# Solved papers for NEET AIPMT SOLVED PAPER MAINS 2011

### done AIPMT SOLVED PAPER MAINS 2011

• question_answer1) Two identical piano wires kept under the same tension T have a fundamental frequency of 600 Hz. The fractional increase in the tension of one of the wires which will lead to occurrence of 6 beat/s when both the wires oscillate together would be

A) 0.02

B) 0.03

C) 0.04

D) 0.01

• question_answer2) In the following figure, the diodes which are forward biased, are

 [A]         [B]                        [C]                       [D]

A)  C only

B)  C and A

C)  B and D

D)  A, B and D

• question_answer3) The threshold frequency for a photo-sensitive metal is 3.3 x1014 Hz. If light of frequency 8.2 x 1014 Hz is incident on this metal, the cut-off voltage for the photo-electric emission is nearly

A) 2 V

B) 3 V

C) 5 V

D) 1 V

• question_answer4) A galvanometer of resistance, G is shunted by a resistance S ohm. To keep the main current in the circuit unchanged, the resistance to be put in series with the galvanometer is

A) $\frac{{{S}^{2}}}{(S+G)}$

B) $\frac{SG}{(S+G)}$

C) $\frac{{{G}^{2}}}{(S+G)}$

D) $\frac{G}{(S+G)}$

• question_answer5) A square loop, carrying a steady current $\text{I}$, is placed in a horizontal plane near a long straight conductor carrying a steady current ${{\text{I}}_{\text{1}}}$at a distance d from the conductor as shown in figure. The loop will experience

A) a net repulsive force away from the conductor

B) a net torque acting upward perpendicular to the horizontal plane

C) a net torque acting downward normal to the horizontal plane

D) a net attractive force towards the conductor

• question_answer6) A thermocouple of negligible resistance, produces an emf of $\text{40 }\!\!\mu\!\!\text{ V}{{\text{/}}^{\text{o}}}\text{C}$in the linear range of temperature. A galvanometer of resistance $10\,\Omega$whose sensitivity is$\text{1 }\!\!\mu\!\!\text{ A/div}$, is employed with the thermocouple. The smallest value of temperature difference that can be detected by the system will be

A) ${{0.5}^{o}}C$

B) ${{1}^{o}}C$

C) ${{0.1}^{o}}C$

D) ${{0.25}^{o}}C$

• question_answer7) The rms value of potential difference V shown in the figure is

A) ${{\text{V}}_{\text{0}}}$

B) $\frac{{{V}_{0}}}{\sqrt{2}}$

C) $\frac{{{V}_{0}}}{2}$

D) $\frac{{{V}_{0}}}{\sqrt{3}}$

• question_answer8) A coil has resistance $30\,\Omega$ and inductive reactance $20\,\Omega$at 50 Hz frequency. If an AC source of 200 V, 100 Hz, is connected across the coil, the current in the coil will be

A) 4.0 A

B) 8.0 A

C) $\frac{20}{\sqrt{12}}A$

D) 2.0 A

• question_answer9) A particle of mass m is thrown upwards from the surface of die earth, with a velocity u. The mass and the radius of the earth are, respectively, M and R. G is gravitational constant and g is acceleration due to gravity on the surface of the earth. The minimum value of u so that the particle does not return back to earth, is

A) $\sqrt{\frac{2GM}{R}}$

B) $\sqrt{\frac{2GM}{{{R}^{2}}}}$

C) $\sqrt{2g{{R}^{2}}}$

D) $\sqrt{\frac{2GM}{{{R}^{2}}}}$

• question_answer10) Pure Si at 500 K has equal number of electron $({{n}_{e}})$ and hole $({{n}_{h}})$ concentrations of $1.5\times {{10}^{16}}{{m}^{-3}}$. Doping by indium increases nh to $4.5\times {{10}^{22}}{{m}^{-3}}$. The doped semiconductor is of

A) p-type with electron concentration ${{n}_{e}}=5\times {{10}^{22}}\,{{m}^{-3}}$

B) p-type with electron concentration ${{n}_{e}}=2.5\times {{10}^{10}}\,{{m}^{-3}}$

C) n-type with electron concentration ${{n}_{e}}=2.5\times {{10}^{23}}\,{{m}^{-3}}$

D) p-type having electron concentration ${{n}_{e}}=5\times {{10}^{9}}\,{{m}^{-3}}$

• question_answer11) Charge q is uniformly spread on a thin ring of radius R. The ring rotates about its axis with a uniform frequency f Hz. The magnitude of magnetic induction at the centre of the ring is

A) $\frac{{{\mu }_{0}}qf}{2R}$

B) $\frac{{{\mu }_{0}}q}{2f\,R}$

C) $\frac{{{\mu }_{0}}q}{2\pi f\,R}$

D) $\frac{{{\mu }_{0}}qf}{2\pi R}$

• question_answer12) A zener diode, having breakdown voltage equal to 15 V, is used in a voltage regulator circuit shown in figure. The current through the diode is

A) 10 mA

B) 15 mA

C) 20 mA

D) 5 mA

• question_answer13) A particle covers half of its total distance with speed ${{v}_{1}}$, and the rest half distance with speed ${{v}_{2}}$, Its average speed during the complete journey is

