The dimensional formula of relative density is
A)
\[M{{L}^{-3}}\]
done
clear
B)
\[L{{T}^{-1}}\]
done
clear
C)
\[ML{{T}^{-2}}\]
done
clear
D)
Dimensionless
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
From the top of a tower, a particle is thrown vertically downwards with a velocity of 10 m/s. The ratio of the distances, covered by it in the 3rd and 2nd seconds of the motion is (Take\[g=10\text{ }m/{{s}^{2}}\])
A)
5:7
done
clear
B)
7:5
done
clear
C)
3:6
done
clear
D)
6:3
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
From a 10 m high building a stone 'A' is dropped, and simultaneously another identical stone 'B' is thrown horizontally with an initial speed of \[5\,m{{s}^{-1}}.\]Which one of the following statement is true?
A)
It is not possible to calculate which one of the two stones will reach the ground first
done
clear
B)
Both the stones (A and B) will reach the ground simultaneously.
done
clear
C)
'A' stone reaches the ground earlier than 'B'
done
clear
D)
'B' stone reaches the ground earlier than 'A'
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
A player caught a cricket ball of mass 150 gm moving at a rate of 20 m/s. If the catching process be completed in 0.1 s, then the force of the blow exerted by the ball on the hands of the player is
A)
0.3 N
done
clear
B)
30 N
done
clear
C)
300 N
done
clear
D)
3000 N
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
A force of\[2\hat{i}+3\hat{j}+4\hat{k}\,N\]acts on a body for 4 second and produces a displacement of \[(3\hat{i}+4\hat{j}+5\hat{k})m.\] The power used is
A)
9.5W
done
clear
B)
7.5W
done
clear
C)
6.5 W
done
clear
D)
4.5W
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
If the linear density (mass per unit length) of a rod of length 3 m is proportional to\[x,\]where\[x\]is the distance from one end of the rod, the distance of the centre of gravity of the rod from this end is
A)
2.5 m
done
clear
B)
1 m
done
clear
C)
1.5m
done
clear
D)
2m
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
Three particles, each of mass m grams situated at the vertices of an equilateral triangle ABC of side I cm (as shown in the figure). The moment of inertia of the system about a line AX perpendicular to AB and in the plane of A BC. in gram \[-c{{m}^{2}}\]units will be
A)
\[(3/4)\,m{{l}^{2}}\]
done
clear
B)
\[2\,m{{l}^{2}}\]
done
clear
C)
\[(5/4)\,m{{l}^{2}}\]
done
clear
D)
\[(3/2)\,m{{l}^{2}}\]
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
With what velocity should a particle be projected so that its height becomes equal to radius of earth?
A)
\[{{\left( \frac{GM}{R} \right)}^{1/2}}\]
done
clear
B)
\[{{\left( \frac{GM}{2R} \right)}^{1/2}}\]
done
clear
C)
\[{{\left( \frac{2GM}{R} \right)}^{1/2}}\]
done
clear
D)
\[{{\left( \frac{4GM}{R} \right)}^{1/2}}\]
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
The density of newly discovered planet is twice that of earth. The acceleration due to gravity at the surface of the planet is equal to that at the surface of the earth. If the radius of the earth is R, the radius of the planet would be
A)
2R
done
clear
B)
4R
done
clear
C)
\[\frac{1}{4}R\]
done
clear
D)
\[\frac{1}{2}R\]
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
In a capillary tube, water rises by 1.2 mm. The height of water that will rise in another capillary tube having half the radius of the first, is
A)
1.2mm
done
clear
B)
2.4mm
done
clear
C)
0.6mm
done
clear
D)
0.4mm
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
The wettability of a surface by a liquid depends primarily on
A)
Viscosity
done
clear
B)
Surface tension
done
clear
C)
Density
done
clear
D)
Angle of contact between the surface and the liquid
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
body of length 1 m having cross sectional urea \[0.75\text{ }{{m}^{2}}\]has heat flow through it at the rate of 6000 Joule/sec. Then find the temperature difference if\[K=200\,J{{m}^{-1}}{{K}^{-1}}.\]
A)
\[\text{20 }\!\!{}^\circ\!\!\text{ C}\]
done
clear
B)
\[\text{40 }\!\!{}^\circ\!\!\text{ C}\]
done
clear
C)
\[\text{80 }\!\!{}^\circ\!\!\text{ C}\]
done
clear
D)
\[\text{100 }\!\!{}^\circ\!\!\text{ C}\]
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
Heat travels through vacuum by
A)
Conduction
done
clear
B)
Convection
done
clear
C)
Radiation
done
clear
D)
Both a and b
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
For adiabatic processes \[\left( \gamma =\frac{{{C}_{p}}}{{{C}_{v}}} \right)\]
A)
\[{{P}^{\gamma }}V=\]constant
done
clear
B)
\[{{T}^{\gamma }}V=\]constant
done
clear
C)
\[T{{V}^{\gamma -1}}=\]constant
done
clear
D)
\[T{{V}^{\gamma }}=\]constant
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
An ideal gas heat engine operates in Carnot cycle between \[\text{227 }\!\!{}^\circ\!\!\text{ C}\] and\[\text{127 }\!\!{}^\circ\!\!\text{ C}\]. It absorbs \[6\times {{10}^{4}}\] cal of heat at higher temperature. Amount of heat converted to work is:
A)
\[2.4\times {{10}^{4}}\,cal\]
done
clear
B)
\[6\times {{10}^{4}}\,cal\]
done
clear
C)
\[1.2\times {{10}^{4}}\,cal\]
done
clear
D)
\[4.8\times {{10}^{4}}\,cal\]
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
Two springs of spring constants \[{{k}_{1}}\]and \[{{k}_{2}}\]are joined in series. The effective spring constant of the combination is given by:
A)
\[\sqrt{{{k}_{1}}{{k}_{2}}}\]
done
clear
B)
\[({{k}_{1}}+{{k}_{2}})/2\]
done
clear
C)
\[{{k}_{1}}+{{k}_{2}}\]
done
clear
D)
\[{{k}_{1}}{{k}_{2}}/({{k}_{1}}+{{k}_{2}})\]
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
The phase difference between the instantaneous velocity and acceleration of a particle executing simple harmonic motion is:
A)
\[0.5\,\pi \]
done
clear
B)
\[\pi \]
done
clear
C)
\[0.707\pi \]
done
clear
D)
zero
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
If the tension and diameter of a sonometer wire of fundamental frequency n are doubled and density is halved then its fundamental frequency will become
A)
\[\frac{n}{4}\]
done
clear
B)
\[\sqrt{2}\,n\]
done
clear
C)
\[n\]
done
clear
D)
\[\frac{n}{\sqrt{2}}\]
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
