A) \[{{f}_{1}}>{{f}_{2}}>{{f}_{3}}\]
B) \[{{f}_{2}}>{{f}_{1}}>{{f}_{3}}\]
C) \[{{f}_{1}}={{f}_{3}}>{{f}_{2}}\]
D) \[{{f}_{1}}={{f}_{2}}>{{f}_{3}}\]
Correct Answer: C
Solution :
The attractive nuclear force is the same for any pair of nucleons. Hence \[{{f}_{1}}={{f}_{2}}\] When there are no electrostatic force, But \[{{f}_{2}}\]= attractive nuclear force - repulsive electrostatic force \[{{f}_{1}}={{f}_{3}}>{{f}_{2}}\]You need to login to perform this action.
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