A) \[2:1\]
B) \[3:2\]
C) \[2:3\]
D) \[1:1\]
Correct Answer: D
Solution :
The magnetic Lorentz force acts on charge particle given by \[F=qvB\text{ }sin\theta \] \[\frac{{{F}_{A}}}{{{F}_{B}}}=\frac{{{q}_{1}}{{v}_{1}}B\sin 90{}^\circ }{{{q}_{2}}{{v}_{2}}B\sin 90{}^\circ }\] Or \[1/2=(q/2q)({{v}_{1}}/{{v}_{2}})\] \[\therefore \] \[\frac{{{v}_{1}}}{{{v}_{2}}}=1/1\]You need to login to perform this action.
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