Solved papers for VMMC VMMC Medical Solved Paper-2010

VMMC Medical Solved Paper-2010 Total Questions - 200

1) A car of mass 1000 kg accelerates uniformly from rest to a velocity of 54 km/h in 5 s. The average power of the engine during this period in watt is (neglect friction)

A)

2000 W

B)

                       22500 W

C)

       5000 W

D)

       2250 W

View Answer
2) A sphere of mass 10 kg and radius 0.5 m rotates about a tangent. The moment of inertia of the sphere is

A)

\[5\,kg-{{m}^{2}}\]

B)

       \[2.7\,kg-{{m}^{2}}\]

C)

           \[3.5\,kg-{{m}^{2}}\]

D)

       \[4.5\,kg-{{m}^{2}}\]

View Answer
3) A radio transmitter radiates 1 kW power at a wavelength 198.6 m. How many photons does it emit per second?

A)

\[{{10}^{10}}\]

B)

\[{{10}^{20}}\]

C)

\[{{10}^{30}}\]

D)

       \[{{10}^{40}}\]

View Answer
4) Angular width of central maxima in the Fraunhofers diffraction pattern is measured. Slit is illuminated by the light of wavelength 6000\[\overset{0}{\mathop{A}}\,\]. If slit is illuminated by light of another wavelength, angular width decreases by 30%. Wavelength of light used is

A)

3500\[\overset{0}{\mathop{A}}\,\]

B)

       4200\[\overset{0}{\mathop{A}}\,\]

C)

       4700\[\overset{0}{\mathop{A}}\,\]

D)

       6000\[\overset{0}{\mathop{A}}\,\]

View Answer
5) The equation of a wave travelling on a string is \[y=4\sin \left[ \frac{\pi }{2}\left( 8t-\frac{x}{8} \right) \right],\], where x, y are in cm and t is in second. The velocity of the wave is

A)

64 cm/s in - x direction

B)

32 cm/s in - x direction

C)

32 cm/s in + x direction

D)

64 cm/s in + x direction

View Answer
6) The temperature at which the speed of sound in air becomes doubled, its value at \[0{}^\circ C\] is

A)

\[1092{}^\circ C\]

B)

819 K

C)

\[819{}^\circ C\]

D)

\[546{}^\circ C\]

View Answer
7) A spring of force constant 800 Nm1 has an extension of 5 cm. The work done in extending it from 5 cm to 15 cm is

A)

16 J

B)

                       8 J

C)

32 J

D)

       24 J

View Answer
8) A block of mass 0.5 kg has an initial velocity of \[10\,m{{s}^{-1}}\] down an inclined plane of angle friction between the block and the inclined surface is 0.2 The velocity of the block after it travels a distance of 10 m is

A)

\[17\,m{{s}^{-1}}\]

B)

                       \[13\,m{{s}^{-1}}\]

C)

\[24\,m{{s}^{-1}}\]

D)

       \[8\,m{{s}^{-1}}\]

View Answer
9) The ratio of the accelerations due to gravity at the bottom of a deep mine and that on the surface of the earth is 978/980. Find the depth of the mine if the density of the earth is uniform throughout and the radius of the earth is 6300 km.

A)

12.86 km

B)

                       13.0 km

C)

       25.38 km

D)

       90.9 km

View Answer
10) The centre of a wheel rolling on a plane surface moves with a speed v0. A particle on the rim of the wheel at the same level as the centre will be moving at speed

A)

zero

B)

                       \[{{v}_{0}}\]

C)

\[\sqrt{2{{v}_{0}}}\]

D)

       \[2{{v}_{0}}\]

View Answer
11) The motor of an angle is rotating about its axis with an angular velocity of 100 rev/m. It comes to rest in 15 s, after being switched off. Assuming constant angular deceleration. What are the numbers of revolutions made by it before coming to rest?

A)

12.5

B)

                       40

C)

       32.6

D)

       15.6

View Answer
12) The maximum vertical distance through which a full dressed astronaut can jump on the earth is 0.5 m. Estimate the maximum vertical distance through which he can jump on the moon, which has a mean density 2/3rd that of the earth and radius one quarter that of the earth.

A)

1.5 m

B)

                       3 m

C)

6 m

D)

       7.5 m

View Answer
13) A research satellite of mass 200 kg circles the earth in an orbit of average radius \[\frac{3R}{2}\] where R is the radius of earth. Assuming the gravitational pull on a mass of 1 kg on the earths surface to be 10 N, the pull on the satellite will be

A)

880 N

B)

                       889 N

C)

885 N

D)

       892 N

View Answer
14) In an AC circuit, V and i are given by V = 100 sin(100t) volt and\[i=100\sin \left( 100t+\frac{\pi }{3} \right)\]amp The power dissipated in the circuit is

A)

104 W

B)

2.5 kW

C)

       5 kW

D)

       10W

View Answer
15) A stone of mass m is tied              to a string and is moved in a vertical circle of radius r making n rev/min. The total tension in the string when the stone is at the lowest point is

A)

mg

B)

       \[m(g+\pi n{{r}^{2}})\]

C)

       m (g + nr)

D)

       \[m\left\{ g+\frac{{{\pi }^{2}}{{n}^{2}}r}{900} \right\}\]

View Answer
16) For what value of ma will the total power per cycle be maximum in the modulated wave?

A)

zero

B)

       1

C)

1/2

D)

       >1

View Answer
17) A glass of soft drink with some ice-cubes floating in it is taken in an elevator which is accelerating down. Then, the portion of ice outside the soft drink

A)

increases

B)

decreases

C)

remains same

D)

depends on density of soft drink

View Answer
18) A chef, on finding his stove out of order, decides to boil the water for his wifes coffee by shaking it in a thermos flask. Suppose that he uses tap water at \[15{}^\circ C\] and that the water falls 30 cm each shake, the chef making 30 shakes each minute. Neglecting any loss of thermal energy by the flask, how long must he shake the flask until the water reaches \[100{}^\circ C\]?

