A) 1
B) -1
C) 0
D) None of these
Correct Answer: A
Solution :
Let\[z=x+iy,\overline{z}=x-iy\]and \[{{z}^{-1}}=\frac{1}{x+iy}\] Þ \[(\overline{{{z}^{-1}}})=\frac{x+iy}{{{x}^{2}}+{{y}^{2}}}\]; \[\therefore \]\[(\overline{{{z}^{-1}}})\,\bar{z}=\frac{x+iy}{{{x}^{2}}+{{y}^{2}}}(x-iy)=1\]You need to login to perform this action.
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