question_answer 1)
When did the British Government first acknowledge the need for a, the Constitution to be granted to the Indians?
A)
Through the Cabinet Mission Plan done
clear
B)
Through the August Offer made by Viceroy Linlithgow in 1940 done
clear
C)
Through the Mountbatten Plan done
clear
D)
Through the Cripps proposals done
clear
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question_answer 2)
Who, among the following, had first thought of having a Constituent Assembly for India?
A)
Mahatma Gandhi done
clear
B)
M. N. Roy done
clear
C)
Motilal Nehru done
clear
D)
Madan Mohan Malaviya done
clear
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question_answer 3)
The members of the Constituent Assembly of India, as proposed by the Cabinet Mission, were:
A)
Elected directly by the people of India done
clear
B)
Nearly half of its members were nominated by the Governor-General of India while the other half nominated by the Indian National Congress and the Muslim League done
clear
C)
Elected by the Provincial Legislatives Assemblies done
clear
D)
A number of its members were elected by the Provincial Assemblies while another were nominated by princely states done
clear
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question_answer 4)
Consider the following statements with regard to the Cripps proposals and choose the correct code:
1. The Constitution of India was to be framed by an elected Constituent Assembly of the Indian people. 2. The Constitution would grant India complete independence. 3. India would be a union on the one hand and comprise of provinces on the other 4. Any provinces not prepared to accept the Constitution would be free to retain its constitutional position as existing at that time.
Which statements are correct?
A)
1, 2, 3 done
clear
B)
1, 2, 4 done
clear
C)
1, 3, 4 done
clear
D)
2, 3, 4 done
clear
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question_answer 5)
Consider the following statements with regard to the Cabinet Mission Plan and choose the code with the correct statements.
1. There would be a Union of India having jurisdiction over subjects such as foreign affairs, defence, and communication. 2. The residuary powers would belong to the provinces. 3. The provinces would have no right to secede from the union.
Code:
A)
1 and 2 done
clear
B)
1 and 3 done
clear
C)
2 and 3 done
clear
D)
1, 2 and 3 done
clear
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question_answer 6)
The Balkanisation plan for India was proposed by:
A)
Wavell done
clear
B)
Mountbatten done
clear
C)
Cripps done
clear
D)
Linlithgow done
clear
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question_answer 7)
Select the two committees of the Constituent Assembly, which were headed by Jawaharlal Nehru from the given committees.
1. Union Powers Committee 2. Committee on Fundamental Rights and Minorities 3. Steering Committee 4. Drafting Committee 5. Drafting Committee
A)
1 and 2 done
clear
B)
2 and 3 done
clear
C)
1 and 4 done
clear
D)
2 and 5 done
clear
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question_answer 8)
Which of the two provinces of the following had decided to join their separate dominions?
1. Bengal 2. Assam 3. Sind 4. Punjab 5. N.W.F.P.
Which code contains the correct statements?
A)
1 and 2 done
clear
B)
2 and 3 done
clear
C)
3 and 4 done
clear
D)
1 and 5 done
clear
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question_answer 9)
The Constituent Assembly which framed the Constitution of free India was set up under the
A)
Cripps Mission Plan done
clear
B)
Cabinet Mission Plan done
clear
C)
Wavell Plan done
clear
D)
None of the above done
clear
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question_answer 10)
Consider the following statements:
1. After the enactment of the Indian Independence Act 1947 the Constituent Assembly became a sovereign body 2. After the enactment of the India Independence Act 1947 the Muslim League members withdrew from the constituent Assembly. 3. After the passage of Indian Independence Act 1947, all external restrictions on the powers of the Constituent Assembly automatically disappeared. 4. After the passage of Indian Independence Act 1947 the
Constituent Assembly was divided into two parts entrusted with the task of framing constitutions for India and Pakistan respectively. Of the above statements regarding the Indian Constituent Assembly, choose the correct code:
A)
1, 2 and 3 are correct, done
clear
B)
2, 3 and 4 are correct. done
clear
C)
1, 2 and 4 are correct, done
clear
D)
1, 3 and 4 are correct. done
clear
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question_answer 11)
Which one of the following parties was not represented in the Constituent Assembly of India?
