

  • question_answer1) Which of the following physical quantity unit is not a fundamental unit?

    A) Length

    B) Mass

    C) Magnetic field

    D) Current

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  • question_answer2) The dimensional formula of electric potential is

    A) \[M{{L}^{2}}{{T}^{-3}}{{A}^{-1}}\]

    B) \[{{M}^{-1}}{{L}^{2}}{{T}^{-2}}A\]

    C) \[{{M}^{-1}}{{L}^{2}}{{T}^{-2}}{{A}^{-1}}\]

    D) \[M{{L}^{2}}{{T}^{-2}}A\]

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  • question_answer3) The motion of a particle in straight line is an example of

    A) constant velocity motion

    B) uniformly accelerated motion

    C) non-uniformly accelerated motion

    D) zero velocity motion

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  • question_answer4) The velocity vector of the motion described by the position vector of a particle,\[r=2ti+{{t}^{2}}\hat{j}\]is given by

    A) \[V=2\hat{i}+2t\,\hat{j}\]

    B) \[V=2t\,\hat{i}+2t\,\hat{j}\]

    C) \[V=t\,\hat{i}+{{t}^{2}}\,\hat{j}\]

    D) \[V=2\,\hat{i}+{{t}^{2}}\,\hat{j}\]

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  • question_answer5) The velocity-time graph of particle comes out to be a non-linear curve. The motion is

    A) uniform velocity motion

    B) uniformly accelerated motion

    C) non-uniform accelerated motion

    D) nothing can be said about the motion

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  • question_answer6) A projectile is thrown with initial velocity\[{{\upsilon }_{0}}\]and angle\[30{}^\circ \]with the horizontal. If it remains in the air for 1 s, what was its initial velocity?

    A) 19.6m/s

    B) 9.8 m/s

    C) 4.9 m/s

    D) 1 m/s

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  • question_answer7) Newtons second law of motion is

    A) \[F=dp/dt\]

    B) \[F=mv\]

    C) \[F=m{{v}^{2}}\]

    D) \[F={{m}^{2}}v\]

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  • question_answer8) The centripetal force is given by the expression

    A) \[\frac{M{{v}^{2}}}{R}\]

    B) \[\frac{{{M}^{2}}v}{R}\]

    C) \[\frac{Mv}{{{R}^{2}}}\]

    D) \[\frac{Mv}{R}\]

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  • question_answer9) Uniform circular motion is an example of

    A) constant speed motion

    B) constant velocity motion

    C) non-accelerated motion

    D) zero accelerated motion

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  • question_answer10) The scalar product of two vectors \[A=2\hat{i}+2\hat{j}-\hat{k}\] and\[B=-\text{ }\hat{j}+\hat{k},\]is given by

    A) \[A.B=3\]

    B) \[A.B=4\]

    C) \[A.B=-4\]

    D) \[A.B=-3\]

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  • question_answer11) The linear momentum is conserved in

    A) elastic collisions

    B) inelastic collisions

    C) Both 1 and 2

    D) Neither 1 nor 2

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  • question_answer12) The power (P) of an engine lifting a mass of 100 kg upto a height of 10 m in 1 min is

    A) P=163.3W

    B) P = 9800 W

    C) P = 10000W

    D) P = 5000 W

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  • question_answer13) The conservation of angular momentum demands that

    A) the external force on the system must be zero

    B) the external torque on the system must be zero

    C) both the external force as well as the external torque must be zero

    D) neither of them must be zero

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  • question_answer14) The moment of inertia (7) and the angular momentum (L) are related by the expression

    A) \[I=L\omega \]

    B) \[L=I\omega \]

    C) \[L={{I}^{2}}\omega \]

    D) \[\omega =LI\] where co is the angular velocity.

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  • question_answer15) The moment of inertia\[(I)\]of a sphere of radius R and mass M is given by

    A) \[I=M{{R}^{2}}\]

    B) \[I=(1/2)M{{R}^{2}}\]

    C) \[I=(4/3)M{{R}^{2}}\]

    D) \[I=(2/5)M{{R}^{2}}\]

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  • question_answer16) The universal law of gravitation is the force law known also as the

    A) triangular law

    B) square law

    C) inverse square law

    D) parallelogram law

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  • question_answer17) The value of acceleration due to gravity at the surface of earth

    A) is maximum at the poles

    B) is maximum at the equator

    C) remains constant everywhere on the surface of the earth

    D) is maximum at the intenational timeline

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  • question_answer18) The escape velocity of a particle from the surface of the earth is given by

    A) \[{{(gR)}^{1/2}}\]

    B) \[{{(2gR)}^{1/2}}\]

    C) \[{{(3gR)}^{1/2}}\]

    D) \[{{(gR/2)}^{2}}\]

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  • question_answer19) The Youngs modulus of a rope of 10 m length and having diameter of 2 cm is\[200\times {{10}^{11}}\]dyne\[/c{{m}^{2}}\]. If the elongation produced in the rope is 1 cm, the force applied on the rope is

    A) \[6.28\times {{10}^{5}}N\]

    B) \[6.28\times {{10}^{4}}N\]

    C) \[6.28\times {{10}^{4}}\]dyne

    D) \[6.28\times {{10}^{5}}\]dyne

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  • question_answer20) The pressure exerted at any point in an enclosed fluid is transmitted equally in all directions. This is known as

    A) Archimedes principle

    B) Law of floatation

    C) Pascals law

    D) Bernoullis principle

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  • question_answer21) There are two identical small holes on the opposite sides of a tank containing a liquid. The tank is open at the top. The difference in height between the two holes is h. As the liquid comes out of the two holes, the tank will experience a net horizontal force proportional to

    A) \[\sqrt{h}\]

    B) \[h\]

    C) \[{{h}^{3/2}}\]

    D) \[{{h}^{2}}\]

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  • question_answer22) The zeroth law of thermodynamics for three systems A, B and C in contact demands that

    A) A and B are in thermal equilibrium

    B) B and C are in thermal equilibrium

    C) A and C are in thermal equilibrium

    D) A B and C are in thermal equilibrium

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  • question_answer23) The efficiency of a Carnot engine kept at the temperatures of\[27{}^\circ C\]and\[127{}^\circ C\]is

    A) 20%

    B) 25%

    C) 30%

    D) 40%

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  • question_answer24) The average pressure of an ideal gas is

    A) \[p=(1/3)mnV_{av}^{2}\]

    B) \[p=(1/2)mn{{V}_{av}}\]

    C) \[p=(1/4)mnV_{av}^{2}\]

    D) \[p=(1/3)mn{{V}_{av}}\]

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  • question_answer25) where symbols have their usual meanings. According to equipartition law of energy each particle in a system of particles have thermal energy E equal to

    A) \[E={{k}_{B}}T\]

    B) \[E=(1/2){{k}_{B}}T\]

    C) \[E=3{{k}_{B}}T\]

    D) \[E=(3/2){{k}_{B}}T\]

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  • question_answer26) The velocity of sound in a gas is 1300 m/s at STP and specific heat at constant pressure is\[6.84\,cal\,{{K}^{-1}}mo{{l}^{-1}}\]. The rms velocity at STP is (R\[=1.98\text{ }cal\text{ }{{K}^{-1}}mo{{l}^{-1}}\])

    A) 1300 m/s

    B) 2600 m/s

    C) 1898 m/s

    D) 650 m/s

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  • question_answer27) The time period of a simple pendulum of length 9.8 m is

