\[{{f}_{2}}(x)={{f}_{1}}(-x)\] for all x |
\[{{f}_{3}}(x)=-{{f}_{2}}(x)\] for all x |
\[{{f}_{4}}(x)={{f}_{3}}(-x)\] for all x |
Which of the following is necessarily true? |
A) \[{{f}_{4}}(x)={{f}_{1}}(x)\] for all x
B) \[{{f}_{1}}(x)=-{{f}_{3}}(-x)\] for all x
C) \[{{f}_{2}}(-x)={{f}_{4}}(x)\] for all x
D) \[{{f}_{1}}(x)+{{f}_{3}}(x)=0\] for all x
Correct Answer: B
Solution :
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