A)  $\frac{{{v}_{1}}{{v}_{2}}}{{{v}_{1}}+{{v}_{2}}}$

B) $\frac{2{{v}_{1}}{{v}_{2}}}{{{v}_{1}}+{{v}_{2}}}$

C) $\frac{2v_{1}^{2}v_{2}^{2}}{v_{1}^{2}+v_{2}^{2}}$

D) $\frac{{{v}_{1}}+{{v}_{2}}}{2}$

• question_answer14) The electric potential V at any point (.x, y, z), all in metres in space is given by V = 4x2 volt. The electric field at the point (1, 0, 2) in volt/metre is

A) 8 along positive X-axis

B) 16 along negative X-axis

C) 16 along positive X-axis

D) 8 along negative X-axis

• question_answer15) A short bar magnet of magnetic moment $0.4J\,{{T}^{-1}}$is place in a uniform magnetic field of 0.16 T. The magnet is stable equilibrium when the potential energy is

A) -0.64J

B) zero

C) - 0.082 J

D) 0.064 J

• question_answer16) A thin prism of angle $15{}^\circ$ made of glass of refractive index ${{\mu }_{1}}=1.5$ is combined with another prism of glass of refractive index ${{\mu }_{2}}=1.75.$The combination of the prism produces dispersion without deviation. The angle of the second prism should be

A) ${{7}^{o}}$

B) ${{10}^{o}}$

C) ${{12}^{o}}$

D) $5{}^\circ$

• question_answer17) A conveyor belt is moving at a constant speed of 2 m/s. A box is gently dropped on it. The coefficient of friction between them is $\mu =0.5.$The distance that the box will move relative to belt before coming to rest on it taking $g=10\,\,m{{s}^{-2}},$is

A) 1.2 m

B) 0.6 m

C) zero

D) 0.4 m

• question_answer18) A mass of diatomic gas (y = 1.4) at a pressure of 2 atm is compressed adiabatically so that its temperature rise from $27{}^\circ$ C to$927{}^\circ \text{ }C$. The pressure of the gas is final state is

A) 28 atm

B) 68.7 atm

C) 256 atm

D) 8 atm

• question_answer19) A mass m moving horizontally (along the x-axis) with velocity v collides and sticks to mass of 3m moving vertically upward (along the y-axis) with velocity 2v. The final velocity of the combination is

A) $\frac{1}{4}v\mathbf{\hat{i}}+\frac{3}{2}v\mathbf{\hat{j}}$

B) $\frac{1}{3}v\mathbf{\hat{i}}+\frac{2}{3}v\mathbf{\hat{j}}$

C) $\frac{2}{3}v\mathbf{\hat{i}}+\frac{1}{3}v\mathbf{\hat{j}}$

D) $\frac{3}{2}v\mathbf{\hat{i}}+\frac{1}{4}v\mathbf{\hat{j}}$

• question_answer20) Two particle are oscillating along two close parallel straight lines side by side, with the same frequency and amplitudes. They pass each other, moving in opposite directions when their displacement is half of the amplitude. The mean positions of the two particles lie on a straight line perpendicular to the paths of the two particles. The phase difference is

A) zero

B) $\frac{2\pi }{3}$

C) $\pi$

D) $\frac{\pi }{6}$

• question_answer21) A small mass attached to a string rotates on frictionless table top as shown. If the tension is the string is increased by pulling the string causing the radius of the circular motion to decrease by a factor of 2, the kinetic energy of the mass will

A) remain constant

B) increase by a factor of 2

C) increase by a factor of 4

D) decrease by a factor of 2

• question_answer22) The density of material in CGS system of units is$4g/c{{m}^{3}}$. In a system of units in which unit of lengths is 10 cm and unit of mass is 100 g, the value of density of material will be'

A) 0.4

B) 40

C) 400

D) 0.04

• question_answer23) An electron in the hydrogen atom jumps from excited state n to the ground state. The wavelength so emitted illuminates a photo-sensitive material having work function 2.75 eV. If the stopping potential of the photo-electron is 10 V, the value of n is

A) 3

B) 4

C) 5

D) 2

• question_answer24) A particle of mass M is situated at the centre of spherical shell of mass and radius a. The magnitude of the gravitational potential at a point situated at $\frac{a}{2}$ distance from the centre, will be

A) $\frac{2GM}{a}$

B) $\frac{3GM}{a}$

C) $\frac{4GM}{a}$

D) $\frac{GM}{a}$

• question_answer25) Two radioactive nuclei P and Q, in a given sample decay into a stable nucleous R. At time t = 0, number of P species are 4No and that of Q are ${{N}_{0}}$ Half-life of P (for conversion to K) is 1 min where as that of Q is 2 min. Initially there are no nuclei of R present in the sample. When number of nuclei of P and Q are equal, the number of nuclei of R present in the sample would be

A) $\text{3}{{\text{N}}_{\text{0}}}$

B) $\frac{\text{9}{{\text{N}}_{\text{0}}}}{\text{2}}$

C) $\frac{\text{5}{{\text{N}}_{\text{0}}}}{\text{2}}$

D) $\text{2}{{\text{N}}_{\text{0}}}$

• question_answer26) A projectile is fired at an angle of $45{}^\circ$ with the horizontal. Elevation angle of the projectile at its highest point as seen from the point of projection is

A) $\text{6}{{\text{0}}^{\text{o}}}$

B) ${{\tan }^{-1}}\left( \frac{1}{2} \right)$

C) ${{\tan }^{-1}}\left( \frac{\sqrt{3}}{2} \right)$

D) $\text{4}{{\text{5}}^{\text{o}}}$

• question_answer27) Out of the following which one is not a possible energy for a photon to be emitted by hydrogen atom according to Bohr's atomic model?