The phase difference between two waves, rep- resented by \[{{y}_{1}}={{10}^{-6}}\sin [100t+(x/50)+0.5]m\] \[{{y}_{2}}={{10}^{-6}}\cos [100t+(x/50)]\,m\] where\[x\]is expressed in metres and t is expressed in seconds, is approximately:
A)
1.07 rad
done
clear
B)
2.07 rad
done
clear
C)
0.5 rad
done
clear
D)
1.5 rad
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
An electron is moving round the nucleus of a hydrogen atom in a circular orbit of radius r. The coulomb force \[\vec{F}\]between the two is (where\[K=\frac{1}{4\pi {{\varepsilon }_{0}}}\])
A)
\[-K\frac{{{e}^{2}}}{{{r}^{3}}}\hat{r}\]
done
clear
B)
\[K\frac{{{e}^{2}}}{{{r}^{3}}}\vec{r}\]
done
clear
C)
\[-K\frac{{{e}^{2}}}{{{r}^{3}}}\vec{r}\]
done
clear
D)
\[K\frac{{{e}^{2}}}{{{r}^{2}}}\hat{r}\]
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
The electric field at a distance 3R/2 from the center of a charged conducting spherical shell of radius R is E. The electric field at a distance R/2 from the center of the sphere is
A)
\[\frac{E}{2}\]
done
clear
B)
zero
done
clear
C)
E
done
clear
D)
\[\frac{E}{4}\]
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
The energy stored in the condenser is
A)
QV
done
clear
B)
\[\frac{1}{2}QV\]
done
clear
C)
\[\frac{1}{2}C\]
done
clear
D)
\[\frac{1}{2}\frac{Q}{C}\]
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
A network of four capacitors of capacity equal to \[{{C}_{1}}=C,{{C}_{2}}=2C,{{C}_{3}}=3C\]and\[{{C}_{4}}=4C\]are connected to a battery as shown in the figure. The ratio 'the charges on \[{{C}_{2}}\]an \[{{C}_{4}}\] is
A)
\[\frac{22}{3}\]
done
clear
B)
\[\frac{3}{22}\]
done
clear
C)
\[\frac{7}{4}\]
done
clear
D)
\[\frac{4}{7}\]
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
The potential difference in open circuit for a cell is 2.2 volts. When a 4 ohm resistor is connected between its two electrodes the potential difference becomes 2 volts. The internal resistance of the cell will be
A)
1 ohm
done
clear
B)
0.2 ohm
done
clear
C)
2.5 ohm
done
clear
D)
0.4 ohm
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
We have two wires A and B of the same mass and the same material. The diameter of the wire A is half of that B. If the resistance of wire A is 24 ohm then the resistance of wire B will be
A)
12 ohm
done
clear
B)
3.0 ohm
done
clear
C)
1.5 ohm
done
clear
D)
None of the above
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
A battery of e.m.f. 10 V and internal resistance 0.5 ohm is connected across a variable resistance R. The value of R for which the power delivered in it is maximum is given by
A)
2.0 ohm
done
clear
B)
0.25 ohm
done
clear
C)
1.0 ohm
done
clear
D)
0.5 ohm
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
A heater coil is cut into two parts of equal length and one of them is used in the heater. The ratio of the heat produced by this half coil to that by the original coil is
A)
2:1
done
clear
B)
1:2
done
clear
C)
1:4
done
clear
D)
4:1
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
A wire in the form of a circular loop of one turn carrying a current produces a magnetic field .5 at the centre. If the same wire is looped into a coil of two turns and carries the same current, the new value of magnetic induction at the centre is
A)
5B
done
clear
B)
3B
done
clear
C)
2B
done
clear
D)
4B
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
Two similar coils are kept mutually perpendicular such that their centres coincide. At the centre, find the ratio of the magnetic field due to one coil and the resultant magnetic field by both coils, if the same current is flown
A)
\[1:\sqrt{2}\]
done
clear
B)
1:2
done
clear
C)
2:1
done
clear
D)
\[\sqrt{3}:1\]
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
A bar magnet is oscillating in the Earth's magnetic field with a period T. What happens to its period and motion if its mass is quadrupled
A)
Motion remains S.H.M. with time period = 2T
done
clear
B)
Motion remains S.H.M. with time period = 4T
done
clear
C)
Motion remains S.H.M. and period remains nearly constant
done
clear
D)
Motion remains S.H.M. with time period \[=\frac{T}{2}\]
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
Above Curie temperature,
A)
a ferromagnetic substance becomes para- magnetic
done
clear
B)
a paramagnetic substance becomes dia- magnetic
done
clear
C)
a ferromagnetic substance becomes para- magnetic
done
clear
D)
a paramagnetic substance becomes fer- romagnetic
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
An average induced e.m.f. of 1 V appears in a coil when the current in it is changed from 10 A in one direction to 10 A in opposite direction in 0.5 sec. Self-inductance of the coil is
A)
25 mH
done
clear
B)
50 mH
done
clear
C)
75 mH
done
clear
D)
100 mH
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
A conducting circular loop is placed in a uniform magnetic field, B=0.025 T with its plane perpendicular to the loop. The radius of the loop is made to shrink at a constant rate of \[1\,mm{{s}^{-1}}.\] The induced emf when the radius is 2 cm is
A)
\[2\pi \mu V\]
done
clear
B)
\[\pi \mu V\]
done
clear
C)
\[\frac{\pi }{2}\mu V\]
done
clear
D)
\[2\,\mu V\]
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
In an ac circuit, the current is given by \[i=5\,\sin \]\[\left( 100\,t-\frac{\pi }{2} \right)\]and the ac potential is \[V=200\,\sin (100)\]volt. Then the power consumption is
A)
20 watts
done
clear
B)
40 watts
done
clear
C)
1000 watts
done
clear
D)
0 watt
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
A transistor-oscillator using a resonant circuit with an inductor L (of negligible resistance) and a capacitor C in series produce oscillations of frequency\[f.\] If L is doubled and C is changed to 4C, the frequency will be
A)
\[f/4\]
done
clear
B)
\[8f\]
done
clear
C)
\[f/2\sqrt{2}\]
done
clear
D)
\[f/2\]
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
If\[{{\lambda }_{v}},{{\lambda }_{x}}\]and\[{{\lambda }_{m}}\]represent the wavelengths of visible light, X-rays and microwaves respectively, then
A)
\[{{\lambda }_{m}}>{{\lambda }_{x}}>{{\lambda }_{v}}\]
done
clear
B)