A)
Indian National Congress done
clear
B)
Hindu Mahasabha done
clear
C)
Scheduled Caste Federation done
clear
D)
Communist Party done
clear
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question_answer 12)
Secularism means that the state
A)
Is anti-religious done
clear
B)
Is religious done
clear
C)
Is irreligious done
clear
D)
Has no official religion done
clear
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question_answer 13)
Article 370 of the Constitution of India deals with
A)
Emergency powers of the President done
clear
B)
Special status of Jammu and Kashmir done
clear
C)
Special provisions for minorities done
clear
D)
Amendment procedure done
clear
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question_answer 14)
The Emergency provisions of the Indian Constitution were borrowed from
A)
Government of India Act, 1935 done
clear
B)
Soviet Union done
clear
C)
U.S.A. done
clear
D)
Weimar Constitution of Germany done
clear
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question_answer 15)
The words 'secular' and 'socialist' were added to the Preamble to the Indian Constitution by the
A)
39th amendment done
clear
B)
41st amendment done
clear
C)
42nd amendment done
clear
D)
44th amendment done
clear
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question_answer 16)
"Liberty cannot be divorced from equality, equality cannot be divorced from liberty. Nor can liberty and equality be divorced from fraternity." Who among the following made this statement?
A)
Jawaharlal Nehru done
clear
B)
B.R. Ambedkar done
clear
C)
Sardar Patel done
clear
D)
Rajendra Prasad done
clear
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question_answer 17)
Parliamentary democracy, as has been envisaged, implies:
1. Representation of the people 2. Responsible government 3. Accountability towards the legislature 4. Separation of executive from legislature
Select the code with the correct statements.
A)
1, 2, 3 done
clear
B)
1, 3, 4 done
clear
C)
1, 2, 4 done
clear
D)
2, 3, 4 done
clear
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question_answer 18)
Consider the following and choose the correct code:
1. India's full membership of the Commonwealth of Nations does not mean that India is not a sovereign country. 2. Her full membership of the Commonwealth of Nations implies her allegiance to the Crown.
A)
1 is true but 2 is false, done
clear
B)
2 is true but 1 is false. done
clear
C)
1 and 2 both are true. done
clear
D)
1 and 2 both are false. done
clear
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question_answer 19)
Through a decision of the Supreme Court, L.I.C. v Consumer Centre (1995), which right has been described as a fundament right?
A)
Right to equality done
clear
B)
Right of dignity done
clear
C)
Right against exploitation done
clear
D)
Right to education done
clear
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question_answer 20)
Objectives Resolution sought to give the residuary powers to:
A)
Union government done
clear
B)
President of India done
clear
C)
Provincial government done
clear
D)
Provincial governor done
clear
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question_answer 21)
The Objectives resolution is "more than a resolution. It is a declaration, a firm resolve, a pledge, an undertaking - - -." Who, among the following, has said so:
A)
Dr. S. Radhakrishnan done
clear
B)
Jawaharlal Nehru done
clear
C)
Mahatma Gandhi done
clear
D)
B.R. Ambedkar done
clear
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question_answer 22)
Consider the following statements and choose the correct code.
1. B.N. Ran formulated the initial Constitution of India. 2. He assisted Dr. Ambedkar in preparing the draft Constitution.
A)
1 is true but 2 is false, done
clear
B)
2 is true but 1 is false. done
clear
C)
1 and 2 both are true. done
clear
D)
1 and 2 both are false. done
clear
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question_answer 23)
Match List I and List II.
List - I Constituent Assembly Committee List - II Chairman A Union Powers Committee 1. Sardar Patel B Provincial Constitution Committee 2. Jawaharlal Nehru C Steering Committee 3. Rajender Prasad D Drafting Committee 4. B.R. Ambedkar
A)
A-2 B-1 C-3 D-4 done
clear
B)
A -1 B-2 C-3 D-4 done
clear
C)
A-1 B-3 C-2 D-4 done
clear
D)
A-2 B-3 C-4 D-1 done
clear
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question_answer 24)
The word 'sovereignty' incorporated in the Constitution means:
1. Independent authority of the state 2. Subject only to the United Nations 3. Powers to legislate on any subject
A)
1 and 2 done
clear
B)
1 and 3 done
clear
C)
2 and 3 done
clear
D)
1, 2 and 3 done
clear
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question_answer 25)
Directive Principles of State Policy refer to the following:
A)
Rights of the people against the state done
clear
B)
Powers of the judiciary to ask the state to legislate on the subject given as directives done
clear
C)
Principles considered as fundamental in the governance of the state done
clear
D)
Principles considered as fundamental rights done
clear
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question_answer 26)
Who, among the following, had dreamt of India as an "India in which the poorest shall feel that it is their country in whose making they have an effective voice"?