    A) 0.159s

    B) 3.14s

    C) 6.5s

    D) 6.28s

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  • question_answer28) The displacement, velocity and acceleration in a simple harmonic motion are related as the

    A) displacement, velocity and acceleration all act in the same direction

    B) displacement and velocity act in the same direction but acceleration in the opposite direction

    C) velocity and acceleration are parallel and both are perpendicular to the displacement

    D) displacement and acceleration are antiparallel and both perpendicular to the velocity

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  • question_answer29) The beats are the examples of

    A) simple harmonic motion

    B) interference of two or more waves having same amplitude but slightly different frequencies in the same direction

    C) interference of two or more waves having different amplitude but same frequencies in the same direction

    D) interference of two or more waves having same amplitude out slightly different frequencies in the perpendicular direction

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  • question_answer30) The fundamental frequency of an open pipe of length 1 m, if the speed of sound in air is 340 m/s is

    A) 340 Hz

    B) 170 Hz

    C) 680 Hz

    D) 85 Hz

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  • question_answer31) A whistle with frequency 1020 Hz is blown at a station. A man travelling in train moving towards the station at 30 m/s hears the sound of the whistle. If the speed of sound is 340 m/s, the apparent frequency heard by him is

    A) 1020 Hz

    B) 1110 Hz

    C) 2040 Hz

    D) 610 Hz

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  • question_answer32) An electric charge does not have which of hte following properties?

    A) Total charge conservation

    B) Quantization of charge

    C) Two type of charge

    D) Circular line of force

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  • question_answer33) The net electric force on a charge of\[+3\mu C\]at the mid-point on the line joining two charges of magnitude\[+2\mu C\]and\[-2\mu C\]separated by the distance of 6 mm, is

    A) 6000 N

    B) 500 N

    C) 60 N

    D) zero

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  • question_answer34) A hollow sphere of radius 0.1 m has a charge of\[5\times {{10}^{-8}}C\]. The potential at a distance of 5 cm from the centre of the sphere is \[\left( \frac{1}{4\pi {{\varepsilon }_{0}}}=9\times {{10}^{9}}N{{m}^{2}}{{C}^{-2}} \right)\]

    A) 4000V

    B) 4500V

    C) 5000V

    D) 6000V

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  • question_answer35) A parallel plate capacitor of capacitance 5 microfarad is charged to 120 V and then connected to another uncharged capacitor. If the potential falls to 40 V, and capacitance of the second capacitor is

    A) 5 microfarad

    B) 10 microfarad

    C) 15 microfarad

    D) 20 microfarad

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  • question_answer36) Two identical capacitors are first connected in series and then in parallel. The ratio of equivalent capacitance is

    A) \[1:1\]

    B) \[1:2\]

    C) \[1:3\]

    D) \[1:4\]

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  • question_answer37) An electron revolves in a circle at the rate of \[{{10}^{19}}\]rounds per second. The equivalent current is\[(e=1.6\times {{10}^{-19}}C)\]

    A) 1.0 A

    B) 1.6 A

    C) 2.0 A

    D) 2.6 A

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  • question_answer38) A silver wire of radius 0.1 cm carries a current of2A. If the charge density in silver is \[5.86\times {{10}^{28}}{{m}^{-3}},\]the drift velocity is

    A) \[0.2\times {{10}^{-3}}m/s\]

    B) \[0.4\times {{10}^{-4}}m/s\]

    C) \[0.68\times {{10}^{-4}}m/s\]

    D) \[7\times {{10}^{-4}}m/s\]

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  • question_answer39) Aim long wire of diameter of 0.31 mm has a resistance of\[4.2\,\Omega \]. If it is replaced by another wire of same material of length 1.5 m and diameter 0.155 mm, the resistance of wire is

    A) \[25.2\,\Omega \]

    B) \[0.6\,\Omega \]

    C) \[26.7\,\Omega \]

    D) \[0.8\,\Omega \]

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  • question_answer40) cells of emf 1.5 V each having internal resistance of 1 ohm are connected to an external resistance of 1.5 ohms. To get maximum current

    A) all cells are connected in series combination

    B) all cells are connected in parallel combination

    C) 4 cells in each row are connected in series and 6 such rows are connected in parallel

    D) 6 cells in each row are connected in series and 4 such rows are connected in parallel

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  • question_answer41) The temperature coefficient of the resistance of a wire is 0.00125 per\[{}^\circ C\]. At 300 K its resistance is\[1\,\Omega \]. The resistance of wire will be\[2\,\,\Omega \]at

    A) 1154K

    B) 1100K

    C) 1400 K

    D) 1127K

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  • question_answer42) A long straight wire is carrying a current of 12 A. The magnetic field at a distance of 8 cm is\[({{\mu }_{0}}=4\pi \times {{10}^{-7}}N/{{A}^{2}})\]

    A) \[2\times {{10}^{-4}}Wb/{{m}^{2}}\]

    B) \[3\times {{10}^{-5}}Wb/{{m}^{2}}\]

    C) \[4\times {{10}^{-4}}Wb/{{m}^{2}}\]

    D) \[4\times {{10}^{-5}}Wb/{{m}^{2}}\]

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  • question_answer43) The magnetic field at a point on the axis of a long solenoid having 5 turns per cm length when a current of 0.8 A flows through it is

    A) \[5.024\times {{10}^{-8}}Wb/{{m}^{2}}\]

    B) \[6.024\times {{10}^{-8}}Wb/{{m}^{2}}\]

    C) \[7.024\times {{10}^{-8}}Wb/{{m}^{2}}\]

    D) \[8.024\times {{10}^{-8}}Wb/{{m}^{2}}\]

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  • question_answer44) Two straight wires each 10 cm long are parallel to one another and separated by 2 cm. When the current flowing in them is 30 A and 40 A respectively, the force experienced by either of the wires is

    A) \[1.2\times {{10}^{-3}}N\]

    B) \[12\times {{10}^{-3}}N\]

    C) \[11.2\times {{10}^{-3}}N\]

    D) \[10.2\times {{10}^{-3}}N\]

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  • question_answer45) The horizontal and vertical components of earths magnetic field at a place are 0.3 G and 0.52 G. The earths magnetic field and the angle of dip are

    A) \[0.3\text{ }G\text{ }and\text{ }\delta =30{}^\circ \]

    B) \[0.4\text{ }G\text{ }and\text{ }\delta =40{}^\circ \]

    C) \[0.5\text{ }G\text{ }and\text{ }\delta =50{}^\circ \]

    D) \[0.6\text{ }G\text{ }and\text{ }\delta =60{}^\circ \]

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  • question_answer46) A bar magnet of pole strength 10 Am is cut into two equal parts breadthwise. The pole strength of each magnet is

    A) 5 Am

    B) 10 Am

    C) 15 Am

    D) 20 Am

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  • question_answer47) A conductor of length 5 cm is moved parallel to itself with a speed of 2 m/s, perpendicular to a uniform magnetic field of\[{{10}^{-3}}Wb/{{m}^{3}}\]. The induced e.m.f. generated is

    A) \[2\times {{10}^{-3}}V\]

    B) \[1\times {{10}^{-3}}V\]

    C) \[1\times {{10}^{-4}}V\]

    D) \[2\times {{10}^{-4}}V\]

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  • question_answer48) The induced emf in a coil of 10 H inductance in which current varies from 9 A to 4 A in 0.2 s is

