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question_answer1) The speed of a boat is 5 km/h in still water. It crosses a river of width 1.0 km along the shortest possible path in 15 min. The velocity of the river water is: (in km/h)
A)
5
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B)
1
done
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C)
3
done
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D)
4
done
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question_answer2)
Two particles A and B are connected by a rigid rod AB. The rod slides along perpendicular rails as shown here. The velocity of A to the right is 10 m/s. What is the velocity of B when angle \[\alpha ={{60}^{o}}\]? 
A)
9.8 m/s
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B)
10 m/s
done
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C)
5.8 m/s
done
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D)
17.3 m/s
done
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question_answer3) A mass of 1 kg is suspended by a thread. It is (i) lifted up with an acceleration \[4.9\,m/{{s}^{2}},\] (ii) lowered with an acceleration \[4.9\,m/{{s}^{2}}\]. The ratio of the tensions is:
A)
3 : 1
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B)
1 : 3
done
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C)
1 : 2
done
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D)
2 : 1
done
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question_answer4) A car moving with a speed of 40 km/h can be stopped by applying brakes after at least 2 m. If me same car is moving with a speed of 80 km/h, what is the minimum stopping distance?
A)
8 m
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B)
2 m
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C)
4 m
done
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D)
6 m
done
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question_answer5) A force acts on a 3.0 g particle in such a way that the position of the particle as a function of time is given by \[x=3t-4{{t}^{2}}+{{t}^{3}}\], where \[x\] is in metre and \[t\] in second. The work done during the first 4 s is:
A)
570 mJ
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B)
450 mJ
done
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C)
490 mJ
done
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D)
528 mJ
done
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question_answer6) A bullet is fired from a gun. The force on the bullet is given by: \[F=600\,-2\times {{10}^{5}}t\] where F is in newton and t in second. The force on the bullet becomes zero as soon as it leaves the barrel. What is the average impulse imparted to the bullet?
A)
8 Ns
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B)
Zero
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C)
0.9 Ns
done
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D)
1.8 Ns
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question_answer7) Two equal masses \[{{m}_{1}}\] and \[{{m}_{2}}\] moving along the same straight line with velocities + 3 m/s and ?5 m/s respectively collide elastically. Their velocities after the collision will be respectively:
A)
+ 4 m/s for both
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B)
- 3m/s and + 5 m/s
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C)
- 4 m/s and + 4 m/s
done
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D)
- 5 m/s and + 3 m/s
done
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question_answer8) A 5000 kg rocket is set for vertical firing. The exhaust speed is \[800\,m{{s}^{-1}}\]. To give an initial upward acceleration of \[20\,m/{{s}^{2}},\] the amount of gas ejected per second to supply the needed thrust will be: \[(g=10\,m{{s}^{-2}})\]
A)
\[127.5\,\,kg\,{{s}^{-1}}\]
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B)
\[187.\,5\,kg\,{{s}^{-1}}\]
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C)
\[185.5\,kg\,{{s}^{-1}}\]
done
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D)
\[137.5\,kg\,{{s}^{-1}}\]
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question_answer9) A ball of mass 0.25 kg attached to the end of a string of length 1.96 m is moving in a horizontal circle. The string will break if the tension is more than 25 N. What is the maximum speed with which the ball can be moved?
A)
14 m/s
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B)
3 m/s
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C)
3.92 m/s
done
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D)
5 m/s
done
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question_answer10)
O is the centre of an equilateral triangle ABC. \[{{F}_{1}},\,{{F}_{2}}\] and \[{{F}_{3}}\] are three forces acting along the sides AB, BC and AC as shown in figure. What should be the magnitude of \[{{F}_{3}}\] so that the total torque about O is zero? 
A)
\[({{F}_{1}}+{{F}_{2}})/2\]
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B)
\[({{F}_{1}}-{{F}_{2}})\]
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C)
\[({{F}_{1}}+{{F}_{2}})\]
done
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D)
\[2\,({{F}_{1}}+{{F}_{2}})\]
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question_answer11)
A weightless ladder 20 ft long rests against a frictionless wall at an angle of 
from the horizontal. A 150 pound man is 4 ft from the top of the ladder. A horizontal force is needed to keep it from slipping. Choose the correct magnitude of force from the following:
A)
17.3 pound
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B)
100 pound
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C)
120 pound
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D)
150 pound
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question_answer12) A thin circular ring of mass M and radius r is rotating about its axis with a constant angular velocity \[\omega \]. Two objects each of mass m are attached gently to the opposite ends of diameter of the ring. The ring will now rotate with an angular velocity:
A)
\[\frac{\omega \,(M-2\,m)}{(M+2m)}\]
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B)
\[\frac{\omega M}{(M+2m)}\]
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C)
\[\frac{\omega \,M}{(M+m)}\]
done
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D)
\[\frac{\omega \,(M+2\,m)}{M}\]
done
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question_answer13) A rubber ball is dropped from a height of 5 m on a planet where the acceleration due to gravity is not known. On bouncing it rises to 1.8 m. The ball loses its velocity on bouncing by a factor of:
A)
\[\frac{16}{25}\]
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B)
\[\frac{2}{5}\]
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C)
\[\frac{3}{5}\]
done
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D)
\[\frac{9}{25}\]
done
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question_answer14) Two simple pendulums of length 0.5 m and 2.0 in respectively are given small linear displacement in one direction at die same time. They will again be in the same phase when the pendulum of shorter length has completed oscillations:
A)
5
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B)
1
done
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C)
2
done
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D)
3
done
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question_answer15) A mass m is vertically suspended from a spring of negligible mass; the system oscillates with a frequency n. What will be the frequency of the system, if a mass 4 m is suspended from the same spring ?
A)
\[\frac{n}{4}\]
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B)
4 n
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C)
\[\frac{n}{2}\]
done
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D)
2 n
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question_answer16) A particle, with restoring force proportional to displacement and resisting force proportional to velocity is subjected to a force \[F\sin \omega t\]. If the amplitude of the particle is maximum for \[\omega ={{\omega }_{1}}\] and the energy of the particle maximum for \[\omega ={{\omega }_{2}}\], then:
A)
\[\omega ={{\omega }_{0}}\] and \[{{\omega }_{2}}\ne {{\omega }_{0}}\]
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B)
\[{{\omega }_{1}}={{\omega }_{0}}\] and \[{{\omega }_{2}}={{\omega }_{0}}\]
done
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C)
\[{{\omega }_{1}}\ne {{\omega }_{0}}\] and \[{{\omega }_{2}}={{\omega }_{0}}\]
done
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D)
\[{{\omega }_{1}}\ne {{\omega }_{0}}\] and \[{{\omega }_{2}}\ne {{\omega }_{0}}\] where \[{{\omega }_{0}}\to \]natural angular frequency of oscillations of particle.
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question_answer17) If the ratio of specific heat of a gas at constant pressure to that at constant volume is \[\gamma \], the change in internal energy of a mass of gas when the volume changes from V to 2V at constant pressure P is:
A)
\[\frac{R}{(\gamma -1)}\]
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B)
P V
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C)
\[\frac{P\,V}{(\gamma -1)}\]
done
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D)
\[\frac{\gamma \,PV}{(\gamma -1)}\]
done
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question_answer18) We consider a thermodynamic system, If \[\Delta U\] represents the increase in its internal energy and W the work done by the system, which of the following statements is true?
A)
\[\Delta U=-W\] in an adiabatic process
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B)
\[\Delta U=W\] in an isothermal process
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C)
\[\Delta U=-W\] in an isothermal process
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D)
\[\Delta U=W\] in an adiabatic process
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question_answer19) The radiant energy from the sun, incident normally at the surface of earth is \[20\,kcal/{{m}^{2}}\,\min \]. What would have been the radiant energy, incident normally on the earth, if the sun had a temperature, twice of the present one?
