A) 1
B) 3
C) 0
D) None of the above
Correct Answer: C
Solution :
As,\[f(x)\]satisfies the conditions of Rolles theorem in [1,2],\[f(x)\]is continuous in the interval and\[f(1)=f(2)\]. \[\therefore \]\[\int_{1}^{2}{f(x)}dx=[f(x)]_{1}^{2}=f(2)-f(1)=0\]You need to login to perform this action.
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