A) 1:1
B) 1:2
C) 2:1
D) None of the above
Correct Answer: A
Solution :
| Option [a] is correct |
| Explanation:\[{{\operatorname{B}}_{H}}=Bsin\theta \] |
| \[{{\operatorname{B}}_{V}}=Bsin\delta \] |
| At equator, \[\delta \] = \[{{0}^{\operatorname{o}}}\]. |
| So, \[{{\operatorname{B}}_{H}}\] = B, \[{{\operatorname{B}}_{\operatorname{V}}}\] = \[{{90}^{\operatorname{o}}}\] |
| At poles, \[\delta \] =\[{{90}^{\operatorname{o}}}\]. |
| So, \[{{\operatorname{B}}_{H}}\]=B,\[{{\operatorname{B}}_{\operatorname{V}}}\]=B |
| So, the ratio of total intensity of magnetic field at equator to poles is 1: 1. |
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