A)

\[2.25\,\times {{10}^{3}}\min \]

B)

\[3.97\,\times {{10}^{3}}\,\min \]

C)

\[4.00\,\times {{10}^{3}}\,\min \]

D)

\[5.25\,\times {{10}^{3}}\,\min \]

View Answer
19) According to Newtons law of cooling, the rate of cooling of a body is proportional to\[{{\left( \Delta \theta \right)}^{n}}\], where \[\Delta \theta \]is the difference of the temperature of the body and the surroundings and n is equal to

A)

2

B)

       3

C)

       4

D)

       1

View Answer
20) An uncharged capacitor with a solid dielectric is connected to a similar air capacitor charged to a potential of \[{{V}_{0}}\]. If the common potential after sharing of charges becomes V, then the dielectric constant of the dielectric must be

A)

\[{{V}_{0}}/V\]

B)

\[\frac{V}{{{V}_{0}}}\]

C)

\[\frac{({{V}_{o}}-V)}{V}\]

D)

\[\frac{({{V}_{o}}-V)}{{{V}_{0}}}\]

View Answer
21) A coil of resistance R and inductance L is connected to a battery of emf E volt. The final current in the coil is

A)

\[\frac{E}{R}\]

B)

\[\frac{E}{L}\]

C)

\[\sqrt{\frac{E}{{{R}^{2}}+{{L}^{2}}}}\]

D)

       \[\sqrt{\frac{EL}{{{R}^{2}}+{{L}^{2}}}}\]

View Answer
22) The ionization energy of a hydrogen atom is 13.6 eV. Following Bohrs theory, the energy corresponding to a transition between 3rd and 4th orbits is

A)

3.40 eV

B)

                       1.51 eV

C)

       0.85 eV

D)

       0.66 eV

View Answer
23) A ball falls from rest from a height h on to a floor and rebounds to a height h/4. The coefficient of restitution between the ball and the floor is

A)

\[\frac{1}{2}\]

B)

                                       \[\frac{1}{4}\]

C)

\[\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\]

D)

       \[\frac{3}{4}\]

View Answer
24) If force (F), length (L) and time (T) be considered fundamental units, then units of mass will be

A)

\[[F\,L\,{{T}^{-2}}]\]

B)

                       \[[F\,{{L}^{-2}}\,{{T}^{-1}}]\]

C)

       \[[F\,{{L}^{-1}}\,{{T}^{-2}}]\]

D)

       \[[F\,{{L}^{-1}}\,{{T}^{-2}}]\]

View Answer
25) A 10 m long wire of resistance 20\[\Omega \] is connected in series with a battery of emf 3V and a resistance of 10\[\Omega \]. The potential gradient along the wire in V/m is

A)

0.02

B)

                       0.1

C)

       0.2

D)

       1.2

View Answer
26) Two small magnets each of magnetic moment \[10\,A{{m}^{2}}\] are placed in end on position 0.1 m apart from their centres. The force acting between them is

A)

\[0.6\times {{10}^{7}}N\]

B)

\[0.06\,\times {{10}^{7}}N\]

C)

0.6 N

D)

       0.06 N

View Answer
27) A coil of cross-sectional area \[400\,\,c{{m}^{2}}\] having 30 turns is making 1800 rev/min in a magnetic field of 1 T. The peak value of the induced emf is

A)

0.4 V

B)

                       0.6 V

C)

226 V

D)

       2.26 V

View Answer
28) A silicon specimen is made into a p-type semiconductor by doping on an average one indium atom per \[5\times {{10}^{7}}\] silicon atoms. If the number density of atoms in the silicon specimen is \[5\times {{10}^{28}}\] atom/\[{{m}^{3}}\], then the number of acceptor atoms in silicon per cubic centimeter will be

A)

\[2.5\times {{10}^{30}}\,atom/c{{m}^{3}}\]

B)

\[2.5\times {{10}^{35}}\,atom/c{{m}^{3}}\]

C)

\[1.0\times {{10}^{13}}\,atom/c{{m}^{3}}\]

D)

\[1.0\times {{10}^{15}}\,atom/c{{m}^{3}}\]

View Answer
29) If the distance of 100 W lamp is increased from a photocell, the saturation current i in the photocell varies with the distance d as

A)

\[i\propto {{d}^{2}}\]

B)

\[i\propto d\]

C)

\[i\propto \frac{1}{d}\]

D)

       \[i\propto \frac{1}{{{d}^{2}}}\]

View Answer
30) For detecting intensity of light we use

A)

photodiode in forward bias

B)

photodiode in reverse bias

C)

LED in forward bias

D)

LED in reverse bias

View Answer
31) If pendulum bob on a 2m string is displaced \[60{}^\circ \] from the vertical and then released. What is the speed of the bob as it passes through the lowest point in its path?

A)

\[\sqrt{2}m/s\]

B)

\[\sqrt{2\times 9.8}m/s\]

C)

4.43 m/s

D)

\[1/\sqrt{2}m/s\]

View Answer
32) A block B is pushed momentarily along a horizontal surface with an initial velocity v. If \[\mu \] is the coefficient of sliding friction between B and the surface, block B will come to rest after a time

A)

\[v/(g\mu )\]

B)

\[g\mu /v\]

C)

\[g/v\]

D)

       v/g

View Answer
33) If the moment of inertia of a disc about an axis tangential and parallel to its surface be I, then what will be the moment of inertia about the axis tangential but perpendicular to the surface?

A)

\[\frac{6}{5}I\]

B)

       \[\frac{3}{4}I\]

C)

\[\frac{3}{2}I\]

D)

       \[\frac{5}{4}I\]

View Answer
34) Given mass of the moon is \[\frac{1}{81}\] of the mass of the earth and corresponding radius is \[\frac{1}{4}\] of the earth. If escape velocity on the earth surface is 11.2 km/s, the value of same on the surface of the moon is

A)

0.14 km/s

B)

       0.5 km/s

C)

       2.5 km/s

D)

       5 km/s

View Answer
35) When a weight of 10 kg is suspended from a copper wire of length 3 m and diameter 0.4 mm. Its length increases by 2.4 cm. If the diameter of the wire is doubled, then the extension in its length will be

A)

7.6 cm

B)

                       4.8 cm

C)

1.2 cm

D)

       0.6 cm

View Answer
36) The force required to separate two glass plates of area \[{{10}^{-2}}{{m}^{2}}\] with a film of water 0.05 mm thick between them, is (surface tension of water is \[70\times {{10}^{-3}}\,N/m\])

A)

28 N

B)

                       14 N

C)

50 N

D)

       38 N

View Answer
37) Two rain drops of same radius r, falling with terminal velocity v merge and from a bigger drop of radius R. The terminal velocity of the bigger drop is

A)

\[v\frac{R}{r}\]

B)

       \[v\frac{{{R}^{2}}}{{{r}^{2}}}\]

C)

v

D)

       2v

View Answer
38) The respective speeds of the molecules are 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 km/s. The ratio of their \[rms\] velocity and the average velocity will be

A)

\[\sqrt{11}:3\]

B)

                       \[3:\sqrt{11}\]

C)

1 : 2

D)

       3 : 4

View Answer
39) The state of a thermodynamic system is represented by

A)

pressure only

B)

volume only

C)

pressure, volume and temperature

D)

numbers of moles

View Answer
40) A body of length 1 m having cross-sectional area \[0.75\,{{m}^{2}}\] has heat flow through it at the rate of 6000 J/s. Then find the temperature difference if \[K=200\,J{{m}^{-2}}\,{{K}^{-1}}\].