A)
\[160\,kcal/{{m}^{2}}\,\min \]
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B)
\[40\,kcal/{{m}^{2}}\min \]
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C)
\[320\,\,kcal/{{m}^{2}}\,\min \]
done
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D)
\[80\,\,kcal/{{m}^{2}}\,\min \]
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question_answer20) A transverse wave is represented by the equation \[y={{y}_{0}}\sin \frac{2\pi }{\lambda }(vt-x)\] For what value of \[\lambda \] is the maximum particle velocity equal to two times the wave velocity?
A)
\[\lambda =2\,\pi {{y}_{0}}\]
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B)
\[\lambda =\frac{\pi {{v}_{0}}}{3}\]
done
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C)
\[\lambda =\frac{\pi {{y}_{0}}}{2}\]
done
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D)
\[\lambda =\pi {{y}_{0}}\]
done
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question_answer21) A vehicle, with a horn of frequency n is moving with a velocity of 30 m/s in a direction perpendicular to the straight line joining the observer and the vehicle. The observer perceives the sound to have a frequency \[n+{{n}_{1}}\]. Then: (if the sound velocity in air is 300 m/s)
A)
\[{{n}_{1}}=10\,n\]
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B)
\[{{n}_{1}}=0\]
done
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C)
\[{{n}_{1}}=0.1\,n\]
done
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D)
\[{{n}_{1}}=-0.1\,n\]
done
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question_answer22) In a sinusoidal wave, the time required for a particular point, to move from maximum displacement to zero displacement is 0.170 s. The frequency of the wave is:
A)
1.47 Hz
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B)
0.36 Hz
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C)
0.73 Hz
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D)
2.94 Hz
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question_answer23) A standing wave having 3 nodes and 2 antinodes is formed between two atoms having a distance \[1.21\,\overset{\text{o}}{\mathop{\text{A}}}\,\] between them. The wavelength of the standing wave is:
A)
\[1.21\,\overset{\text{o}}{\mathop{\text{A}}}\,\]
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B)
\[1.42\,\overset{\text{o}}{\mathop{\text{A}}}\,\]
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C)
\[6.05\,\overset{\text{o}}{\mathop{\text{A}}}\,\]
done
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D)
\[3.63\,\overset{\text{o}}{\mathop{\text{A}}}\,\]
done
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question_answer24) A luminous object is placed at a distance of 30 cm from the convex lens of focal length 20 cm. On the other side of the lens, at what distance from the lens, a convex mirror of radius of curvature 10 cm, be placed in order to have an upright image of the object coincident with it?
A)
12 cm
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B)
30 cm
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C)
50 cm
done
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D)
60 cm
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question_answer25) Light enters at an angle of incidence in a transparent rod of refractive index n. For what value of the refractive index of the material of the rod the light once entered into it will not leave it through its lateral face whatsoever be the value of angle of incidence?
A)
\[n>\sqrt{2}\]
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B)
n = 1
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C)
n = 1.1
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D)
n = 1.3
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question_answer26) A point Q lies on die perpendicular bisector of an electrical dipole of dipole moment p. If the distance of Q from the dipole is r (much larger than the size of the dipole) then electric field at Q is proportional to:
A)
\[{{p}^{-1}}\] and \[{{r}^{2}}\]
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B)
\[p\] and \[{{r}^{-2}}\]
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C)
\[{{p}^{2}}\] and \[{{r}^{-3}}\]
done
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D)
\[p\] and \[{{r}^{-3}}\]
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question_answer27) A particle of mass m and charge q is placed at rest in a uniform electric field E and then released. The kinetic energy attained by the particle after moving a distance y is:
A)
\[q\,E\,{{y}^{2}}\]
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B)
\[q\,{{E}^{2}}\,y\]
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C)
\[q\,E\,y\]
done
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D)
\[{{q}^{2}}E\,y\]
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question_answer28) A hollow insulated conducting sphere is given a positive charge of \[10\,\mu C\]. What will be the electric field at the centre of the sphere if its radius is 2 m ?
A)
Zero
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B)
\[5\,\mu \,C{{m}^{-2}}\]
done
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C)
\[20\,\mu \,C{{m}^{-2}}\]
done
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D)
\[8\,\mu \,C{{m}^{-2}}\]
done
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question_answer29) Three equal resistors connected in series across .a source of emf together dissipate 10 watt of power. What will be the power dissipated in watt if the same resistors are connected in parallel across the same source of emf?
A)
10/3
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B)
10
done
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C)
30
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D)
90
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question_answer30) A \[{{5}^{\text{o}}}C\] rise in temperature is observed in a conductor by passing a current. When the current is doubled the rise in temperature will be approximately:
A)
\[{{16}^{\text{o}}}C\]
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B)
\[{{10}^{\text{o}}}C\]
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C)
\[{{20}^{\text{o}}}C\]
done
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D)
\[{{12}^{\text{o}}}C\]
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question_answer31) If nearly \[{{10}^{5}}C\] liberate 1 g equivalent of aluminium, then the amount of aluminium (equivalent weight 9) deposited through electrolysis in 20 min by a current of 50 amp will be:
A)
0.6 g
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B)
0.09 g
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C)
5.4 g
done
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D)
10.8 g
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question_answer32) A galvanometer having a resistance of 8 ohm is shunted by a wire of resistance 2 ohm. If the total current is 1 A, the part of it passing through the shunt will be:
A)
0.25 A
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B)
0.8 A
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C)
0.2 A
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D)
0.5 A
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question_answer33) A coil of one turn is made of a wire of certain length and then from the same length a coil of two turns is made. If the same current is passed in both the cases, then the ratio of the magnetic induction at their centres will be:
A)
2 : 1
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B)
1 : 4
done
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C)
4 : 1
done
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D)
1 : 2
done
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question_answer34) Two long parallel wires are at a distance of 1 m. Both of them carry one ampere of current. The force of attraction per unit length between the two wires is:
A)
\[2\times {{10}^{-7}}\,N/m\]
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B)
\[2\times {{10}^{-8}}\,N/m\]
done
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C)
\[5\times {{10}^{-8}}\,N/m\]
done
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D)
\[{{10}^{-7}}\,N/m\]
done
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question_answer35) For protecting a sensitive equipment from the external magnetic field, it should be:
A)
placed inside an aluminium can
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B)
placed inside an iron can
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C)
wrapped with insulation around it when passing current through it
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D)
surrounded with fine copper sheet
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question_answer36) Two coils have a mutual inductance of 0.005 H. The current changes in the first coil according to equation \[I={{I}_{0}}\,\sin \omega t\], where \[{{I}_{0}}=10\,A\] and \[\omega =100\,\pi \] rad/s. The maximum value of emf in the second coil is:
A)
\[2\,\pi \]
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B)
\[5\,\pi \]
done
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C)
\[\,\pi \]
done
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D)
\[4\pi \]
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question_answer37) A step-up transformer operates on a 230 V line and supplies current of 2A to a load. The ratio of the primary and secondary windings is 1 : 25. The current in the primary coil is:
A)
15 A
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B)
50 A
done
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C)
25 A
done
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D)
12.5 A
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question_answer38) The 21 cm radio wave emitted by hydrogen in interstellar space is due to the interaction called the hyperfine interaction in atomic hydrogen. The energy of the emitted wave is nearly:
A)
\[{{10}^{-17}}\,J\]
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B)
1 J
done
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C)
\[7\times {{10}^{-6}}\,J\]
done
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D)
\[{{10}^{-24}}\,J\]
done
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question_answer39) In the Bohr's model of a hydrogen atom, the centripetal force is furnished by the Coulomb attraction between the proton and the electron. If \[{{a}_{0}}\] is the radius of the ground state orbit, m is the mass and e is the charge on the electron, \[{{\varepsilon }_{0}}\] is the vacuum permittivity, the speed of the electron is:
A)
zero
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B)
\[\frac{e}{\sqrt{{{\varepsilon }_{0}}{{a}_{0}}m}}\]
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C)
\[\frac{e}{\sqrt{4\pi {{\varepsilon }_{0}}{{a}_{0}}m}}\]
done
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D)
\[\frac{\sqrt{4\pi {{\varepsilon }_{0}}{{a}_{0}}m}}{e}\]
done
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question_answer40) Light of wavelength \[5000\overset{\text{o}}{\mathop{\text{A}}}\,\] falls on a sensitive plate with photoelectric work function of 1.9 eV. The kinetic energy of the photoelectron emitted will be:
A)
0.58 eV
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B)
2.48 eV
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C)
1.24 eV
done
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D)
1.16 eV
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question_answer41) In a photo-emissive cell, with exciting wavelength \[\lambda \], the fastest electron has speed v. If the exciting wavelength is changed to \[3\lambda /4\], the speed of the fastest emitted electron will be:
A)
\[v\,{{(3/4)}^{1/2}}\]
done
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B)
\[v{{(4/3)}^{1/2}}\]
done
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C)
less than \[v{{(4/3)}^{1/2}}\]
done
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D)
greater than \[v{{(4/3)}^{1/2}}\]
done
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question_answer42) Half-lives of two radioactive substances A and B are respectively 20 min and 40 min. Initially the samples of A and B have equal number of nuclei. After 80 min the ratio of remaining number of A and B nuclei is:
A)
1 : 16
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B)
4 : 1
done
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C)
1 : 4
done
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D)
1 : 1
done
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question_answer43) Atomic weight of boron is 10.81 and it has two isotopes \[_{5}^{10}B\] and \[_{5}^{11}B.\] Then, the ratio of atoms of \[_{5}^{10}B\] and \[_{5}^{11}B\] in nature, would be:
A)
19 : 81 Let \[{{n}_{1}}\] and \[{{n}_{2}}\] be the number of atoms in \[_{5}^{10}B\] and \[_{5}^{11}B\] isotopes. Atomic weight \[=\frac{{{n}_{1}}\times (At.\,wt.\,of\,_{5}^{10}B)+{{n}_{2}}\times (At.wt.\,of\,_{5}^{11}B)}{{{n}_{1}}+{{n}_{2}}}\] \[or10.81=\frac{{{n}_{1}}\times 10+{{n}_{2}}\times 11}{{{n}_{1}}+{{n}_{2}}}\] \[or10.81\,{{n}_{1}}+10.81\,{{n}_{2}}=10\,{{n}_{1}}+11\,{{n}_{2}}\] \[or0.81\,\,{{n}_{1}}=0.19\,{{n}_{2}}\] \[or\frac{{{n}_{1}}}{{{n}_{2}}}=\frac{0.19}{0.81}=\frac{19}{81}\]
done
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B)
10 : 11
done
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C)
15 : 16
done
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D)
81 : 19
done
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question_answer44) A nucleus \[_{n}{{X}^{m}}\] emits one \[\alpha \] and two \[\beta \] particles The resulting nucleus is:
A)
\[_{n}{{X}^{m-4}}\]
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B)
\[_{n-2}{{Y}^{m-4}}\]
done
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C)
\[_{n-4}{{Z}^{m-4}}\]
done
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D)
none of these
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question_answer45) Complete the equation for the following fission process: \[_{92}{{U}^{235}}+{{\,}_{0}}{{n}^{1}}\,\xrightarrow[{}]{{}}{{\,}_{38}}S{{r}^{90}}+.......\]
A)
\[_{54}X{{e}^{143}}+\,3{{\,}_{0}}{{n}^{1}}\]
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B)
\[_{54}X{{e}^{145}}\]
done
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C)
\[_{57}X{{e}^{142}}\]
done
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D)
\[_{54}X{{e}^{142}}+{{\,}_{0}}{{n}^{1}}\]
done
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question_answer46) The cause of the potential barrier in a p-n diode is:
A)
depletion of positive charges near the junction
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B)
concentration of positive charges near the junction
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C)
depletion of negative charges near the junction
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D)
concentration of positive and negative charges near the junction
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question_answer47) A semi-conducting device is connected in a series in circuit with a battery and a resistance. A current is allowed to pass through the circuit. If the polarity of the battery is reversed, the current drops to almost zero. The device may be:
A)
a p-n junction
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B)
an intrinsic semiconductor
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C)
a p-type semiconductor
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D)
an n-type semiconductor
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question_answer48) The transfer ratio \[\beta \] of a transistor is 50. The input resistance of the transistor when used in the common emitter configuration is \[1\,k\,\Omega \]. The peak value of the collector AC current for an AC input voltage of 0.01 V peak is:
A)
\[100\,\mu A\]
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B)
\[0.01\,mA\]
done
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C)
\[0.25\,mA\]
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D)
\[500\,\mu A\]
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A)
A
done
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B)
B
done
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C)
C
done
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D)
D
done
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question_answer50)
The truth table given below is for which gate? | Input | Output |
| A | B | C |
| 0 | 0 | 1 |
| 0 | 1 | 1 |
| 1 | 0 | 1 |
| 1 | 1 | 0 |
A)
XOR
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B)
OR
done
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C)
AND
done
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D)
NAND
done
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question_answer51) Given the number, 161 cm, 0.161 cm, 0.0161 cm. The number of significant figures for the three numbers is:
A)
3, 4 and 5, respectively
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B)
3, 4 and 4, respectively
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C)
3, 3 and 4, respectively
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D)
3, 3 and 3, respectively
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question_answer52) Haemoglobin contains 0.33% of iron by weight. The molecular weight of haemoglobin is approximately 67200. The number of iron atoms (at. wt. of Fe is 56) present in one molecule of haemoglobin are:
A)
1
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B)
6
done
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C)
4
done
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D)
2
done
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question_answer53) Bohr radius for the hydrogen atom (n = 1) is approximately 0.530 \[\overset{\text{o}}{\mathop{\text{A}}}\,\]. The radius for the first excited state (n = 2) orbit is (in \[\overset{\text{o}}{\mathop{\text{A}}}\,\]):
A)
0.13
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B)
1.06
done
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C)
4.77
done
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D)
2.12
done
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question_answer54) The position of both, an electron and a helium atom is known within 1.0 mm. Further the momentum of the election is known within \[\text{5}\text{.0}\times \text{1}{{\text{0}}^{-26}}\,kg\,m{{s}^{-1}}\]. The minimum uncertainty in the measurement of the momentum of the helium atom is:
A)
\[50\,kg\,m{{s}^{-1}}\]
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B)
\[80\,kg\,m{{s}^{-1}}\]
done
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C)
\[80\times {{10}^{-26}}\,kg\,m{{s}^{-1}}\]
done
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D)
\[5.0\times {{10}^{-26}}\,kg\,m{{s}^{-1}}\]
done
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question_answer55) Which one is not paramagnetic among the following?
