Solved papers for NEET AIPMT SOLVED PAPER MAINS 2012


  • question_answer1) The dimensions of \[{{({{\mu }_{0}}{{\varepsilon }_{0}})}^{-1/2}}\] are

    A) \[[{{L}^{1/2}}T{{-}^{1/2}}]\]

    B) \[[{{L}^{-1}}T]\]

    C) \[[L{{T}^{-1}}]\]

    D) \[[{{L}^{1/2}}{{T}^{1/2}}]\]

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  • question_answer2) A stone is dropped from a height h. It hits the ground with a certain momentum p. If the same stone is dropped from a height 100% more than the previous height, the momentum when it hits the ground will change by

    A) 68%

    B) 41%

    C) 200%

    D) 100%

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  • question_answer3) A car of mass m is moving on a level circular track of radius R. If \[{{\mu }_{s}}\], represents the static friction between the road and tyres of the car, the maximum speed of the car in circular motion is given by

    A) \[\sqrt{{{\mu }_{s}}mRg}\]

    B) \[\sqrt{Rg/{{\mu }_{s}}}\]

    C) \[\sqrt{m\,Rg/{{\mu }_{s}}}\]

    D) \[\sqrt{{{\mu }_{s}}Rg}\]

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  • question_answer4) A car of mass m starts from rest and accelerates so that the instantaneous power delivered to the car has a constant magnitude \[{{p}_{0}}.\]The instantaneous velocity of this car is proportional to

    A) \[{{t}^{2}}{{p}_{0}}\]

    B) \[{{t}^{1/2}}\]

    C) \[{{t}^{-1/2}}\]

    D) \[t/\sqrt{m}\]

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  • question_answer5) A circular platform is mounted on a frictionless vertical axle. Its radius R = 2 m and its moment of inertia about the axle is\[200\text{ }kg\text{ }{{m}^{2}}\]. It is initially at rest. A 50 kg man stands on the edge of the platform and begins to walk along the edge at the speed of 1 \[m{{s}^{-1}}\] relative to the ground. Time taken by the man to complete one revolution is

    A) \[\pi \sec \]

    B) \[\frac{3\pi }{2}\sec \]

    C) \[2\pi \sec \]

    D) \[\frac{\pi }{2}\sec \]

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  • question_answer6) The moment of inertia of a uniform circular disc is maximum about an axis perpendicular to the disc and passing through

    A) B

    B) C

    C) D

    D) A

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  • question_answer7) Three masses are placed on the x-axis: 300 g at origin, 500 g at x = 40 cm and 400 g at x = 70 cm. The distance of the centre of mass from the origin is

    A) 40 cm

    B) 45 cm

    C) 50 cm

    D) 30 cm

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  • question_answer8) If \[{{V}_{e}}\] is escape velocity and \[{{V}_{o}}\] is orbital velocity of a satellite for orbit close to the Earth's surface, then these are related by

    A) \[{{v}_{o}}=\sqrt{2}{{v}^{e}}\]

    B) \[{{v}_{o}}={{v}^{e}}\]

    C) \[{{v}_{e}}=\sqrt{2{{v}^{e}}}\]

    D) \[{{v}_{e}}=\sqrt{2}{{v}_{o}}\]

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  • question_answer9) Which one of the following plots represents the variation of gravitational field on a particle with distance r due to a thin spherical shell of radius R? (r is measured from the centre of the spherical shell).





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  • question_answer10) A slab of stone of area of \[0.36{{m}^{2}}\] and thickness 0.1 m is exposed on the lower surface to steam at\[100{}^\circ C\]. A block of ice at \[0{}^\circ C\] rests on the upper surface of the slab. In one hour 4.8 kg of ice is melted. The thermal conductivity of slab is (Given latent heat of fusion of ice \[=3.36\times {{10}^{5}}J\,k{{g}^{-1}}\])

    A) \[1.24J/m/s/{}^\circ C\]

    B) \[1.29\text{ }J/m/s/{}^\circ C\]

    C) \[2.05\text{ }J/m/s/{}^\circ C~\]

    D) \[1.02\text{ }J/m/s/{}^\circ C\]

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  • question_answer11) An ideal gas goes from state A to state B via three different processes as indicated in the p-V diagram If \[{{Q}_{1}},{{Q}_{2}},{{Q}_{3}}\] indicate the heat absorbed by the gas along the three processes and \[\Delta {{U}_{1}},\Delta {{U}_{2}},\Delta {{U}_{3}}\]indicate the change in internal energy along the three processes respectively, then

    A) \[{{Q}_{1}}>{{Q}_{2}}>{{Q}_{3}}and\Delta {{U}_{1}}=\Delta {{U}_{2}}=\Delta {{U}_{3}}\]

    B) \[{{Q}_{3}}>{{Q}_{2}}>{{Q}_{1}}and\Delta {{U}_{1}}=\Delta {{U}_{2}}=\Delta {{U}_{3}}\]

    C) \[{{Q}_{1}}={{Q}_{2}}={{Q}_{3}}and\Delta {{U}_{1}}>\Delta {{U}_{2}}>\Delta {{U}_{3}}\]

    D) \[{{Q}_{3}}>{{Q}_{2}}>{{Q}_{1}}and\Delta {{U}_{1}}>\Delta {{U}_{2}}>\Delta {{U}_{3}}\]

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  • question_answer12) The equation of a simple harmonic wave is given by\[y=3\sin \frac{\pi }{2}(50t-x),\]where x and y are in metres and t is in seconds. The ratio of maximum particle velocity to the wave velocity is

    A) \[2\pi \]

    B) \[\frac{3}{2}\pi \]

    C) \[3\pi \]

    D) \[\frac{2}{3}\pi \]

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  • question_answer13) A train moving at a speed of 220 \[m{{s}^{-1}}\]towards a stationary object, emits a sound of frequency 1000 Hz. Some of the sound reaching the object gets reflected back to the train as echo. The frequency of the echo as detected by the driver of the train is (speed of sound in air is 330 \[m{{s}^{-1}}\])