A)
Jawaharlal Nehru done
clear
B)
B. R. Ambedkar done
clear
C)
Mahatma Gandhi done
clear
D)
Rajendra Prasad done
clear
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question_answer 27)
Consider the following with regard to the Constituent Assembly:
1. The Wavell Plan of 1945 assured the Indian leaders that the British Government would shortly declare India as an independent nation. 2. The rules procedure committee formed by the Constituent Assembly was to be chaired by K.M. Munshi. 3. Mahatma Gandhi was not a member of the Constituent Assembly. 4. The Constituent Assembly had a total number of eleven sessions for framing the Constitution of India. Choose the code with the correct statements.
A)
1, 2, 3 done
clear
B)
1, 3, 4 done
clear
C)
1and 2 done
clear
D)
3 and 4 done
clear
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question_answer 28)
One of the following was not a part of the Objectives Resolution of December 13, 1946. Which one was it?
A)
India is to be Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic Republic. done
clear
B)
The people were to be assured of social, economic and political justice. done
clear
C)
Residuary powers, i.e., what was not assigned to the Union, were to be possessed by the autonomous units. done
clear
D)
Adequate safeguards were to be provided to the minorities and weaker/depressed classes. done
clear
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question_answer 29)
Who, among the following leaders, moved the draft Constitution on November 4, 1948?
A)
Jawaharlal Nehru done
clear
B)
Vallabhbhai Patel done
clear
C)
B.R. Ambedkar done
clear
D)
Rajendra Prasad done
clear
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question_answer 30)
The Constituent Assembly made Part III, dealing with the fundamental rights, justifiable. What did it mean?
A)
That the fundamental rights are to be a justified part of the Constitution done
clear
B)
That the Courts, especially the High Courts and the Supreme Court, would ensure the enforcement of the fundamental rights done
clear
C)
That the State would consider them fundamental in the governance of the country done
clear
D)
The Executive, i.e., the ministers would have delegated powers to ensure these rights in the public services done
clear
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question_answer 31)
The Constituent Assembly, in addition to the President of India, opted for the following to 'preserve, protect and defend the Constitution.
A)
The Supreme Court of India done
clear
B)
The Prime Minister done
clear
C)
The Governor done
clear
D)
The Attorney General of India done
clear
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question_answer 32)
Consider the following statements and choose the correct code:
1. The first past the post principle adopted in India owes it to the Constitution of the United States. 2. The idea of the Directive Principles of the State Policy has been taken from the Constitution of Ireland.
A)
Only 1 is true. done
clear
B)
Only 2 is true. done
clear
C)
1 and 2 both are true done
clear
D)
1 and 2 both are false done
clear
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question_answer 33)
Give the proper sequence in which the Preamble indicates Indian polity:
A)
Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic, Republic done
clear
B)
Sovereign, Democratic, Republic, Secular, Socialist done
clear
C)
Secular, Sovereign, Democratic, Socialist, Secular done
clear
D)
Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic, Republic done
clear
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question_answer 34)
One of the following describes the Preamble as the keynote to the Constitution while the other, as the soul of the Constitution Identify the two:
A)
Austin, Barker done
clear
B)
Barker, Hidayatullah done
clear
C)
Hidayatullah, Jennings done
clear
D)
Jennings and Basu done
clear
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question_answer 35)
The use of the word 'socialist' in the Preamble (through the 42 amendment) implies, as per the decision of the Supreme Court - Excel Wear v. Union of India (1979)-
1. Elimination of ignorance 2. Social ownership of all the means of production 3. Absence of inequality of opportunity Choose the code with the correct meaning
A)
1 and 2 done
clear
B)
2 and 3 done
clear
C)
1 and 3 done
clear
D)
1, 2 and 3 done
clear
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question_answer 36)
In which decision of the Supreme Court has the Preamble been declared part of the Constitution?