A)

\[20{}^\circ C\]

B)

                                       \[40{}^\circ C\]

C)

\[80{}^\circ C\]

D)

       \[100{}^\circ C\]

View Answer
41) A particle is vibrating in a simple harmonic motion with an amplitude of 4 cm. At what displacement from the equilibrium position, is its energy half potential and half kinetic?

A)

1 cm

B)

                       \[\sqrt{2}\]cm

C)

3 cm

D)

       \[2\sqrt{2}\]cm

View Answer
42) 0.2 F capacitor is charged to 600 V by a battery, on removing the battery, it is connected with another parallel plate condenser of 1 F. The potential decreases to

A)

100 V

B)

       120 V

C)

300 V

D)

       600 V

View Answer
43) When \[{{10}^{19}}\] electrons are removed from a neutral metal plate, the electric charge on it is

A)

-1.6 C

B)

                       + 1.6 C

C)

\[{{10}^{+19}}C\]

D)

\[{{10}^{-19}}C\]

View Answer
44) For the magnetic field to be maximum due to a small element of current carrying conductor at a point, the angle between the element and the line joining the element to the given point must be

A)

\[0{}^\circ \]

B)

                       \[90{}^\circ \]

C)

\[180{}^\circ \]

D)

       \[45{}^\circ \]

View Answer
45) The angle of dip at a place on the earth gives

A)

the horizontal component of the earths magnetic field

B)

the location of geographic meridian

C)

the vertical component of the earths field

D)

the direction of the earths magnetic field

View Answer
46) Assertion: Soft iron is used as a core of transformer. Reason: Area of hysteresis loop for soft iron is small.

A)

if the Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion

B)

if both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion

C)

if Assertion is true but Reason is false

D)

if both Assertion and Reason are false

View Answer
47) Assertion: The binding energy per nucleon for nuclei with atomic mass number A> 100, decreases with A. Reason: The nuclear forces are weak for heavier nuclei.

A)

if the Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion

B)

if both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion

C)

if Assertion is true but Reason is false

D)

if both Assertion and Reason are false

View Answer
48) Assertion: A capacitor of suitable capacitance can be used in an circuit in place of the choke coil. Reason: A capacitor blocks DC and allows AC only.

A)

if the Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion

B)

if both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion

C)

if Assertion is true but Reason is false

D)

if both Assertion and Reason are false

View Answer
49) Assertion: The resistivity of a semiconductor increases with temperature. Reason: The atoms of a semiconductor vibrate with larger amplitudes of higher temperatures thereby increasing its resistivity.

A)

if the Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion

B)

if both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion

C)

if Assertion is true but Reason is false

D)

if both Assertion and Reason are false

View Answer
50) Assertion: As temperature of a black body is raised, wavelength corresponding to maximum energy reduces. Reason: Higher temperature would mean higher energy and hence higher wavelength.

A)

if the Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion

B)

if both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion

C)

if Assertion is true but Reason is false

D)

if both Assertion and Reason are false

View Answer
51) Gold number is associated with

A)

electrophoresis

B)

purple of cassius

C)

protective colloid

D)

amount of pure gold

View Answer
52) 100 mL of a colloidal solution is completely precipitated by addition of 5 mL of 1 M NaCI solution. What is the coagulation value of NaCI?

A)

50

B)

40

C)

30

D)

None of these

View Answer
53) The first order rate constant for the decomposition of ethyl iodide by the reaction \[{{C}_{2}}{{H}_{5}}I(g)\xrightarrow{{}}{{C}_{2}}{{H}_{4}}(g)+HI(g)\] at 600 K is\[1.60\times {{10}^{-5}}{{s}^{-1}},\]. Its energy of activation is \[209\,kJ\,mo{{l}^{-1}}.\] What is the rate constant of the reaction at 700 K?

A)

\[6.36\times {{10}^{3}}{{s}^{-1}}\]

B)

\[6.36\times {{10}^{-3}}{{s}^{-1}}\]

C)

       \[6.36\times {{10}^{3}}s\]

D)

       \[6.36\times {{10}^{-3}}s\]

View Answer
54) When lead storage battery discharges?

A)

\[\text{S}{{\text{O}}_{\text{2}}}\]is evolved

B)

\[\text{PbS}{{\text{O}}_{\text{4}}}\] is consumed

C)

Lead is formed

D)

\[{{\text{H}}_{\text{2}}}\text{S}{{\text{O}}_{\text{4}}}\] is consumed

View Answer
55) \[\text{E}_{\text{cell}}^{\text{o}}\]and \[{{\text{G}}^{\text{o}}}\] are related as

A)

\[\Delta {{G}^{o}}=nFE_{cell}^{o}\]

B)

\[\Delta G=-nFE_{cell}^{o}\]

C)

\[\Delta {{G}^{o}}=-nFE_{cell}^{o}\]

D)

\[\Delta {{G}^{o}}=nFE_{cell}^{o}=0\]

View Answer
56) The osmotic pressure is expressed in the units of

A)

MeV

B)

calorie

C)

       cm/s

D)

       atm

View Answer
57) The half-life of \[\text{T}{{\text{C}}^{\text{99}}}\]is 6.0 h. Hence, average life is

A)

4.17 h

B)

3h

C)

8.64 h

D)

       8.00 h

View Answer
58) In the sequence of following nuclear reactions, \[_{92}{{X}^{238}}\xrightarrow{-\alpha }Y\xrightarrow{-\beta }Z\xrightarrow{-\beta }L\xrightarrow{-n\alpha }{{\,}_{84}}M{{\,}^{218}}\]The value of n will be

A)

3

B)

4

C)

5

D)

       6

View Answer
59) Mg and Li are similar in their properties due to

A)

same e/m ratio

B)

same electron affinity

C)

same group

D)

same ionization potential

View Answer
60) Argon was discovered by

A)

Rayleigh

B)

Ramsay

C)

Both (a) and (b)

D)

Frankland and Lockeyer

View Answer
61) Which kind of fission is favoured by sunlight?

A)

Heterolytic fission

B)

Homolytic fission

C)

Both (a) and (b)

D)

None of the above

View Answer
62) An alkene, on ozonolysis gives formaldehyde and acetaldehyde. The alkene is

A)

ethene

B)

propene

C)

but-1-ene

D)

but-2-ene

View Answer
63) Isocyanide can be prepared from alkyl halide on treatment with

A)

\[\text{AgCN}\]

B)

       \[\text{AgNC}\]

C)

       \[\text{KCN}\]

D)

       None of these

View Answer
64) Lucas reagent reacts fastest with

A)

1-butanol

B)

2-butanol

C)

2-methyl-2-propanol

D)

2-methyl-1-propanol

View Answer
65) What product is formed on heating two molecules of urea?

