CEE Kerala Engineering CEE Kerala Engineering Solved Paper-2004

  • question_answer
    The sum of the series \[{{\tan }^{-1}}\frac{1}{1+1+{{1}^{2}}}+{{\tan }^{-1}}\frac{1}{1+2+{{2}^{2}}}+\]                                 \[{{\tan }^{-1}}\frac{1}{1+3+{{3}^{2}}}+.....\infty \] is equal to:

    A)  \[\frac{\pi }{4}\]                             

    B)  \[\frac{\pi }{2}\]

    C)  \[\frac{\pi }{3}\]                             

    D)         \[\frac{\pi }{6}\]

    E)  \[\pi \]

    Correct Answer: B

    Solution :

    Given series can be rewritten as \[\sum\limits_{r=1}^{\infty }{{{\tan }^{-1}}\left( \frac{1}{1+r+{{r}^{2}}} \right)}\] Now, \[{{\tan }^{-1}}\left( \frac{1}{1+r+{{r}^{2}}} \right)={{\tan }^{-1}}\left( \frac{r+1-r}{1+r(r+1)} \right)\] \[={{\tan }^{-1}}(r+1)-{{\tan }^{-1}}(r)\] \[\sum\limits_{r=0}^{n}{[{{\tan }^{-1}}(r+1)-{{\tan }^{-1}}r]}\] \[={{\tan }^{-1}}(n+1)-{{\tan }^{-1}}(0)\] \[={{\tan }^{-1}}(n+1)\] \[\Rightarrow \]\[\sum\limits_{r=0}^{\infty }{{{\tan }^{-1}}\left( \frac{1}{1+r+{{r}^{2}}} \right)}={{\tan }^{-1}}(\infty )=\frac{\pi }{2}\]


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