    A) 200V

    B) 250V

    C) 300V

    D) 350V

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  • question_answer49) The alternating current in a circuit is given by\[I=50\,sin\,314t\]. The peak value and frequency of the current are

    A) \[{{I}_{0}}=25\,A\]and\[r=100\,Hz\]

    B) \[{{I}_{0}}=50\,A\]and\[r=50\,Hz\]

    C) \[{{I}_{0}}=50\,A\]and\[r=100\,Hz\]

    D) \[{{I}_{0}}=25\,A\]and\[r=50\,Hz\]

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  • question_answer50) A 50 Hz AC signal is applied in a circuit of inductance of\[(1/\pi )H\]and resistance\[2100\text{ }\Omega \]. The impedance offered by the circuit is

    A) \[1500\text{ }\Omega \]

    B) \[1700\text{ }\Omega \]

    C) \[2102\text{ }\Omega \]

    D) \[2500\text{ }\Omega \]

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  • question_answer51) If the alternating current\[I={{I}_{1}}\cos \omega t+{{I}_{2}}\] \[\sin \omega t\] then the rms current is given by

    A) \[\frac{{{I}_{1}}+{{I}_{2}}}{\sqrt{2}}\]

    B) \[\frac{|{{I}_{1}}+{{I}_{2}}|}{\sqrt{2}}\]

    C) \[\sqrt{\left( \frac{I_{1}^{2}+I_{2}^{2}}{\sqrt{2}} \right)}\]

    D) \[\sqrt{\frac{I_{1}^{2}+I_{2}^{2}}{\sqrt{2}}}\]

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  • question_answer52) The transverse nature of electromagnetic waves is proved by which of the following?

    A) Interference phenomena

    B) Diffraction phenomena

    C) Dispersion phenomena

    D) Polarization phenomena

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  • question_answer53) Which component of electromagnetic spectrum have maximum wavelength?

    A) Radio waves

    B) Visible spectrum

    C) Gamma rays

    D) X-rays

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  • question_answer54) An object is 8 cm high. It is desired to form a real image 4 cm high at 60 cm from the mirror. The type of mirror needed with the focal length is

    A) convex mirror with focal length\[f=40\text{ }cm\]

    B) convex mirror with focal length \[f=20\text{ }cm\]

    C) concave mirror with focal length\[f=-40\text{ }cm\]

    D) concave mirror with focal length\[f=-20\text{ }cm\]

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  • question_answer55) When an object is placed 40 cm from a diverging lens, its virtual image is formed 20 cm from the lens. The focal length and power of lens are

    A) \[F=-20cm,P=-5D\]

    B) \[F=-40cm,P=-5D\]

    C) \[F=-40cm,P=-2.5D\]

    D) \[F=-20cm,\text{ }P=-2.5\text{ }D\]

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  • question_answer56) A magnifying glass of focal length 5 cm is used to view an object by a person whose smallest distance of distinct vision is 25 cm. If he holds the glass close to eye, the magnification is

    A) 5

    B) 6

    C) 2.5

    D) 3

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  • question_answer57) A person has a minimum distance of distinct vision as 50 cm. The power of lenses required to read a book at a distance of 25 cm is

    A) 3D

    B) 1D

    C) 2D

    D) 4D

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  • question_answer58) If two slits in Youngs experiment are 0.4 mm apart and fringe width on a screen 200 cm away is 2 mm the wavelength of light illuminating the slits is

    A) 500 nm

    B) 600 nm

    C) 400 nm

    D) 300 nm

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  • question_answer59) Electric field strength due to a diple at a point on the axial line of dipole is

    A) from positive charge to negative charge

    B) from negative charge to positive charge

    C) along the equatorial line

    D) at an angle to axial line

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  • question_answer60) The distance of moon form the earth is \[3.8\times {{10}^{5}}\]km. Supposing that the eye is most sensitive to the light of wavelength 550 nm, the separation of two points on the moon that can be resolved by a 500 cm telescope is

    A) 50 m

    B) 55 m

    C) 51 m

    D) 60 m

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  • question_answer61) Unpolarized light falls on two polarizing sheets placed one on top of other. If the intensity of transmitted light is one fourth of the incident light, the angle between them is

    A) \[35{}^\circ \]

    B) \[40{}^\circ \]

    C) \[45{}^\circ \]

    D) \[50{}^\circ \]

    E) None of the above

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  • question_answer62) The Brewsters law is given by the expression

    A) \[\mu =\frac{\sin i}{\sin r}\]

    B) \[\mu =\tan {{\theta }^{p}}\]

    C) \[\mu =\cos \theta \]

    D) \[\mu =\sin \theta \]

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  • question_answer63) Einstein photoelectric equation is

    A) \[{{E}_{\max }}=hv-\phi \]

    B) \[E=m{{c}^{2}}\]

    C) \[{{E}^{2}}={{p}^{2}}{{c}^{2}}+m_{0}^{2}{{c}^{4}}\]

    D) \[E=\left( \frac{1}{2} \right)m{{v}^{2}}\]

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  • question_answer64) The Davission-Germer experiment is the direct evidence of

    A) particle nature of electrons

    B) wave nature of electrons

    C) wave nature of light

    D) particle nature of light

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  • question_answer65) The Rutherford scattering experiment porves that an atom consists of

    A) a sphere of positive charge in which electrons are embedded like seeds of water-melon

    B) a sphere of negative charge in which protons are embedded like seeds of water-melon

    C) a sphere of electron cloud in which the positive charge in placed at the centre of the sphere

    D) a sphere of neutral charge

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  • question_answer66) According to Bohr model of hydrogen atom, only those orbits are permissible which satisfy the condition

    A) \[mv=nh\]

    B) \[\frac{m{{v}^{2}}}{r}=n\left( \frac{h}{2\pi } \right)\]

    C) \[mvr=n\left( \frac{h}{2\pi } \right)\]

    D) \[mv{{r}^{2}}=n\left( \frac{h}{2\pi } \right)\]

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  • question_answer67) The radioactive decay of thorium (A = 232, Z = 90) releases six alpha and four beta particles. The atomic number and mass number of the final product is

    A) Z = 80, A = 207

    B) Z = 82, A = 208

    C) Z = 92, A = 209

    D) Z=90, A=207

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  • question_answer68) Polonium has a half-life of 140 days. If we take 20 g of polonium initially then the amount of it that remains after 280 days is

    A) 2.5 g

    B) 5 g

    C) 10 g

    D) 15 g

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  • question_answer69) Based on the band theory of conductors, insulators and semi-conductors, the forbidden gap is smallest in

    A) conductors

    B) insulators

    C) semi-conductors

    D) All of these

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  • question_answer70) Based on the I-V characteristics of the diode, we can classify diode as

    A) bi-directional device

    B) ohmic device

    C) non-ohmic device

    D) passive element

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  • question_answer71) The Boolean expression for the XOR gate is

    A) \[Y=A+B\]

    B) \[Y=A-B\]

    C) \[V=AB-BA\]

    D) \[V=A\oplus B\]

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  • question_answer72) Which of the following logic gates are also known as the Universal gates?