A)

Uric acid

B)

       Biuret

C)

       Nitrogen

D)

       Carbon dioxide

View Answer
66) Phenol and benzoic acid may be distinguished by

A)

\[NaHC{{O}_{3}}\]

B)

\[NaOH\]

C)

       Na

D)

       Both (b) and (c)

View Answer
67) Fluorine doesnt show positive oxidation state due to

A)

absence of d-orbitals

B)

absence of s-orbitals

C)

absence of p-orbitals

D)

None of the above

View Answer
68) Hypo is used in photography to

A)

reduce \[\text{AgBr}\] grains to metallic silver

B)

convert the metallic silver to silver salt

C)

remove undecomposed silver bromide as a soluble complex

D)

remove reduced silver

View Answer
69) Which one of the following halogens has the highest bond dissociation energy?

A)

\[{{F}_{2}}\]

B)

\[C{{l}_{2}}\]

C)

\[B{{r}_{2}}\]

D)

       \[{{I}_{2}}\]

View Answer
70) Caros acid is

A)

\[{{H}_{2}}{{S}_{2}}{{O}_{3}}\]

B)

\[{{H}_{2}}S{{O}_{5}}\]

C)

\[{{H}_{2}}{{S}_{2}}{{O}_{8}}\]

D)

       \[{{H}_{2}}{{S}_{2}}{{O}_{7}}\]

View Answer
71) For \[{{\text{H}}_{\text{3}}}\text{P}{{\text{O}}_{\text{3}}}\text{,}\] the correct choice is

A)

\[{{\text{H}}_{\text{3}}}\text{P}{{\text{O}}_{\text{3}}}\]is dibasic and reducing

B)

\[{{\text{H}}_{\text{3}}}\text{P}{{\text{O}}_{\text{3}}}\]is dibasic and non-reducing

C)

\[{{\text{H}}_{3}}P{{O}_{3}}\]is tribasic and reducing

D)

\[{{\text{H}}_{3}}P{{O}_{3}}\]is tribasic and non-reducing

View Answer
72) Which of the following halogens has some metallic character?

A)

F

B)

Cl

C)

Br

D)

       I

View Answer
73) Esterificarion of terephthalic acid with glycol produces

A)

nylon

B)

buna rubber

C)

       polyurethane

D)

       terylene

View Answer
74) Boiling point of alcohol is comparatively higher than that of corresponding alkane due to

A)

intermolecular hydrogen bonding

B)

intramolecular hydrogen bonding

C)

volatile nature

D)

None of the above

View Answer
75) A and B in the following reactions, are

A)

A                                 B \[RRC{{H}_{2}}CN\]                         \[\text{NaOH}\]

B)

                                                \[C{{H}_{3}}N{{H}_{2}}\]

C)

                                                \[C{{H}_{3}}N{{H}_{2}}\]

D)

                                                \[LiAl{{H}_{4}}\]

View Answer
76) The structure of \[B{{F}_{3}}\] is

A)

planar triangular

B)

pyramidal

C)

       tetrahedral

D)

       T-shaped

View Answer
77) Calcium ammonium nitrate is known as

A)

Nangal fertilizer

B)

       Chile salt petre

C)

                       Thomas slag

D)

       Sindri

View Answer
78) The formation of \[O_{2}^{+}{{[Pt{{F}_{6}}]}^{-}}\]is the basis for the formation of xenon fluorides. This is because

A)

\[{{\text{O}}_{\text{2}}}\] and \[~Xe\] have comparable electronegativities

B)

\[{{\text{O}}_{\text{2}}}\] and \[~Xe\]have comparable ionization enthalpies

C)

Both \[{{\text{O}}_{\text{2}}}\] and \[~Xe\]are gases

D)

None of the above

View Answer
79) Which of the following is magnetite?

A)

\[F{{e}_{2}}C{{O}_{3}}\]

B)

\[F{{e}_{2}}{{O}_{3}}\]

C)

       \[F{{e}_{3}}{{O}_{4}}\]

D)

       \[~F{{e}_{2}}{{O}_{3}}-3{{H}_{2}}O\]

View Answer
80) Glucose + Tollens reagent \[\to \] Silver mirror The above process shows

A)

presence of - COOH group

B)

presence of keto group

C)

presence of - CHO group

D)

presence of\[\text{CON}{{\text{H}}_{\text{2}}}\] group

View Answer
81) Which of the following is not a colligative property?

A)

Depression in freezing point

B)

Elevation in boiling point

C)

Optical activity

D)

Relative lowering in vapour pressure

View Answer
82) The IUPAC name of the compound

A)

1, 1-dimethyl-3-cyclohexanol

B)

1, 1-dimethyl-3-hydroxycyclohexane

C)

3, 3-dimethyl-1-cyclohexanol

D)

3, 3-dimethyl-1-hydroxycyclohexane

View Answer
83) More number of oxidation states are exhibited by the actinoids than by the lanthanoids. The main reason for this is

A)

lesser energy difference between \[5f\] and 6d-orbitals than that between \[4f\] and \[5d-\]orbitals

B)

greater metallic character of the lanthanoids than that of the corresponding actinoids

C)

more active nature of the actinoids

D)

more energy difference between \[5f\]and \[6f-\]orbitals than that between \[4f\] and\[5d-\]orbitals

View Answer
84) Which order is correct for the decreasing reactivity to ring monobromination of the following compounds?                      \[\underset{I}{\mathop{{{C}_{6}}{{H}_{5}}C{{H}_{3}},}}\,\underset{II}{\mathop{{{C}_{6}}{{H}_{5}}COOH,}}\,\underset{III}{\mathop{{{C}_{6}}{{H}_{6}},}}\,\underset{IV}{\mathop{{{C}_{6}}{{H}_{5}}N{{O}_{2}}}}\,\]

A)

I > II > m > IV

B)

I > III > II > IV

C)

       II > III > IV > I

D)

       III > I > II > IV

View Answer
85) Which one is paramagnetic and has the bond order half (0.5)?

A)

\[{{F}_{2}}\]

B)

\[{{N}_{2}}\]

C)

       \[{{O}_{2}}\]

D)

       \[H_{2}^{+}\]

View Answer
86) In the equilibrium reaction, \[2HI(g)\rightleftharpoons {{H}_{2}}(g)+{{I}_{2}}(g)\] which of the following expressions is true?

A)

\[{{K}_{p}}={{K}_{c}}\]

B)

\[{{K}_{c}}={{K}_{p}}\]

C)

       \[{{K}_{p}}={{K}_{c}}/2\]

D)

       \[{{K}_{c}}={{K}_{p}}{{(RT)}^{2}}\]

View Answer
87) Which of the following substances has the highest melting point?