\[{{\lambda }_{v}}>{{\lambda }_{m}}>{{\lambda }_{x}}\]
done
clear
C)
\[{{\lambda }_{m}}>{{\lambda }_{v}}>{{\lambda }_{x}}\]
done
clear
D)
\[{{\lambda }_{v}}>{{\lambda }_{x}}>{{\lambda }_{m}}\]
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
The ratio of amplitude of magnetic field to the amplitude of electric field for an electromagnetic wave propagating in vacuum is equal to
A)
the speed of light in vacuum
done
clear
B)
reciprocal of speed of light in vacuum
done
clear
C)
the ratio of magnetic permeability to the electric susceptibility of vacuum
done
clear
D)
unity
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
For a prism of refractive index 1.732, the angle of minimum deviation is equal to the angle of the prism. The angle of the prism is
A)
\[\text{80 }\!\!{}^\circ\!\!\text{ }\]
done
clear
B)
\[\text{70 }\!\!{}^\circ\!\!\text{ }\]
done
clear
C)
\[\text{60 }\!\!{}^\circ\!\!\text{ }\]
done
clear
D)
\[50{}^\circ \]
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
A convex lens is dipped in a liquid whose refractive index is equal to the refractive index of the lens. Then its focal length will
A)
Become infinite
done
clear
B)
Become small, but non-zero
done
clear
C)
Remain unchanged
done
clear
D)
Become zero
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
A slit of width is illuminated by white light. For red light \[(\lambda =6500\overset{\text{o}}{\mathop{\text{A}}}\,),\] the first minima is obtained at \[\theta ={{30}^{o}}.\] Then the value of will be
A)
\[3250\overset{\text{o}}{\mathop{\text{A}}}\,\]
done
clear
B)
\[6.5\times {{10}^{-4}}\,mm\]
done
clear
C)
1.24
done
clear
D)
\[2.6\times {{10}^{-4}}\,mm\]
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
Two periodic waves of intensities\[{{I}_{1}}\]and\[{{I}_{2}}\]pass through a region at the same time in the same direction. The sum of the maximum and minimum intensities is
A)
\[{{I}_{1}}+{{I}_{2}}\]
done
clear
B)
\[{{(\sqrt{{{I}_{1}}}+\sqrt{{{I}_{2}}})}^{2}}\]
done
clear
C)
\[{{(\sqrt{{{I}_{1}}}-\sqrt{{{I}_{2}}})}^{2}}\]
done
clear
D)
\[2({{I}_{1}}+{{I}_{2}})\]
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
The photoelectric threshold wavelength for potassium (work function being 2 eV) is
A)
310 nm
done
clear
B)
620 nm
done
clear
C)
1200 nm
done
clear
D)
2100 nm
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
Which of the following is not the property of a cathode ray?
A)
It casts shadow
done
clear
B)
It produces heating effect
done
clear
C)
It produces fluorescence
done
clear
D)
It does not deflect in electric field
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
An electron changes its position from orbit \[n=2\]to the orbit \[n=4\]of an atom. The wavelength of the emitted radiations is (R = Rydberg's constant)
A)
\[\frac{16}{R}\]
done
clear
B)
\[\frac{16}{3R}\]
done
clear
C)
\[\frac{16}{5R}\]
done
clear
D)
\[\frac{16}{7R}\]
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
Ionization potential of hydrogen atom is 13.6eV. Hydrogen atoms in the ground state are excited by monochromatic radiation of photon energy 12.1 eV. According to Bohr's theory, the spectral lines emitted by hydrogen will be
A)
two
done
clear
B)
three
done
clear
C)
four
done
clear
D)
one
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
In Haber process 30 litres of dihydrogen and 30 litres of dinitrogen were taken for reaction which yielded only 50% of the expected product. What will be the composition of gaseous mixture under the aforesaid condition in the end?
A)
20 litres ammonia, 25 litres nitrogen, 15 litres hydrogen
done
clear
B)
20 litres ammonia, 20 litres nitrogen, 20 litres hydrogen
done
clear
C)
10 litres ammonia, 25 litres nitrogen, 15 litres hydrogen
done
clear
D)
20 litres ammonia, 10 litres nitrogen, 30 litres hydrogen
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
The total energy of the electron in the hydrogen atom in the ground state is -13.6 eV. The KE of this electron is
A)
13.6 eV
done
clear
B)
zero
done
clear
C)
-13.6 eV
done
clear
D)
6.8 eV
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
Which of the following order is incorrect?
A)
Acidic nature:\[N{{H}_{3}}<P{{H}_{3}}>As{{H}_{3}}\]
done
clear
B)
\[I{{E}_{1}}:Li<Be<B<C\]
done
clear
C)
Basic nature:\[A{{l}_{2}}{{O}_{3}}<MgO<N{{a}_{2}}O<{{K}_{2}}O\]
done
clear
D)
Ionic radius:\[L{{i}^{+}}<N{{a}^{+}}<{{K}^{+}}<C{{s}^{+}}\]
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
Main axis of a diatomic molecule is Z, molecular orbital\[{{p}_{x}}\]and\[{{p}_{y}}\]overlap to form which of the following orbital?
A)
\[\pi -\]molecular orbital
done
clear
B)
\[\sigma -\]molecular orbital
done
clear
C)
\[\delta -\]molecular orbital
done
clear
D)
No bond will be formed
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
What is the density of\[{{N}_{2}}\]gas at \[\text{227 }\!\!{}^\circ\!\!\text{ C}\] and atm pressure?\[(R=0.0821\,atm\,{{K}^{-1}}\,mo{{l}^{-1}})\]
A)
\[0.29\text{ }g/ml\]
done
clear
B)
1.40g/ml
done
clear
C)
2.81 g/ml
done
clear
D)
3.41 g/ml
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
When 1 mole of gas is heated at constant volume. Temperature is raised from 298 to 308 K. Heat supplied to the gas is 500 J. Then which statement is correct?
A)
\[q=-W=500\,J,\Delta U=0\]
done
clear
B)
\[q=\Delta U=500\,J,W=0\]
done
clear
C)
\[q=W=500\,J,\,\Delta U=0\]
done
clear
D)
\[\Delta U=0,q=W=-500\,J\]
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
2 moles of ideal gas at \[\text{27 }\!\!{}^\circ\!\!\text{ C}\] temperature is expanded reversibly from 2 litre to 20 litre. Find entropy change (R = 2 cal/mol K).
A)
92.1
done
clear
B)
0
done
clear
C)
4
done
clear
D)
9.2
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
The reaction quotient (Q) for the reaction
\[{{N}_{2}}(g)+3{{H}_{2}}(g)\rightleftharpoons 2N{{H}_{3}}(g)\]is given by \[Q=\frac{{{[N{{H}_{3}}]}^{2}}}{[{{N}_{2}}]{{[{{H}_{2}}]}^{3}}}.\]
The reaction will proceed towards right side if
A)
\[Q>{{K}_{c}}\]
done
clear
B)
\[Q=0\]
done
clear
C)
\[Q={{K}_{c}}\]
done
clear
D)
\[Q<{{K}_{c}}\] where \[{{K}_{c}}\]is the equilibrium constant.
