JEE Main & Advanced Mathematics Differentiation Question Bank Mock Test - Limits and Derivatives

  • question_answer
    \[\underset{x\to 0}{\mathop{\lim }}\,\frac{1}{x}{{\cos }^{-1}}\left( \frac{1-{{x}^{2}}}{1+{{x}^{2}}} \right)\]is equal to

    A) 1                     

    B) 0

    C) 2                    

    D) none of these

    Correct Answer: D

    Solution :

    [d] we know that \[Co{{s}^{-1}}\left( \frac{1-{{x}^{2}}}{1+{{x}^{2}}} \right)=\left\{ \begin{matrix}    2{{\tan }^{-1}}x,x\ge 0  \\    -2{{\tan }^{-1}}x,x\le 0  \\ \end{matrix} \right.\] Or \[\underset{x\to {{0}^{+}}}{\mathop{\lim }}\,\frac{1}{x}{{\cos }^{-1}}\left( \frac{1-{{x}^{2}}}{1+{{x}^{2}}} \right)=\underset{x\to {{0}^{+}}}{\mathop{\lim }}\,\frac{2{{\tan }^{-1}}x}{x}=2\] And \[\underset{x\to {{0}^{-}}}{\mathop{\lim }}\,\frac{1}{x}{{\cos }^{-1}}\left( \frac{1-{{x}^{2}}}{1+{{x}^{2}}} \right)=\underset{x\to {{0}^{+}}}{\mathop{\lim }}\,\left[ -\frac{2{{\tan }^{-1}}x}{x} \right]=-2\]


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