A)

\[BaO\]

B)

\[MgO\]

C)

       \[KCl\]

D)

       \[NaCl\]

View Answer
88) \[3A\to 2B,\] rate of reaction, \[+\frac{d[B]}{dt}\] is equal to

A)

\[-\frac{3}{2}\frac{d[A]}{dt}\]

B)

\[-\frac{2}{3}\frac{d[A]}{dt}\]

C)

       \[-\frac{1}{3}\frac{d[A]}{dt}\]

D)

       \[+2\,\frac{d[A]}{dt}\]

View Answer
89) What is \[{{K}_{c}}\] for the following equilibrium when equilibrium concentration of each substance is [8 \[[S{{O}_{2}}]=0.60M,\,\,[{{O}_{2}}]=0.82\,M\] and \[[S{{O}_{3}}]=1.90M\]? \[2S{{O}_{2}}(g)+{{O}_{2}}(g)\rightleftharpoons 2S{{O}_{3}}(g)\]

A)

12.229

B)

21.229

C)

       12.922

D)

       21.046

View Answer
90) What is the pH value of \[{{10}^{-2}}\] molar \[\text{HN}{{\text{O}}_{\text{3}}}\] solution?

A)

1

B)

2

C)

3

D)

       4

View Answer
91) Which of the following pairs is isoelectronic?

A)

\[Ne,C{{l}^{-}}\]

B)

\[C{{a}^{2+}},{{F}^{-}}\]

C)

       \[M{{g}^{2+}},{{K}^{+}}\]

D)

       \[{{N}^{3-}},N{{a}^{+}}\]

View Answer
92) What is the frequency of a light wave whose period is \[2.0\times {{10}^{-10}}s\]?

A)

\[5\times {{10}^{9}}s\]

B)

       \[4\times {{10}^{9}}s\]

C)

       \[5\times {{10}^{9}}{{s}^{-1}}\]

D)

       \[4\times {{10}^{9}}{{s}^{-1}}\]

View Answer
93) Magnetic quantum number specifies

A)

size of orbitals

B)

shape of orbitals

C)

orientation of orbitals

D)

nuclear stability

View Answer
94) What is the correct order of decreasing bond angle?

A)

\[NH_{4}^{+}>N{{H}_{3}}>NH_{2}^{-}\]

B)

\[N{{H}_{3}}>NH_{2}^{-}>NH_{4}^{+}\]

C)

\[NH_{2}^{-}<N{{H}_{3}}>NH_{4}^{+}\]

D)

\[N{{H}_{3}}>NH_{4}^{+}>NH_{2}^{-}\]

View Answer
95) Epsom salt is

A)

\[CaS{{O}_{4}}\text{. }{{H}_{2}}O\]

B)

       \[MgS{{O}_{4}}.2{{H}_{2}}O\]

C)

                       \[BaS{{O}_{4}}.2{{H}_{2}}O\]

D)

       \[~MgS{{O}_{4}}.7{{H}_{2}}O\]

View Answer
96) Assertion In \[{{\text{S}}_{\text{N}}}\text{1}\]reaction on 2-bromobutane, product formed is a racemic mixture. Reason Carbocation is the intermediate of \[{{\text{S}}_{\text{N}}}\text{1}\] reaction.

A)

If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

B)

If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.

C)

If Assertion is true but Reason is false.

D)

If both Assertion and Reason are false.

View Answer
97) Assertion Basicity of \[\text{C}{{\text{H}}_{\text{3}}}\text{C}{{\text{H}}_{\text{2}}}\text{N}{{\text{H}}_{\text{2}}}\text{(I),N}{{\text{H}}_{\text{3}}}\text{(II)}\] and \[{{\text{C}}_{\text{6}}}{{\text{H}}_{\text{5}}}\text{N}{{\text{H}}_{\text{2}}}\text{(III)}\] is in order \[\text{I II III}\] Reason Electron-donating groups (such as alkyl group) increase the basicity of amines, and electron-withdrawing groups (such as aryl group) decrease the basicity of amines.

A)

If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

B)

If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.

C)

If Assertion is true but Reason is false.

D)

If both Assertion and Reason are false.

View Answer
98) Assertion \[\text{CHC}{{\text{l}}_{\text{3}}}\] is stored in closed dark coloured bottles completely filled so that air is kept out. Reason \[{{\text{1}}^{\text{o}}}\] amines on reaction with ethanolic KOH and \[\text{CHC}{{\text{l}}_{3}}\]give carbylamine.

A)

If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

B)

If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.

C)

If Assertion is true but Reason is false.

D)

If both Assertion and Reason are false.

View Answer
99) Assertion \[{{F}_{2}}\] has high reactivity. Reason F-F bond has low bond dissociation enthalpy.

A)

If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

B)

If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.

C)

If Assertion is true but Reason is false.

D)

If both Assertion and Reason are false.

View Answer
100) Assertion In any ionic solid (MX) with Schottky defect, the number of positive and negative ions are same. Reason Unequal number of cation and anion vacancies are present.

A)

If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

B)

If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.

C)

If Assertion is true but Reason is false.

D)

If both Assertion and Reason are false.

View Answer
101) Alimentary canal of herbivores differs from that of carnivores the former having

A)

long alimentary

B)

short

C)

absent

D)

       absence of oesophagus

View Answer
102) Epidermal scale is the characteristic feature of class-Reptilia, which of the following class is without epidermal scale?

A)

Fish

B)

       Aves

C)

Mammals

D)

       Amphibian

View Answer
103) Cell organelle common in Monera and Protista.

A)

Lysosome

B)

       Chloroplast

C)

       Ribosome

D)

       Vacuole

View Answer
104) Food and air pathway are divided at

A)

pharynx

B)

       larynx

C)

oesophagus

D)

       glottis

View Answer
105) The non-directional force that alters Hardy Weinberg equilibrium is

A)

random mating

B)

       gene frequency

C)

                       large population

D)

                       genetic drift

View Answer
106) Yellow colour faeces is due to

A)

                stereobilin

B)

                degradation product of haemoglobin

C)

                skatale

D)

                indole

View Answer
107) Right handedness is dominant over left handedness. Most probable gene types having two right handed parents, a left handed child

A)

\[Rr\times RR\]

B)

\[rr\times RR\]

C)

\[rr\times rr\]

D)

\[Rr\times Rr\]

View Answer
108) Hensens disc are found in

A)

cardiac fibres

B)

non-striated fibres

C)

myofibril of striated muscle

D)

All of the above

View Answer
109) Facial nerve arises from medulla and is

A)

sensory

B)

motor

C)

sensory and motor

D)

None of these

View Answer
110) Lip of mammals is not adapted for

A)

feeding

B)

sound production

C)

                barrier

D)

       None of these

View Answer
111) Heart muscle is sensitive to

A)

heat

B)

                chemical

C)

                electrical

D)

                heat, chemical, electrical, mechanical

View Answer
112) Ascaris is most commonly found in

A)

                adults

B)

child

C)

                       animals

D)

       sheep

View Answer
113) Membrane separating air in pulmonary alveoli from blood capillaries.