A) 1.9 eV

B) 11.1 eV

C) 13.6 eV

D) 0.65 eV

• question_answer28) In the circuit shown in the figure, if potential, at point A is taken to be zero, the potential at point B is

A) - 1 V

B) + 2 V

C) - 2 V

D) + 1 V

• question_answer29) A conversing beam of rays is incident on a diverging lens. Having passed through the lens the rays intersect at a point 15 cm from the lens on the opposite side. If the lens is removed the point where the rays meets will move 5 cm closer to the lens. The focal length of the lens is

A) -10 cm

B) 20 cm

C) -30 cm

D) 5 cm

• question_answer30) Three charges, each + q, are placed at the comers of an isosceles triangle ABC of sides BE and AC, 2a. D and? are the mid points of BE and CA. The work done in taking a charge Q from D to E is

A) $\frac{eqQ}{8\pi {{\varepsilon }_{0}}a}$

B) $\frac{qQ}{4\pi {{\varepsilon }_{0}}a}$

C) zero

D) $\frac{3qQ}{4\pi {{\varepsilon }_{0}}a}$

• question_answer31) Which of the following is not a fat soluble vitamin?

A) Vitamin-B complex

B) Vitamin-D

C) Vitamin-E

D) Vitamin-A

• question_answer32) Which of the statements about 'Denaturation' given below are correct? Statements

 [A] Denaturation of proteins causes loss of secondary and tertiary structures of the protein. [B] Denaturation leads to the conversion of double strand of DNA into single strand. [C] Denaturation affects primary structure which gets distroyed.

A) [B] and [C]

B) [A] and [C]

C) [A] and [B]

D) [A], [B] and [C]

• question_answer33) Which has the maximum number of molecules among the following?

A) $\text{44}\,\text{g}\,\text{C}{{\text{O}}_{\text{2}}}$

B) $\text{48}\,\text{g}\,{{\text{O}}_{3}}$

C) $\text{8}\,\text{g}\,{{\text{H}}_{\text{2}}}$

D) $\text{64}\,\text{g}\,\text{S}{{\text{O}}_{\text{2}}}$

• question_answer34) The half-life of a substance in a certain enzyme-catalyses reaction is 138 s. The time required for the concentration of the substance to fall from 1.28 mg ${{\text{L}}^{\text{-1}}}$ to 0.04 mg ${{\text{L}}^{\text{-1}}}$ is

A) 414 s

B) 552 s

C) 690 s

D) 276 s

• question_answer35) Which of the following compounds undergoes nucleophilic substitution reaction most easily?

A)

B)

C)

D)

• question_answer36) Which of the following statements is incorrect?

A) Pure sodium metal dissolves in liquid ammonia to give blue solution

B) NaOH reacts with glass to give sodium silicate

C) Aluminium, reacts with excess NaOH to give $Al{{(OH)}_{3}}$

D) $NaHC{{O}_{3}}$ on heating gives$N{{a}_{2}}C{{O}_{3}}$

• question_answer37) A 0.1 molal aqueous solution of a weak acid is 30% ionised. If ${{K}_{f}}$ for water is$1.86{}^\circ C/m$, the freezing point of the solution will be

A) $-0.18{}^\circ C$

B) $-0.54{}^\circ C$

C) $-0.36{}^\circ C$

D) $-0.24{}^\circ C$

• question_answer38) The rate of reaction $2{{N}_{2}}{{O}_{5}}\xrightarrow[{}]{{}}4N{{O}_{2}}+{{O}_{2}}$can be written in three ways $\frac{-d[{{N}_{2}}{{O}_{5}}]}{dt}=k[{{N}_{2}}{{O}_{5}}]$ $\frac{d[NO_{7}^{2}]}{dt}=k'[{{N}_{2}}{{O}_{5}}]$$\frac{d[O_{2}^{{}}]}{dt}=k''[{{N}_{2}}{{O}_{5}}]$ The relationship between k and k' and between k?? and k'' are

A) k? = 2 k; k? = k

B) k? = 2k; k??=k/2

C) k? = 2k; k?? = 2k

D) k? = k; k?? = k

• question_answer39) Which of the following carbonyls will have the strongest C-O bond?

A) $\text{Mn(CO)}_{\text{6}}^{\text{+}}$

B) $\text{Cr(CO)}_{\text{6}}^{{}}$

C) $\text{V(CO)}_{\text{6}}^{-}$

D) $\text{Fe(CO)}_{5}^{{}}$

• question_answer40) The order of reactivity of phenyl magnesium bromide (PhMgBr) with the following compounds

A) $\text{III}\,\text{}\,\text{II}\,\text{}\,\text{I}$

B) $\text{II}\,\text{}\,\text{II}\,\text{}\,\text{III}$

C) $\text{I}\,\text{}\,\text{III}\,\text{}\,\text{II}$

D) $\text{I}\,\text{}\,\text{II}\,\text{}\,\text{III}$

• question_answer41) The IUPAC name of the following compound is

A) trans-2-chloro-3-iodo-2-pentene

B) cis-3-iodo-4-chloro-3-pentene

C) rrans-3-iodo-4-chloro-3-pentene

D) cis-2-chloro-3-iodo-2-pentene

• question_answer42) According to the Bohr theory, which of the following transitions in the hydrogen atom will give rise to the least energetic photon?