A)
Berubari's case (1960) done
clear
B)
Minerva Mill case (1980) done
clear
C)
Kesavanada Bharati's case (1973) done
clear
D)
Woman Rao v. Union of India (1981) done
clear
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question_answer 37)
Consider the following statements and choose the correct code:
1. The Preamble can be amended by the Parliament (Kesavananda Bharti 1973). 2. A constitutional amendment can-not override a basic feature of the constitution (S.P Gupta v Union of India 1982).
A)
1 is true but 2 is false, done
clear
B)
2 is true but 1 is false. done
clear
C)
1and 2 both are true. done
clear
D)
1 and 2 both are false. done
clear
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question_answer 38)
'The federal form with a strong Centre is the feature of the Indian Constitution. This has been borrowed from the constitution of:
A)
Australia done
clear
B)
Canada done
clear
C)
Switzerland done
clear
D)
United States of America done
clear
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question_answer 39)
Consider the following with regard to the salient features of the Constitution of India and identify the correct statements.
1. India has adopted parliamentary system with a constitutional head having certain important duties.
2. India's President-neither does he reign nor does he rule.
3. India's secularism implies respect for all the religions alike. Choose the correct code:
A)
1and 2 done
clear
B)
2 and 3 done
clear
C)
1 and 3 done
clear
D)
1, 2 and 3 done
clear
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question_answer 40)
Which of the following features of the Indian Constitution was/were borrowed from the US Constitution?
1. Parliamentary form of governance 2. Fundamental Rights-the concept 3. The Supreme Court of India-judicial powers 4. Amendment of the Constitution-procedure 5. Direction Principles of State Policy
Choose the correct code:
A)
1, 2, 3, 4 done
clear
B)
2, 3, 4, 5 done
clear
C)
2 and 3 done
clear
D)
1, 4 and 5 done
clear
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question_answer 41)
Consider the following statements and choose the correct code:
1. Article 256 of the Indian Constitution and Section 126 of the Government of India Act, 1935 has the same language. 2. The Act of 1935 provided for the method of amendment while the same method has been adopted in the 1950 Constitution.
A)
1 is true but 2 is false, done
clear
B)
2 is true but 1 is false. done
clear
C)
1 and 2 both are true. done
clear
D)
1 and 2 both are false. done
clear
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question_answer 42)
Which articles of the Constitution are related to the Union and its territory?
A)
1 to 4 done
clear
B)
5 to 11 done
clear
C)
12 to 15 done
clear
D)
16 to 19 done
clear
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question_answer 43)
Which article regulates the laws passed by the Parliament relating to the right of citizenship?
A)
Article 5 done
clear
B)
Article 7 done
clear
C)
Article 9 done
clear
D)
Article 11 done
clear
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question_answer 44)
The following articles protect the rights of the minorities in India:
A)
Article 23 and 24 done
clear
B)
Article 25 and 28 done
clear
C)
Article 29 and 30 done
clear
D)
Article 32 only done
clear
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question_answer 45)
The organisation the village panchayats has been provided in the following article:
A)
Article 39 done
clear
B)
Article 39 A done
clear
C)
Article 40 done
clear
D)
Article 41 done
clear
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question_answer 46)
Consider the following statements and choose the correct code:
1. Article 51A contains a list of fundamental duties. 2. The duties of the Prime Minister have been stated in Article 78 of the Constitution. 3. Article 80 states the maximum strength of the Council of States. 4. The President?s powers of issuing ordinances is given in Article 111.
Select the code with the correct statements.
A)
1, 2 and 3 done
clear
B)
1, 2 and 4 done
clear
C)
1, 3 and 4 done
clear
D)
2, 3, 4 done
clear
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question_answer 47)
The following article empowers the Supreme Court to grant special leave of appeal against any judgment by any court:
A)
Article 132 done
clear
B)
Article 133 done
clear
C)
Article 135 done
clear
D)
Article 136 done
clear
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question_answer 48)
Emergency provisions have been incorporated in the following articles:
A)
131,132 and 133 done
clear
B)
153,154 and 155 done
clear
C)
370, 370A and 370B done
clear
D)
353, 356 and 360 done
clear
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question_answer 49)
Article 368 deals with:
A)
Special status to the state of Jammu and Kashmir done
clear
B)
Legislative Councils in certain states done
clear
C)
Method of amendment of the Indian Constitution done
clear
D)
Certain transitional provisions done
clear
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question_answer 50)
Which of the following schedules relate to the division of subjects between the Union and the states?