A)

Mediastinum

B)

Pleurae

C)

Both (a) and (b)

D)

Alveolar epithelium and endothelium of blood capillary

View Answer
114) Renal corpuscles can divided into

A)

PCT and loop of Henle

B)

atria and ventricles

C)

Bowmans capsule and glomerulus

D)

All of the above

View Answer
115) Eustachian tube is present between

A)

middle ear and pharynx

B)

pharynx and oesophagus

C)

ear and eye

D)

None of the above

View Answer
116) Annelida larva is called as

A)

miracidium

B)

trochophore

C)

                       glochidium

D)

       rhabditiform

View Answer
117) The antibiotic penicillin has inhibitory effect through

A)

dissolution of cell wall synthesis

B)

inhibition of protein synthesis

C)

inhibition of DNA replication

D)

injury to plasma membrane

View Answer
118) Which cannot explain Lamarckism?

A)

Claws of carnivorous mammals

B)

Dull progeny of Nobel Laureate

C)

Flightless birds

D)

Snakes legs

View Answer
119) Cells are connected by plasmodesmata, the system is called

A)

symplast

B)

                       protoplast

C)

       chloroplast

D)

       imbibitions

View Answer
120) Besides RBCs, blood plasma also carries oxygen in solution. The percentage is

A)

2 to 3%

B)

       97%

C)

80%

D)

       100%

View Answer
121) Platyhelminthes are generally parasite which of the following classes is exempted?

A)

Monogenoidea

B)

Turbellaria

C)

       Menopostnocotyla

D)

Aspidogastria

View Answer
122) Pearl is formed by

A)

                Limulus

B)

Palaemon

C)

                                       Pinctada

D)

       Plasmodium

View Answer
123) Which of the following is used for fermentation of bread?

A)

Saccharomyces cervisiae

B)

Lactobacillus

C)

       Streptobacillus

D)

       Aspergillus

View Answer
124) The stomata is sunken in

A)

hydrophytes

B)

       mesophytes

C)

                       heliophytes

D)

       xerophytes

View Answer
125) Tikka disease is associated with

A)

wheat

B)

       rice

C)

                                       groundnut

D)

       sugarcane

View Answer
126) Common immediate source of energy for cellular activities is

A)

ATP

B)

ADP

C)

                       AMT

D)

       \[NAD{{H}_{2}}\]

View Answer
127) Taxol is obtained from

A)

worm seed

B)

       ginseng

C)

                pacific yew

D)

       psyllium

View Answer
128) The functional aspect of a species with reference to the place of occurrence is called

A)

pyramids

B)

ecological niche

C)

       biome

D)

       ecotone

View Answer
129) Simplest form of selection in cross-pollinated crop is

A)

pure-line selection

B)

mass selection

C)

mutation breeding

D)

None of the above

View Answer
130) Germplasm conservation at liquid N2 temperature is

A)

cryopreservation

B)

in situ conservation

C)

ex situ conservation

D)

None of the above

View Answer
131) Distinguishing character of closed vascular bundles is

A)

absence of cambium

B)

presence of cambium

C)

presence of xylem and phloem

D)

presence of pith

View Answer
132) Norman Borlaugh, known as father of green revolution, has developed new cultivating variety of

A)

                wheat

B)

rice

C)

                       gram

D)

       potato

View Answer
133) Radioisotopes used to detect newly synthesized protein is

A)

                \[{{C}^{14}}\]

B)

\[{{O}^{18}}\]

C)

                \[{{N}^{15}}\]

D)

\[{{S}^{35}}\]

View Answer
134) Jute fibre deteriorates quickly because of

A)

hemicelluloses

B)

high lignin content

C)

high protein content

D)

None of the above

View Answer
135) Lower jaw of mammals made up of

A)

                one bone

B)

       two bones

C)

                                                       many bones

D)

       None of these

View Answer
136) Liver able to manufacture

A)

                vitamin-D

B)

vitamin-C

C)

                                       vitamin-A

D)

       vitamin-E

View Answer
137) Pollination in Cycas takes place by

A)

                water

B)

wind

C)

insects

D)

bats

View Answer
138) Retrogressive metamorphosis is seen in

A)

Herdmania

B)

       Balanoglossus

C)

                       frog

D)

       fowl

View Answer
139) Concentration of constant glucose level in blood is

A)

10%

B)

1%

C)

                0.1%

D)

       0.001%

View Answer
140) In human sex determination, the key factor is

A)

X-chromosome

B)

autosome

C)

                       sex chromosome

D)

       Y-chromosome

View Answer
141) Downs syndrome is caused by non disjunction of

A)

autosome

B)

sex chromosome

C)

Y-chromosome

D)

None of these

View Answer
142) Gut parasite belongs exclusive to class

A)

Cestoda

B)

Turbellaria

C)

                       Asteroidea

D)

       Echinoidea

View Answer
143) Which of the plant product is used as gel in cosmetic products?

A)

Chlorophytum borivilium

B)

Aloevera

C)

Coleus sp

D)

Calotropis

View Answer
144) The plant soyabean belongs to the family

A)

Fabaceae

B)

Graminae

C)

                       Euphorbiaceae

D)

Liliaceae

View Answer
145) End product of glycolysis is

A)

\[C{{O}_{2}}\]

B)

\[FAD{{H}_{2}}\]

C)

                                       \[NADP{{H}_{2}}\]

D)

       pyruvic acid

View Answer
146) 1 nanogram is

A)

\[{{10}^{-6}}gm\]

B)

\[{{10}^{-3}}gm\]

C)

                \[{{10}^{-12}}gm\]

D)

       \[{{10}^{-9}}gm\]

View Answer
147) What is the number of chromosomes in aleurone layer if 10 number of chromosomes are found in megaspore mother cell?

A)

                5

B)

       10

C)

                       20

D)

       15

View Answer
148) The component of nitrogenase and nitrate reductase is

A)

                Cu

B)

\[Mo\]

C)

                       Ni

D)

       \[M{{n}^{2+}}\]

View Answer
149) First stable product of HSK pathway is

A)

PGA

B)

       malate

C)

                RuBP

D)

PEP

View Answer
150) Edible part of paddy is

A)

mesocarp

B)

hull

C)

endosperm and embryo

D)

inflorescence

View Answer
151) Which of the following is the actual genetic part of a sperm?