    A) AND, OR, NOT gate

    B) XOR, XNOR gate

    C) NAND, NOR gate

    D) All logic gates

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  • question_answer73) The length of antenna (L) required to propagate a signal of wavelength\[\lambda \]is given as

    A) \[L=\frac{\lambda }{2}\]

    B) \[L=2\lambda \]

    C) \[L=\frac{\lambda }{3}\]

    D) \[L=\frac{\lambda }{4}\]

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  • question_answer74) The modulation is the process in which the

    A) modulating signal is sent by antenna in the air

    B) carrier signal is sent by the antenna in the air

    C) modulated signal formed by the mixing of modulating signal with the carrier signal is sent by the antenna

    D) modulated signal formed by the mixing of modulating signal with the carrier signal is received by a receiver antenna

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  • question_answer75) The demodulator or detector circuit consists of a

    A) resistor

    B) transistor

    C) diode

    D) capacitor

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  • question_answer76) Which of the following would contain the same number of atoms as 20 g of calcium? [At. masses:\[Ca=40,\text{ }Mg=24,\text{ }C=12\]]

    A) 24 g of magnesium

    B) 12 g of carbon

    C) 24 g of carbon

    D) 12 g of magnesium

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  • question_answer77) 100 mL of\[1N\,{{H}_{2}}S{{O}_{4}}\]is mixed with 100 mL of 1 \[M\text{ }NaOH\]solution. The resulting Solution will be

    A) highly acidic

    B) neutral

    C) highly basic

    D) slightly acidic

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  • question_answer78) The bond order of N3 on the basis of molecular orbital theory is [Atomic number of\[N=71\]

    A) 3

    B) 2.5

    C) 2

    D) 1.5

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  • question_answer79) What is the total number of electrons that can have the values\[n=2,\text{ l}=1,\text{ }s=1/2\]in the electronic configuration\[1{{s}^{2}}2{{s}^{2}}2{{p}^{3}}\]?

    A) 1

    B) 3

    C) 5

    D) 7

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  • question_answer80) Calculate the wavelength associated with an electron moving with a velocity of\[106\text{ }m/s\](mass of electron\[=9.1\times {{10}^{-31}}kg,\]\[h=6.6\times {{10}^{-34}}kg\,{{m}^{2}}{{s}^{-1}}\])

    A) \[6.2\times {{10}^{-8}}m\]

    B) \[7.25\times {{10}^{-8}}m\]

    C) \[6.25\overset{o}{\mathop{\text{A}}}\,\]

    D) None of the above

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  • question_answer81) Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

    A) Hunds rule - In orbitals of equivalent energy electron spins remain unpaired if possible

    B) Paulis exclusion principle - No two electrons can have all the four quantum numbers identical

    C) Zeeman effect - The effect of magnetic field on the atomatic spectra

    D) Uncertainty principle - It is impossible to determine the position of an electron

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  • question_answer82) The orbital diagram in which Aufbau principle is violated is





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  • question_answer83) The\[{{[OH]}^{-}}\]in a solution is\[1\text{ }mol\text{ }{{L}^{-1}}\]. The pH of the solution is

    A) 1

    B) 0

    C) 14

    D) \[{{10}^{-14}}\]

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  • question_answer84) The solubility of\[Fe{{(OH)}^{3}}\]is\[x\text{ }mol\text{ }{{L}^{-1}}\]. Its\[{{K}_{sp}}\]would be

    A) \[9{{x}^{3}}\]

    B) \[3{{x}^{4}}\]

    C) \[27{{x}^{4}}\]

    D) \[9{{x}^{4}}\]

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  • question_answer85) In which of the following reactions, increase in pressure will favour the forward reaction?

    A) \[PC{{l}_{5}}(g)PC{{l}_{3}}(g)+C{{l}_{2}}(g)\]

    B) \[2NO(g)+{{O}_{2}}(g)2N{{O}_{2}}(g)\]

    C) \[C(s)+{{H}_{2}}O(g)CO(g)+{{H}_{2}}(g)\]

    D) \[2HI(g){{H}_{2}}(g)+{{I}_{2}}(g)\]

    View Answer play_arrow
  • question_answer86) Which of the following is a Lewis acid?

    A) \[BF_{4}^{-}\]

    B) \[O{{H}^{-}}\]

    C) \[AlC{{l}_{3}}\]

    D) \[RN{{H}_{2}}\]

    View Answer play_arrow
  • question_answer87) According to collision theory of chemical reactions rates of the reaction increase with increase in the temperature of a reaction because of

    A) increase in the velocity of the reacting molecules

    B) increase in the number of collisions

    C) increase in the number of molecules having the activation energy (threshold energy)

    D) None of the above

    View Answer play_arrow
  • question_answer88) Consider the reaction, \[2{{N}_{2}}{{O}_{5}}(g)\xrightarrow[{}]{{}}4N{{O}_{2}}(g)+{{O}_{2}}(g)\] The rate law for this reaction is \[rate=k[{{N}_{2}}{{O}_{5}}]\] Which of the following statements is true regarding the above reaction?

    A) Its order is 1 and molecularity is 1

    B) Its order is 1 and molecularity is 2

    C) Its order is 2 and molecularity is 2

    D) Its order is 2 and molecularity is 1

    View Answer play_arrow
  • question_answer89) A catalyst is a substance which

    A) increases the rate of forward reaction in reversible reaction

    B) increases the rate of both forward and backward reaction in a reversible reaction

    C) does not influence a reversible reaction

    D) increases the rate of backward reaction in a reversible reaction.

    View Answer play_arrow
  • question_answer90) Which of the following solutions will have the highest boiling point?

    A) 1 M glucose solution

    B) 1 M sodium nitrate solution

    C) 1 M barium chloride solution

    D) 1 M aluminium chloride solution

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  • question_answer91) Which of the following is a colligative property?

    A) Lowering of vapour pressure

    B) Osmotic pressure

    C) Boiling point

    D) Change in entropy

    View Answer play_arrow
  • question_answer92) vant Hoff factor for\[Ca{{(N{{O}_{3}})}_{2}}\]is

    A) 1

    B) 2

    C) 3

    D) 4

    View Answer play_arrow
  • question_answer93) What will be the freezing point of 1% solution of glucose in water, given that molal depression constant for water is\[1.84\text{ }K\text{ }mo{{l}^{-1}}\]

    A) 272.898 K

    B) \[0.102{}^\circ C\]

    C) 273 K

    D) \[0.108{}^\circ C\]

    View Answer play_arrow
  • question_answer94) If\[\Delta H\]and\[\Delta S\]are positive for a reaction, the reaction will be spontaneous only when

    A) \[T\Delta S=\Delta H\]

    B) \[T\Delta S>\Delta H\]

    C) \[T\Delta S<\Delta H\]

    D) \[T\Delta S\]is negative

    View Answer play_arrow
  • question_answer95) Calculate the enthalpy change for the reaction, \[{{C}_{2}}{{H}_{4}}(g)+{{H}_{2}}(g)\xrightarrow[{}]{{}}{{C}_{2}}{{H}_{6}}(g)\] using the data given below \[{{C}_{2}}{{H}_{4}}(g)+3{{O}_{2}}(g)\xrightarrow[{}]{{}}2C{{O}_{2}}(g)+2{{H}_{2}}O(l)\] \[\Delta H=-\text{ }1415\text{ }kJ\] \[{{C}_{2}}{{H}_{6}}(g)+\frac{7}{2}{{O}_{2}}(g)\xrightarrow[{}]{{}}2C{{O}_{2}}(g)+3{{H}_{2}}O\] \[\Delta H=-1566\text{ }kJ\] \[{{H}_{2}}(g)+\frac{1}{2}{{O}_{2}}(g)\xrightarrow[{}]{{}}{{H}_{2}}O(l);\] \[\Delta H=-286\text{ }kJ\]

    A) \[-437kJ\]