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
The dissociation equilibrium of a gas \[A{{B}_{2}}\]can be represented as \[2A{{B}_{2}}(g)\rightleftharpoons 2AB(g)+{{B}_{2}}(g)\] The degree of dissociation is \[x\]and is small com- pared to 1. The expression relating the degree of dissociation\[(x)\]with equilibrium constant \[{{K}_{p}}\] and total pressure P is
A)
\[{{(2{{K}_{p}}/P)}^{1/3}}\]
done
clear
B)
\[{{(2{{K}_{p}}/P)}^{1/2}}\]
done
clear
C)
\[({{K}_{p}}/P)\]
done
clear
D)
\[(2{{K}_{p}}/P)\]
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
\[N{{H}_{3}}\]gas dissolves in water to give is \[N{{H}_{4}}OH.\] In this reaction, water acts as
A)
an acid
done
clear
B)
a base
done
clear
C)
a salt
done
clear
D)
a conjugate base
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
The solubility product of AgI at \[25{}^\circ C\] is \[1.0\times {{10}^{-16}}\,mo{{l}^{2}}{{L}^{-2}}.\]The solubility of AgI in \[{{10}^{-4}}\,N\]solution of KI at \[25{}^\circ C\] is approximately (in mol\[{{L}^{-1}}\])
A)
\[1.0\times {{10}^{-10}}\]
done
clear
B)
\[1.0\times {{10}^{-8}}\]
done
clear
C)
\[1.0\times {{10}^{-16}}\]
done
clear
D)
\[1.0\times {{10}^{-12}}\]
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
Which is the best description of the behavior of bromine in the reaction given below? \[{{H}_{2}}O+B{{r}_{2}}\to HOBr+HBr\]
A)
Proton acceptor only
done
clear
B)
Both oxidised and reduced
done
clear
C)
Oxidised only
done
clear
D)
Reduced only
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
(I)\[{{H}_{2}}{{O}_{2}}+{{O}_{3}}\xrightarrow{{}}{{H}_{2}}O+2{{O}_{2}}\] (II)\[{{H}_{2}}{{O}_{2}}+A{{g}_{2}}O\xrightarrow{{}}2Ag+{{H}_{2}}O+{{O}_{2}}\]
Role of hydrogen peroxide in the above reactions is respectively
A)
oxidizing in (I) and reducing in (II)
done
clear
B)
reducing in (I) and oxidizing in (II)
done
clear
C)
reducing in (I) and (II)
done
clear
D)
oxidizing in (I) and (II)
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
The pair that yields the same gaseous product on reaction with water:
A)
K and\[K{{O}_{2}}\]
done
clear
B)
Ca and\[Ca{{H}_{2}}\]
done
clear
C)
Na and\[N{{a}_{2}}{{O}_{2}}\]
done
clear
D)
Ba and\[Ba{{O}_{2}}\]
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
Pure water can be obtained from seawater by:
A)
Centrifugation
done
clear
B)
Plasmolysis
done
clear
C)
Sedimentation
done
clear
D)
Reverse osmosis
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
The ease of adsorption of the hydrates alkali metal ions on an ion-exchange resins follows the order
A)
\[{{K}^{+}}<N{{a}^{+}}<R{{b}^{+}}<L{{i}^{+}}\]
done
clear
B)
\[N{{a}^{+}}<Li<{{K}^{+}}<R{{b}^{+}}\]
done
clear
C)
\[L{{i}^{+}}<{{K}^{+}}<N{{a}^{+}}<R{{b}^{+}}\]
done
clear
D)
\[R{{b}^{+}}<{{K}^{+}}<N{{a}^{+}}<L{{i}^{+}}\]
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
On heating which of the following releases \[C{{O}_{2}}\]most easily?
A)
\[MgC{{O}_{3}}\]
done
clear
B)
\[~CaC{{O}_{3}}\]
done
clear
C)
\[{{K}_{2}}C{{O}_{3}}\]
done
clear
D)
\[~N{{a}_{2}}C{{O}_{3}}\]
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
The stability of+1 oxidation state increases in the sequence
A)
Ga < In < Al< Tl
done
clear
B)
AI < Ga < In < Tl
done
clear
C)
Tl < In < Ga < Al
done
clear
D)
In < Tl < Ga < Al
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
Which of these is not a monomer for a high molecular mass silicone polymer?
A)
\[M{{e}_{2}}SiC{{l}_{2}}\]
done
clear
B)
\[M{{e}_{3}}SiCl\]
done
clear
C)
\[PhSiC{{l}_{3}}\]
done
clear
D)
\[MeSiC{{l}_{3}}\]
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
In sodium extract test of organic compounds, the nitrogen of an organic compound is converted into:
A)
sodamide
done
clear
B)
sodium cyanide
done
clear
C)
sodium nitrite
done
clear
D)
sodium nitrate
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
0.2 g of an organic compound containing C, H and O on combustion yielded \[0.147\,g\,C{{O}_{2}}\]and 0.12 g water. The percentage of oxygen in it is:
A)
73.34%
done
clear
B)
78.45%
done
clear
C)
83.23%
done
clear
D)
89.50%
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
Which of the following undergoes nucleophilic substitution exclusively \[{{S}_{N}}l\]mechanism?
A)
Benzyl chloride
done
clear
B)
Isopropyi chloride
done
clear
C)
Chlorobenzene
done
clear
D)
Ethyl chloride
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
The correct order of nucleophilicity is
A)
\[{{I}^{-}}>B{{r}^{-}}>C{{l}^{-}}>{{F}^{-}}\]
done
clear
B)
\[{{I}^{-}}>C{{l}^{-}}>B{{r}^{-}}>{{F}^{-}}\]
done
clear
C)
\[{{F}^{-}}>C{{l}^{-}}>B{{r}^{=}}>{{I}^{-}}\]
done
clear
D)
\[C{{l}^{-}}<B{{r}^{-}}>{{F}^{-}}>{{I}^{-}}\]
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
A)
resonating structures
done
clear
B)
tautomers
done
clear
C)
geometrical isomers
done
clear
D)
optical isomers
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
Which of the following is not chiral?
A)
3-bromopentane
done
clear
B)
2-hydroxy propanoic acid
done
clear
C)
2-butanol
done
clear
D)
2, 3-dibromopentane
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
When \[C{{H}_{3}}C{{H}_{2}}CHC{{l}_{2}}\]is treated with \[NaN{{H}_{2}}\]the product formed is
A)
\[C{{H}_{3}}CH=C{{H}_{2}}\]
done
clear
B)
\[C{{H}_{3}}-C\equiv C{{H}_{2}}\]
done
clear
C)
done
clear
D)
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
When HCl gas is passed through propene in the presence of benzoyl peroxide, it gives
A)
\[n-\]propyl chloride
done
clear
B)
2-chloropropane
done
clear
C)
allyl chloride
done
clear
D)
no reaction
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
Which one of the following statements regarding photochemical smog is not correct?