A)

Tail

B)

       Head

C)

                Whole of it

D)

       Middle piece

View Answer
152) Agar-agar is obtained from

A)

                Chlorella

B)

Gelidium

C)

                       Ulothrix

D)

       Spirogyra

View Answer
153) Fungi considered as plant because of presence of

A)

chlorophyll

B)

       nucleus

C)

                cell wall

D)

       sexual reproduction

View Answer
154) Cytochrome is light absorbing pigment.

A)

yellow

B)

lipid soluble quinine

C)

energy storing compound

D)

all of the above

View Answer
155) Which of the following is responsible for red colour of tomato?

A)

Chlorophyll

B)

       Phycoerythrin

C)

Phycocyanin

D)

       Lycopene

View Answer
156) The part of earth and atmosphere supporting life is

A)

biota

B)

       biome

C)

ecotone

D)

       biosphere

View Answer
157) Which of the following bacteria is found in colon of human?

A)

E. coli

B)

       M. tuberculosis

C)

       C. botulinum

D)

       Azotobacter

View Answer
158) Which of the following plants is used to treat bone fracture and swelling?

A)

Digitalis purpurea

B)

Hevea brasiliensis

C)

Lawsonia inermis

D)

Cissus quadrangularis

View Answer
159) Most of the plant products used for drugs are

A)

alkaloids

B)

fibres

C)

resin

D)

       oil

View Answer

160) Study the following lists.

List I	List II
A. Hatch and Slack	1. Electron microscope
B. Theopharastus	2. Citric acid cycle
C. Knoll and Ruska	3. Micrographia
D. Robert Hooke	4. \[{{C}_{4}}\] pathway 5. Historia Plantarum

The correct match is

A-4 B-5 C-1 D-3

A-4 B-5 C-1 D-2

A-2 B-4 C-5 D-3

A-2 B-3 C-4 D-1

View Answer

161) . Study the following lists.

List I List II

A. Gall flower 1. Spikelet

B. Involucre 2. Hypanthodium

C. Spathe 3. Cyathium

D. Lemma 4. Umbel

5. Spadix

The correct match is

A)

                A-2         B-4         C-5         D-3

B)

A-3         B-4         C-2         D-5

C)

                A-2         B-3         C-5         D-1

D)

A-3      B-4         C-2         D-1

View Answer
162) Identify the wrong expression from the following statements.

A)

A plant that bears male, female and bisexual flowers is polygamous

B)

An actinomorphic flower can be dissected into two equal halves from any plane

C)

Superior ovary is found in hypogynous flowers

D)

The side of the flower towards the bract is called the posterior side

View Answer
163) The underground stem that has contractile roots is

A)

rhizome

B)

corm

C)

stem tuber

D)

       bulb

View Answer
164) In which of the following types of fruits, dorsiventral dehiscence takes place? I.             Legume                                                II. Follicle III.           Siliqua                                   IV. Capsule The correct combination is

A)

I and III

B)

I and II

C)

       II and III

D)

       II and IV

View Answer
165) Which one of the following is not a correct explanation of cross-pollination?

A)

The pollen grains are transferred from one flower to another flower situated on the same plant

B)

The pollen grains are transferred from one flower to another flower, of another plant of the same species

C)

The pollen grains of male flower are transferred to the stigma of the female flower

D)

The pollen grains of one flower are transferred to the stigma of the same flower

View Answer
166) Fibrous thickenings of hygroscope nature are found in this part of the another wall.

A)

Epidermis

B)

Endothecium

C)

Middle layers

D)

       Tapetum

View Answer

167) Study the following table.

Tissue	Structural feature	Function
I. Collenchyma	Cell walls with high water content	Photosynthesis in young stems
II. Parenchyma	Suberized cell walls	Storage of food
III. Sclerenchyma	Lignified cell walls	Mechanical strength
IV. Digestive glands	Dense cytoplasm	Breaking the substrate without water

The correct combination is

I and II

II and III

I and IV

I and III

View Answer

168) Arrange the following events of meiosis in the correct sequence. i. Terminalisation                              ii. Crossing over iii. Synapsis iV. Disjuncton of genomes The correct sequence is

A)

IV, III, II, I

B)

III, II, I, IV

C)

       II, I, IV, III

D)

       I, IV, III, II

View Answer
169) What are the succesive structures formed in course of sexual reproduction of Rhizopus?

A)

Zygospore, progametangium, gametangium, zygophore

B)

Progametangium, zygophore, gametangium, zygospore

C)

Progametangium, gametangium, zygospore, zygophore

D)

Zygophore, progametangium, gametangium, zygospore

View Answer
170) Identify the correct order of the components with reference to their arrangement from outer side to inner side in a woody dicot stem. I. Secondary cortex                         II. Autumn wood III.           Secondary phloem          IV. Phellem

A)

II, III, I, IV

B)

       III, IV, II, I

C)

       IV, I, III, II

D)

       I, II, IV, III

View Answer
171) Which pair of the following plants represent the condition of modification of stipules into spines?

A)

Euphorbia and Zizyphus

B)

Citrus and Euphorbia

C)

Zizyphus and Bougainvillea

D)

Bougainvillea and Citrus

View Answer
172) Which one of the following is used for external application in the cure of leprosy?

A)

Rice bran oil

B)

Neem seed oil

C)

Cotton seed oil

D)

       Groundnut seed oil

View Answer
173) Which of the following protects the bacteria from the enzymes present in the external medium?

A)

Slime layer

B)

       S-layer

C)

Flagella

D)

       Cell wall

View Answer
174) Study the following lists.

List-I List-II

A. Solanaceae 1. Launea

B. Malvaceae 2. Pongamia

C. Fabaceae 3. Petunia

D. Asteraceae 4. Withania

5. Thespesia

The correct match is

A)

A-3         B-4         C-1         D-2

B)

                A-2         B-5         C-1         D-4

C)

                A-4         B-5         C-2         D-1

D)

                A-5         B-2         C-3         D-4

View Answer
175) The sexual stages of pathogens of blast of rice and red rot of sugarcane are named respectively as

A)

Magneporthe grisea and Colletotrichum falcatum

B)

Colletotrichum falcatum and Pyricularia oryzae

C)

Glomerella tucumanensis and Magneporthe grisea

D)

Magneporthe grisea and Glomerella tucumanensis

View Answer
176) The axexual spores formed by Colletotrichum falcatum, Sphaerotheca and Rhizopus stolonifer are

A)

many celled

B)

       one-celled

C)

                       pyriform in shape

D)

rod-shaped

View Answer
177) Identify the correct pair that shows the double-stranded RNA among the following.