    B) 135kJ

    C) \[-135\text{ }kJ\]

    D) None of these

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  • question_answer96) In thermodynamics, a quantity whose value simply depends upon the initial and final state of the system is called

    A) a thermodynamic quantity

    B) a state function

    C) an adiabatic quantity

    D) a path function

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  • question_answer97) All naturally occurring processes proceed spontaneously in a direction which leads to

    A) increase in enthalpy of system

    B) decrease in entropy of system

    C) decrease in free energy of system

    D) increase in free energy of system

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  • question_answer98) When an electrolytic solution conducts electricity, the current is carried by

    A) the electrons

    B) cations and anions

    C) neutral molecules

    D) the atoms of the electrolyte

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  • question_answer99) An electrochemical cell has two half cell reactions as, \[{{A}^{2+}}+2{{e}^{-}}\xrightarrow[{}]{{}}A;\] \[E_{{{A}^{2+}}/A}^{0}=0.34\,V\] \[X\xrightarrow[{}]{{}}{{X}^{2+}}+2{{e}^{-}};\]\[E_{{{X}^{2+}}/X}^{0}=-2.37\,V\] The cell voltage will be

    A) 2.71 V

    B) 2.03 V

    C) \[-2.71\text{ }V\]

    D) \[-2.03V\]

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  • question_answer100) In the electrolysis of dilute\[{{H}_{2}}S{{O}_{4}}\]using platinum electrode

    A) \[{{H}_{2}}\] is liberated at cathode

    B) \[{{O}_{2}}\] is produced at cathode

    C) \[C{{l}_{2}}\] is obtained at cathode

    D) \[N{{H}_{3}}\] is produced at anode

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  • question_answer101) When a solution of sodium hydroxide is added to acetic acid solution, the conductivity of the resulting solution will

    A) increase

    B) remain unchanged

    C) decrease

    D) become zero

    View Answer play_arrow
  • question_answer102) The behaviour of a real gas approaches ideal behaviour at

    A) low temperature, low pressure

    B) high temperature, high pressure

    C) low temperature, high pressure

    D) high temperature, low pressure

    View Answer play_arrow
  • question_answer103) Which of the following is not the postulate of the kinetic theory of gases?

    A) Gas molecules are in a permanent state of random motion

    B) Pressure of gas is due to molecular impacts on the walls

    C) The molecules are perfectly elastic

    D) The molecular collisions are elastic

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  • question_answer104) When a cation leaves its normal position in the crystal and moves to some interstitial space, the defect in the crystal is known as

    A) Schottky defect

    B) F-centre

    C) Frenkei defect

    D) non-stoichiometric defect

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  • question_answer105) Fog is a colloidal system of

    A) gas in liquid

    B) liquid in gas

    C) gas in gas

    D) gas in solid

    View Answer play_arrow
  • question_answer106) The purification of a colloidal solution could be done by

    A) sedimentation

    B) ultrafiltration

    C) filtration

    D) precipitation

    View Answer play_arrow
  • question_answer107) Bakelite is a product of the reaction between

    A) formaldehyde and\[NaOH\]

    B) aniline and urea

    C) phenol and methanol

    D) phenol and chloroform

    View Answer play_arrow
  • question_answer108) How does electron affinity change when we move from left to right in a period in the Periodic Table?

    A) It increases

    B) It decreases

    C) It remains unchanged

    D) It first increases and then decreases

    View Answer play_arrow
  • question_answer109) Which of the following statements is not correct?

    A) lonisation energy increases on going down a group in the Periodic Table

    B) Among alkaline earth metals, reducing character increases down the group

    C) Fluorine is the most electronegative element

    D) Metallic character increases on going down a group in the Periodic Table

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  • question_answer110) Which of the following species has a trigonal planar shape?

    A) \[{}_{\bullet }^{\bullet }CH_{3}^{-}\]

    B) \[CH_{3}^{+}\]

    C) \[BF_{4}^{-}\]

    D) \[Si{{H}_{4}}\]

    View Answer play_arrow
  • question_answer111) Which of the following will have maximum dipole moment?

    A) \[N{{F}_{3}}\]

    B) \[N{{H}_{3}}\]

    C) \[C{{H}_{4}}\]

    D) \[PC{{l}_{3}}\]

    View Answer play_arrow
  • question_answer112) Which of the following forces is the strongest?

    A) Hydrogen bonding

    B) Dipole-dipole forces

    C) van der Waals forces

    D) Coordinate bonding

    View Answer play_arrow
  • question_answer113) Which of the following statements is correct?

    A) \[s{{p}^{3}}-\]hybrid orbitals have equal s and? character

    B) The bond angle decreases with the decrease of s character of a hybridized orbital

    C) Resonance decreases the stability of a molecule

    D) Resonance is due to delocalization of sigma electrons

    View Answer play_arrow
  • question_answer114) Which of the following is the correct order of increasing oxidising character of oxoacids of chlorine?

    A) \[HCl{{O}_{3}}<HCl{{O}_{4}}<HCl{{O}_{2}}<HClO\]

    B) \[HCl{{O}_{4}}<HCl{{O}_{3}}<HCl{{O}_{2}}<HClO\]

    C) \[HClO<HCl{{O}_{4}}<HCl{{O}_{3}}<HCl{{O}_{2}}\]

    D) \[HClO<HCl{{O}_{2}}<HCl{{O}_{3}}<HCl{{O}_{4}}\]

    View Answer play_arrow
  • question_answer115) Which of the following oxides of group 16 has the highest boiling point?

    A) \[{{H}_{2}}O\]

    B) \[{{H}_{2}}S\]

    C) \[{{H}_{2}}Se\]

    D) \[{{H}_{2}}Te\]

    View Answer play_arrow
  • question_answer116) The +1 oxidation state of thallium is more stable than its +3 oxidation state because of

    A) its atomic size

    B) its ionization potential

    C) inert pair effect

    D) diagonal relationship

    View Answer play_arrow
  • question_answer117) Which of the following statements is false regarding alkali metals?

    A) Alkali metals are soft and can be cut with the help of knife

    B) Alkali metals do not occur in free state in nature

    C) Alkali metals are highly electropositive elements

    D) Alkali metal hydrides are covalent in character

    View Answer play_arrow
  • question_answer118) Among the following outermost configurations of transition metals, which shows the highest oxidation state?

    A) \[3{{d}^{3}}4{{s}^{2}}\]

    B) \[3{{d}^{5}}4{{s}^{1}}\]

    C) \[3{{d}^{5}}4{{s}^{2}}\]

    D) \[3{{d}^{2}}4{{s}^{2}}\]

    View Answer play_arrow
  • question_answer119) The tendency of transition metals to form stable complexes is due to their

    A) low ionization energies

    B) variable oxidation states

    C) strong electropositive nature

    D) high charge/size ratio and vacant d orbitals

    View Answer play_arrow
  • question_answer120) The transition metal ions are generally paramagnetic in nature because

    A) they have coloured salts

    B) they have one or more unpaired\[d-\]electrons

    C) they have one or more paired s-electrons

    D) they are reducing agents

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  • question_answer121) The most common oxidation state of lanthanides is

    A) +4

    B) +3

    C) +6

    D) + 2

    View Answer play_arrow
  • question_answer122) Specify the coordination number of cobalt in\[{{[Co(CN)({{H}_{2}}O){{(en)}^{2}}]}^{2+}}\]

    A) 6

    B) 4

    C) 0

    D) 3

    View Answer play_arrow
  • question_answer123) Which of the following complexes is square planar and diamagnetic?