A)
[Atomic number: Be = 4, Ne = 10, As = 33, CI = 17] \[C{{l}^{-}}\]
done
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B)
Be
done
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C)
\[N{{e}^{2+}}\]
done
clear
D)
\[A{{s}^{+}}\]
done
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question_answer56) Number of neutrons in a parent nucleus X, which gives \[_{7}{{N}^{14}}\] nucleus after two successive \[\beta \]-emmissions would be:
A)
9
done
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B)
6
done
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C)
7
done
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D)
8
done
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question_answer57) In \[PO_{4}^{3-}\] ion, the formal charge on each oxygen atom and P?O bond order respectively are:
A)
- 0.75, 0.6
done
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B)
- 0.75, 1.0
done
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C)
- 0.75, 1.25
done
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D)
- 3, 1.25
done
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question_answer58) The number of anti-bonding electrons in \[O_{2}^{2-}\] molecular ion on the basis of molecular orbital theory is (Atomic no. of O is 8):
A)
5
done
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B)
2
done
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C)
4
done
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D)
6
done
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question_answer59) Schottky defect in crystals is observed when:
A)
an ion leaves its normal site and occupies an interstitial site
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B)
unequal number of cations and anions are missing from the lattice
done
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C)
density of the crystal is increased
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D)
equal number of cations and anions are missing from the lattice
done
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question_answer60) The edge length of face centred unit cubic cell is 508 pm. If the radius of the cation is 110 pm, the radius of the anion is:
A)
288 pm
done
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B)
398 pm
done
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C)
144 pm
done
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D)
618 pm
done
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question_answer61) The second order Bragg diffraction of X-rays with \[\lambda =1.0\,\overset{\text{o}}{\mathop{\text{A}}}\,\] from a set of parallel planes in a metal occurs at an angle 60°. The distance between the scattering planes in the crystals is:
A)
\[0.575\,\overset{\text{o}}{\mathop{\text{A}}}\,\]
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B)
\[1.00\,\overset{\text{o}}{\mathop{\text{A}}}\,\]
done
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C)
\[2.00\,\overset{\text{o}}{\mathop{\text{A}}}\,\]
done
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D)
\[1.17\,\overset{\text{o}}{\mathop{\text{A}}}\,\]
done
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question_answer62) In crystals of which of the following ionic compounds would you expect maximum distance between centres of cations and anions?
A)
LiF
done
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B)
CsF
done
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C)
Csl
done
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D)
Lil
done
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question_answer63) An organic compound containing C, H and N gave the following results on analysis C = 40%, H = 13.33%, N = 46.67%. Its empirical formula would be:
A)
\[{{C}_{2}}{{H}_{7}}\,{{N}_{2}}\]
done
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B)
\[C{{H}_{5}}N\]
done
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C)
\[C{{H}_{4}}N\]
done
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D)
\[{{C}_{2}}{{H}_{7}}N\]
done
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question_answer64) A 5% solution of cane sugar (mol. wt. = 342) is isotonic with 1% solution of a substance X. The molecular weight of X is:
A)
34.2
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B)
171.2
done
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C)
68.4
done
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D)
136.8
done
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question_answer65) The vapour pressure of a solvent decreased by 10 mm in two columns of mercury when a non-volatile solute was added to the solvent. The mole fraction of the solute in the solution is 0.2. What should be the mole fraction of the solvent if the decrease in the vapour pressure is to be 20 mm of mercury?
A)
0.8
done
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B)
0.6
done
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C)
0.4
done
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D)
0.2
done
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question_answer66) If \[{{K}_{1}}\] and \[{{K}_{2}}\] are the respective equilibrium constants for the two reactions: \[Xe{{F}_{6}}\left( g \right)+{{H}_{2}}O\left( g \right)~\rightleftharpoons XeO{{F}_{4}}\left( g \right)+2HF\left( g \right)\] \[Xe{{O}_{4}}\left( g \right)+Xe{{F}_{6}}\left( g \right)~\rightleftharpoons XeO{{F}_{4}}\left( g \right)+Xe{{O}_{3}}{{F}_{2}}\left( g \right)\] the equilibrium constant of the reaction \[Xe{{O}_{4}}\left( g \right)+2HF\left( g \right)\rightleftharpoons ~Xe{{O}_{3}}{{F}_{2}}\left( g \right)+{{H}_{2}}O\left( g \right)\] will be:
A)
\[{{K}_{2}}/{{({{K}_{2}})}^{2}}\]
done
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B)
\[{{K}_{1}}\,.\,{{K}_{2}}\]
done
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C)
\[{{K}_{1}}/{{K}_{2}}\]
done
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D)
\[{{K}_{2}}/{{K}_{1}}\]
done
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question_answer67) In the reaction \[4N{{H}_{3}}(g)+5{{O}_{2}}(g)\to 4NO(g)\,+6{{H}_{2}}O(l)\] when 1 mole of ammonia and 1 mole of \[{{O}_{2}}\] are made to react to completion then :
A)
1.0 mole of \[{{H}_{2}}O\] is produced
done
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B)
1.0 mole of NO will be produced
done
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C)
all the oxygen will be consumed
done
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D)
all the ammonia will be consumed
done
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question_answer68) Identify the correct statement regarding entropy:
A)
At absolute zero temperature, entropy of a perfectly crystalline substance is taken to be zero
done
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B)
At absolute zero of temperature the entropy of a perfectly crystalline substance is +ve
done
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C)
At absolute zero of temperature the entropy of all crystalline substance is to be zero
done
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D)
At \[{{0}^{\text{o}}}C,\] the entropy of a perfectly crystalline substance is taken to be zero
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question_answer69) Activation energy of a chemical reaction can be determined by:
A)
evaluating rate constant at standard temperature
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B)
evaluating velocities of reaction at two different temperatures
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C)
evaluating rate constants at two different temperatures
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D)
changing concentration of reactants
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question_answer70) One mole of an ideal gas at 300K is expanded isothermally from an initial volume of 1 L to 10L. The \[\Delta E\]for this process is \[(R=2\,cal\,mo{{l}^{-1}}{{K}^{-1}})\]
A)
163.7 cal
done
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B)
zero
done
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C)
1381.1 cal
done
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D)
9 L atm
done
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question_answer71) For the cell reaction, \[C{{u}^{2+}}({{C}_{1}}\,aq)+Zn(s)\rightleftharpoons Z{{n}^{2+}}({{C}_{2}}\,aq)+Cu(s)\] of an electrochemical cell. The change in free energy \[(\Delta G)\] at a given temperature is a function of:
A)
\[\ln \,({{C}_{1}})\]
done
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B)
\[\ln \,({{C}_{2}}/{{C}_{1}})\]
done
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C)
\[\ln \,({{C}_{2}})\]
done
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D)
\[\ln \,({{C}_{1}}+{{C}_{2}})\]
done
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question_answer72) Without losing its concentration \[ZnC{{l}_{2}}\] solution cannot be kept in contact with:
A)
Au
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B)
Al
done
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C)
Pb
done
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D)
Ag
done
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question_answer73) At the critical micelle concentration (cmc) the surfactant molecules:
A)
decompose
done
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B)
dissociate
done
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C)
associate
done
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D)
become completely soluble
done
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question_answer74)
IUPAC name of the compounds 
A)
trans-3 iodo- 4 chloro-3-pentene
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B)
cis-2-chloro-3-iodo-2-pentene
done
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C)
trans-2-chloro-3-iodo-2-pentene
done
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D)
cis-3-iodo-4-chloro-3-pentene
done
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question_answer75) Which of the following compounds is not chiral?
A)
\[DC{{H}_{2}}C{{H}_{2}}C{{H}_{2}}Cl\]
done
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B)
\[C{{H}_{3}}C{{H}_{2}}CHDCl\]
done
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C)
\[C{{H}_{3}}CHDC{{H}_{2}}Cl\]
done
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D)
\[C{{H}_{3}}CHClC{{H}_{2}}D\]
done
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question_answer76) Which one of the following orders is correct regarding the \[-I\] effect of the substituents?