A)

Cauliflower mosaic virus and Dahlia mosaic virus

B)

Poliovirus and wound tumour virus

C)

Wound tumour virus and reovirus

D)

Tobacoo mosaic virus and reovirus

View Answer
178) Nostoc fixes dinitrogen in symbiotic association with the following I. Alnus                                 II. Gunnera III.           Anthoceros                        IV. Casuarina The correct combination is

A)

I and II

B)

II and III

C)

I and III

D)

       I and IV

View Answer
179) In which one of the following reactions, substrate level phosphorylation does not occur?

A)

1, 3-bisphosphoglyceric acid\[\to \]3 phosphoglyceric acid

B)

Glucose-6-phosphate \[\to \] Fructose-6- phosphate

C)

Succinyl Co-A \[\to \] Succinic acid

D)

Phosphoenol pyruvic acid \[\to \]Pyruvic acid

View Answer
180) The values of osmotic potential (71) and pressure potential (p) of cells A, B, C and D are given below.

\[\pi \] P

Cell A -1.0 0.5

Cell B -0.6 0.3

Cell C -1.2 0.6

Cell D -0.8 0.4

/Identify the correct sequence that shows the path of movement of water from among the following

A)

D \[\to \] C \[\to \] A\[\to \] B

B)

B \[\to \] D\[\to \] A\[\to \] C

C)

B\[\to \] C\[\to \] D\[\to \]A

D)

       C\[\to \] B\[\to \] A\[\to \] D

View Answer
181) Identify the correct sequence of enzymes given below which participate in the regeneration phase of Calvin cycle. I. Ribulose-5-phosphate isomerase II. Ribulose-5-phosphate epimerase III. Transketolase IV. Triose phosphate isomerase The correct sequence is

A)

IV, I, III, II

B)

       III, IV, II, I

C)

       IV, III, I, II

D)

       II, I, IV, III

View Answer
182) The fruiting body formed from a filamentous heterotrophic organism which is known for its nutritive value for the humanity is

A)

cremocarp

B)

acervulus

C)

       basidiocarp

D)

       akinite

View Answer
183) Identify the correct statement from the following. I. Accumulation of K+ ions in the guard cells does not require energy. II.            A high pH favours stomatal opening. III.           Movement of chloride ions into the guard cells in the response to the electrical differential created by K+ ions. IV. With the entry of several K+ ions and chloride ions, the water potential of guard cells increases. The correct combination is

A)

I and III

B)

I and II

C)

II and III

D)

       III and IV

View Answer
184) Which one of the following forms of soil water can be readily absorbed by the roots?

A)

Capillary water

B)

Hygroscopic water

C)

Runaway water

D)

Gravitational water

View Answer
185) The core metal of chlorophyll is

A)

iron

B)

       magnesium

C)

       nickel

D)

       copper

View Answer
186) The organisms, which generate heat energy within body and also retain it, are known as

A)

endothermic

B)

       exothermic

C)

       photothermic

D)

       geothermic

View Answer
187) Haemozoin is released into blood during the infecton of Plasmodium vivax every

A)

24 hr

B)

       48 hr

C)

72 hr

D)

       12 hr

View Answer
188) Inner lining of blood vessels is formed by

A)

ciliated epithelium

B)

squamous epithelium

C)

cubical epithelium

D)

columnar epithelium

View Answer
189) Reverse flow of food in the stomach of rabbit is prevented by

A)

pyloric sphincter

B)

ileo-caecal valve

C)

cardiac sphincter

D)

uvula

View Answer
190) Osphradium of Pila globosa is

A)

photoreceptor

B)

       chemoreceptor

C)

       thermoreceptor

D)

                       electroreceptor

View Answer
191) The function of iris in the eyes of frog is to

A)

alter the size of pupil

B)

move nictitating membrane

C)

refract light rays

D)

move the lens forward and backward

View Answer
192) Characteristic of coelenterate is occurrence of

A)

nematocysts

B)

polymorphism

C)

       flame cells

D)

       choanocytes

View Answer
193) The type of population where pre-reproductive animals occur in large numbers

A)

declining

B)

fluctuating

C)

       stable

D)

       growing

View Answer
194) The number of daughter Vorticella formed after the second series of post-conjugation fissions is

A)

seven

B)

six

C)

four

D)

       two

View Answer
195) The dorsal diverticulum of urethra in male rabbit is

A)

uterus

B)

       uterus masculinus

C)

prepuse

D)

       vas deferens

View Answer
196) Assertion: Conjugation is a temporary union between two ciliates belonging to two different mating types for the exchange and reconstitution of nuclear materials. Reason: Conjugation occurs between two inactive individuals which have gained their vigour and vitality due to chromosomal imbalance in their macronuclei, caused by repeated amitotic division.

A)

Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion

B)

       Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion

C)

       Assertion is true but Reason is false

D)

       Assertion is false but Reason is true

View Answer
197) Assertion: Daphnia populations in a water body, at different seasons of an year showed market variations in their body morphology. Reason: Cyclomorphosis in some planktonic organisms is influenced by the variations in temperatures prevailing in their water bodies at different seasons.

A)

Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion

B)

       Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion

C)

       Assertion is true but Reason is false

D)

       Assertion is false but Reason is true

View Answer
198) Assertion: The phenomenon where tumour cells detach and migrate to other parts of the body where they give rise to secondary tumours is called metastasis. Reason: Abnormal antigens on the surface of cell and unusual member of chromosomes cause metastasis.

A)

Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion

B)

       Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion

C)

       Assertion is true but Reason is false

D)

       Assertion is false but Reason is true

View Answer
199) Assertion: The type of inflorescence in Sphaeranthus is cyathium. Reason In cyathium type of inflorescence, the flowers are achlamydeous.

A)

Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion

B)

       Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion

C)

       Assertion is true but Reason is false

D)

       Assertion is false but Reason is true

View Answer
200) Assertion: Ethylene stimulates growth in case of wounds and thus helps in wound heating. Reason: Ethylene causes triple response growth in plants.

A)

Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion

B)

       Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion

C)

       Assertion is true but Reason is false

D)

       Assertion is false but Reason is true

View Answer

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List I	List II
A. Gall flower	1. Spikelet
B. Involucre	2. Hypanthodium
C. Spathe	3. Cyathium
D. Lemma	4. Umbel
	5. Spadix

List-I	List-II
A. Solanaceae	1. Launea
B. Malvaceae	2. Pongamia
C. Fabaceae	3. Petunia
D. Asteraceae	4. Withania
	5. Thespesia

	\[\pi \]	P
Cell A	-1.0	0.5
Cell B	-0.6	0.3
Cell C	-1.2	0.6
Cell D	-0.8	0.4

Solved papers for VMMC VMMC Medical Solved Paper-2010

done VMMC Medical Solved Paper-2010 Total Questions - 200

Study Package

VMMC Medical Solved Paper-2010 Total Questions - 200