A)
Schedule III done
clear
B)
Schedule IV done
clear
C)
Schedule VII done
clear
D)
Schedule XII done
clear
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question_answer 51)
Which one of the following is not an outstanding features of the Indian Constitution?
A)
A flexible federation done
clear
B)
Single citizenship done
clear
C)
A unique combination of flexibility and rigidity done
clear
D)
Panchayati Raj institution done
clear
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question_answer 52)
Which of the following groups of states have peculiar regional problems and hence special provisions have been made in the constitution in the form of Article 371 and its other parts?
A)
Jammu and Kashmir, Nagaland, Assam, Maharashtra done
clear
B)
Nagaland, Assam, Maharashtra, Sikkim done
clear
C)
Assam, Maharashtra, Sikkim, Punjab done
clear
D)
Maharashtra, Sikkim, Punjab, Utara Pradesh done
clear
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question_answer 53)
One of the following is wrongly matched?
A)
First Schedule : Names of the states done
clear
B)
Fifth Schedule : Administration and control of Scheduled Classes and Scheduled Tribes done
clear
C)
Eighth : Languages done
clear
D)
Twelfth : 18 Items included for urban local bodies to make laws. done
clear
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question_answer 54)
Land Reforms Acts have been incorporated in the following Schedule:
A)
Fourth done
clear
B)
Seventh done
clear
C)
Ninth done
clear
D)
Eleventh done
clear
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question_answer 55)
The concept 'Secularism' in the Indian context included the following:
1. That the State would not subscribe to any particular religion 2. That the State would be an atheist institution 3. That the State would respect all religions alike 4. That the State would be non-religious Choose the code with the correct statements.
A)
1, 2, 3 done
clear
B)
1, 2, 4 done
clear
C)
2, 3, 4 done
clear
D)
1, 3, 4 done
clear
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question_answer 56)
What does the word 'Republic' imply in the context of India's Constitution?
A)
The head of the State is an elected one done
clear
B)
The head of the State is nominated one done
clear
C)
The head of the government is appointed one done
clear
D)
The head of the government is selected one done
clear
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question_answer 57)
Consider the following statements and choose the correct code:
1. The Government of India Act, 1935 provided for a federation which consisted of the British Indian provinces only. 2. The Constitution of India (1950) created a 'Union of States and avoided the word 'federation.
A)
Only 1 is true 1 is true. done
clear
B)
Only 2 is true 1 is true. done
clear
C)
1 and 2 both are false, done
clear
D)
1 and 2 both are true. done
clear
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question_answer 58)
The Provincial Constitution Committee was headed by:
A)
Rajendra Prasad done
clear
B)
Jawaharlal Nehru done
clear
C)
Vallabhbhai Patel done
clear
D)
K. M. Munshi done
clear
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question_answer 59)
Which of the following Schedules is related to the allocation of seats in the Council of States?
A)
Third Schedule done
clear
B)
Fourth Schedule done
clear
C)
Sixth Schedule done
clear
D)
Seventh Schedule done
clear
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question_answer 60)
The concept of 'Basic Structures' has been defined in the following decision of the Supreme Court:
A)
Kesavananda Bharati - 1973 done
clear
B)
Minerva Mills - 1980 done
clear
C)
Wamman Rao v. Union of India - 1981 done
clear
D)
Nagraj v. Union of India - 2007 done
clear
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question_answer 61)
Which, among the following states of the Union of India, was brought under the associate state vide the 35th Amendment Act?
A)
Himachal Pradesh done
clear
B)
Mizoram done
clear
C)
Sikkim done
clear
D)
Arunachal Pradesh done
clear
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question_answer 62)
Which of the following does not constitute an aspect of the concept of basic structures?