A) n = 6 to n = 1

B) n = 5 to n = 4

C) n = 6 to n = 5

D) n = 5 ton = 3

• question_answer43) A solid compound XY has $NaCl$ structure. If the radius of the cation is 100 pm, the radius of the anion $({{Y}^{-}})$ will be

A) 275.1pm

B) 322.5 pm

C) 241.5 pm

D) 165.7 pm

• question_answer44) Consider the following processes

 $\text{ }\!\!\Delta\!\!\text{ H}\,\text{(kJ/}\,\text{mol)}$ $1/2A\to B$ + 150 $3B\to 2C+D$ - 125 $E+A\to 2D$ + 350
For$B+D\to E+2C,\Delta H$will be

A) 525 kJ/mol

B) - 175 kJ/mol

C) -325 kJ/mol

D) 325 kJ/mol

• question_answer45) Match the compounds given in list I with list II and select the suitable option using the code given belows.

 List-I List-II A. Benzaldehyde 1. Phenolphthalein B. Phthalic anhydride 2. Benzoin condensation C. Phenyl benzoate 3. Oil wintergreen D. Methyl salicylate 4. Fries rearrangement
Code

A) A-4         B-1         C-3         D-2

B) A-4         B-2         C-3         D-1

C) A-2         B-3         C-4         D-1

D) A-2         B-1         C-4         D-3

• question_answer46) Which of the following compound is most basic?

A)

B)

C)

D)

• question_answer47) Which of the following structures is the most preferred and hence of lowest energy for $S{{O}_{3}}$?

A)

B)

C)

D)

• question_answer48) A solution contains $F{{e}^{2+}},F{{e}^{3+}}$and ${{\text{I}}^{-}}$ ions. This solution was treated with iodine at$35{}^\circ C$. $E{}^\circ$ for $F{{e}^{3+}}/F{{e}^{2+}}$is + 0.77 V and $E{}^\circ$ for ${{\text{I}}_{\text{2}}}\text{/2}{{\text{I}}^{-}}=\text{0}\text{.536}\,\text{V}\text{.}$The favorable redox reaction is

A) ${{\text{I}}_{\text{2}}}$ will be reduced to ${{\text{I}}^{-}}$

B) There will be no redox reaction

C) ${{\text{I}}^{-}}$ will be oxidised to ${{\text{I}}_{\text{2}}}$

D) $\text{F}{{\text{e}}^{\text{2+}}}$will be oxidised to $\text{F}{{\text{e}}^{\text{3+}}}$

• question_answer49) What is the value of electron gain enthalpy of $\text{N}{{\text{a}}^{\text{+}}}$if $\text{I}{{\text{F}}_{\text{1}}}$of Na = 5.1 eV?

A) -5.1 eV

B) -10.2 Ev

C) = 2.55 eV

D) + 10.2 eV

• question_answer50) The unit of rate constant for- a zero order reaction is

A) $\text{mol}\,{{\text{L}}^{\text{-1}}}\,{{\text{s}}^{\text{-1}}}$

B) $\text{L}\,\text{mo}{{\text{l}}^{\text{-1}}}\,{{\text{s}}^{\text{-1}}}$

C) ${{\text{L}}^{\text{2}}}\,\text{mo}{{\text{l}}^{\text{-2}}}\,{{\text{s}}^{\text{-1}}}$

D) $\,{{\text{s}}^{\text{-1}}}$

• question_answer51) In qualitative analysis, the metals of group I can be separated from other ions by precipitating them as chloride salts. A solution initially contains $A{{g}^{+}}$ and $P{{b}^{2+}}$ at a concentration of 0.10 M. Aqueous HCl is added to this solution until the $C{{l}^{-}}$ concentration is 0.10 M. What will be the concentration of $A{{g}^{+}}$ and $P{{b}^{2+}}$ be at equilibrium? (${{K}_{sp}}$for $AgCl=1.8\times {{10}^{-10}},\,\,{{K}_{sp}}$ for$\text{PbC}{{\text{l}}_{\text{2}}}\text{=1}\text{.7 }\!\!\times\!\!\text{ 1}{{\text{0}}^{\text{-5}}}$)

A) $[A{{g}^{+}}]=1.8\times {{10}^{-7}}M;[P{{b}^{2+}}]=1.7\times {{10}^{-6}}M$

B) $[A{{g}^{+}}]=1.8\times {{10}^{-11}}M;[P{{b}^{2+}}]=8.5\times {{10}^{-5}}M$

C) $[A{{g}^{+}}]=1.8\times {{10}^{-9}}M;[P{{b}^{2+}}]=1.7\times {{10}^{-3}}M$

D) $[A{{g}^{+}}]=1.8\times {{10}^{-11}}M;[P{{b}^{2+}}]=8.5\times {{10}^{-4}}M$

• question_answer52) A bubble of air is underwater at temperature $15{}^\circ C$ and the pressure 1.5 bar. If the bubble rises to the surface where the temperature is $25{}^\circ C$ and the pressure is 1.0 bar, what will happen to the volume of the bubble?