    A) \[{{[NiC{{l}_{4}}]}^{2-}}\]

    B) \[{{[Ni{{(CN)}_{4}}]}^{2-}}\]

    C) \[{{[Cr{{(N{{H}_{3}})}_{6}}]}^{3+}}\]

    D) \[{{[CuC{{l}_{4}}]}^{2-}}\]

    View Answer play_arrow
  • question_answer124) Which type of isomerism is exhibited by\[[Pt{{(N{{H}_{3}})}_{2}}C{{l}_{2}}]\]?

    A) Coordination isomerism

    B) Linkage isomerism

    C) Optical isomerism

    D) Geometrical isomerism

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  • question_answer125) Ethylene diamine tetraacetate ion is a

    A) unidentate ligand

    B) bidentate ligand

    C) pentadentate ligand

    D) hexadentate ligand

    View Answer play_arrow
  • question_answer126) Which of the following is an ore of zinc?

    A) Galena

    B) Pyrolusite

    C) Sphalerite

    D) Magnetite

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  • question_answer127) The impurities associated with the ore after mining are collectively called

    A) flux

    B) slag

    C) minerals

    D) gangue

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  • question_answer128) During extraction of iron, the iron obtained at the bottom of blast furnace is known as

    A) steel

    B) wrought iron

    C) cast iron

    D) None of these

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  • question_answer129) Select the molecule which has only one\[\pi -\]bond

    A) \[CH\equiv CH\]

    B) \[C{{H}_{2}}=CH-CHO\]

    C) \[C{{H}_{3}}CH=C{{H}_{2}}\]

    D) \[C{{H}_{3}}CH=CHCOOH\]

    View Answer play_arrow
  • question_answer130) Which of the following groups is ortho and para directing?

    A) \[COCl\]

    B) \[CHO\]

    C) \[OH\]

    D) \[COC{{H}_{3}}\]

    View Answer play_arrow
  • question_answer131) Amongst the given cations, the most stable carbonium ion is

    A) \[^{+}C{{H}_{3}}\]

    B) \[{{(C{{H}_{3}})}_{3}}{{C}^{+}}\]

    C) \[C{{H}_{3}}C{{H}_{2}}\]

    D) \[{{(C{{H}_{3}})}_{2}}\overset{+}{\mathop{C}}\,H\]

    View Answer play_arrow
  • question_answer132) The hybridization of carbon atoms in\[C-C\]single bond of\[HC\equiv CCH=C{{H}_{2}}\]is

    A) \[s{{p}^{3}}-s{{p}^{2}}\]

    B) \[s{{p}^{2}}-s{{p}^{3}}\]

    C) \[sp-s{{p}^{2}}\]

    D) \[s{{p}^{3}}-s{{p}^{3}}\]

    View Answer play_arrow
  • question_answer133) The number of optical isomers of the compound\[C{{H}_{3}}CHBrCHBrCOOH\]is

    A) 0

    B) 1

    C) 3

    D) 4

    View Answer play_arrow
  • question_answer134) Electrolysis of an aqueous solution of sodium ethanoate gives

    A) methane

    B) ethane

    C) butane

    D) methyl ethanoate

    View Answer play_arrow
  • question_answer135) Which of the following compounds will exhibit cis-trans (geometrical) isomerism?

    A) 2-butene

    B) 2-butyne

    C) 2-butanol

    D) 1-butanol

    View Answer play_arrow
  • question_answer136) The reaction given below is an example of which of the following? \[2C{{H}_{3}}Br+2Na\xrightarrow[{}]{dry\,ether}{{C}_{2}}{{H}_{6}}+2NaBr\]

    A) Reimer-Tiemann reaction

    B) Wurtz reaction

    C) Hoffman bromamide reaction

    D) Aldol condensation

    View Answer play_arrow
  • question_answer137) Chlorobenzene can be prepared by reacting aniline with

    A) hydrochloric acid in the presence of nitrous acid

    B) cuprous chloride in the presence of aluminium chloride

    C) chlorine in the presence of aluminium chloride

    D) nitrous acid followed by heating with cuprous chloride

    View Answer play_arrow
  • question_answer138) Phenol on treatment with cone.\[HN{{O}_{3}}\]gives

    A) o-nitrophenol

    B) p-nitrophenol

    C) o-and p-nitrophenol

    D) 2,4,6-trinitrophenol

    View Answer play_arrow
  • question_answer139) Which of the following compounds will be formed when methoxy benzene is reacted with\[HBr\]?

    A) Phenol and bromomethane

    B) Methanol and bromobenzene

    C) Phenol and methanol

    D) Bromobenzene and bromomethane

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  • question_answer140) When ethanol and \[{{I}_{2}}\]are heated in the presence of\[N{{a}_{2}}C{{O}_{3}},\]the yellow crystals obtained are of

    A) \[{{C}_{2}}{{H}_{5}}I\]

    B) \[C{{H}_{3}}I\]

    C) \[CH{{I}_{3}}\]

    D) \[C{{H}_{2}}{{I}_{2}}\]

    View Answer play_arrow
  • question_answer141) Identify B in the following series of reaction \[C{{H}_{3}}CHO\xrightarrow[{}]{C{{H}_{3}}MgX}A\xrightarrow[{}]{HOH}B\]

    A) 2-propanol

    B) 1-propanol

    C) ethanol

    D) None of these

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  • question_answer142) Which of the following compounds has maximum acidic character?

    A) Dichloroacetic acid

    B) Acetic acid

    C) Trichloroacetic acid

    D) Triflouoroacetic acid

    View Answer play_arrow
  • question_answer143) Among the following, the least reactive aldehyde is

    A) \[HCHO\]

    B) \[{{C}_{6}}{{H}_{5}}CHO\]

    C) \[C{{H}_{3}}CHO\]

    D) \[{{C}_{2}}{{H}_{5}}CHO\]

    View Answer play_arrow
  • question_answer144) Propanal on reaction with lithium aluminium hydride gives

    A) 1-propanol

    B) 2-propanol

    C) ethanol

    D) butanol

    View Answer play_arrow
  • question_answer145) Idenitfy Z in the following sequence \[C{{H}_{3}}C{{H}_{2}}I\xrightarrow[{}]{KCN}X\xrightarrow[{}]{{{H}_{3}}{{O}^{+}}/{{H}_{2}}O}Y\] \[\xrightarrow[\Delta ]{{{H}_{3}}{{O}^{+}}/{{H}_{2}}O}Z\]

    A) \[C{{H}_{3}}COCl\]

    B) \[C{{H}_{3}}CON{{H}_{2}}\]

    C) \[C{{H}_{3}}COOH\]

    D) \[C{{H}_{3}}C{{H}_{2}}COOH\]

    View Answer play_arrow
  • question_answer146) Treatment of aniline with bromine water produces

    A) 2,4,6-tribromoaniline

    B) a mixture of ortho and para bromoaniline

    C) bromobenzene

    D) N-bromoaniline

    View Answer play_arrow
  • question_answer147) \[{{C}_{6}}{{H}_{5}}COCl\xrightarrow[{}]{N{{H}_{3}}}X\xrightarrow[{}]{{{P}_{2}}{{O}_{5}}}Y\xrightarrow[{{H}_{2}}]{Ni}Z\]The end product in the above sequence of reactions is

    A) benzoic acid

    B) aniline

    C) benzyl amine

    D) benzonitrile

    View Answer play_arrow
  • question_answer148) Which of the following is least reactive to nitration?