    A) 3500 Hz

    B) 4000 Hz

    C) 5000 Hz

    D) 3000 Hz

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  • question_answer14) A parallel plate capacitor has a uniform electric field E in the space between the plates. If the distance between the plates is d and area of each plate is A, the energy stored in the capacitor is

    A) \[\frac{1}{2}{{\varepsilon }_{0}}{{E}^{2}}\]

    B) \[{{E}^{2}}Ad/{{\varepsilon }_{0}}\]

    C) \[\frac{1}{2}{{\varepsilon }_{0}}{{E}^{2}}Ad\]

    D) \[{{\varepsilon }_{0}}EAd\]

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  • question_answer15) Two metallic spheres of radii 1 cm and 3 cm are given charges of \[-1\times {{10}^{-2}}C\] and \[5\times {{10}^{-2}}C,\]respectively. If these are connected by a conducting wire, the final charge on the bigger sphere is

    A) \[2\times {{10}^{-2}}C\]

    B) \[3\times {{10}^{-2}}C\]

    C) \[4\times {{10}^{-2}}C\]

    D) \[1\times {{10}^{-2}}C\]

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  • question_answer16) The power dissipated in the circuit shown in the figure is 30 Watt. The value of R is

    A) \[20\,\Omega \]

    B) \[15\,\Omega \]

    C) \[10\,\Omega \]

    D) \[30\,\Omega \]

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  • question_answer17) A cell having an emf e and internal resistance r is connected across a variable external resistance R. As the resistance R is increased, the plot of potential difference V across R is given by





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  • question_answer18) A proton carrying 1 MeV kinetic energy is moving in a circular path of radius R in uniform magnetic field. What should be the energy of an \[\text{ }\!\!\alpha\!\!\text{ -}\]particle to describe a circle of same radius in the same field?

    A) 2 MeV

    B) 1 MeV

    C) 0.5 MeV

    D) 4 MeV

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  • question_answer19) A magnetic needle suspended parallel to a magnetic field requires \[\sqrt{\text{3}}\,\text{J}\] of work to turn it through\[60{}^\circ \]. The torque needed to maintain the needle in this position will be

    A) \[2\sqrt{\text{3}}\,\text{J}\]

    B) \[3\,\text{J}\]

    C) \[\sqrt{\text{3}}\,\text{J}\]

    D) \[\frac{3}{2}\,\text{J}\]

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  • question_answer20) The instantaneous values of alternating current and voltages in a circuit are given as \[i=\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\sin (100\pi t)\]ampere \[e=\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\sin (100\pi t+\pi /3)\] volt The average power in Watts consumed in the circuit is

    A) \[\frac{1}{4}\]

    B) \[\frac{\sqrt{3}}{4}\]

    C) \[\frac{1}{2}\]

    D) \[\frac{1}{8}\]

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  • question_answer21) In a coil of resistance \[10\,\Omega \], the induced 2 current developed by changing magnetic flux through it, is shown in figure as a function of time. The magnitude of change in flux through the coil in weber is

    A) 8

    B) 2

    C) 6

    D) 4

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  • question_answer22) The ratio of amplitude of magnetic field to the amplitude of electric field for an electromagnetic wave propagating in vacuum is equal to

    A) the speed of light in vacuum

    B) reciprocal of speed of light in vacuum

    C) the ratio of magnetic permeability to the electric susceptibility of vacuum

    D) unity

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  • question_answer23) For the angle of minimum deviation of a prism to be equal to its refracting angle, the prism must be made of a material whose refractive index

    A) lies between \[\sqrt{2}\] and 1

    B) lies between 2 and \[\sqrt{2}\]

    C) is less than 1

    D) is greater than 2

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  • question_answer24) A rod of length 10 cm lies along the principal axis of a concave mirror of focal length 10 cm in such a way that its end closer to the pole is 20 cm away from the mirror. The length of the image is

    A) 10 cm

    B) 15 cm

    C) 2.5 cm

    D) 5 cm

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  • question_answer25) If the momentum of an electron is changed by p, then the de-Broglie wavelength associated with it changes by 0.5%. The initial momentum of electron will be

    A) 200 p

    B) 400 p

    C) \[\frac{p}{200}\]

    D) 100 p

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  • question_answer26) Two radiations of photon energies 1 eV and 2.5 eV, successively illuminate a photosensitive metallic surface of work function 0.5 eV. The ratio of the maximum speeds of the emitted electrons is

    A) 1 : 4

    B) 1 : 2

    C) 1 : 1

    D) 1 : 5

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  • question_answer27) The transition from the state n = 3 to n = 1 in a hydrogen like atom results in ultraviolet radiation. Infrared radiation will be obtained in the transition from

    A) \[2\to 1\]

    B) \[3\to 2\]

    C) \[4\to 2\]

    D) \[4\to 3\]

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  • question_answer28) The half-life of a radioactive nucleus is 50 days. The time interval \[({{t}_{2}}-{{t}_{1}})\] between the time t2 when \[\frac{2}{3}\] of it has decayed and the time t1 when \[\frac{1}{3}\] of it had decayed is

    A) 30 days

    B) 50 days

    C) 60 days

    D) 15 days

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  • question_answer29) The input resistance of a silicon transistor is 100 \[\Omega \]. Base current is changed by 40 \[\mu A\] which results in a change in collector current by 2 mA. This transistor is used as a common-emitter amplifier with a load resistance of 4 k\[\Omega \]. The voltage gain of the amplifier is

    A) 2000

    B) 3000

    C) 4000

    D) 1000

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  • question_answer30) To get an output Y = 1 in given circuit which of the following input will be correct