A) Volume will become greater by a factor of 1.6

B) Volume will become greater by a factor of 1.1

C) Volume will become smaller by a factor of 0.70

D) Volume will become greater by a factor of 2.9

• question_answer53) Match list I with list II for the compositions of substances and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists.

 List I(Substances) List II(Composition) A. Plaster of Pairs 1.$CaS{{O}_{4}}\cdot 2{{H}_{2}}O$ B. Epsomite 2.$CaS{{O}_{4}}.\frac{1}{2}{{H}_{2}}O$ C. Kieserite 3.$MgS{{O}_{4}}\cdot 7{{H}_{2}}O$ D. Gypsum 4.$MgS{{O}_{4}}\cdot {{H}_{2}}O$ 5.$CaS{{O}_{4}}$

A) A-3         B-4         C-1         D-2

B) A-2         B-3         C-4         D-1

C) A-1         B-2         C-3         D-5

D) A-4         B-3         C-2         D-1

• question_answer54) The pairs of species of oxygen and their magnetic behaviors are noted below. Which of the following presents the correct description?

A) $\text{O}_{2}^{-},\text{O}_{2}^{2-}$Both diamagnetic

B) ${{O}^{+}},\,O_{2}^{2-}-$ Both paramagnetic

C) $O_{2}^{+},\,{{O}_{2}}-$ Both paramagnetic

D) $\text{O}_{{}}^{{}},\text{O}_{2}^{2-}$- Both paramagnetic

 (i)${{(C{{H}_{3}})}_{2}}CH-C{{H}_{2}}Br\xrightarrow[{}]{{{C}_{2}}{{H}_{5}}OH}{{(C{{H}_{3}})}_{2}}CH$$-C{{H}_{2}}O{{C}_{2}}{{H}_{5}}+HBr$ (ii)${{(C{{H}_{3}})}_{2}}CH-C{{H}_{2}}Br\xrightarrow[{}]{{{C}_{2}}{{H}_{5}}{{O}^{-}}}{{(C{{H}_{3}})}_{2}}CH$$-C{{H}_{2}}O{{C}_{2}}{{H}_{5}}+B{{r}^{-}}$
The mechanisms of reactions CO and (ii) are respectively

A) ${{\text{S}}_{\text{N}}}\text{1}\,\text{and}\,{{\text{S}}_{\text{N}}}2$

B) ${{\text{S}}_{\text{N}}}\text{1}\,\text{and}\,{{\text{S}}_{\text{N}}}1$

C) ${{\text{S}}_{\text{N}}}2\,\text{and}\,{{\text{S}}_{\text{N}}}2$

D) ${{\text{S}}_{\text{N}}}2\,\text{and}\,{{\text{S}}_{\text{N}}}1$

• question_answer56) Which of the following complex compounds will exhibit highest paramagnetic behaviour? $(At.\,no.:Ti=22,Cr=24,Co=27,Zn=30)$

A) ${{[Ti{{(N{{H}_{3}})}_{6}}]}^{3+}}$

B) ${{[Cr{{(N{{H}_{3}})}_{6}}]}^{3+}}$

C) ${{[Co{{(N{{H}_{3}})}_{6}}]}^{3+}}$

D) ${{[Zn{{(N{{H}_{3}})}_{6}}]}^{2+}}$

• question_answer57) 200 mL of an aqueous solution of a protein contains its 1.26 g. The osmotic pressure of this solution at 300 K is found to be $2.57\times {{10}^{-3}}$ bar. The molar mass of protein will be $(R=0.083\,\,L\,\,bar\,\,mo{{l}^{-1}})$

A) $51022\,\,g\,\,mo{{l}^{-1}}$

B) $122044\,\,g\,\,mo{{l}^{-1}}$

C) $31011\,\,g\,\,mo{{l}^{-1}}$

D) $61038\,\,g\,\,mo{{l}^{-1}}$

• question_answer58) Which of the following oxide is amphoteric?

A) $Sn{{O}_{2}}$

B) $CaO$

C) $Si{{O}_{2}}$

D) $C{{O}_{2}}$

• question_answer59) The following reactions take place in the blast furnace in the preparation of impure iron. Identify the reaction pertaining to the formation of the slag.

A) $F{{e}_{2}}{{O}_{3}}(s)=3CO(g)\xrightarrow[{}]{{}}2Fe(l)+3C{{O}_{2}}(g)$

B) $CaC{{O}_{3}}(s)\xrightarrow[{}]{{}}CaO(s)+C{{O}_{2}}(g)$

C) $CaO(s)+Si{{O}_{2}}(s)\xrightarrow[{}]{{}}CaSi{{O}_{3}}(s)$

D) $2C(s)+{{O}_{2}}(g)\xrightarrow[{}]{{}}2CO(g)$

• question_answer60) An organic compound 'A' on treatment with $N{{H}_{3}}$ gives 'B' which on heating gives 'C' , 'C' when treated with $B{{r}_{2}}$ in the presence of KOH produces ethylamine. Compound 'A' is

A) $C{{H}_{3}}COOH$

B) $C{{H}_{3}}C{{H}_{2}}C{{H}_{2}}COOH$

C) $C{{H}_{3}}-\underset{\begin{smallmatrix} | \\ C{{H}_{3}} \end{smallmatrix}}{\mathop{C}}\,HCOOH$

D) $C{{H}_{3}}C{{H}_{2}}COOH$

• question_answer61) The technique called gamete intra fallopian transfer (GIFT) is recommended for those females

A) who cannot produce an ovum

B) who cannot retain the foetus inside uterus

C) who cervical canal is too narrow to allow passage for the sperms

D) who cannot provide suitable environmental for fertilization

• question_answer62) Which one of the following is a possibility for most of us in regard to breathing, by making a conscious effort?