    A) Benzene

    B) Nitrobenzene

    C) Chlorobenzene

    D) Aniline

    View Answer play_arrow
  • question_answer149) Nucleic acids are polymers of

    A) nucleotides

    B) nucleosides

    C) nuclei of heavy metals

    D) proteins

    View Answer play_arrow
  • question_answer150) Which of the following enzymes helps in digestion of proteins?

    A) Invertase

    B) Trypsin

    C) Tryosinase

    D) Urease

    View Answer play_arrow
  • question_answer151) Unicellular algae, diatoms and protozoans are the members of

    A) Monera

    B) Fungi

    C) Protista

    D) Plantae

    View Answer play_arrow
  • question_answer152) Which of the following is also known as amphibian of the plant kingdom?

    A) Algae

    B) Bryophytes

    C) Pteridophytes

    D) Gymnosperms

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  • question_answer153) Yeast is not included in protozoas in fungi because

    A) chlorophyll is absent

    B) it has eukaryotic organisation

    C) cell wall is made up of cellulose and reserve food material as starch

    D) some fungal hyphae grow in such a way that they give the appearance of pseudomycelium

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  • question_answer154) An association between roots of higher plants and fungi is called

    A) lichen

    B) fern

    C) mycorrhiza

    D) None of these

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  • question_answer155) The arrangement of vascular bundles in dicot roots are

    A) conjoint

    B) collateral

    C) radial

    D) bicollateral

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  • question_answer156) An inflorescence with a single central achlamydeous female flower surrounded by a member of achlamydeous male flower is

    A) cyathium

    B) hypanthodium

    C) spadix

    D) verticillaster

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  • question_answer157) Cladode is a modification of

    A) stem

    B) root

    C) leaf

    D) petiole

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  • question_answer158) Movement of water through semipermeable membrane produces

    A) wall pressure

    B) turgor pressure

    C) suction pressure

    D) osmotic pressure

    View Answer play_arrow
  • question_answer159) Rate of transpiration is measured by which the following apparatus?

    A) Porometer

    B) Respirometer

    C) Ganongs potometer

    D) Auxanometer

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  • question_answer160) Which of the following in the site for glycolysis or EMP?

    A) Mitochondria

    B) Cytoplasm

    C) Nucleus

    D) Chloroplast

    View Answer play_arrow
  • question_answer161) In\[{{C}_{4}}\]plants, chloroplast also occurs in

    A) epidermis

    B) guard cells

    C) spongy parenchyma

    D) bundle sheath cells

    View Answer play_arrow
  • question_answer162) Quantasomes occur on the surface of

    A) cristae

    B) thylakoids

    C) plasmalemma

    D) nuclear envelope

    View Answer play_arrow
  • question_answer163) Which is the direction of food through the phloem?

    A) From below upward

    B) From tip to bottom

    C) From leaves to roots

    D) From roots to stem

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  • question_answer164) Plant cooling is due to

    A) assimilation

    B) guttation

    C) photorespiration

    D) transpiration

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  • question_answer165) In short day plants, flowering is inhibited by interruption of dark by

    A) white or red light

    B) far-red light

    C) red light followed by far-red light

    D) far red light, then red light and again by far red light

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  • question_answer166) In angiosperms, triple fusion is required for

    A) embryo

    B) endosperm

    C) suspensor

    D) fruit wall

    View Answer play_arrow
  • question_answer167) Which of the following is the function of tapetum?

    A) Respiratory

    B) Nutritive

    C) Reproductive

    D) Protective

    View Answer play_arrow
  • question_answer168) Which of the following presents premature fall of fruit?

    A) \[G{{A}_{3}}\]

    B) Zeatin

    C) NAA

    D) Ethylene

    View Answer play_arrow
  • question_answer169) Which part of the plant shows thigmotropism?

    A) Leaf lamina

    B) Tendrils

    C) Root apex

    D) Thorns

    View Answer play_arrow
  • question_answer170) Given below is the diagram of a embryo sac. Choose the option in which all the four parts A, B, C and D are correctly identified.

    A) A-Synergids, B-Antipodal cells, C-Egg cell, D-Polar nuclei

    B) A-Egg cell, B-Synergids, C-Polar nuclei, D-Antipodal cells

    C) A-Egg cell, B-Polar nuclei, C-Synergids, D-Antipodal cells

    D) A-Antipodal cells, B-Egg cell, C-Polar nuclei, D-Synergids

    View Answer play_arrow
  • question_answer171) Which of the following pairs of bacteria are generally used in genetic engineering experiments?

    A) Nitrosomonas and Azotobacter

    B) Klebsiella and Rhizobium

    C) Escherichia and Agrobacterium

    D) Diplococcus and Nitrosomonas

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  • question_answer172) If a heterozygous tall plant is crossed with a homozygous dwarf plant, the proportion of dwarf progeny will be

    A) 25%

    B) 50%

    C) 75%

    D) 100%

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  • question_answer173) The process that involves the transfer of genetic material from one bacterium to another through the agency of bacteriophage is

    A) transformation

    B) transcription

    C) transduction

    D) translocation

    View Answer play_arrow
  • question_answer174) Genes that are involved in turning on or off the transcription of a set of structural genes are called

    A) polymorphic genes

    B) operator genes

    C) represser genes

    D) regulatory genes

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  • question_answer175) Which of the following enzymes cleaves DNA at specific sites producing sticky end?

    A) Lyases

    B) Proteases

    C) Restriction endonuclease

    D) Cleaving enzyme

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  • question_answer176) A man, whose father is colourblind, marries a lady who is daughter of a colour blindman. Their off springs will be

    A) all normal

    B) all colourblind

    C) all sons colourblind

    D) some sons colourblind and some normal

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  • question_answer177) A sedentary sea anemone gets attached to the shell lining of hermit crab. The association is called

    A) symbiosis

    B) commensalism

    C) parasitism

    D) ectoparasitism

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  • question_answer178) Pseudomonas is an important component of nitrogen cycle. It

    A) fixes elemental nitrogen

    B) produces elemental nitrogen

    C) transfers elemental nitrogen

    D) changes ammonium nitrogen to nitrate state

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  • question_answer179) Biochemical oxygen demand measures

    A) air pollution

    B) industrial pollution

    C) pollution capacity of effluents

    D) dissolved oxygen needed by microbes to decompost wastes

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  • question_answer180) The most common indicator organism which represents polluted water is

    A) S. typhi

    B) Vibrio cholerae

    C) E. coli

    D) Entamoeba histolytica

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  • question_answer181) Submerged hydrophytes have a well developed

    A) root system

    B) aerenchyma

    C) stomata

    D) vascular system

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  • question_answer182) Dominant species represents most abundant

    A) first tree

    B) shrub that appears for the first time

    C) herb that binds the soil and provides organic matter to it

    D) species having major effect on physical environment

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  • question_answer183) The mammals (animals) from colder climate generally have shorter hair and not fully developed ear, eyes and other phenotypic characters. This known as

    A) Dalls law

    B) Aliens rule

    C) Copes law

    D) Bergmanns law

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  • question_answer184) Which of the following is the causative organism of influenza?

    A) Salmonella

    B) Streptococcus

    C) Myxovirus influenza

    D) Rhinovirus

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  • question_answer185) Addiction of LSD leads to

    A) hallucination

    B) damage to kidneys

    C) damage to lungs

    D) mental and emotional disturbances

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  • question_answer186) A disease sometimes found in persons above 40 years of age and is characterized by poor. GNS coordination, forgetfulness and tremor of hands is

    A) epilepsy

    B) alzheimers disease

    C) migraine

    D) schizophrenia

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  • question_answer187) Which of the following is an auto-immune disease?

    A) AIDS

    B) Haemophilia

    C) Allergy

    D) Rheumatoid arthritis

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  • question_answer188) Taxon is the unit of

    A) species

    B) order

    C) genus

    D) taxonomy

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  • question_answer189) A virus can be considered a living organism because it

    A) respires

    B) responds to touch stimuli

    C) can cause disease

    D) reproduces (inside the host)

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  • question_answer190) The basic unit or the lowest taxonomic category is

    A) species

    B) family

    C) order

    D) kingdom

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  • question_answer191) The excretory organ of cockroach and other insects are

    A) nephridia

    B) gizzard

    C) flame cells

    D) malpighian tubules

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  • question_answer192) The clitellum of Pheretima is present in segments

    A) 12, 13 and 14

    B) 13, 14 and 15

    C) 14, 15 and 16

    D) 15, 16 and 17

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  • question_answer193) Which of the following is a loose connective tissue?

    A) Adipose tissue

    B) Areolar tissue

    C) Blood

    D) Nervous tissue

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  • question_answer194) Where does the synthesis of ATP in mitochondria takes place?

    A) In matrix

    B) In intercristal space

    C) Upon cristae

    D) At outer membrane

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  • question_answer195) Golgi apparatus is specialised for

    A) energy transduction

    B) digestion of protein

    C) glycosidation of proteins and lipids

    D) digestion of carbohydrates

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  • question_answer196) Exchange of paternal and maternal chromosomes material during cell division is called

    A) dyad formation

    B) bivalent formation

    C) synapsis

    D) crossing over

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  • question_answer197) In mitosis, where does the chromosome duplication occur?

    A) Interphase

    B) Prophase

    C) Late prophase

    D) Latetelophase

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  • question_answer198) Linoleic acid is an unsaturated fatty acid and its content is highest in

    A) coconut oil

    B) sunflower oil

    C) groundnut oil

    D) cotton oil

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  • question_answer199) The product of an enzyme-catalysed reaction can act as an inhibitor of the reaction. This mechanism of control is known as

    A) feed back inhibition

    B) competitive inhibition

    C) represssion

    D) non-competitive inhibition

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  • question_answer200) The respiratory centre in brain is stimulated by

    A) \[C{{O}_{2}}\]concentration in venous blood

    B) \[{{O}_{2}}\]concentration in venous blood

    C) \[{{O}_{2}}\]concentration is arterial blood

    D) \[C{{O}_{2}}\]concentration in arterial blood

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  • question_answer201) Glucose present in glomerular filterate is reabsorbed in

    A) Bowmans capsule

    B) Henles loop

    C) proximal convoluted tubule

    D) distal convoluted tubule

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  • question_answer202) Which is the largest bone in middle ear?

    A) Incus

    B) Malleus

    C) Stapes

    D) Cochlea

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  • question_answer203) Which of the following activities in disturbed, if parathyroid gland degenerates?

    A) Growth

    B) Sodium concentration

    C) Potassium concentration

    D) Calcium concentration

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  • question_answer204) Retina is composed of

    A) rods only

    B) cones only

    C) rods and cones

    D) rods, cones and neuroganglion cells

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  • question_answer205) Which of the following vertebrate organs receives only oxygenated blood?

    A) Gill

    B) Lung

    C) Liver

    D) Spleen

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  • question_answer206) Which of the following is agranulocyte?

    A) Lymphocyte

    B) Eosinophill

    C) Basophill

    D) Neutrophill

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  • question_answer207) The rate of heart beat is determined by

    A) SA node

    B) AV node

    C) Purkinje fibre

    D) Papillary muscles

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  • question_answer208) The middle piece of the sperm contains

    A) centriole

    B) nucleus

    C) protein

    D) mitochondria

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  • question_answer209) Secretion of progesterone by corpus luteum is initiated by

    A) Gh

    B) LH

    C) thyroxine

    D) testosterone

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  • question_answer210) The function of oxytocin is to help in

    A) child birth

    B) growth

    C) lactation

    D) gametogenesis

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  • question_answer211) Human gametes differ from all other body cells as they are

    A) motile

    B) diploid

    C) haploid

    D) without cell wall

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  • question_answer212) Which one of the following is initiated by secretion of trophoblast?

    A) Blastulation

    B) Gastrulation

    C) Implantation

    D) Cleavage

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  • question_answer213) Spermatogenesis changes

    A) spermatogonium to primary spermatocyte

    B) primary spermatocyte to secondary spermatocyte

    C) secondary spermatocyte to spermatid

    D) spermatid to spermatozoa

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  • question_answer214) Which of the following is a hormone releasing IUD?

    A) Multiload375

    B) Cu-7

    C) LNG-20

    D) CuT

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  • question_answer215) Plasmids present in the bacterial cells are

    A) linear double helical RNA molecules

    B) linear double helical DNA molecules

    C) circular double helical DNA molecules

    D) circular double helical RNA molecules

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  • question_answer216) In which of the following diseases, the man has an extra X-chromosome?

    A) Bleeders disease

    B) Turners syndrome

    C) Downs syndrome

    D) Klinefelters syndrome

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  • question_answer217) Which of the following takes place in DNA fingerprinting?

    A) A positive identification can be made

    B) Multiple restriction enzyme digests/generates unique fragments

    C) The polymerase chain reaction amplifies fewer DNA

    D) The verability of repeated sequences between two restriction sites is evaluated

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  • question_answer218) The scientist related with the theory of biogenesis and who has done experiment with swan-necked flask is

    A) Haeckel

    B) Louis Pasteur

    C) van Helmont

    D) Miller

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  • question_answer219) A plant hormone used for inducing morphogenesis in plant tissue culture is

    A) ABA

    B) gibberellins

    C) cytokinins

    D) ethylene

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  • question_answer220) Triticale is obtained by crossing wheat with

    A) oat

    B) maize

    C) barley

    D) rye

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  • question_answer221) A bio-fertiliser is

    A) a cyanobacteria like Anabaena species living in cavities of Azolla leaves

    B) symbiotic association like Azotobacter which fixed atmospheric nitrogen

    C) farm yard manure consisting of mixture of cattle dung and crop

    D) green manure in which a quickly growing crop is cultivated and ploughed under

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  • question_answer222) Which one of the following drugs depresses (switch off) the activities of central nervous system, is known as sedative and also gives feeling of calmness, relaxation of drowsiness?

    A) Opium

    B) Barbiturate

    C) Heroin

    D) Cocaine

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  • question_answer223) Which of the following techniques is used to make numerous copies of a specific segment of DNA quickly and accurately?

    A) Translation

    B) Transcription

    C) Polymerase chain reaction

    D) Ligase chain reaction

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  • question_answer224) Which of the following recent technique is used for separating fragments of DNA?

    A) Eastern blotting

    B) Northern blotting

    C) Southern blotting

    D) Western blotting

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  • question_answer225) In case of Bacillus thuringiensis. Bacillus itself is not killed by the toxic protein crystals produced by it because Bt toxin

    A) protein is not produced in the Bacillus

    B) cannot causes and damage to Bacillus

    C) protein is produced in very less amount in the Bacillus

    D) exist as the inactive toxin

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