A)
\[-N{{R}_{2}}<-OR>-F\]
done
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B)
\[-N{{R}_{2}}>-OR>-F\]
done
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C)
\[-N{{R}_{2}}<-OR<-F\]
done
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D)
\[-N{{R}_{2}}>-OR<-F\]
done
clear
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question_answer77) Which one of the following compounds is resistant to nucleophilic attack by hydroxyl ions?
A)
Methyl acetate
done
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B)
Acetonitrile
done
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C)
Dimethyl ether
done
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D)
Acetamide
done
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question_answer78) 2-bromopentane is heated with potassium ethoxide in ethanol. The major product obtained is:
A)
2-ethoxypentane
done
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B)
pentene-1
done
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C)
trans-pentene-2
done
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D)
cis-pentene-2
done
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question_answer79)
Reaction of 
with \[RMgX\] leads to formation of:
A)
RCHOHR
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B)
\[RCHOHC{{H}_{3}}\]
done
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C)
\[RC{{H}_{2}}C{{H}_{2}}OH\]
done
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D)
done
clear
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question_answer80) Glucose molecule reacts with 'X' number of molecules of phenylhydrazine to yield osazone. The value of ?X? is:
A)
four
done
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B)
one
done
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C)
two
done
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D)
three
done
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question_answer81) Iodoform test is not given by:
A)
2-pentanone
done
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B)
ethanol
done
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C)
ethanal
done
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D)
3-pentanone
done
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question_answer82) An ester (A) with molecular formula \[{{C}_{9}}{{H}_{10}}{{O}_{2}}\] was treated with excess of \[C{{H}_{3}}MgBr\] and the complex so formed was treated with \[{{H}_{2}}S{{O}_{4}}\] to give an olefin (B). Ozonolysis of (B) gave a ketone with molecular formula \[{{C}_{8}}{{H}_{8}}O\] which shows +ve iodoform test. The structure of (A) is:
A)
\[{{C}_{6}}{{H}_{5}}COO{{C}_{2}}{{H}_{5}}\]
done
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B)
\[{{C}_{6}}{{H}_{5}}COO{{C}_{6}}{{H}_{5}}\]
done
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C)
\[{{H}_{3}}COC{{H}_{2}}CO{{C}_{6}}{{H}_{5}}\]
done
clear
D)
\[p-{{H}_{3}}CO-{{C}_{6}}{{H}_{4}}-COC{{H}_{3}}\]
done
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question_answer83) Which one of the following esters cannot undergo Claisen self-condensation?
A)
\[C{{H}_{3}}C{{H}_{2}}C{{H}_{2}}C{{H}_{2}}COO{{C}_{2}}{{H}_{5}}\]
done
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B)
\[{{C}_{6}}{{H}_{5}}COO{{C}_{2}}{{H}_{5}}\]
done
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C)
\[{{C}_{6}}{{H}_{5}}C{{H}_{2}}COO{{C}_{2}}{{H}_{5}}\]
done
clear
D)
\[{{C}_{6}}{{H}_{11}}C{{H}_{2}}COO{{C}_{2}}{{H}_{5}}\]
done
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question_answer84) Which one of these, is not compatible with arenes?
A)
Greater stability
done
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B)
Delocalisation of \[\pi \]-electrons
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C)
Electrophilic additions
done
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D)
Resonance
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question_answer85) Which one of the following compounds will be most easily attached by an electrophile?
A)
done
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B)
done
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C)
done
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D)
done
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question_answer86) Aniline is reacted with bromine water and the resulting product is treated with an aqueous solution of sodium nitrite in presence of dilute hydrochloric acid. The compound so formed is converted to a tetrafluoroborate which is subsequently heated. The final product is:
A)
1, 3, 5-tribromobenzene
done
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B)
p-bromofluorobenzene
done
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C)
p-bromoaniline
done
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D)
2, 4, 6-tribromofluorobenzene
done
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question_answer87) Aspirin is an acetylation product of:
A)
o-hydroxybenzoic acid
done
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B)
o-hydroxybenzene
done
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C)
m-hydroxybenzoic acid
done
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D)
p-dihydroxybenzene
done
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question_answer88) The number of molecules of ATP produced in the lipid metabolism of a molecule of palmitic acid is:
A)
130
done
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B)
36
done
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C)
56
done
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D)
86
done
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question_answer89) In DNA the complementary bases are:
A)
adenine and thymine, guanine and cytosine
done
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B)
uracil and adenine, cytosine and guanine
done
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C)
adenine and guanine, thymine and cytosine
done
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D)
adenine and thymine, guanine and uracil
done
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question_answer90) The first ionization potential (in eV) of Be and B, respectively are:
A)
8.29, 9.32
done
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B)
9.32, 9.32
done
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C)
8.29, 8.29
done
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D)
9.32, 8.29
done
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question_answer91) The total number of possible isomers for the complex compound \[[C{{u}^{II}}{{(N{{H}_{3}})}_{4}}][P{{t}^{II}}C{{l}_{4}}]\]
A)
3
done
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B)
6
done
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C)
5
done
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D)
4
done
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question_answer92) IUPAC name of \[[Pt{{(N{{H}_{3}})}_{3}}\,(Br)\,(N{{O}_{2}})\,Cl]\,Cl\] is:
A)
Triammine chlorobromonitro platinum (IV) chloride
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B)
Triammine bromonitrochloro platinum (IV) chloride
done
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C)
Triammine bromochloronitro platinum (IV) chloride
done
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D)
Triammine nitrochlorobromo platinum (IV) chloride
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question_answer93) A co-ordination complex compound of cobalt has the molecular formula containing five ammonia molecules, one nitro group and two chlorine atoms for one cobalt atom. One mole of this compound produces three mole ions in an aqueous solution. On reacting this solution with excess of \[AgN{{O}_{3}}\] solution, we get two moles of \[AgCl\] precipitate. The ionic formula for this complex would be:
A)
\[[Co{{(N{{H}_{3}})}_{4}}(N{{O}_{2}})Cl]\,[(N{{H}_{3}}Cl]\]
done
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B)
\[[Co\,(N{{H}_{3}})Cl]\,[Cl(N{{O}_{2}})]\]
done
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C)
\[[Co{{(N{{H}_{3}})}_{5}}(N{{O}_{2}})]C{{l}_{2}}\]
done
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D)
\[[Co{{(N{{H}_{3}})}_{5}}]\,[{{(N{{O}_{2}})}_{2}}C{{l}_{2}}]\]
done
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question_answer94) Which one of the following elements shows maximum number of different oxidation states in its compounds?
A)
Eu
done
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B)
La
done
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C)
Gd
done
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D)
Am
done
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question_answer95) Which one of the following elements constitutes a major impurity in pig iron?
A)
Silicon
done
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B)
Oxygen
done
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C)
Sulphur
done
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D)
Graphite
done
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question_answer96) When a substance A reacts with water it produces a combustible gas B and a solution of substance C in water. When another substance D reacts with this solution of C, it also produces the same gas B on warming but D can produce gas B on reaction with dilute sulphuric acid at room temperature. ?A? imparts a deep golden yellow colour to a smokeless flame of bunsen burner A, B, C and D respectively are:
A)
\[Na,\,{{H}_{2}},\,NaOH,\,Zn\]
done
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B)
\[K,\,{{H}_{2}},\,KOH,\,Al\]
done
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C)
\[Ca{{H}_{2}},\,Ca{{(OH)}_{2}},\,Sn\]
done
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D)
\[Ca{{C}_{2}},\,{{C}_{2}}{{H}_{2}},\,Ca{{(OH)}_{2}},\,Fe\]
done
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question_answer97) Which one of the following pairs of substances on reaction will not evolve \[{{H}_{2}}\] gas?