A) One can breathe out air totally without oxygen

B) One can breathe out air through Eustachian tubes by closing both the nose and the mouth

C) One can consiously breathe in and breathe out by moving the diaphragm alone, without moving the ribs at all

D) The lungs can be made fully empty by forcefully breathing out all air from them

• question_answer63) Bacillus thuringiensis forms protein crystals, which contain insecticidal protein

A) binds with epithelial cells of midgut of the insect pest ultimately killing it

B) is coded by several genes including the gene cry

C) is activated by acid of pH of the foregut of the insect pest

D) does not kill the carrier bacterium which is itself resistant to this toxin

• question_answer64) Which one of the following pairs is wrongly matched while the remaining three are correct?

A) Penidllium - Conidia

B) Water hyacinth - Runner

C) Bryophyllum - Leatbuds

D) Agave - Bulbils

• question_answer65) Which one of the following diagrams represents the placentation in Dianthus?

A)

B)

C)

D)

• question_answer66) Which one of the following statements is totally wrong about the occurrence of notochord, while the other three are correct?

A) It is present only in larval tail in Ascidians

B) It is replaced by a vertebral column in adult frog

C) It is absent throughout life in humans from the very beginning

D) It is present throughout life in Amphioxus

• question_answer67) Which one of the following animals may occupy more than one trophic levels in the same ecosystem at the same time?

A) Sparrow

B) Lion

C) Goat

D) Frog

A) medium water conditions

B) xeric conditions

C) highly dry conditions

D) excessive wet conditions

• question_answer69) What happens during fertilization in humans after many sperms reach close to the ovum?

A) Secretions of acrosome helps one sperm enter cytoplasm of ovum through zona pellucida

B) All sperms except the one nearest to the ovum lose their tails

C) Cells of corona radiata trap all the sperms except one

D) Only two sperms nearest the ovum penetrate zona pellucida

• question_answer70) About which day in a normal human menstrual cycle does rapid secretion of LH (popularly called LH surge) normally occurs?

A) 14th day

B) 20th day

C) 5th day

D) 11th day

• question_answer71) The cells lining the blood vessels belong to the category of

A) smooth muscle tissue

B) squamous epithelium

C) columnar epithelium

D) connective tissue

• question_answer72) The pathogen Microsporum responsible for ringworm disease in humans belongs to the same kingdom of organisms as that of

A) Taenia, a tapeworm

B) Wuchereria, a filarial worm

C) Rhizopus, a mould

D) Ascaras, a round worm

• question_answer73) The figure below shows the structure of a mitochondrion with its four parts labelled (A), (B), (C) and (D). Select the part correctly matched with its function.

A) D-Outer membrane-gives-rise to inner membrane by splitting

B) B-Inner membrane-forms infolding called cristae

C)  C-Cristae-possess single circular DNA molecule and ribosomes

D)  A-Matrix-major site for respiratory chain enzymes

• question_answer74) Read the following statement having two blanks (1 and 2). A drug used for...... (1)...... patients is obtained from a species of the organism...... (2)....... The one correct option for the two blanks is.

A)

 Blank-1 Blank-2 Heart Penicillium

B)

 Blank-1 Blank-2 Organ-transplant Trichoderma

C)

 Blank-1 Blank-2 Swine flu Monascus

D)

 Blank-1 Blank-2 AIDS Pseudomonas

• question_answer75) Silencing of mRNA has been used in producing transgenic plants resistant to

A) bollworms

B) nematodes

C) white rusts

D) bacterial blights

• question_answer76) At metaphase, chromosomes are attached to the spindle fibres by their

A) satellites

B) secondary constrictions

C) kinetochores

D) centromere

 I. Utilizes genetically modified crops like Bt cotton II. Uses only naturally produced inputs like compost III. Does not use pesticides and urea IV. Produces vegetables rich in vitamins and minerals
Which of the above statements are correct?

A) (II), CIII) and (IV)

B) (III) and (IV) only

C) (II) and (III) only

D) and (II) only

• question_answer78) One-of the constituents of the pancreatic juice while poured into the duodenum in humans, is

A) trypsinogen

B) chymotrypsin

C) trypsin

D) enterokinase

• question_answer79) Frogs differ from humans in possessing

A) paired, cerebral hemispheres

B) hepatic portal system

C) nucleated red blood cells

D) thyroid as well as parathyroid

• question_answer80) Which one of the following option gives the correct matching of a disease with its causative organism and mode of infection?