A)
Photochemical smog is formed through photochemical reaction involving solar energy
done
clear
B)
Photochemical smog does not causem irritation in eyes and throat
done
clear
C)
Carbon monoxide does not play any role in photochemical smog formation
done
clear
D)
Photochemical smog is in oxidising agent in character
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
Which one of the following statements is not true?
A)
Dissolved oxygen (DO) in cold water can reach a concentration up to 10 ppm.
done
clear
B)
Clean water would have a BOD value of 5 ppm.
done
clear
C)
Fluoride deficiency in drinking water is harmful. Soluble fluoride is often used to bring its concentration up to 1 ppm.
done
clear
D)
When the pH of rain water is higher than 6.5, it is called acid rain.
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
Carbon-14 dating method is based on the fact that
A)
C-14 fraction is the same in all the objects
done
clear
B)
C-14 is highly insoluble
done
clear
C)
ratio of C-14 and C-12 is constant in living species
done
clear
D)
all of the above
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
The radioactive decay produces the species with fastest speed is
A)
\[\alpha \]
done
clear
B)
\[\beta \]
done
clear
C)
\[\gamma \]
done
clear
D)
positron
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
The pyknometirc density of sodium chloride crystal is \[2.165\times {{10}^{3}}\,kg\,{{m}^{-3}}\]while its X-ray density is \[2.178\times {{10}^{3}}\,kg\,{{m}^{-3}}.\]The fraction of the unoccupied sites in sodium chloride crystal is
A)
5.96
done
clear
B)
\[5.96\times {{10}^{-2}}\]
done
clear
C)
\[5.96\times {{10}^{-1}}\]
done
clear
D)
\[5.96\times {{10}^{-3}}\]
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
Lithium metal crystallizes in a body-centred cubic crystal. If the length of the side of the unit cell if lithium is 351 pm, the atomic radius of the lithium will be
A)
300.5 pm-
done
clear
B)
240.8 pm
done
clear
C)
151.8 pm
done
clear
D)
75.5 pm
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
1.0 g of a non-electrolyte solute (molar mass\[250\,g\,mo{{l}^{-1}}\]) was dissolved in 51.2 g of benzene. If the freezing point depression constant of benzene is \[5.12\,K\,kg\,mo{{l}^{-1}},\]the lowering in freezing point will be
A)
0.5 K
done
clear
B)
0.4 K
done
clear
C)
0.2 K
done
clear
D)
0.3 K
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
The van't Hoff factor i for a compound which undergoes dissociation in one solvent and as- sociation in other solvent is respectively
A)
greater than one and greater than one
done
clear
B)
less than one and greater than one
done
clear
C)
less than one and less than one
done
clear
D)
greater than one and less than one
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
On the basis of the information available from the reaction \[\frac{4}{3}Al+{{O}_{2}}\xrightarrow{{}}\frac{2}{3}A{{l}_{2}}{{O}_{3}},\Delta G=\]\[-827\,kJ\,mo{{l}^{-1}}\]of \[{{O}_{2}},\] the minimum emf required to carry out an electrolysis of\[A{{l}_{2}}{{O}_{3}}\]is\[(F=96500\,C\,mo{{l}^{-1}})\]
A)
8.56 V
done
clear
B)
2.14 V
done
clear
C)
4.28 V
done
clear
D)
6.42 V
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
IF\[E_{F{{e}^{2+}}/Fe}^{o}=-0.441\,V\]and \[E_{F{{e}^{3+}}/F{{e}^{2+}}}^{o}=0.771\,V,\]the standard emf of the reaction\[Fe+2F{{e}^{3+}}\xrightarrow{{}}3F{{e}^{2+}}\]will be
A)
1.653V
done
clear
B)
0.111 V
done
clear
C)
0.330V
done
clear
D)
1.212V
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
An elementary reaction is given as\[2P+Q\to \]products. If concentration of Q is kept constant and concentration of p is doubled then rate of reaction is
A)
doubled
done
clear
B)
halved
done
clear
C)
quadrupled
done
clear
D)
remains same
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
The rate of a first-order reaction is \[1.5\times {{10}^{-2}}M\,{{\min }^{-1}}\]at 0.5 M concentration of reactant. The half-life of reaction is
A)
0.383 mm
done
clear
B)
23-1 min
done
clear
C)
8.73 mm
done
clear
D)
7.53 mm
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
The catalytic activity of transitions metals and their compounds is ascribed mainly to
A)
their magnetic behaviour
done
clear
B)
their unfilled d-orbitals
done
clear
C)
their ability to adopt variable oxidation states
done
clear
D)
their chemical reactivity
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
The protecting power of lyophilic colloidal solution is expressed in terms of
A)
critical micelle concentration
done
clear
B)
oxidation number
done
clear
C)
coagulation value
done
clear
D)
gold number
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
The method of Zone refining of metals is based on the principle of
A)
Greater solubility of the impurities in the molten state than in the solid
done
clear
B)
Greater solubility of pure metal than that of impurity
done
clear
C)
Higher melting point of the impurity than that of pure metal
done
clear
D)
Greater noble character of the solid metal than that of the impurity
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
Which one of the following is a mineral of iron?
A)
Pyrolusite
done
clear
B)
Magnetite
done
clear
C)
Malachite
done
clear
D)
Cassiterite
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
Select the correct statement:
A)
Sodium metal is stored under kerosene
done
clear
B)
One of the oxides of carbon is a basic oxide
done
clear
C)
Metals can form only basic oxides
done
clear
D)
To prevent combination of white phosphorus with oxygen it is kept in kerosene
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
The basic character of hydrides of the V-group elements decreases in the order
A)
\[~Sb{{H}_{3}}>P{{H}_{3}}>As{{H}_{3}}>N{{H}_{3}}\]
done
clear
B)
\[~N{{H}_{3}}>Sb{{H}_{3}}>P{{H}_{3}}>As{{H}_{3}}\]
done
clear
C)
\[~N{{H}_{3}}>P{{H}_{3}}>As{{H}_{3}}>Sb{{H}_{3}}\]
done
clear
D)
\[~Sb{{H}_{3}}>As{{H}_{3}}>P{{H}_{3}}>N{{H}_{3}}\]
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
What is true for individuals of same species?
A)
Live in the same niche
done
clear
B)
Live in the same habitat
done
clear
C)
Interbreeding
done
clear
D)
Live in different habitat
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
Phenetic classification is based on:
A)
The ancestral lineage of existing organ- isms
done
clear
B)
Observable characteristics of existing organisms
done
clear
C)
Dendrograms based on DNA characteristics
done
clear
D)
Sexual characteristics
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
Species are considered as:
A)
Real basic units of classification
done
clear
B)
The lowest units of classification
done
clear
C)
Artificial concept of human mind which cannot be defined in absolute terms
done
clear
D)
Real units of classification devised by taxonomists
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
Adhesive pad of fungi penetrates the host with the help of:
A)
Mechanical pressure and enzymes
done
clear
B)
Hooke and suckers
done
clear
C)
Softening by enzymes
done
clear
D)
Only by mechanical pressured
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
What is true for cyanobacteria?