A)
Parliament democracy done
clear
B)
Supremacy of the Constitution done
clear
C)
Law-making procedure done
clear
D)
Fundamental Rights done
clear
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question_answer 63)
One of the following is true about the basic structures doctrine. Which one is it?
A)
It implies a set of systematic principles. done
clear
B)
It explains the procedure of the three readings during the passage of an ordinary bill. done
clear
C)
It states specifically about the composition of legislatures in the country. done
clear
D)
It provides for a High Court in every state. done
clear
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question_answer 64)
Consider the following statements with regard to the doctrine of the basic structures of the Constitution:
1. Amendment procedure is unamendable. 2. Rights and freedoms, unless incorporated in the Constitution, do form part of the basic structures. 3. Any clause which is a part of the Constitution constitutes its basic structures. 4. The courts, especially the Supreme Court, know what constitutes the basic structures of the Constitution. Select the code with the correct statements.
A)
1, 2, 3 done
clear
B)
1, 2, 4 done
clear
C)
1, 3, 4 done
clear
D)
2, 3, 4 done
clear
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question_answer 65)
Put the following classical languages in the chronological order in which they were declared the classical languages.
A. Telugu B. Sanskrit C. Tamil
A)
C B A done
clear
B)
B C A done
clear
C)
A B C done
clear
D)
A C B done
clear
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question_answer 66)
Why is the US constitution, called the shortest constitution in the world?
A)
Because it consist of seven articles with more than 7000 words done
clear
B)
Because it consists of seven articles with less than 6000 words done
clear
C)
Because it consists of seven articles with more than 10,000 words done
clear
D)
Because it consists of seven articles around 8000 words done
clear
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question_answer 67)
Through which of the amendment acts was the distinction between different classes of states in India abolished?
A)
Through the 1st Amendment Act, 1951 done
clear
B)
Through the 7th Amendment Act, 1956 done
clear
C)
Through the 13th Amendment Act, 1963 done
clear
D)
Through the 23rd Amendment Act, 1970 done
clear
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question_answer 68)
The Untouchability (Offences) Act, 1955 was widened, and was renamed:
A)
Protection in of Civil Rights Act, 1955 done
clear
B)
Protection of Social Rights Act, 1955 done
clear
C)
Protection of Fundamental Rights Act, 1956 done
clear
D)
Protection of Political Rights Act, 1955 done
clear
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question_answer 69)
Consider the following statements and choose the correct code:
1. The fundamental principles of governance are found in the chapter on fundamental rights in the Constitution of India. 2. The directive principles of state policy have been described as fundamental in the governance of the country.
A)
1 is true but 2 is false, done
clear
B)
2 is true but 1 is false. done
clear
C)
1 and 2 both are true. done
clear
D)
1 and 2 both are false. done
clear
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question_answer 70)
Consider the following statements and choose the correct code:
1. Judicial supremacy is a characteristic of the US Constitution. 2. Legislative supremacy is a characteristic of the English Constitution. 3. The Indian Constitution endows the judiciary with the power of declaring a law as unconstitutional, together with parliamentary sovereignty
A)
Statement 1 only is true. done
clear
B)
Statement 2 only is true. done
clear
C)
Statement 1 and 2 are true while Statement 3 is false. done
clear
D)
All the statement are true. done
clear
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question_answer 71)
Consider the following statements with regard to an outstanding feature of the Indian constitution which specifies parliamentary government with the elected President at the head.
1. The Indian Constitution adopts a Parliamentary system of responsible government. 2. The President, as the executive chief, acts on the advice of the Council of Ministers 3. The President can be impeached only on the decision of the Supreme Court. 4. The Parliament alone can impeach the President. Select the code which gives the correct statements.
A)
1, 2, 3 done
clear
B)
1, 2, 4 done
clear
C)
1, 3, 4 done
clear
D)
2, 3, 4 done
clear
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question_answer 72)
Consider the following process of integration of princely states as achieved by the "Patel Scheme" and choose the code with the correct statements.
1. Nearly 216 princely states merged in Group B states. 2. Another 61 princely state converted into centrally administered areas. 3. As many as 275 princely states consolidated into new viable units. 4. All the rest accepted the union on their own.