A)

 Disease Gausative Organisms Mode of Infection Typhoid Salmonella typhi With inspired air

B)

 Disease Gausative Organisms Mode of Infection Pneumonia Sreptococcus pneumonia Droplet infection

C)

 Disease Gausative Organisms Mode of Infection Elephantiasis Wuchereria bancrofti Infected water and food

D)

 Disease Gausative Organisms Mode of Infection Malaria Plasmodium vivax Bite of male Anopheles mosquito

• question_answer81) Function of companion cells is

A) providing energy to sieve elements for active transport

B) providing water to phloem

• question_answer82) Test cross in plants of in Drosophila involves crossing

A) between two genotypes with recessive trait

B) between two ${{\text{F}}_{\text{1}}}$hybrids

C) the ${{\text{F}}_{\text{1}}}$ hybrid with a double recessive genotype

D) between two genotypes with dominant trait.

• question_answer83) Some vascular bundles are described as open because these

A) are surrounded by pericycle but to endodermis

B) are capable of producing secondary xylem and phloem

C) possess conjunctive tissue between xylem and phloem

D) are not surrounded by pericycle

• question_answer84) In mitochondria, protons accumulate in the

A) outer membrane

B) inner membrane

C) inter membrane space

D) matrix

• question_answer85) The breakdown of detritus into smaller particles by earthworm is a process called

A) humification

B) fragmentation

C) mineralisation

D) catabolism

• question_answer86) Whorled, simple leaves with reticulate venation are present in

A) Calotropis

B) Neem

C) China rose

D) Aktonia

• question_answer87) Sweet potato is homolgous to

A) potato

B) colocasia

C) ginger

D) turnip

• question_answer88) The unequivocal proof of DNA as the genetic material came from the studies on a

A) bacterium

B) fungus

C) viroid

D) bacterial virus

• question_answer89) Consider the following four statements whether they are correct of wrong.

 I. The sporophyte in liverworts is more elaborate than that in mosses II. Satvinia is heterosporous III. The life-cycle in all seed-bearing plants is diplontic IV. In Pinus male and female cones are borne on different tress

A) Statements (I) and (III)

B) Statements (I) and (IV)

C) Statements (II) and (III)

D) Statements (I) and (II)

• question_answer90) Consider the following four statements (I-IV) related to the common frog Rana tigrina, and select the correct option stating which ones are true (T) and which ones are false (F).

 I. On dry land it would die due to lack of ${{O}_{2}}$its mouth is forcibly kept closed for a few days. II. It has four-chambered heart. III. On day land it turns uricotelic from ureotelic. IV. Its life-history is carried out in pond water.

A) I-T II-F III-F IV-T

B) I-T II-T III-F IV-F

C) I-F II-F III-T IV-T

D) I-F II-T III-T IV-F

• question_answer91) In Kranz anatomy, the bundle sheath cells have

A) thin walls, many intercellular spaces and no chloroplasts

B) thick walls, no intercellular spaces and large number of chloroplasts

C) thin walls, no intercellular spaces and several chloroplasts

D) thick walls, many intercellular space and few chloroplasts

• question_answer92) Given below is the ECG or a normal human. Which one of its components is human, which one of its components is correctly interpreted below.

A) complex QRS-One complete pulse

B) peak T-Initiation of total cardiac contraction

C) peak P and peak R together-systolic and diastolic blood pressures

D) peak P-Initiation of left atrial contraction only

• question_answer93) Which one of the following structures in Pheretima is correctly matched with its function?

A) Clitellum - Secretes cocoon

B) Gizzard - Absorbs digested food

C) Setae - Defence against predators

D) Typhlosole - Storage of extra nutrients

• question_answer94) Selaginella and Salvinia are considered to represent a significant step towards evolution of seed habit because

A) female gametophyte is free and gets dispersed like seeds

B) female gametophyte lacks archegonia

C) magaspores possess endosperm and embryo surrounded by seed coat

D) embryo develops in female gametophyte which is retained on parent sporophyte

• question_answer95) Bulk of carbon dioxide $(C{{O}_{2}})$released from body tissues into the blood is present as

A) bicarbonate in blood plasma and RBCs

B) free $C{{O}_{2}}$ in blood plasma

C) 70% carbamino-haemoglobin and 30% as bicarbonate

D) carbamino-haemoglobin in RBCs

• question_answer96) In angiosperms, functional megaspore develops into

A) embryo sac

B) ovule

C) endosperm

D) pollen sac

• question_answer97) Consider the following statements (I)-(IV) each with one or two blanks.

 I. Bears go into......(1)...... during winter to ......(2)...... cold weather. II. A conical age pyramid with a broad base represents...... (3)...... human population. III. A wasp pollinating a fig flower is an example of...... (4)...... . IV. An area with high levels of species richness is known as ...... (5).......
Which one of the following options give the correct fill up the respective blanks numbers from (1) to (5) in the statements.

A) (2) stable, (4) commensalism, (5)- marsh

B) (1) aestivation, (5) escape, (3) stable, (4) mutualism

C) (3) expanding, (4) commensalism, (5) biodiversity park

D) (1) hibernation, (2) escape, (3) expanding, (5) hot spot

• question_answer98) What is common between vegetative reproduction and apomixis?

A) Both are applicable to only dicot plants

B) Both bypass the flowering phase

C) Both occur round the year

D) Both produces progeny identical to the parent

• question_answer99) Common cold is not cured by antibiotics because it is

A) caused by a virus

B) caused by a Gram positive bacterium

C) caused by a Gram negative bacterium

D) not an infectious disease

• question_answer100) Which one of the following is not an essential mineral elements for plants while the remaining three are?

