A) 2
B) 0
C) \[\frac{1}{2}\]
D) ? 2
Correct Answer: B
Solution :
Obviously, \[f(x)={{({{\log }_{\cot x}}\tan x)}^{2}}\] \[={{({{\log }_{\cot x}}{{(\cot x)}^{-1}})}^{2}}\Rightarrow f'(x)=0\] .You need to login to perform this action.
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