A)
Iron and \[{{H}_{2}}S{{O}_{4}}\] (aqueous)
done
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B)
Iron and steam
done
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C)
Copper and HCl (aqueous)
done
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D)
Sodium and ethyl alcohol
done
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question_answer98) A one litre flask is full of brown bromine vapour. The intensity of brown colour of vapour will not decrease appreciably on adding to the flask some:
A)
pieces of marble
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B)
animal charcoal powder
done
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C)
carbon tetrachloride
done
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D)
carbon disulphide
done
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question_answer99) Repeated use of which one of the following fertilizers would increase the acidity of the soil?
A)
Urea
done
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B)
Superphosphate of lime
done
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C)
Ammonium sulphate
done
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D)
Potassium nitrate
done
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question_answer100) Which one of the following ionic species will impart colour to an aqueous solution?
A)
\[T{{i}^{4+}}\]
done
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B)
\[C{{u}^{+}}\]
done
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C)
\[Z{{n}^{2+}}\]
done
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D)
\[C{{r}^{3+}}\]
done
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question_answer101) The reason why vagetatively reproducing crop plants are best suited for maintaining hybrid vigour is that:
A)
they can be easily propagated
done
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B)
they have a longer life span
done
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C)
they are more resistant to dieases
done
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D)
once a desired hybrid is produced, there are no chances of losing it
done
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question_answer102) An adult human with average health has systolic and diastolic pressures as:
A)
80 mm Hg and 80 mm Hg
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B)
70 mm Hg and 120 mm Hg
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C)
120 mm Hg and 80 mm Hg
done
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D)
50 mm Hg and 80 mm Hg
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question_answer103) The formation of multivalents at meiosis in diploid organism is due to
A)
monosomy
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B)
inversion
done
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C)
deletion
done
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D)
reciprocal translocation
done
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question_answer104) In the developmental history of mammalian heart, it is observed that it passes through a two-chambered fish-like heart, three chambered frog-like heart and finally four-chambered stage. To which hypothesis can this above cited statement be approximated?
A)
Biogenetic law
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B)
Hardy-Weinberg law
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C)
Lamarck's principle
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D)
Mendelian principles
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question_answer105) Which of the following is the contractile protein of a muscle?
A)
Tubulin
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B)
Myosin
done
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C)
Tropomyosin
done
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D)
All of these
done
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question_answer106) Which of the micro-organisms is used for production of citric acid in industries?
A)
Lactobacillus bulgaris
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B)
Pencillium citrinum
done
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C)
Aspergillus niger
done
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D)
Rhizopus nigricans
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question_answer107) Which of the following is not main function of lymph gland?
A)
Forming WBC
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B)
Forming antibodies
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C)
Forming RBC
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D)
Destroying bacteria
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question_answer108) In mammals, histamine is secreted by:
A)
fibroblasts
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B)
histocytes
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C)
lymphocytes
done
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D)
mast cells
done
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question_answer109) Which one of the following organisms is used as indicator of water quality?
A)
Beggiatoa
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B)
Chlorella
done
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C)
Azospirilhan
done
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D)
Escherichia
done
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question_answer110) Transfusion tissue is present in the leaves of:
A)
Dryopteris
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B)
Cycas
done
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C)
Pinus
done
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D)
Both (b) and (c)
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question_answer111) The hormone that stimulates the stomach to secrete gastric juice is:
A)
gastrin
done
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B)
rennin
done
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C)
enterokinase
done
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D)
enterogastrone
done
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question_answer112) Photochrome becomes active in:
A)
green light
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B)
blue light
done
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C)
red light
done
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D)
none of these
done
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question_answer113) Which one of the following statements about Cycas is incorrect?
A)
It roots contain some blue-green algae
done
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B)
It does not have a well organized female flower
done
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C)
It has circinate vernation
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D)
Its xylem is mainly composed of xylem vessel
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question_answer114) Plants such as Prosopis, Acacia and Capparis represent examples of tropical:
A)
grass lands
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B)
thorn forests
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C)
deciduous forests
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D)
evergreen forests
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question_answer115) The rate at which light energy is converted into chemical energy of organic molecules is the ecosystem's:
A)
net primary productivity
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B)
gross secondary productivity
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C)
net secondary productivity
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D)
gross primary productivity
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question_answer116) The layer of cells that secrete enamel of tooth is:
A)
dentoblast
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B)
ameloblast
done
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C)
osteoblast
done
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D)
odontoblast
done
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question_answer117) Which one among the following chemicals is used for causing defoliation of forest trees?
A)
Amo-1618
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B)
Phosphon-D
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C)
Malic hydrazide
done
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D)
2, 4-D
done
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question_answer118) Two opposite forces operate in the growth and development of every population. One of them is related to the ability to reproduce at a given rate. The force opposing to it is called:
A)
biotic control
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B)
mortality
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C)
fecundity
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D)
environmental resistance
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question_answer119) One of the factors required for the maturation of erythrocytes is:
A)
vitamin D
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B)
vitamin A
done
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C)
vitamin \[{{B}_{12}}\]
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D)
vitamin C
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question_answer120) The hormone which regulates the basal metabolism in our body is secreted from:
A)
pituitary
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B)
thyroid
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C)
adrenal cortex
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D)
Pancreas
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question_answer121) Loss of an X-chromosoroe in a particular cell, during its development, results into:
A)
diploid individual
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B)
triploid individual
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C)
gynandromorphs
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D)
both 'a' and 'b?
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question_answer122) Yeast (Saccharomyces cerevisiae) is used the industrial production of:
A)
butanal
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B)
citric acid
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C)
tetracycline
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D)
ethanol
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question_answer123) Which important green-house gas, other than \[C{{O}_{2}}\], is being produced from the agricultural fields?
A)
Arsine
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B)
Sulphur dioxide
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C)
Ammonia
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D)
Nitrous oxide
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question_answer124) Carbon mono-oxide is a pollutant because:
A)
it reacts with \[{{O}_{2}}\]
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B)
it inhibits glycolysis
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C)
reacts with haemoglobin
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D)
makes nervous system inactive
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question_answer125) A plant hormone used for inducing morphogenesis in plant tissue culture is:
A)
abscisic acid
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B)
gibberellins
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C)
cytokinins
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D)
Ethylene
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question_answer126) The exchange of gases in the alveoli of the lungs takes place by:
A)
osmosis
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B)
simple diffusion
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C)
passive transport
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D)
active transport
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question_answer127) If there was no \[C{{O}_{2}}\] in the earth's atmosphere the temperature of earth's surface would be:
A)
same as present
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B)
less than the present
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C)
higher than the present
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D)
dependent on the amount of oxygen in the atmosphere
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question_answer128) When a single gene influences more than one traits it is called:
A)
pleiocropy
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B)
epistasis
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C)
pseudodominance
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D)
none of these
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question_answer129) The role of double fertilization in angiosperms is to produce:
A)
endosperm
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B)
integuments
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C)
cotyledons
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D)
Endocarp
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question_answer130) Total number of bones in the hind limb of a man is:
A)
14
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B)
21
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C)
24
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D)
30
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question_answer131) If Mendel had studied the seven traits using a plant with 12 chromosomes instead of 14, in what way would his interpretation have been different?
A)
He would have mapped the chromosome
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B)
He would have discovered blending or incomplete dominance
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C)
He would not have discovered the law of independent assortment
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D)
He would have discovered sex linkage
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question_answer132) The lower jaw in mammals is made up of:
A)
angulars
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B)
mandible
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C)
dentary
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D)
Maxills
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question_answer133) Botulism caused by Clostridium botulinum affects the:
A)
spleen
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B)
intestine
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C)
lymph glands
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D)
neuromuscular junction
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question_answer134) Which of the following is non-symbiotic biofcrtilizer?
A)
VAM
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B)
Azotobacter
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C)
Anabaena
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D)
Rhizobium
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question_answer135) The most important component of die oral contraceptive pills is:
A)
progesterone
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B)
growth hormone
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C)
thyroxine
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D)
luteinzing hormone
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question_answer136) The contraction of gall bladder is due to:
A)
gastrin
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B)
secretin
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C)
cholecystokinin
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D)
enterogastrone
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question_answer137) Microtubule is involved in the:
A)
cell division
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B)
DNA recognition
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C)
muscle contraction
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D)
membrane architecture
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question_answer138) Which base is responsible for hot spots for spontaneous point mutations?
A)
Guanine
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B)
Adenine
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C)
5-bromouracil
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D)
5-methylcytosine
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question_answer139) The age of the fossil of Dryopithecus on the geological time scale is:
A)
\[75\times {{10}^{6}}\] years back
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B)
\[25\times {{10}^{6}}\] years back
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C)
\[2.5\times {{10}^{6}}\] years back
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D)
\[50\times {{10}^{6}}\] years back
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question_answer140) A sewage treatment process in which a portion of the decomposer bacteria present in the waste is recycled into the beginning of the process, is called:
A)
cyclic treatment
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B)
primary treatment
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C)
activated sludge treatment
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D)
tertiary treatment
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question_answer141) Floral features are chiefly used in angiosperms identification because:
A)
flowers are nice to work with
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B)
flowers are of various colours
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C)
flowers can be safely pressed
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D)
reproductive parts are more stable and conservative than vegetative parts
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question_answer142) Calcitonin is a thyroid hormone which:
A)
elevates potassium level in blood
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B)
lowers calcium level in blood
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C)
elevates calcium level in blood
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D)
has no effect oh calcium
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question_answer143) A bacterium divides every 35 minutes. If a culture containing \[{{10}^{5}}\] cells per ml is grown for 175 minutes, what will be the cell concentration per ml after 175 minutes?
A)
\[175\times {{10}^{5}}\] cells
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B)
\[85\times {{10}^{5}}\] cells
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C)
\[35\times {{10}^{5}}\] cells
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D)
\[32\times {{10}^{5}}\] cells
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question_answer144) Mental retardation in man, associated with sex chromosomal abnormality is usually due to:
A)
reduction in X complement
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B)
increase in X complement
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C)
moderate increase in Y complement
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D)
large increase in Y complement
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question_answer145) Which of the following meristems is responsible for extrastelar secondary growth in dicotyledonous stem?
A)
Phellogen
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B)
Intra-fascicular cambium
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C)
Inter-fascicular cambium
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D)
Inter-calary meristem
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question_answer146) Lactose is composed of:
A)
glucose + fructose
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B)
glucose + glucose
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C)
glucose + galactose
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D)
fructose + galactose
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question_answer147) Puccinia forms:
A)
uredia and pycnia on barberry leaves
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B)
uredia and aecia on wheat leaves
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C)
uredia and telia on wheat leaves
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D)
uredia and aecia on barberry leves
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question_answer148) Radioactive thymidine when added to the medium surrounding living mammalian cells gets incorporated into the newly synthesised DNA. Which of the following types of chromatin is expected to become radioactive if cells arc exposed to radioactive thymidine as soon as they enter the S phase?
A)
Neither heterochromatin nor euchromatin but only the nucleolus
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B)
Heterochromatin
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C)
Euchromatin
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D)
Both (b) and (c)
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question_answer149) Cellulose, the most important constituent of plant cell wall is made up of:
A)
branched chain of glucose molecules linked by , 1,6 glycosidic bond at the site of branching
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B)
unbranched chain of glucose molecules linked by , 1,4 glycosidic bond
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C)
branched chain of glucose molecules linked by , 1, 4 glycosidic bond in straight chain and , 1, 6 glycosidic bond at the site of branching
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D)
unbranched chain of glucose molecules linked by \[\beta \], 1, 4 glycosidic bond
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question_answer150) Which of the following pesticides is an acetylcholinesterase inhibitor?
A)
Aldrin
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B)
Y-BHC
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C)
Endosulfan
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D)
Malathion
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question_answer151) In desert grasslands, which type of animals are relatively more abundant?
A)
Diurnal
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B)
Arboreal
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C)
Aquatic
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D)
Fossorial
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question_answer152) The long bones are hollow and connected by air passage. They are the characteristics of:
A)
aves
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B)
mammals
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C)
reptilia
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D)
land vertebrates
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question_answer153) Ulothrix can be described as a:
A)
filamentous alga with flagellated reproductive stages
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B)
non-motile colonial alga lacking zoospores
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C)
filamentous alga lacking flagellated reproductive stages
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D)
membranous alga producing zoospores
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question_answer154) How many different types of genetically different gametes will be produced by a heterozygous plant having genotype AABbCc?
A)
Two
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B)
Four
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C)
Six
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D)
Nine
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question_answer155) In vertebrates lacteals are found in:
A)
ileum
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B)
ischium
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C)
oesophagous
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D)
ear
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question_answer156) Which combination of gases is suitable for fruit ripening?
A)
80% \[{{C}_{2}}{{H}_{4}}\] and 20% \[C{{O}_{2}}\]
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B)
80% \[C{{O}_{2}}\] and 20% \[C{{H}_{2}}\]
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C)
80% \[C{{H}_{4}}\] and 20% \[C{{O}_{2}}\]
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D)
80% \[C{{O}_{2}}\] and 20% \[{{O}_{2}}\]
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question_answer157) The DNA of E. coli is:
A)
single stranded and linear
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B)
single stranded and circular
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C)
double stranded and linear
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D)
double stranded and circular
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question_answer158) What is the major cause of diminishing wild life number?
A)
Cannibalism
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B)
Habitat destruction
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C)
Felling of trees
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D)
Paucity of drinking water
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question_answer159) Biological control compenent is central to advanced agricultural production. Which of the following is used as a third generation pesticide?
A)
Pathogens
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B)
Pheromones
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C)
Insect repellants
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D)
Insect hormone analogues
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question_answer160) The embryo in sunflower has:
A)
no cotyledon
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B)
one cotyledon
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C)
two cotyledons
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D)
many cotyledons
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question_answer161) Crossing over in diploid organism is responsible for:
A)
dominance of genes
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B)
linkage between genes
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C)
segregation of alleles
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D)
recombination of linked alleles
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question_answer162) The main role of bacteria in the carbon cycle involves:
A)
photosynthesis
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B)
assimilation of nitrogenous compounds
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C)
chemosynthesis
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D)
digestion or breakdown of organic compounds
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question_answer163) A condition of failure of kidney to form urine is called:
A)
deamination
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B)
entropy
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C)
anuria
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D)
none of these
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question_answer164) Human immuno deficiency virus (HIV) has a protein coat and a genetic material which is:
A)
single stranded DNA
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B)
single stranded RNA
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C)
double stranded RNA
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D)
double stranded PNA
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question_answer165) Which one of the following is a protein deficiency disease?
A)
Eczema
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B)
Cirrhosis
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C)
Kwashiorkor
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D)
Night blindness
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question_answer166) Largest sperms in the plants world are found in:
A)
Thuja
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B)
Pinus
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C)
Banyan
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D)
Cycas
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question_answer167) Recombinant DNA is obtained by cleaving the pro-DNAs by:
A)
primase
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B)
exonucleases
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C)
ligase
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D)
restriction endonuclease
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question_answer168) The water potential and osmotic potential of pure water are:
A)
100 and zero
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B)
zero and zero
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C)
100 and 200
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D)
zero and 100
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question_answer169) The chemical knives of DNA are:
A)
ligases
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B)
polymerases
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C)
endonucleases
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D)
transcriptases
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question_answer170) Which of the following cells, found in testes of rabbit, secrete male hormone?
