JEE Main & Advanced Mathematics Probability Question Bank Binomial distribution

  • question_answer
    The mean and variance of a binomial distribution are 4 and 3 respectively, then the probability of getting exactly six successes in this distribution is                                         [MP PET 2002]

    A)                 \[{}^{16}{{C}_{6}}{{\left( \frac{1}{4} \right)}^{10}}{{\left( \frac{3}{4} \right)}^{6}}\]  

    B)                 \[{}^{16}{{C}_{6}}{{\left( \frac{1}{4} \right)}^{6}}{{\left( \frac{3}{4} \right)}^{10}}\]

    C)                 \[{}^{12}{{C}_{6}}{{\left( \frac{1}{4} \right)}^{10}}{{\left( \frac{3}{4} \right)}^{6}}\]  

    D)                 \[^{12}{{C}_{6}}{{\left( \frac{1}{4} \right)}^{6}}{{\left( \frac{3}{4} \right)}^{6}}\]

    Correct Answer: B

    Solution :

               In Binomial distribution, Variance = npq  and             Mean = np, Variance \[=3=npq,\] Mean \[=\,4=\,np\]            Now, \[q=\frac{3}{4},\,\,p=\frac{1}{4}\] and \[n=16\]                 Probability of success \[=\,{{\,}^{16}}{{C}_{6}}\,{{\left( \frac{3}{4} \right)}^{10}}\,{{\left( \frac{1}{4} \right)}^{6}}\].


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