A)
1, 2, 3 done
clear
B)
1, 3, 4 done
clear
C)
1, 2, 4 done
clear
D)
2, 3, 4 done
clear
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question_answer 73)
In one of the following states, Article 356, extending the Presidents rule beyond three years, was amended a couple of times:
A)
Jammu and Kashmir done
clear
B)
Tamil Nadu done
clear
C)
Punjab done
clear
D)
Kerala done
clear
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question_answer 74)
Right to Property is a right under:
A)
Article 31 done
clear
B)
Article 31 A done
clear
C)
Article 31B done
clear
D)
Article 300 A done
clear
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question_answer 75)
In which of the following amendments were the words "cooperative societies" added in Article 19, making the right to form cooperative societies' a fundamental right?
A)
Amendment 42nd done
clear
B)
Amendment 44th done
clear
C)
Amendment 73rd done
clear
D)
Amendment 97th done
clear
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question_answer 76)
1. Right to Education has been inserted in the Constitution through Article 21A. 2. The size of the Council of Ministers is restricted to 15% of the legislative members under Amendment 91st of the Constitution. Consider the above statements and choose the correct code:
A)
1 is true but 2 is false, done
clear
B)
2 is true but 1 is false. done
clear
C)
1, 2 both are true. done
clear
D)
1, 2 both are false. done
clear
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question_answer 77)
Consider the following statements:
1. Oriya in the 8th Schedule is replaced by Odia. 2. Dogri, Santhali, Maithaili and Bodo are included in 81 Schedule. 3. Urdu is a regional language of Kerala. 4. Sanskrit is a classical language. Select the code containing the correct statements.
A)
1, 2, 3 done
clear
B)
1, 2, 4 done
clear
C)
1, 3, 4 done
clear
D)
2, 3, 4 done
clear
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question_answer 78)
Which one of the following does not match?
A)
Article 368 : Method of amendment done
clear
B)
Article 371 C : Related with the state of Assam done
clear
C)
Article 365 : Power of the President to declare that there is a situation of breakdown of constitutional machinery in a state which does not comply with the directions of the union done
clear
D)
Article 343 : Hindi as the official language done
clear
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question_answer 79)
Only one of the following matches which one is it?
A)
Third Schedule : Allocation of seat of various states in Rajya Sabha done
clear
B)
Sixth Schedule : Administration and control of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled tribes done
clear
C)
Eighth Schedule : Languages done
clear
D)
Tenth Schedule : Powers, authority and duties of Panchayats done
clear
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question_answer 80)
Under which article of the constitution does the President declare financial emergency?
A)
Article 352 done
clear
B)
Article 356 done
clear
C)
Article 360 done
clear
D)
Article 365 done
clear
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question_answer 81)
Through which amendment of the Constitution, was Schedule 9 inserted in the Constitution?
A)
First (1951) done
clear
B)
Second (1953) done
clear
C)
Third (1954) done
clear
D)
Fourth (1955) done
clear
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question_answer 82)
Though which of the following case decided by the supreme-court a part of India's territory was given to Pakistan?
A)
Berubari case done
clear
B)
Golaknath case done
clear
C)
Kesavananda case done
clear
D)
Minerva Mills case done
clear
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question_answer 83)
Consider the following statements, and choose the correct code:
1. Schedule Fourth deals with the representation of the states in the Council of States. 2. The Constitution guarantees equal representation of the States in the Council of States.
Select the correct code.
A)
1 is true but 2 is false, done
clear
B)
2 is true but 1 is false. done
clear
C)
1 and 2, both are true. done
clear
D)
1 and 2, both are false. done
clear
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question_answer 84)
Schedule 5 does not include the following:
A)
Advisory Council in every Schedule Area. done
clear
B)
Advisory Council's job is to advise on matters relating to the welfare of the Scheduled Tribes of the state. done
clear
C)
The President himself makes rules regulating the number of the Advisory Councils. done
clear
D)
Such an advisory Council helps promote the advancement of the Scheduled Castes. done
clear
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question_answer 85)
The Sixth Schedule is concerned with the administration of the tribal areas of the following groups of states:
A)
Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram done
clear
B)
Meghalaya, Manipura, Tripura and Mizoram done
clear
C)
Manipura, Tripura, Mizoram and Assam done
clear
D)
Meghalaya, Jharkhand, Uttrakhand, Mizoram done
clear
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question_answer 86)
The Preamble of the constitution:
A)
Contains certain features of the basic structure done
clear
B)
Does not help interpret the constitution done
clear
C)
Is nevertheless not a part of the constitution? done
clear
D)
Can, in no case, be amended done
clear
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question_answer 87)
A study of the Preamble gives glimpses of the basic structure. One of the following is not true of those glimpses:
A)
Republican form of government done
clear
B)
Democratic system done
clear
C)
Federal character done
clear
D)
Status of the state of Jammu and Kashmir done
clear
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question_answer 88)
Consider the following statements and choose the correct code:
1. The Preamble is an integral part of the Constitution. 2. It does not come under the purview of the Constitution.
A)
1 is true but 2 is false, done
clear
B)
2 is true but 1 is false. done
clear
C)
1 and 2 both are true. done
clear
D)
1 and 2 both are false. done
clear
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question_answer 89)
Consider the following statements with regard to some components of secularism in India. Select the code containing the correct statements.
1. Prohibition against discrimination on grounds of religion, caste, etc. 2. Right to practice religion 3. States nature to be non-religious 4. Power not to spend the proceeds of a tax on a particular religion
A)
1, 2, 3 done
clear
B)
1, 2, 4 done
clear
C)
1, 3, 4 done
clear
D)
2, 3, 4 done
clear
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question_answer 90)
Social justice, in India, implies:
1. Removal of economic inequalities 2. Provision of a decent standard of living to working people 3. Facility to provide a house to one person in a family 4. Protection of the interests of the weaker section of society Choose the wrong code:
A)
1, 2, 3 done
clear
B)
1, 2, 4 done
clear
C)
1, 3, 4 done
clear
D)
2, 3, 4 done
clear
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question_answer 91)
The object of democratic socialism does not include:
A)
Ending poverty done
clear
B)
Ending disease done
clear
C)
Ending inequality of opportunity done
clear
D)
Ending communal representation done
clear
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question_answer 92)
One of the following is a classical language in India
A)
Odia done
clear
B)
Malayalam done
clear
C)
Kannada done
clear
D)
Urdu done
clear
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question_answer 93)
One of the following is not a fundamental duty of the citizens of India:
A)
To obey the rules of the road done
clear
B)
To uphold the integrity of India done
clear
C)
To safeguard public property done
clear
D)
To develop a scientific temper done
clear
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question_answer 94)
Which one of the following languages was not added through the 71st amendment Act?
A)
Sindhi done
clear
B)
Konkani done
clear
C)
Manipuri done
clear
D)
Nepali done
clear
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question_answer 95)
The draft constitution had the following number of articles
A)
305 done
clear
B)
310 done
clear
C)
315 done
clear
D)
325 done
clear
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question_answer 96)
Which among the following Constitutions of Asia is the lengthiest constitution?
A)
Myanmar done
clear
B)
India done
clear
C)
Philippines done
clear
D)
Vietnam done
clear
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question_answer 97)
Which state in India among the following has a separate Constitution?
A)
Himachal Pradesh done
clear
B)
Jammu and Kashmir done
clear
C)
Karnataka done
clear
D)
Uttar Pradesh done
clear
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question_answer 98)
Which one of the following can be described as an outstanding feature of India?s Constitution?
A)
Singular judiciary and singular polity done
clear
B)
Singular polity and singular citizenship done
clear
C)
Singular judiciary and singular citizenship done
clear
D)
Singular citizenship and singular law done
clear
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question_answer 99)
Which one of the following is not a secular feature of India?s Constitution?
A)
People in India can preach and propagate a religion of their own. done
clear
B)
Ministers take oath in name of God. done
clear
C)
People, in India, can manage their religious affairs. done
clear
D)
State does not discriminate on grounds of religion, caste, and creed. done
clear
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question_answer 100)
Which one of the following freedoms does not appear in the 1950 constitution?
A)
Freedom of speech and expression done
clear
B)
Freedom to assemble peacefully and without arms done
clear
C)
Freedom to form cooperative societies done
clear
D)
Freedom to move freely throughout India done
clear
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