A)
Oxygenic with nitrogenase
done
clear
B)
Oxygenic without nitrogenase
done
clear
C)
Non oxygenic with nitrogenase
done
clear
D)
Non oxygenic without nitrogenase
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
Interferons are synthesized in response to
A)
Mycoplasma
done
clear
B)
Bacteria
done
clear
C)
Viruses
done
clear
D)
Fungi
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
Cycas have two cotyledons but not included in angiosperms because of
A)
Naked ovules
done
clear
B)
Seems like monocot
done
clear
C)
Circinate ptyxis
done
clear
D)
Compound leaves
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
Sexual reproduction in Spirogyra is an advanced feature because it shows:
A)
Different size of motile sex organs
done
clear
B)
Same size of motile sex organs
done
clear
C)
Morphologically different sex organs
done
clear
D)
Physiologically differentiated sex organs
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
Conifers differ from grasses in the
A)
Production of seeds from ovules
done
clear
B)
Lack of xylem tracheids
done
clear
C)
Absence of pollen tubes
done
clear
D)
Formation of endosperm before fertilization
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
In which of the following animal post anal tail is found
A)
Earthworm
done
clear
B)
Lower invertebrate
done
clear
C)
Scorpion
done
clear
D)
Snake
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
In protozoa like Amoeba and Paramecium, an organ is found for osmoregulation which is:
A)
Contractile vacuole
done
clear
B)
Mitochondria
done
clear
C)
Nucleus
done
clear
D)
Food vacuole
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
Which one of the following is a matching pair of an animal and a certain phenomenon it exhibits:
A)
Pheretima - Sexual dimorphism
done
clear
B)
Musca - Complete metamorphosis
done
clear
C)
Chameleon - Mimicry
done
clear
D)
Taenia - Polymorphisms
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
Bicarpellary gynoecium and oblique ovary occur in:
A)
Mustard
done
clear
B)
Banana
done
clear
C)
Pisum
done
clear
D)
Brinjal
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
Pineapple (ananas) fruit develops from
A)
a unilocular polycarpellary flower
done
clear
B)
a multipistillate syncarpous flower
done
clear
C)
a cluster of compactly borne flowers on a common axis
done
clear
D)
a multilocular monocarpellary flower
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
In a cereal grain the single cotyledon of embryo is represented by
A)
Coleorhiza
done
clear
B)
Scutellum
done
clear
C)
Prophyll
done
clear
D)
Coleoptile
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
Which of the following statement is true?
A)
Vessels are multicellular and with wide lumen
done
clear
B)
Tracheids are multicellular and with narrow lumen
done
clear
C)
Vessels are unicellular and with narrow lumen
done
clear
D)
Tracheids are unicellular and with wide lumen
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
Main function of lenticel is:
A)
Transpiration
done
clear
B)
Guttation
done
clear
C)
Gaseous exchange
done
clear
D)
Bleeding
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
The most abundant element present in the plant is:
A)
Nitrogen
done
clear
B)
Manganese
done
clear
C)
Iron
done
clear
D)
Carbon
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
Which cartilage is present on the end of long bones?
A)
Calcified cartilage
done
clear
B)
Hyaline cartilage
done
clear
C)
Elastic cartilage
done
clear
D)
Fibrous cartilage
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
Which of the following substances, if introduced into the blood stream, would cause coagulation of blood at the site of its introduction?
A)
Thromboplastin
done
clear
B)
Fibrinogen
done
clear
C)
Heparin
done
clear
D)
Prothrombin
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
Which one of the following correctly described the location of some body parts in the earthworm Pheretima?
A)
Two pairs of accessory glands in 16-18 segments
done
clear
B)
Two pairs of testes in 10th and 11th segments.
done
clear
C)
Four pairs of spermathecae in 4-7 segments
done
clear
D)
One pair of ovaries attached at interseg- mental septum of 14th and 15th segments.
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
Ribosomes are produced in:
A)
Nucleolus
done
clear
B)
Cytoplasm
done
clear
C)
Mitochondria
done
clear
D)
Golgi body
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
Flagella of prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells differ in:
A)
Location in cell and mode of functioning
done
clear
B)
Microtubular organization and type of movement
done
clear
C)
Microtubular organization and function
done
clear
D)
Type of movement and placement in cell
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
Which one of the following is not a constituent of cell membrane?
A)
Phospholipids
done
clear
B)
Cholesterol
done
clear
C)
Glycolipids
done
clear
D)
Proline
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
Due to discovery of which of the following in 1980, the evolution was termed as RNA world:
A)
m-RNA, t-RNA - r-RNA synthesise proteins
done
clear
B)
In some virus RNA is genetic material
done
clear
C)
RNA has enzymatic property
done
clear
D)
RNA is not found in all cells
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
Which form of RNA has a structure resembling clover leaf?
A)
\[hn-\]RNA
done
clear
B)
\[m-\]RNA
done
clear
C)
\[t-\]RNA
done
clear
D)
\[r-\]RNA
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
Which one of the following hydrolyses internal phosphodiester bonds in a polynucleotide chain:
A)
Lipase
done
clear
B)
protease
done
clear
C)
Exonuclease
done
clear
D)
Endonuclease
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
Best material for the study of mitosis in laboratory:
A)
Anther
done
clear
B)
Root tip
done
clear
C)
Leaf tip
done
clear
D)
Ovary
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
During mitosis ER and nucleolus begin to disappear at:
A)
Late prophase
done
clear
B)
Early metaphase
done
clear
C)
Late metaphase
done
clear
D)
Early prophase
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
The cell junctions called tight, adhering and gap junctions are found in:
A)
Neural tissue
done
clear
B)
Muscular tissue
done
clear
C)
Connective tissue
done
clear
D)
Epithelial tissue
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
Sulphur is an important nutrient for optimum growth and productivity in;
A)
Pulse crops
done
clear
B)
Cereals
done
clear
C)
Fibre crops
done
clear
D)
Oilseed crops
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
Two cells A and B are contiguous. Cell A has osmotic pressure 10 atm, turgor pressure 7 atm and diffusion pressure deficit 3 atm. Cell B has osmotic pressure 8 atm, turgor pressure 3 atm and diffusion pressure deficit 5 atm. The result will be:
A)
Movement of water from cell A to B
done
clear
B)
Movement of water from cell B to A
done
clear
C)
No movement of water
done
clear
D)
Equilibrium between the two
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
Transpiration and root pressure cause water to rise in plants by:
A)
pushing and pulling it, respectively
done
clear
B)
pulling it upward
done
clear
C)
pulling and pushing it, respectively
done
clear
D)
pushing it upward
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
Which aquatic fem performs nitrogen fixation?