    A) A-1 B-0 C-0

    B) A-1 B-0 C-1

    C) A-1 B-1 C-0

    D) A-0 B-1 C-0

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  • question_answer31) Given that the equilibrium constant for the reaction,\[2S{{O}_{2}}(g)+{{O}_{2}}(g)2S{{O}_{3}}(g)\]has a value of 278 at a particular temperature. What is the value of the equilibrium constant for the following reaction at the same temperature?\[S{{O}_{3}}(g)S{{O}_{2}}(g)+\frac{1}{2}{{O}_{2}}(g)\]

    A) \[1.8\times {{10}^{-3}}\]

    B) \[3.6\times {{10}^{-3}}\]

    C) \[6.0\times {{10}^{-2}}\]

    D) \[1.3\times {{10}^{-5}}\]

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  • question_answer32) Structure of a mixed oxide is cubic close packed (ccp). The cubic unit cell of mixed oxide is composed of oxide ions. One fourth of the tetrahedral voids are occupied by divalent metal A and the octahedral voids are occupied by a monovalent metal B. The formula of the oxide is

    A) \[AB{{O}_{2}}\]

    B) \[{{A}_{2}}B{{O}_{2}}\]

    C) \[{{A}_{2}}{{B}_{3}}{{O}_{4}}\]

    D) \[A{{B}_{2}}{{O}_{2}}\]

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  • question_answer33) Given the reaction between two gases represented by \[{{A}_{2}}\] and \[{{B}_{2}}\] to give the compound AB(g).\[{{A}_{2}}(g)+{{B}_{2}}(g)2AB(g)\] At equilibrium, the concentration of \[{{A}_{2}}=3.0\times {{10}^{-3}}M\] of\[{{B}_{2}}=4.2\times {{10}^{-3}}M\] of\[AB=2.8\times {{10}^{-3}}M\]If the reaction \[{{527}^{o}}C\]takes place in a sealed vessel at\[{{527}^{o}}C\], then the value of K, will be

    A) 2.0

    B) 1.9

    C) 0.62

    D) 4.5

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  • question_answer34) Activation energy \[({{E}_{a}})\] and rate constants (\[{{k}_{1}}\] and\[{{k}_{2}}\]) of a chemical reaction at two different temperatures T1 and \[{{T}_{2}}\]) are related by

    A) \[\ln \frac{{{k}_{2}}}{{{k}_{1}}}=-\frac{{{E}_{a}}}{R}\left( \frac{1}{{{T}_{1}}}-\frac{1}{{{T}_{2}}} \right)\]

    B) \[\ln \frac{{{k}_{2}}}{{{k}_{1}}}=-\frac{{{E}_{a}}}{R}\left( \frac{1}{{{T}_{2}}}-\frac{1}{{{T}_{1}}} \right)\]

    C) \[\ln \frac{{{k}_{2}}}{{{k}_{1}}}=-\frac{{{E}_{a}}}{R}\left( \frac{1}{{{T}_{2}}}+\frac{1}{{{T}_{1}}} \right)\]

    D) \[\ln \frac{{{k}_{2}}}{{{k}_{1}}}=\frac{{{E}_{a}}}{R}\left( \frac{1}{{{T}_{1}}}-\frac{1}{{{T}_{2}}} \right)\]

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  • question_answer35) During change of O2 to \[O_{2}^{-}\] ion, the electron adds on which one of the following orbitals?

    A) \[\overset{\text{*}}{\mathop{\text{ }\!\!\pi\!\!\text{ }}}\,\]orbital

    B) \[\text{ }\!\!\pi\!\!\text{ }\]orbital

    C) \[\overset{\text{*}}{\mathop{\sigma }}\,\]orbital

    D) \[\overset{{}}{\mathop{\sigma }}\,\]

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  • question_answer36) Standard reduction potentials of the half reactions are given below 


    A)  \[{{F}_{2}}\]and \[{{I}^{-}}\]

    B)  \[B{{r}_{2}}\] and \[C{{l}^{-}}\]

    C)  \[C{{l}_{2}}\] and \[B{{r}^{-}}\]                

    D)  \[C{{l}_{2}}\] and \[{{I}_{2}}\]

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  • question_answer37) A certain gas takes three times as long to effuse out as helium. Its molecular mass will be

    A) 27u

    B) 36u

    C) 64 u

    D) 9 u

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  • question_answer38) The orbital angular momentum of p-electron is given as

    A) \[\frac{h}{\sqrt{2\pi }}\]

    B) \[\sqrt{3}\frac{h}{2\pi }\]

    C) \[\sqrt{\frac{3}{2}}\frac{h}{\pi }\]

    D) \[\sqrt{6}.\frac{h}{2\pi }\]

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  • question_answer39) Vapour pressure of chloroform \[(CHC{{l}_{3}})\] and dichloromethane \[(C{{H}_{2}}C{{l}_{2}})\] at \[{{25}^{o}}C\] are 200 mmHg and 41.5 mmHg respectively. Vapour pressure of the solution obtained by mixing 25.5 g of \[CHC{{l}_{3}}\] and 40 g of\[C{{H}_{2}}C{{l}_{2}}\]at the same temperature will be (Molecular mass of \[CHC{{l}_{3}}=119.5\,u\]and molecular mass of

    A) 173.9 mmHg

    B) 615.0 mmHg

    C) 347.9 mmHg

    D) 28.5 mmHg

    E) None of the above

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  • question_answer40) Molar conductivities \[(\Lambda _{m}^{o})\] at infinite dilution of \[NaCl,\]\[HCl\]and \[C{{H}_{3}}COONa\] are 126.4, 425.9 and\[91.0\]\[S\]\[c{{m}^{2}}\]\[mo{{l}^{-1}}\]respectively. \[\Lambda _{m}^{o}\] for \[C{{H}_{3}}COOH\] will be

    A) \[\text{425}\text{.5}\,\,\text{S}\,\,\text{c}{{\text{m}}^{\text{2}}}\,\text{mo}{{\text{l}}^{\text{-1}}}\]

    B) \[\text{180}\text{.5}\,\,\text{S}\,\,\text{c}{{\text{m}}^{\text{2}}}\,\text{mo}{{\text{l}}^{\text{-1}}}\]