A) Iron

B) Manganese

D) Phosphorus

• question_answer101) Biodiversity of a geographical region represents

A) endangered species found in the region

B) the diversity in the organism living in the region

C) genetic diversity present in the dominant species of the region

D) species endemic to the region

• question_answer102) Which one of the following is not considered as a part of the endomembrane system?

A) Golgi complex

B) Peroxisome

C) Vacuole

D) Lysosome

• question_answer103) Which one of the following correctly represents the normal adult human dental formula?

A) $\frac{3}{3},\frac{1}{1},\frac{3}{2},\frac{1}{1}$

B) $\frac{2}{2},\frac{1}{1},\frac{3}{2},\frac{3}{3}$

C) $\frac{2}{2},\frac{1}{1},\frac{2}{2},\frac{3}{3}$

D) $\frac{3}{3},\frac{1}{1},\frac{3}{3},\frac{3}{3}$

• question_answer104) Select the correct statements with respect to diseases and immunization

A) if due to some reason B and T-lymphocytes are damaged, the body will not produce antibodies against a pathogen

B) injection of dead/inactivated pathogens causes passive immunity

C) certain protozoans have been used to mass produce hepatitis B vaccine

D) injection of 'snake anti venom against snake bite is an example .of active immunization

• question_answer105) The figure shows four animals [A], [B], [C], [D]. Select the correct answer with respect to a common characteristics of two these animals.

 (A)               (B)                   (C)                     (D)

A)  [A] and [D] respire mainly through body wall

B)  [B] and [C] show radial symmetry

C)  [A] and [B] have cnidoblasts for self-defense

D)  [C] and [D] have a true coelom

• question_answer106) In history of biology, human genome project led to the development of

A) biotechnology

B) bio monitoring

C) bioinformatics

D) biosystematics

• question_answer107) Which one of the following conditions of the zygotic cell would lead to the birth of a normal human female child?

A) Two X-chromosomes

B) Only one Y-chromosome

C) Only one X-chromosome

D) One X and one Y-chromosome

• question_answer108) Which one of the following is essential for photolysis of water?

A) Manganese

B) Zinc

C) Copper

D) Boron

• question_answer109) Which one of the following techniques made it possible to genetically engineer living organism?

A) Recombinant DNA techniques

B) X-ray diffraction

C) Heavier isotope labelling

D) Hybridization

• question_answer110) Urethras act as urogenital ducts in

A) human males

B) human females

C) frog's both males and females

D) frog's males

• question_answer111) The type of muscles present in-our

A) heart are involuntary and un striated smooth muscles

B) intestine are striated and involuntary

C) thigh are striated and voluntary

D) upper arm are smooth muscle fibres fusiform in shape

 I. the first transgenic buffalo, Rosie produced milk which was human alpha-lactal bumin enriched. II. restriction enzymes are used in isolation of DNA from other macro-molecules. III. downstream processing is one of the steps of R-DNA technology. IV. disarmed pathogen vectors are also used in transfer of R-DNA into the host.
Which are the two statements having mistakes?

A) Statements (II) and (III)

B) Statements (III) and (IV)

C) Statements (I) and (III)

D) Statements (I) and (II)

• question_answer113) The 24 hour (diurnal) rhythm of our body such as the sleep-wake cycle is regulated by the hormone

A) calcitonin

B) prolactin

D) melatonin

• question_answer114) Guttation is the result of

A) diffusion

B) transpiration

C) osmosis

D) root pressure

• question_answer115) Examine the figure below and select the right option giving all the four parts A, B, C and D correctly identified.

A)

 A B C D Archegoni ophore Female thallus Gemma cup Rhizoids

B)

 A B C D Archegoni ophore Female thallus Bud Foot

C)

 A B C D Seta Sporophyte Protonema Rhizoids

D)

 A B C D Antheridio phore Male thallus Globule Roots

• question_answer116) Three of the following pairs of the human skeletal parts are correctly matched with their respective inclusive skeletal category and one pair is not matched. Identify the non-matching pair.

A)

 Pairs of skeletal parts Category Sternum and ribs Axial skeleton

B)

 Pairs of skeletal parts Category Clavicle and glenoid Pelvic girdle

C)

 Pairs of skeletal parts Category Humerus and ulna Appendicular skeleton

D)

 Pairs of skeletal parts Category Malleus and stapes Ear ossicles

• question_answer117) Which one of the following aspects is an exclusive characteristic of living things?

A) Isolated metabolic reactions occur in vitro

B) Increase in mass from inside only

C) Perception of events happening in the environment and their memory

D) Increase in mass by accumulation of material both on surface as well as internally

• question_answer118) Good ozone is found in the

A) mesosphere

B) troposphere

C) stratosphere

D) ionosphere

• question_answer119) Which one of the following is a wrong matching of a microbe and its industrial product, while the remaining three are correct?

A) Yeast - statins

B) Acetobacter aceti - acid

C) Clostridium butulicum - lactic acid

D) Aspergillus niger - citric acid

• question_answer120) The logistic population growth is expressed by the equation

A) $dt/dN=Nr\left( \frac{K-N}{K} \right)$

B) $dN/dt=rN\left( \frac{K-N}{K} \right)$

C) $dN/dt=rN$

D) $dN/dt=rN\left( \frac{N-K}{N} \right)$