A)
Azolla
done
clear
B)
Nostoc
done
clear
C)
Salvia
done
clear
D)
Salvinia
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
The major portion of the dry weight of plants comprise:
A)
Nitrogen, phosphorus and potassium
done
clear
B)
Calcium, magnesium and sulphur
done
clear
C)
Carbon, nitrogen and hydrogen
done
clear
D)
Carbon, hydrogen and oxygen
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
Which of the following is a symbiotic nitrogen fixer?
A)
Azolla
done
clear
B)
Glomus
done
clear
C)
Azotobacter
done
clear
D)
Frankia
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
Which of the following absorb light energy for photosynthesis?
A)
Chlorophyll
done
clear
B)
Water molecule
done
clear
C)
\[C{{O}_{2}}\]
done
clear
D)
RUBP
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
Plants adapted to low light intensity have:
A)
Higher rate of \[C{{O}_{2}}\]fixation than the sun plants
done
clear
B)
More extended root system
done
clear
C)
Leaves modified to spines
done
clear
D)
Larger photosynthetic unit size than the sun plants
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
During photorespiration the oxygen consuming reaction (s) occur in:
A)
Stroma of chloroplasts and mitochondria
done
clear
B)
Stroma of chloroplasts and peroxisomes
done
clear
C)
Grana of chloroplasts and peroxisomes
done
clear
D)
Stroma of chloroplasts
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
In alcohol fermentation:
A)
Triose phosphate is the electron donor while acetaldehyde is the electron acceptor
done
clear
B)
Triose phosphate is the electron donor while pyruvic acid is the electron acceptor
done
clear
C)
There is no electron donor
done
clear
D)
Oxygen is the electron acceptor
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
All enzymes of TCA cycle are located in the mitochondrial matrix except one which is located in inner mitochondrial membranes in eukaryotes and in cytosol in prokaryotes. This enzyme is:
A)
Succinate dehydrogenase
done
clear
B)
Lactate dehydrogenase
done
clear
C)
Isocitrate dehydrogenase
done
clear
D)
Malate dehydrogenase
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
Which of the metabolites is common to respiration mediated breakdown of fats, carbohydrates and proteins?
A)
Glucose-6-phosphate
done
clear
B)
Fructose 1, 6-bisphosphate
done
clear
C)
Pyruvic acid
done
clear
D)
Acetyl Co A
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
Which of the following prevents the fall of fruits?
A)
\[G{{A}_{3}}\]
done
clear
B)
NAA
done
clear
C)
Ethylene
done
clear
D)
Zeatin
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
Cell elongation in internodal regions of the green plants takes place due to:
A)
Cytokinins
done
clear
B)
Gibberellins
done
clear
C)
Ethylene
done
clear
D)
Indole acetic acid.
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
An enzyme that can stimulate germination of barley seeds is:
A)
\[\alpha -\]amylase
done
clear
B)
Lipase
done
clear
C)
Protease
done
clear
D)
Invertase
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
Continuous bleeding from an injured part 'm body is due to deficiency of:
A)
Vitamin A
done
clear
B)
Vitamin B
done
clear
C)
Vitamin K
done
clear
D)
Vitamin E
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
Secretin and cholecystokinin are digestive hormones. They are secreted in:
A)
Oesophagus
done
clear
B)
Ileum
done
clear
C)
Duodenum
done
clear
D)
Pyloric stomach
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
Which one of the following is a fat-soluble vitamin and its related deficiency disease?
A)
Calciferol - Pellagra
done
clear
B)
Ascorbic acid - Scurvy
done
clear
C)
Retinol - Xerophthalmia
done
clear
D)
Cobalamin - Beriberi
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
People living at sea level have around 5 million RBC per cubic millimeter of their blood whereas those living at an altitude of 5400 metres have around 8 million. This is because at high altitude
A)
People get pollution-free air to breathe and more oxygen is available
done
clear
B)
Atmospheric \[{{O}_{2}}\] level is less and hence more RBCs are needed to absorb the required amount of \[{{O}_{2}}\]to survive
done
clear
C)
There is more UV radiation which enhances RBC production
done
clear
D)
People eat more nutritive food, therefore more RBCs are formed
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
What is true about RBCs in humans?
A)
They carry about 20-25 per cent of \[C{{O}_{2}}\]
done
clear
B)
They transport 99.5 per cent of \[{{O}_{2}}\]
done
clear
C)
They transport about 80 per cent oxygen only and the rest 20 per cent of its transported in dissolved state in blood plasma
done
clear
D)
They do not carry \[C{{O}_{2}}\]at all
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
Name the pulmonary disease in which alveolar surface area involved in gas exchange is drastically reduced due to damage in the alveolar walls:
A)
Asthma
done
clear
B)
Pleurisy
done
clear
C)
Emphysema
done
clear
D)
Pneumonia
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
Which of the following statement is true for Lymph?
A)
WBC and serum
done
clear
B)
All components of blood except RBCs and some proteins
done
clear
C)
RBCs, WBCs and plasma
done
clear
D)
RBCs, proteins and platelets
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
A drop of each of the following is placed separately on four slides. Which of them will not coagulate?
A)
Whole blood from pulmonary vein
done
clear
B)
Blood plasma
done
clear
C)
Blood serum
done
clear
D)
Sample from the thoracic duct of lym- phatic system
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
There is no DNA in:
A)
Hair root
done
clear
B)
An enucleated ovum
done
clear
C)
Mature RBCs
done
clear
D)
A mature spermatozoin
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
Uricotelism is found in:
A)
Fishes and fresh water protozoans
done
clear
B)
Birds, reptiles and insects
done
clear
C)
Frogs and toads
done
clear
D)
Mammals and birds
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
Earthworms are:
A)
Ureotelic when plenty of water is available
done
clear
B)
Uricotelic when plenty of water is available
done
clear
C)
Uricotelic under conditions of water scarcity
done
clear
D)
Ammonotelic when plenty of water is available.
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
Bowman's glands are located in the
A)
Olfactory epithelium of our nose
done
clear
B)
Proximal end of uriniferous tubules
done
clear
C)
Anterior pituitary
done
clear
D)
Female reproductive system of cockroach
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
An acromion process is characteristically found in the
A)
Skull of frog
done
clear
B)
Sperm of mammals
done
clear
C)
Pelvic girdle of mammals
done
clear
D)
Pectoral girdle of mammals
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
Which one of the following items gives its correct total number?
A)
Types of diabetes - 3
done
clear
B)
Cervical vertebrae in humans - 8
done
clear
C)
Floating ribs in humans - 4
done
clear
D)
Amino acids found in proteins - 16
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
Which of the following joints would allow no movement?
A)
Ball and socket joint
done
clear
B)
Fibrous joint
done
clear
C)
Cartilaginous joint
done
clear
D)
Synovial joint
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
Which of the following statement is correct for node of Ranvier of nerve?