    C) \[\text{290}\text{.8}\,\,\text{S}\,\,\text{c}{{\text{m}}^{\text{2}}}\,\text{mo}{{\text{l}}^{\text{-1}}}\]

    D) \[\text{390}\text{.5}\,\,\text{S}\,\,\text{c}{{\text{m}}^{\text{2}}}\,\text{mo}{{\text{l}}^{\text{-1}}}\]

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  • question_answer41) For real gases van der Waals' equation is. Written as\[\left( p+\frac{a{{n}^{2}}}{{{V}^{2}}} \right)(V-nb)=n\,RT\]written where, a and b are van der Waals' constants. Two sets of gases are\[\text{I}\text{.}{{\text{O}}_{\text{2}}}\text{,C}{{\text{O}}_{\text{2}}}\text{,}{{\text{H}}_{\text{2}}}\]and He \[\text{II}\text{.C}{{\text{H}}_{4}}\text{,}{{\text{O}}_{\text{2}}}\]and\[{{\text{H}}_{\text{2}}}\] The gases given in set-I in increasing order of 'b' and gases given in set-II in decreasing order of ' a', are arranged below. Select the correct order from the following,

    A) \[\text{(I)}\,\text{He}\,\text{}\,{{\text{H}}_{\text{2}}}\text{}\,\text{C}{{\text{O}}_{\text{2}}}\text{}\,{{\text{O}}_{\text{2}}}\] \[\text{(II)}\,\text{C}{{\text{H}}_{\text{4}}}\,\text{}\,{{\text{H}}_{\text{2}}}\text{}\,{{\text{O}}_{\text{2}}}\]

    B) \[\text{(I)}\,\,{{\text{O}}_{\text{2}}}\text{}\,\text{He}\,\,\text{}\,{{\text{H}}_{\text{2}}}\text{}\,\text{C}{{\text{O}}_{\text{2}}}\]\[\text{(II)}\,\,{{\text{H}}_{\text{2}}}\text{}\,{{\text{O}}_{\text{2}}}\,\,\text{}\,\text{C}{{\text{H}}_{4}}\]

    C) \[\text{(I)}\,\,{{\text{H}}_{\text{2}}}\text{}\,\text{He}\,\,\text{}\,{{\text{O}}_{\text{2}}}\text{}\,\text{C}{{\text{O}}_{\text{2}}}\]\[\text{(II)}\,\text{C}{{\text{H}}_{\text{4}}}\text{}\,{{\text{O}}_{\text{2}}}\text{}\,{{\text{H}}_{\text{2}}}\]

    D) \[\text{(I)}\,{{\text{H}}_{2}}<\,{{\text{O}}_{\text{2}}}<\,\text{He}\,\text{}\,\text{C}{{\text{O}}_{\text{2}}}\]\[\text{(II)}\,\,{{\text{O}}_{\text{2}}}\text{}\,\text{C}{{\text{H}}_{\text{2}}}\,\text{}\,{{\text{H}}_{\text{2}}}\]

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  • question_answer42) Equal volumes of two monoatomic gases, A and B, at same temperature and pressure are mixed. The ratio of specific heats\[(cp/cv)\] of the mixture will be

    A) 0.83

    B) 1.50

    C) 3.3

    D) 1.67

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  • question_answer43) Red precipitate is obtained when ethanol solution of dimethylglyoxime is added to ammonia cal Ni(II). Which of the following statements is not true?

    A) Red complex has a square planar geometry

    B) Complex has symmetrical H-bonding

    C) Red complex has a tetrahedral geometry

    D) Dimethylglyoxime functions as bin dentate ligand

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  • question_answer44) Low spin complex of \[{{d}^{6}}\]cation in an octahedral field will have the following energy

    Note: -  (\[{{\Delta }_{o}}=\] crystal field splitting energy in an octahedral field, P = electron pairing energy)

    A) \[\frac{-12}{5}{{\Delta }_{o}}+p\]            

    B) \[\frac{-12}{5}{{\Delta }_{o}}+3p\]          

    C) \[\frac{-2}{5}{{\Delta }_{o}}+2p\]            

    D) \[\frac{-2}{5}{{\Delta }_{o}}+p\]

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  • question_answer45) (\[{{\Delta }_{o}}=\] crystal field splitting energy in an octahedral field, P = electron pairing energy) Which one of the following does not correctly represent the correct order of the property indicated against it?

    A) \[Ti<V<Cr<Mn\]: increasing number of oxidation states

    B) \[T{{i}^{3+}}<{{V}^{3+}}<C{{r}^{3+}}<M{{n}^{3+}}\]: increasing magnetic moment

    C) \[Ti<V<Cr<Mn\]: increasing melting points

    D) \[Ti<V<Mn<Cr\]: increasing second ionisation enthalpy

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  • question_answer46) Four successive members of the first series of the transition metals are listed below. For which one of them the standard potential \[({{E}^{o}}_{{{M}^{2+}}/M})\]positive sign?

    A) Co (Z = 27)

    B) Ni (Z = 28)

    C) Cu (Z = 29)

    D) Fe (Z = 26)

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  • question_answer47) In the replacement reaction The reaction will be most favorable if M happens to be

    A) Na

    B) K

    C) Rb

    D) Li

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  • question_answer48) In which of the following arrangements the given sequence is not strictly according to the property indicated against it?

    A) \[HF<HCl<HBr,HI\]: increasing acidic strength

    B) \[{{H}_{2}}O<{{H}_{2}}S<{{H}_{2}}Se<{{H}_{2}}Te\]: increasing \[p{{K}_{a}}\]values

    C) \[N{{H}_{3}}<p{{H}_{3}}<As{{H}_{3}}<Sb{{H}_{3}}\]: increasing acidic character

    D) \[C{{O}_{2}}<Si{{O}_{2}}<Sn{{O}_{2}}<Pb{{O}_{2}}\]: increasing oxidising power

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  • question_answer49) Four diatomic species are listed below. Identify the correct order in which the bond order is increasing in them.

    A) \[NO<O_{2}^{-}<C_{2}^{2-}<He_{2}^{+}\]

    B) \[O_{2}^{-}<NO<C_{2}^{2-}<He_{2}^{+}\]

    C) \[C_{2}^{2-}<He_{2}^{+}<O_{2}^{-}<NO\]

    D) \[He_{2}^{+}<O_{2}^{-}<NO<C_{2}^{2-}\]

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  • question_answer50) The catalytic activity of transition metals and their compounds is ascribed mainly to

    A) their magnetic behaviour

    B) their unfilled d-orbitals

    C) their ability to adopt variable oxidation states

    D) their chemical reactivity

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  • question_answer51) Which of the following exhibits only +3 oxidation state?

    A) U

    B) Th

    C) Ac

    D) Pa

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  • question_answer52) The Gibbs' energy for the decomposition of\[A{{l}_{2}}{{O}_{3}}\] at \[{{500}^{o}}C\] is as follows \[\frac{2}{3}A{{l}_{2}}{{O}_{3}}\xrightarrow[{}]{{}}\frac{4}{3}Al+{{O}_{2}};\]\[{{\Delta }_{r}}G=+\,960\,kJ\,mo{{l}^{-1}}\] The potential difference needed for the electrolytic reduction of aluminium oxide (\[A{{l}_{2}}{{O}_{3}}\]) at \[{{500}^{o}}C\] is at least

    A) 4.5 V

    B) 3.0 V

    C) 2.5 V

    D) 5.0 V

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  • question_answer53) Chloramphenicol is an

    A) antifertility drug

    B) antihistamin

    C) antiseptic and disinfectant

    D) antibiotic broad spectrum

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  • question_answer54) Consider the following reaction The product 'A' is

    A) \[{{C}_{6}}{{H}_{5}}CHO\]

    B) \[{{C}_{6}}{{H}_{5}}OH\]

    C) \[{{C}_{6}}{{H}_{5}}COC{{H}_{3}}\]

    D) \[{{C}_{6}}{{H}_{5}}Cl\]

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  • question_answer55) Which one of the following sets forms the biodegradable polymer?

    A) \[C{{H}_{2}}=CH-CN\]and\[C{{H}_{2}}=CH-CH=C{{H}_{2}}\]

    B) \[{{H}_{2}}N-(C{{H}_{2}})-COOH\] and \[{{H}_{2}}N-{{(C{{H}_{2}})}_{5}}-COOH\]

    C) \[HO-C{{H}_{2}}-C{{H}_{2}}-OH\]and


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  • question_answer56) An organic compound \[({{C}_{3}}{{H}_{9}}N)\] , when treated with nitrous acid, gave an alcohol and \[{{N}_{2}}\] gas was evolved. [A] on warming with \[CHC{{l}_{3}}\] and caustic potash gave (C which on reduction gave iso-propylmethylamine. Predict the structure of .


    B) \[C{{H}_{3}}C{{H}_{2}}-NH-C{{H}_{3}}\]

    C) \[\text{C}{{\text{H}}_{\text{3}}}-\underset{\begin{smallmatrix} \text{ }\!\!|\!\!\text{ } \\ \text{C}{{\text{H}}_{\text{3}}} \end{smallmatrix}}{\mathop{\text{N}}}\,-\text{C}{{\text{H}}_{\text{3}}}\]

    D) \[C{{H}_{3}}C{{H}_{2}}C{{H}_{2}}-N{{H}_{2}}\]

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  • question_answer57) Which of the following reagents will be able to distinguish between 1-butyne and 2-butyne?

    A) \[NaN{{H}_{2}}\]

    B) \[HCl\]

    C) \[{{O}_{2}}\]

    D) \[B{{r}_{2}}\]

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  • question_answer58) Consider the reaction, \[RCHO+N{{H}_{2}}N{{H}_{2}}\xrightarrow[{}]{{}}RCH=N-N{{H}_{2}}\]What sort of reaction is it?

    A) Electrophilic addition elimination reaction

    B) Free radical addition elimination reaction

    C) Electrophilic substitution elimination reaction

    D) Nucleophilic addition elimination reaction

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  • question_answer59) Which of the following compounds will give a yellow precipitate with iodine and alkali?

    A) Acetophenone

    B) Methyl acetate

    C) Acetamide

    D) 2-hydroxypropane

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  • question_answer60) Which of the following compounds can be used as antifreeze in automobile radiators?

    A) Methyl alcohol

    B) Glycol

    C) Nitrophenol

    D) Ethyl alcohol

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  • question_answer61) How many organisms in the list given below are autotrophs? Lactobadllus, Nostoc, Chara, Nitrosomonas, Nitrobacter, Streptomyces, Saccharomyces, Trypdnosoma, Porphyra, Wolffia.

    A) Four

    B) Five

    C) Six

    D) Three

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  • question_answer62) Read the following five statements and answer as asked next to them

    I. In Equisetum the female gametophyte is retained on the parent sporophyte.
    II. In Ginkgo male gametophyte is not independent.
    III. The sporophyte in Riccia, is more developed than that in Polytrichum.
    IV. Sexual reproduction in Volvox is isogamous.
    V. The spores of slime molds lack cell walls. How many of the above statements are correct?

    A) Two

    B) Three

    C) Four

    D) One

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  • question_answer63) Which one of the following pairs is wrongly matched?

    A) Ginkgo - Archegonia

    B) Salvinia - Prothallus

    C) Viroids - RNA

    D) Mustard - Synergids.

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  • question_answer64) In the five-kingdom classification, Chlamydomonas and Chlorella have been induced in

    A) Protista

    B) Algae

    C) Plantae

    D) Monera

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  • question_answer65) For its activity, carboxypeptidase requires

    A) zinc

    B) iron

    C) niacin

    D) copper

    View Answer play_arrow
  • question_answer66) Which one of the following structures is an organelle within an organelle?

    A) Ribosome

    B) Peroxisome

    C) ER

    D) Mesosome

    View Answer play_arrow
  • question_answer67) Which one of the following is a wrong statement regarding mutations?

    A) Deletion and insertion of base pairs cause frame-shift mutations

    B) Cancer cells commonly show chromosomal aberrations

    C) UV and gamma rays are mutagens

    D) Change in a single base pair of DNA does not cause mutation

    View Answer play_arrow
  • question_answer68) A test cross is carried out to

    A) determine the genotype of a plant at \[{{F}_{2}}\]+

    B) predict whether two traits are linked

    C) assess the number of alleles of a gene

    D) determine whether two species or varieties will breed successfully

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  • question_answer69) Read the following four statement.

    I. In transcription, adenosine pairs with uracil.
    II. Regulation of lac operon by represser is referred to as positive regulation.
    III. The human genome has approximately 50000 genes.
    IV. Haemophilia is a sex-linked recessive disease.
    How many of the above statements are right?

    A) Two

    B) Three

    C) Four

    D) One

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  • question_answer70) Which one of the following organisms is correctly matched with its three characteristics?

    A) Pea\[-{{\text{C}}_{\text{3}}}\]-pathway, endospermic seed, vexillary aestivation

    B) Tomato-Twisted aestivation, axile placentation, berry

    C) Onion-Bulb, imbricate aestivation, axile placentation -

    D) Maize\[-{{\text{C}}_{\text{3}}}\]-pathway, closed vascular bundles, scutellum

    View Answer play_arrow
  • question_answer71) How many plants in-the list given below have marginal placentation? Mustard, Gram, Tulip, Asparagus, Arhar, Sunnhemp, Chilli, Colchicine, Onion, Moong, Pea, Tobacco, Lupin

    A) Four

    B) Five

    C) Six

    D) Three

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  • question_answer72) Read the following four statements.

    I. Botli, photophosphorylation and oxidative phosphorylation involve uphill transport of protons across the membrane.
    II. In dicot stems, a new cambium originates from cells of pericycle at the time of secondary growth.
    III. Stamens in flowers of Gloriosa and Petunia are polyandrous.
    IV. Symbiotic nitrogen fixers occur in free living state also in soil.
    How many of the above statements are right?

    A) two

    B) Three

    C) Four

    D) One

    View Answer play_arrow
  • question_answer73) Through their effect on plant growth regulators, what do the temperature and light control in the plants?

    A) Apical dominance

    B) Flowering

    C) Closure of stomata

    D) Fruit elongation

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  • question_answer74) Which one of the following generally acts as an antagonist to gibberellins?

    A) Zeatin

    B) Ethylene

    C) ABA

    D) IAA

    View Answer play_arrow
  • question_answer75) As compared to a dicot root, a monocot root has

    A) more abundant secondary xylem

    B) many xylem bundles

    C) inconspicuous annual rings

    D) relatively thicker periderm

    View Answer play_arrow
  • question_answer76) For its action, nitrogenase requires

    A) high input of energy

    B) light

    C) \[\text{M}{{\text{n}}^{\text{2+}}}\]

    D) super oxygen radicals

    View Answer play_arrow
  • question_answer77) Vernalization stimulates flowering in

    A) zamikand

    B) turmeric

    C) carrot

    D) ginger

    View Answer play_arrow
  • question_answer78) What is the function of germ pore?

    A) Emergence of radicale

    B) Absorption of water for seed germination

    C) Initiation of pollen tube

    D) Release of male gametes

    View Answer play_arrow
  • question_answer79) Which one of the following-statements is wrong?

    A) When pollen is shed at two-celled stage, double fertilization does not take place

    B) Vegetative cell is larger than generative cell

    C) Pollen grains in some plants remain viable for months

    D) In tine is made up of cellulose and pectin

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  • question_answer80) Plants with ovaries having only one or a few ovules, are generally pollinated by

    A) bees

    B) butterflies

    C) birds

    D) wind

    View Answer play_arrow
  • question_answer81) Sacred grooves are specially useful in

    A) generating environmental awareness

    B) preventing soil erosion

    C) year-round flow of water in rivers

    D) conserving rare and threatened species

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  • question_answer82) The rate of formation of new organic matter by rabbit in a grassland, is called

    A) net productivity

    B) secondary productivity

    C) net primary productivity

    D) gross primary productivity

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  • question_answer83) Cuscuta is an example of

    A) ectoparasitism

    B) brood parasitism

    C) predadon

    D) endoparasitism

    View Answer play_arrow
  • question_answer84) The second stage of hydrosere is occupied by plants like

    A) Azolla

    B) Typha

    C) Salix

    D) Vallisneria

    View Answer play_arrow
  • question_answer85) Green revolution in India occurred during

    A) 1960's

    B) 1970's

    C) 1980's

    D) 1950's

    View Answer play_arrow
  • question_answer86) In gobar gas, the maximum amount is that of

    A) butane

    B) methane

    C) propane

    D) carbon dioxide

    View Answer play_arrow
  • question_answer87) Read the following four statements:

    I. Colostrum is recommended for the new born because it is rich in antigens.
    II. Chikengunya is caused by a Gram negative bacterium.
    III. Tissue culture has proved useful in obtaining virus-free plants.
    IV. Beer is manufactured by distillation of fermented grape juice.
    How many of the above statements are wrong?

    A) Two

    B) Three

    C) Four

    D) One

    View Answer play_arrow
  • question_answer88) Tobacco plants resistant to a nematode have been developed by the introduction of DNA that produced (in the host cells)

    A) both sense and antisense RNA

    B) a particular hormone

    C) an anti-feed ant

    D) a toxic protein

    View Answer play_arrow
  • question_answer89) Biolistics (gene-gun) is suitable for

    A) disarming pathogen vectors

    B) transformation of plant cells

    C) constructing recombinant DNA by joining with vectors

    D) DNA fingerprinting

    View Answer play_arrow
  • question_answer90) In genetic engineering, the antibiotics are used

    A) as selectable markers

    B) to select healthy vectors

    C) as sequences from where replication starts.

    D) to keep the cultures free of infection

    View Answer play_arrow
  • question_answer91) Which one of the following pairs of animals are similar to each other pertaining to the feature stated against them?

    A) Pteropus and Omithorhynchus-Viviparity

    B) Garden lizard and crocodile-three chambered heart

    C) Ascaris and Ancyiostoma-Metameric segmentation

    D) Sea horse and flying fish- Cold blooded (poikilothermal)

    View Answer play_arrow
  • question_answer92) Which one of the following categories of animals, is correctly described with no single exception in it?

    A) All reptiles possess scales, have a three- chambered heart and are cold-blooded (poikilothermal)

    B) All bony fishes have four pairs of gills and an operculum on each side

    C) All sponges are marine and have collared Ceils

    D) All mammals are viviparous and possess diaphragm for breathing

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  • question_answer93) Which one of the following organisms is scientifically correctly named, correctly printed according to the International Rules of Nomenclature and correctly described?

    A) Musca domestica-The common house lizard, a reptile

    B) Plasmodium falciparum-A protozoan pathogen causing the most serious type of malaria

    C) Felis tigris-The Indian tiger, well protected in Gir forests

    D) E.coli-Full name Entamoeba coli, a commonly occurring bacterium in human intestine

    View Answer play_arrow
  • question_answer94) Which one of the following cellular parts is correctly described?

    A) Thylakoids-Flattened membranous sacs forming the grana of chloroplasts

    B) Centrioles-Sites for active RNA synthesis

    C) Ribosomes-Those on chloroplasts are larger (80 S) while those in the cytoplasm are smaller (70 S)

    D) Lysosomes-Optimally active at a pH of about 8.5

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  • question_answer95) Identify the meiotic stage in which the- homologous chromosomes separate while the sister chromatids remain associated at their centromeres

    A) metaphase-I

    B) metaphase-II

    C) anaphase-I

    D) anaphase-II

    View Answer play_arrow
  • question_answer96) Which one of the following biomolecules is correctly characterised?

    A) Lecithin-A phosphorylated glyceride found in cell membrane

    B) Palmitic acid-An unsaturated fatty .acid with 18 carbon atoms

    C) Adenylic acid-Adenosine with a glucose phosphate molecule

    D) Alanine amino acid-Contains an amino group and an acidic group anywhere in the molecule

    View Answer play_arrow
  • question_answer97) The idea of mutations was brought forth by

    A) Hugo de Vries, who worked on evening primrose

    B) Gregor Mendel, who worked on Pisum sativum

    C) Hardy Weinberg, who worked on allele frequencies in a population

    D) Charles Darwin, who observed a wide variety of organisms during sea voyage

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  • question_answer98) What is it that forms the basis of DNA fingerprinting?

    A) The relative proportions of purines and pyrimidines4n DNA

    B) The relative difference in the DNA occurrence in blood, skin and saliva

    C) The relative amount of DNA in the ridges and grooves of the fingerprints

    D) Satellite DNA occurring as highly repeated short DNA segments

    View Answer play_arrow
  • question_answer99) Represented below is the inheritance pattern of a certain type of traits in humans. Which one of the following conditions could be an example of this pattern?

    A) Phenylketonuria

    B) Sickle cell anaemia

    C) Haemophilia

    D) Thalassemia

    View Answer play_arrow
  • question_answer100) Given below is the diagrammatic sketch of a certain type of connective tissue. Identify the parts labelled A, B, C and D, and select the right option about them


    Part A Part B Part C Part D
    Macrophage Fibroblast Collagen fibres Mast cells


    Part A Part B Part C Part D
    Mast cell Macrophage Fibroblast Collagen fibres


    Part A Part B Part C Part D
    Macrophage Collagen fibres Collagen fibres Fibroblast Mast cell


    Part A Part B Part C Part D
    Mast cell Collagen fibres Fibroblast Macrophage

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  • question_answer101) Which one of the following options gives the correct categorisation of six animals according to the type of nitrogenous wastes (A, B, C), they give out?


    A Ammonotelic B Ureotelic C Uricotelic
    Pigeon, Humans Aguatic Amphibia, Lizards Cockroach, Frog


    A Ammonotelic B Ureotelic C Uricotelic
    Frog, Lizards Aquatic Amphibia, Humans Cockroach, Pigeon


    A Ammonotelic B Ureotelic C Uricotelic
    Aquatic Amphibia Frog, Humans Pigeon, Lizards, Cockroach


    A Ammonotelic B Ureotelic C Uricotelic
    Aquatic Amphibia Cockroach, Humans Frog, Pigeon, Lizards

    View Answer play_arrow
  • question_answer102) Where do certain symbiotic microorganisms normally occur in human body?

    A) Caecum

    B) Oral lining and tongue surface

    C) Vermiform appendix and rectum

    D) Duodenum

    View Answer play_arrow
  • question_answer103) Which one of the following pairs of chemical substances, is correctly categorised?

    A) Calcitonin and thymosin-Thyroid hormones

    B) Pepsin and prolactin-Two digestive enzymes secreted in stomach

    C) Troponin and myosin-Complex proteins in striated muscles

    D) Secretin and rhodopsin-Polypeptide hormones

    View Answer play_arrow
  • question_answer104) The supportive skeletal structures in the human external ears and in the nose tip are examples of

    A) ligament

    B) areolar tissue

    C) bone

    D) cartilage

    View Answer play_arrow
  • question_answer105) The four sketches (I, II, III and IV) given- below, represent four different types of animal tissues. Which one of these is correctly identified in the options given, along with its correct location and function?

     I.                          II.                   III.                             IV.


    II. Tissue Location Function
    Glandular epithelium Intestine Secretion


    III. Tissue Location Function
    Collagen fibres Cartilage Attach skeletal muscles bones


    IV. Tissue Location Function
    Smooth muscle tissue Heart Heart contraction


    I. Tissue Location Function
    Columnar epithelium Nephron Secretion and absorption

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  • question_answer106) A fall in glomerular, filtration rate (GFR) activates

    A) juxta glomerular cells to release renin

    B) adrenal cortex to release aldosterone

    C) adrenal medulla to release adrenaline

    D) posterior pituitary to release vasopressin

    View Answer play_arrow
  • question_answer107) Which one of the following characteristics is common both in humans and adult frogs?

    A) Four chambered heart

    B) Internal fertilization

    C) Nucleated RBCs

    D) Ureotelic mode of excretion

    View Answer play_arrow
  • question_answer108) Identify the human developmental stage shown below as well as the related right place of its occurrence in a normal pregnant woman and select the right option for the two together


    Developmental stage Site of occurrence
    Late morula Middle part of fallopian tube


    Developmental stage Site of occurrence
    Blastula End part of fallopian tube


    Developmental stage Site of occurrence
    Blastocyst Uterine wall


    Developmental stage Site of occurrence
    8-celled morula Starting point of fallopian tube

    View Answer play_arrow
  • question_answer109) Which one of the following human organs is often called the 'graveyard' of RBCs?

    A) Gall bladder

    B) Kidney

    C) Spleen

    D) Liver

    View Answer play_arrow
  • question_answer110) The secretory phase in the human menstrual cycle is also called

    A) luteal phase and lasts for about 6 days

    B) follicular phase lasting for about 6 days

    C) luteal phase and lasts for about 13 days

    D) follicular phase and lasts for about 13 days

    View Answer play_arrow
  • question_answer111) Select the correct statement about biodiversity

    A) The desert areas of Rajasthan and Gujarat have a very high level of desert animal species as well as numerous rare animals

    B) Large scale planting of Bt cotton has no adverse effect on biodiversity

    C) Western Gnats have a very high degree of species richness and endemism

    D) Conservation of biodiversity is just a fad pursued by the developed countries

    View Answer play_arrow
  • question_answer112) The domestic sewage in large cities

    A) has a high BOD as it contains both aerobic and anaerobic bacteria

    B) is processed by aerobic and then anaerobic bacteria in the secondary treatment in Sewage Treatment Plants (STPs)

    C) when treated in STPs does not really require the aeration step as the sewage contains adequate oxygen

    D) has very high amounts of suspended solids and dissolved salts

    View Answer play_arrow
  • question_answer113) Which one of the following sets of items in the options 1-4 are correctly categorized with one exception in it?


    Items Category Exception
    UAA, UAG, UGA Stop codons UAG


    Items Category Exception
    Kangaroo, Koala, Wombat Australian marsupials Wombat


    Items Category Exception
    Plasmodium, Cuscuta, Trypanosoma Protozoan parasites Cuscuta


    Items Category Exception
    Typhoid, Pneumonia, Diphtheria Bacterial diseases Diphtheria

    View Answer play_arrow
  • question_answer114) Identify the likely organisms (I, II) (III) and (IV) in the food web shown below


    (I) (II) (III) (IV)
    Deer Rabbit Frog Rat


    (I) (II) (III) (IV)
    Dog Squirrel bat Deer


    (I) (II) (III) (IV)
    Rat dog tortoise Crow


    (I) (II) (III) (IV)
    squirrel cat Rat pigeon

    View Answer play_arrow
  • question_answer115) Consider the following four statements (I-IV) and select the option which includes all the correct ones only

    I. Single cell Spiruliria can produce large quantities of food rich in protein, minerals, vitamins etc.
    II. Body weight-wise the microorganism Methylophilus methylotrophus may be able to produce several times more proteins than the cows per day.
    III. Common button mushrooms are a very rich source of vitamin-C.
    IV. A rice variety has been developed which is very rich in calcium.

    A) Statements (III), (IV)

    B) Statements (I), (III) and (IV)

    C) Statements (II), (III) and (IV)

    D) Statements (I), (II)

    View Answer play_arrow
  • question_answer116) Identify the molecules [a] and [b] shown below and select the right option giving their source and use

     I.                  II.


    Molecule Source Use
    I. Cocaine Erythroxylum coca Accelerates the transport of dopamine


    Molecule Source Use
    II. Heroin Cannabis sativa Depressant and slows down body functions.


    Molecule Source Use
    II. Cannabinoid Atropa belladonna Produces hallucinations


    Molecule Source Use
    I. morphine Papaver sommiferum Sedative and pain killer

    View Answer play_arrow
  • question_answer117) Which one of the following statements is correct with respect to immunity?

    A) Preformed antibodies need to be injected to treat the bite by a viper snake

    B) The antibodies against small pox pathogen are produced by T-lymphocytes

    C) Antibodies are protein molecules, each of which has four light chains

    D) Rejection of a kidney graft is the function of B-lymphocytes

    View Answer play_arrow
  • question_answer118) The figure below shows three steps (I, II, III) of Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR). Select the option giving correct identification together with what it represents?                                                

    A)  B-Denaruration at a temperature of about \[98{}^\circ C\] separating the two DNA strands

    B)  A-benaturation at a temperature of about \[50{}^\circ C\]

    C)  C-Extension in the presence of heat stable DNA polymerase

    D)  A-Annealing with two sets of primers

    View Answer play_arrow
  • question_answer119) The first clinical gene therapy was given for treating

    A) diabetes mellitus

    B) chicken pox

    C) rheumatoid arthritis

    D) adenosine deaminase deficiency

    View Answer play_arrow
  • question_answer120) Which one of the following represents a palindromic sequence in DNA?

    A) 5'-GAATTC-3 '3'-CTTAAG-3'

    B) 5'CCAATG-3' 3'GAATCC-5'

    C) 5'-CATTAG-3 '3'-GATAAC-5'

    D) 5'-GATACC-3' 3'-CCTAAG-5'

    View Answer play_arrow

Study Package

AIPMT Solved Paper-2012 (Mains)
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