A)
Leydig's cell
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B)
Sertoli cells
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C)
Epithelial cells
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D)
Spermatocytes
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question_answer171) What is agent orange?
A)
A biodegradable insecticide
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B)
A weedicide containing dioxin
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C)
Colour used in fluorescent lamp
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D)
A hazardous chemical used in luminous paints
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question_answer172) Genes that are involved in turning on or off the transcription of a set structural genes are called:
A)
polymorphic genes
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B)
operator genes
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C)
redundant genes
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D)
regulatory genes
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question_answer173) Farmers have reported over 50% higher yields of rice by using which of the following biofertilizer?
A)
Mycorrhiza
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B)
Azolla pinnata
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C)
Cyanobacteria
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D)
Legume-Rhizobium symbiosis
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question_answer174) The supersonic jets cause pollution by the thinning of:
A)
\[C{{O}_{2}}\] layer
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B)
\[S{{O}_{2}}\] layer
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C)
\[{{O}_{2}}\] layer
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clear
D)
\[{{O}_{3}}\] layer
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question_answer175) Albinism is known to be due to an autosomal recessive mutation. The first child of a couple with normal skin pigmentation was an albino. What is the probability that their second child will also be an albino?
A)
100%
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B)
25%
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C)
50%
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D)
75% Since albinism is a recessive character, a child will be albino only if it is homozygous for albinism genes. Since parents have normal skin, it means they are heterozygous. As a result of cross between two heterozygous parents, 25% of the children will be homozygous recessive. The nature of the second child is not affected in any way by the nature of the first child because both are independent events.
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question_answer176) Transfer of genetic information from one bacterium to another in the transduction process is through:
A)
physical contact between donor and recipient strains
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B)
conjugation between opposite strain bacterium
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C)
bacteriophages released from the donor bacterial strain
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D)
another bacterium having special organ for conjugation
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question_answer177) The periderm includes:
A)
cork
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B)
cambium
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C)
secondary phloem
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D)
all of these
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question_answer178) Typhoid fever is caused by:
A)
Giardia
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B)
Salmonella
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C)
Shigella
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D)
Escherichia
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question_answer179) Most appropriate term to describe the life cycle of Obelia is:
A)
neoteny
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B)
metagenesis
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C)
metamorphosis
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D)
all of these
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question_answer180) The walking fern is so named because:
A)
its spores are able to walk
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B)
it is dispersed through the agency of walking animals
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C)
it propagates vegetatively by its leaf tips
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D)
it knows how to walk by itself
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question_answer181) The functional unit of contractile system in striated muscle is:
A)
cross bridge
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B)
myofibril
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C)
sarcomere
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D)
Z-band
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question_answer182) Bryophytes are dependent on water because:
A)
archegonium has to remain filled with water for fertilization
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B)
water is essential for fertilization for their homosporous nature
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C)
water is essential for their vegetative propagation
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D)
the sperms can easily reach upto egg in the archegonium
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question_answer183) How many genome types are present in a typical green plant's cell?
A)
Two
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B)
Three
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C)
More than five
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D)
More than ten
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question_answer184) Restriction endonucleases are:
A)
synthesized by dog
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B)
present in mammalian cells for degradation of DNA
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C)
used for in vitro DNA synthesis
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D)
used in genetic engineering
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question_answer185) The diversity in the type of beaks of finches adapted to different feeding habits on the Galapagos islands, as observed by Darwin, provides evidence for:
A)
origin of species by natural selection
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B)
intraspecific variations
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C)
intraspecific competition
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D)
interspecific competition
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question_answer186) DNA elements, which can switch their position, are called:
A)
exons
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B)
introns
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C)
cistrons
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D)
transposons
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question_answer187) Which one of the following statements about cytochrome \[{{P}_{450}}\] is wrong?
A)
It has an important role in metabolism
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B)
It contains iron
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C)
It is a coloured cell
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D)
It is an enzyme involved in oxidation reactions
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question_answer188) Genetic drift operates only in:
A)
island populations
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B)
smaller populations
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C)
larger populations
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D)
Mendelian populations
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question_answer189) An interesting modification of flower shape for insect pollination occurs in some orchids in which a male insect mistakes the pattern on the orchid flower for the female species and tries to copulate with it, thereby pollinating the flower. This phenomenon is called:
A)
mimicry
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B)
pseudocopulation
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C)
pseudopollination
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D)
Pseudoparthenocarpy
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question_answer190) The response of different organisms to the environmental rhythms of light and darkness is called:
A)
phototaxis
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B)
phototropism
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C)
vernalization
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D)
photoperiodism
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question_answer191) Warm ocean surge of the peru current recurring every 5 to 8 years or so in the East Pacific of South America is widely known as:
A)
Magnox
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B)
Gull stream
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C)
El Nino
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D)
Aye Aye
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question_answer192) In the five kingdom system of classification, which single kingdom out of the following can include blue-green algae, nitrogen fixing bacteria and methanogenic archaebacteria ?
A)
Monera
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B)
Fungi
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C)
Plantae
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D)
Protista Monera?It includes all prokaryotic organisms including bacteria and blue-green algae. Protista?It includes eukaryotic unicellular organisms e. g., Amoeba. Plantae?It includes algae, bryophytes, pteridophytes, gymnos perms and argiosperms. Fungi?It includes fungi. Animalia?It includes multicellular animals.
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question_answer193) Genetic engineering is possible, because:
A)
the phenomenon of transduction in bacteria is well understood
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B)
we can see DNA by electron microscope
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C)
we can cut DNA at specific sites by endonucleases like DNAse I
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D)
restriction endonucleases purified from bacteria can be used in vitro
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question_answer194) Two bacteria found to be very useful in genetic engineering experiments are:
A)
Nitrosomonas and Klebsiella
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B)
Escherichia and Agrobacterium
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C)
Nitrobacter and Azotobacter
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D)
Rhizobium and Diplococcus
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question_answer195) Species restricted to a given area are called:
A)
sibling
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B)
endemic
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C)
sympatric
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D)
Allopatric
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question_answer196) Which one of the following statements is correct?
A)
Homo erectus is the ancestor of man
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B)
Cro-magnon man's fossil has been found in Ethiopia
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C)
Australopithecus is the real ancestor of modern man
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D)
Neanderthal man is the direct ancestor of Homo sapiens
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question_answer197) In a terrestial ecosystem such as forest, maximum energy is in which trophic level?
A)
\[{{T}_{1}}\]
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B)
\[{{T}_{2}}\]
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C)
\[{{T}_{3}}\]
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D)
\[{{T}_{4}}\]
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question_answer198) A woman with two genes (one on each 'X' chromosome) for haemophilia and one gene for colour blindness on the 'X? chromosomes marriesa normalman. How will the progeny be?
A)
All sons and daughters haemophilic and colourblind
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B)
Haemophilic and colourblind daughters
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C)
50% haemophilic colourblind sons and 50% haemophilic sons
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D)
50% haemophilic daughters and 50% colourblind daughters
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question_answer199) Solenocytes are the main excretory structures in:
A)
annelids
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B)
mollusks
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C)
echinodermates
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D)
Platyhelminthes
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question_answer200) A few organisms are known to grow and multiply at temperatures of \[100-{{105}^{\text{o}}}C\]. They belong to:
A)
thermophilic subaerial fungi
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clear
B)
marine archaebacteria
done
clear
C)
thermophilic sulphur bacteria.
done
clear
D)
hot spring blue-green algae
done
clear
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