RAJASTHAN ­ PET Rajasthan PET Solved Paper-2003

  • question_answer
    If\[f(a-x)=f(x),\]then\[\int_{0}^{a}{x}f(x)dx\]is equal to

    A)  \[a\int_{0}^{a}{f(x)dx}\]

    B)  \[\frac{a}{2}\int_{0}^{a}{f(x)dx}\]

    C)  \[\int_{0}^{a}{f(x)dx}\]

    D)  None of these

    Correct Answer: B

    Solution :

     \[f(a-x)=f(x)\] Let      \[I=\int_{0}^{a}{x\,f(x)}dx\]            ...(i) \[\Rightarrow \] \[I=\int_{0}^{a}{(a-x)f(a-x)dx}\] \[\Rightarrow \] \[I=\int_{0}^{a}{(a-x)f(x)dx}\]         ...(ii) On adding Eqs. (i) and (ii) \[2I=\int_{0}^{a}{xf(x)dx+\int_{0}^{a}{(a-x)f(x)}dx}\] \[=\int_{0}^{a}{xf(x)dx+\int_{0}^{a}{a\,f(x)}dx}-\int_{0}^{a}{xf(x)}dx\] \[\Rightarrow \] \[2I=a\int_{0}^{a}{f(x)dx}\] \[\Rightarrow \] \[I=\frac{a}{2}\int_{0}^{a}{f(x)dx}\]


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