A)
Neurilemma is discontinuous
done
clear
B)
Myelin sheath is discontinuous
done
clear
C)
Both neurilemma and myelin sheath arediscontinuous
done
clear
D)
Covered by myelin sheath
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
Injury to vagus nerve in humans is not likely to affect:
A)
Gastrointestinal movements
done
clear
B)
Pancreatic secretion
done
clear
C)
Cardiac movements
done
clear
D)
Tongue movements
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
Which one of the following does not act as a neurotransmitter?
A)
Acetylcholine
done
clear
B)
Epinephrine
done
clear
C)
Norepinephrine
done
clear
D)
Cortisone
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
Adrenalin direct affect on:
A)
SA node
done
clear
B)
\[\beta -\]cells of Langerhans
done
clear
C)
Dorsal root of spinal cord
done
clear
D)
Epithelial cells of stomach
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
Which one of the following is not a second messenger in hormone action?
A)
cGMP
done
clear
B)
Calcium
done
clear
C)
Sodium
done
clear
D)
cAMP
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
Which of the following hormones is not a secretion product of human placenta?
A)
Prolactin
done
clear
B)
Estrogen
done
clear
C)
Progesterone
done
clear
D)
Human chorionic gonadotropin
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
The "Eyes" of the potato tuber are:
A)
axillary buds
done
clear
B)
root buds
done
clear
C)
flower buds
done
clear
D)
shoot buds
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
Which type of association is found in between entomophilous flower and pollinating agent?
A)
Mutualism
done
clear
B)
Commensalism
done
clear
C)
Cooperation
done
clear
D)
Co-evolution
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
Which one of the following represents an ovule, where the embryo sac becomes horse-shoe shaped and the funiculus and micropyle are close to each other:
A)
Amphitropous
done
clear
B)
Anatropous
done
clear
C)
Circinotropous
done
clear
D)
Atropous
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
The arrangement of the nuclei in a normal embryo sac in the dicot plants is:
A)
2 + 4 + 2
done
clear
B)
3 + 2 + 3
done
clear
C)
2 + 3 + 3
done
clear
D)
3 + 3 + 2
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
What does the filiform apparatus do at that entrance into ovule?
A)
It brings about opening of the pollen tube
done
clear
B)
It guides pollen tube from a synergid to egg
done
clear
C)
It helps in the entry of pollen tube into a synergid
done
clear
D)
It prevents entry of more than one pollen tube into the embryo sac\
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
Endosperm is consumed by developing embryo in the seed of:
A)
pea
done
clear
B)
maize
done
clear
C)
coconut
done
clear
D)
castor
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
In the human female, menstruation can be deferred by the administration of:
A)
FSH only
done
clear
B)
LH only
done
clear
C)
Combination of FSH and LH
done
clear
D)
Combination of estrogen and progesterone
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
Seminal plasma in humans is rich in:
A)
Fructose and certain enzymes but poor calcium
done
clear
B)
Fructose and calcium but has no enzymes
done
clear
C)
Fructose, calcium and certain enzyme
done
clear
D)
Glucose and certain enzymes but has no Calcium
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
Which one of the following statements about human sperm is correct?
A)
Acrosome has a conical pointed structure used for piercing and penetrating the egg, resulting in fertilisation
done
clear
B)
The sperm lysins in the acrosome dissolve the egg envelope facilitating fertilization
done
clear
C)
Acrosome serves as a sensory structure leading the sperm towards the ovum
done
clear
D)
Acrosome serves no particular function
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
Which one of the following is the most widely accepted method of contraception in India, as at present?
A)
IUDs (Intrauterine devices)
done
clear
B)
Cervical caps
done
clear
C)
Tubectomy
done
clear
D)
Diaphragms
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
Artificial insemination means:
A)
transfer of sperms of a healthy donor to a test tube containing ova
done
clear
B)
transfer of sperms of husband to a test tube containing ova
done
clear
C)
artificial introduction of sperms of a healthy donor into the vagina
done
clear
D)
introduction of sperms of a healthy donor directly into the ovary
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
Which of the following is a hormone-releasing intrauterine device (IUD)?
A)
Multiload375
done
clear
B)
LNG-20
done
clear
C)
Cervical cap
done
clear
D)
Vault
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
Extranuclear chromosomes occur in:
A)
Peroxisome and Ribosome
done
clear
B)
Chloroplast and Mitochondria
done
clear
C)
Mitochondria and Ribosome
done
clear
D)
Chloroplast and Lysosome
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
Which of the following is the example of pleiotropic gene?
A)
Haemophilia
done
clear
B)
Thalassemia
done
clear
C)
Sickle cell anaemia
done
clear
D)
Colour blindness
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
Pattern baldness, moustaches and beard in human males are examples of:
A)
Sex-linked traits
done
clear
B)
Sex-limited traits
done
clear
C)
Sex-differentiating traits
done
clear
D)
Sex-determining traits
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
Frequency of an allele in an isolated population may change due to:
A)
Genetic drift
done
clear
B)
Gene flow
done
clear
C)
Mutation
done
clear
D)
Natural selection
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
Jacob and Monad studied lactose metabolism in E. coli and proposed operon concept. Operon concept applicable for:
A)
All prokaryotes
done
clear
B)
All prokaryotes and some eukaryotes
done
clear
C)
All prokaryotes and all eukaryotes
done
clear
D)
All prokaryotes and some protozoans
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
In the genetic code dictionary, how many codons are used to code for all the 20 essential amino acids:
A)
20
done
clear
B)
64
done
clear
C)
61
done
clear
D)
60
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
Occurrence of endemic species in south America and Australia due to:
A)
These species have been extinct from other regions
done
clear
B)
Continental separation
done
clear
C)
These is no terrestrial route to these places
done
clear
D)
Retrogressive evolution
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
Similarities in organism with different genotype indicates:
A)
Microevolution
done
clear
B)
Macroevolution
done
clear
C)
Convergent evolution
done
clear
D)
Divergent evolution
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
Which of the following are homologous organs?
A)
Wings of birds and locust
done
clear
B)
Wings of birds (sparrow) and pectoral fins of fish
done
clear
C)
Wings of bat and butterfly
done
clear
D)
Legs of frog and cockroach
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
Reason of lung cancer:
A)
coal mining
done
clear
B)
calcium fluoride
done
clear
C)
cement factory
done
clear
D)
bauxite mining
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
Salmonella is related with:
A)
Typhoid
done
clear
B)
Polio
done
clear
C)
TB
done
clear
D)
Tetanus
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
ELISA is used to detect viruses, where:
A)
Southern blotting is done
done
clear
B)
Alkaline phosphatase is the key reagent
done
clear
C)
Catalase is the key reagent
done
clear
D)
DNA-probes are required
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow