Solved papers for NEET NEET SOLVED PAPER 2013

NEET SOLVED PAPER 2013 Total Questions - 180

1) In an experiment four quantities a, b, c and d are measured with percentage error 1%, 2%, 3% and 4% respectively. Quantity P is calculated as follows \[p=\frac{{{a}^{3}}{{b}^{2}}}{cd}%,\] Error in P is

A)

14%

B)

10%

C)

7%

D)

4%

View Answer
2) The velocity of a projectile at the initial point A is (2i + 3j) m/s. Its velocity (in m/s) at point B is

A)

-2i-3j

B)

-2i+3j

C)

2i-3j

D)

2i+3j

View Answer
3) A stone falls freely under gravity. It covers distances \[{{h}_{1}},{{h}_{2}}\] and \[{{h}_{3}}\], in the first 5 seconds, the next 5 seconds and the next 5 seconds respectively. The relation between \[{{h}_{1}},{{h}_{2}}\] and \[{{h}_{3}}\] is

A)

\[{{h}_{1}}=2{{h}_{2}}=3{{h}_{3}}\]

B)

\[{{h}_{1}}=\frac{{{h}_{2}}}{3}=\frac{{{h}_{3}}}{5}\]

C)

\[{{h}_{2}}=3{{h}_{1}}\]and\[{{h}_{3}}=3{{h}_{2}}\]

D)

\[{{h}_{1}}={{h}_{2}}={{h}_{3}}\]

View Answer
4) Three blocks with masses m, 2m and 3m are connected by strings, as shown in the figure. After an upward force is applied on block m, the masses move upward at constant speed v. What is the net force on the block of mass 2m? (g is the acceleration due to gravity)

A)

Zero

B)

2mg

C)

3mg

D)

6mg

View Answer
5) The upper half of an inclined plane of inclination 9 is perfectly smooth while lower half is rough. A block starting from rest at the top of the plane will again come to rest at the bottom, if the coefficient of friction between the block and lower half of the plane is given by

A)

\[\mu =\frac{1}{\tan \theta }\]

B)

\[\mu =\frac{2}{\tan \theta }\]

C)

\[\mu =2\tan \theta \]

D)

\[\mu =\tan \theta \]

View Answer
6) A uniform force of \[(3\mathbf{i}+\mathbf{j})\] N acts on a particle of mass 2 kg. Hence the particle is displaced from position \[(2\mathbf{i}+\mathbf{k})\] m to position \[(4\mathbf{i}+3\mathbf{j}-\mathbf{k})\] m. The work done by the force on the particle is

A)

9 J

B)

6 J

C)

13 J

D)

15 J

View Answer
7) An explosion breaks a rock into three parts in a horizontal plane. Two of them go off at right angles to each other. The first part of mass 1 kg moves with a speed of 12 ms-1 and the second part of mass 2 kg moves with 8 ms-1 speed. If the third part flies off with 4 ms-1 speed, then its mass is

A)

3 kg

B)

5 kg

C)

7kg

D)

17kg

View Answer
8) A rod PQ of mass M and length L is hinged at end P. The rod is kepts horizontal by a massless string tied to point Q as shown in figure. When string is cut, the initial angular acceleration of the rod is

A)

\[\frac{3g}{2L}\]

B)

\[\frac{g}{L}\]

C)

\[\frac{2g}{L}\]

D)

\[\frac{2g}{3L}\]

View Answer
9) A small object of uniform density rolls up a curved surface with an initial velocity v'. It reaches up to a maximum height of \[\frac{3{{\upsilon }^{2}}}{4g}\]with respect to the initial position. The object is

A)

ring

B)

solid sphere

C)

hollow sphere

D)

disc

View Answer
10) A body of mass m taken from the earth's surface to the height equal to twice the radius (R) of the earth. The change is potential energy of body will be

A)

\[mg2R\]

B)

\[\frac{2}{3}mgR\]

C)

\[3mgR\]

D)

\[\frac{1}{3}mgR\]

View Answer
11) Infinite number of bodies, each of mass 2 kg are situated on x-axis at distance 1m, 2 m, 4 m, 8 m, respectively from the origin. The resulting gravitational potential due to this system at the origin will be

A)

\[-G\]

B)

\[-\frac{8}{3}G\]

C)

\[-\frac{4}{3}G\]

D)

\[-4G\]

View Answer
12) The following four wires are made of the same material. Which of these will have the largest extension when the same tension is applied?

A)

Length = 50 cm, diameter = 0.5 mm

B)

Length = 100 cm, diameter = 1 mm

C)

Length = 200 cm, diameter = 2 mm

D)

Length = 300 cm, diameter = 3 mm

View Answer
13) The wet ability of a surface by a liquid depends primarily on

A)

viscosity

B)

surface tension

C)

density

D)

angle of contact between the surface and the liquid

View Answer
14) The molar specific heats of an ideal gas at constant pressure and volume are denoted by \[{{C}_{p}}\] and \[{{C}_{V}}\] respectively. If \[\gamma =\frac{{{C}_{p}}}{{{C}_{V}}}\] and R is the universal gas constant, then \[{{C}_{V}}\] is equal to

A)

\[\frac{1+\gamma }{1-\gamma }\]

B)

\[\frac{R}{(\gamma -1)}\]

C)

\[\frac{(\gamma -1)}{R}\]

D)

\[\gamma R\]

View Answer
15) A piece of iron is heated in a flame. If first becomes dull red then becomes reddish yellow and finally turns to white hot. The correct explanation for the above observation is possible by using

A)

Stefan's law

B)

Wien's displacement law

C)

Kirchoff's law

D)

Newton's law of cooling

View Answer
16) A gas is taken through the cycle \[A\to B\to C\to A,\] as shown. What is the net work done by the gas?

A)

2000 J

B)

1000 J

C)

Zero

D)

-2000 J

View Answer
17) During an adiabatic process, the pressure of a gas is found to be proportional to the cube of its temperature. The ratio of \[\frac{{{C}_{p}}}{{{C}_{\upsilon }}}\] for the gas is

A)

\[\frac{4}{3}\]

B)

2

C)

\[\frac{5}{3}\]

D)

\[\frac{3}{2}\]

View Answer
18) In the given (V-T) diagram, what is the relation between pressures \[{{p}_{1}}\] and \[{{p}_{2}}\] ?

A)

\[{{p}_{2}}={{p}_{1}}\]

B)

\[{{p}_{2}}>{{p}_{1}}\]

C)

\[{{p}_{2}}<{{p}_{1}}\]

D)

Cannot be predicted

View Answer
19) The amount of heat energy required to raise the temperature of 1 g of helium at NTP, from \[{{T}_{1}}K\]To \[{{T}_{2}}K\]is

A)

\[\frac{3}{8}{{N}_{a}}{{K}_{B}}({{T}_{2}}-{{T}_{1}})\]

B)

\[\frac{3}{2}{{N}_{a}}{{K}_{B}}({{T}_{2}}-{{T}_{1}})\]

C)

\[\frac{3}{4}{{N}_{a}}{{K}_{B}}({{T}_{2}}-{{T}_{1}})\]

D)

\[\frac{3}{4}{{N}_{a}}{{K}_{B}}\left( \frac{{{T}_{2}}}{{{T}_{1}}} \right)\]

View Answer
20) A wave travelling in the positive a-direction having displacement along .y-direction as 1 m, wavelength\[2\pi m\]and frequency of \[\frac{1}{\pi }\]Hz is represented by

A)

\[y=\sin (x-2t)\]

B)

\[y=\sin (2\pi x-2\pi t)\]

C)

\[y=\sin (10\pi x-20\pi t)\]

D)

\[y=\sin (2\pi x+2\pi t)\]

View Answer
21) If we study the vibration of a pipe open at both ends, then the following statements is not true

A)

Open end will be anti-node

B)

Odd harmonics of the fundamental frequency will be generated

C)

All harmonics of the fundamental frequency will be generated

D)

Pressure change will be maximum at both ends

View Answer
22) A source of unknown frequency gives 4 beats/s when sounded with a source of known frequency 250 Hz. The second harmonic of the source of unknown frequency gives five beats per second when sounded with a source of frequency 513 Hz. The unknown frequency is

A)

254 Hz

B)

246 Hz

C)

240 Hz

D)

260 Hz

View Answer
23) Two pith balls carrying equal charges are suspended from a common point by strings of equal length, the equilibrium separation between them is r. Now the strings are rigidly clamped at half the height. The equilibrium separation between the balls now become.

A)

\[{{\left( \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}} \right)}^{2}}\]

B)

\[\left( \frac{r}{\sqrt[3]{2}} \right)\]

C)

\[\left( \frac{2r}{\sqrt{3}} \right)\]

D)

\[\left( \frac{2r}{3} \right)\]

View Answer
24) A, B and C are three points in a uniform electric field. The electric potential is

A)

maximum at A

B)

maximum at B

C)

maximum at C

D)

same at all the three points A, B and C A

View Answer
25) A wire of resistance \[4\,\Omega \] is stretched to twice   its   original   length.   The resistance of stretched wire would be

A)

\[2\,\Omega \]

B)

\[4\,\Omega \]

C)

\[8\,\Omega \]

D)

\[16\,\Omega \]

View Answer
26) The internal resistance of a 2.1 V cell which gives a current of 0.2 A through a resistance of \[10\,\Omega \] is

A)

\[0.2\,\Omega \]

B)

\[0.5\,\Omega \]

C)

\[0.8\,\Omega \]

D)

\[1.0\,\Omega \]

View Answer
27) The resistances of the four arms P, Q, R and S in a Wheat stone's bridge are \[10\,\Omega ,30\,\Omega ,30\,\Omega \]and \[90\,\Omega ,\] respectively. The emf and internal resistance of the cell are 7 V and \[5\,\Omega \] respectively. If the galvanometer resistance is \[50\,\Omega ,\] the current drawn from the cell will be

A)

1.0 A

B)

0.2 A

C)

0.1 A

D)

2.0 A

View Answer
28) When a proton is released from rest in a room, it starts with an initial acceleration \[{{a}_{0}}\] towards west. When it is projected towards north with a speed \[{{\upsilon }_{0}}\] it moves with an initial acceleration\[3{{a}_{0}}\]towards west. The electric and magnetic fields in the room are

A)

\[\frac{m{{a}_{0}}}{e}west,\frac{2m{{a}_{0}}}{e{{v}_{0}}}up\]

B)

\[\frac{m{{a}_{0}}}{e}west,\frac{2m{{a}_{0}}}{e{{v}_{0}}}dwon\]

C)

\[\frac{m{{a}_{0}}}{e}east,\frac{3m{{a}_{0}}}{e{{v}_{0}}}up\]

D)

\[\frac{m{{a}_{0}}}{e}east,\frac{3m{{a}_{0}}}{e{{v}_{0}}}down\]

View Answer
29) A current loop in a magnetic field

A)

experiences a torque whether the field is uniform or non-uniform in all orientations

B)

can be in equilibrium in one orientations

C)

can be equilibrium in two orientations, both the equilibrium states are unstable

D)

can be in equilibrium in two orientations, one stable while the other is unstable

View Answer
30) A bar magnet of length I and magnetic dipole moment M is bent in the form of an arc as shown in figure. The new magnetic dipole moment will be

A)

M

B)

\[\frac{3}{\pi }M\]

C)

\[\frac{2}{\pi }M\]

D)

\[\frac{M}{2}\]

View Answer
31) A wire loop is rotated in a magnetic field. The frequency of change of direction of the induced emf is

A)

once per revolution

B)

twice per revolution

C)

four times per revolution

D)

six times per revolution

View Answer
32) A coil of self-inductance L is connected in series with a bulb -B and an AC source. Brightness of the bulb decreases when

A)

frequency of the AC source is decreased

B)

number of turns in the coil is reduced

C)

a capacitance of reactance \[{{X}_{C}}={{X}_{L}}\] is included in the same circuit

D)

an iron rod is inserted in the coil

View Answer
33) The condition under which a microwave oven heats up a food item containing water molecules most efficiently is

A)

the frequency of the microwave must match the resonant frequency of the water molecules

B)

the frequency of the microwave has no relation with natural frequency of water molecules

C)

microwave are heat waves, so always produce heating

D)

infrared waves produce heating in a microwave oven

View Answer
34) Ratio of longest wavelengths corresponding to Lyman and Bulmer series in hydrogen spectrum is

A)

\[\frac{5}{27}\]

B)

\[\frac{3}{23}\]

C)

\[\frac{7}{29}\]

D)

\[\frac{9}{31}\]

View Answer
35) The half-life of a radioactive isotope X is 20 yr. It decays to another element Y which is stable. The two elements X and Y were found to be in the ratio 1:7 in a sample of a given rock. The age of the rock is estimated to be

A)

40 yr

B)

60 yr

C)

80 yr

D)

100 yr

View Answer
36) A certain mass of hydrogen is changed to helium by the process of fusion. The mass defect in fusion reaction is 0.02866 u. The energy liberated per u is (given 1 u = 931 MeV)

A)

2.67 MeV

B)

26.7 MeV

C)

6.675 MeV

D)

13.35 MeV

View Answer
37) For photoelectric emission from certain metal the cut-off frequency is v. If radiation of frequency 2v impinges on the metal plate, the maximum possible velocity of the emitted electron will be (m is the electron mass)

A)

\[\sqrt{\frac{hv}{(2m)}}\]

B)

\[\sqrt{\frac{hv}{m}}\]

C)

\[\sqrt{\frac{2hv}{m}}\]

D)

\[\sqrt[2]{\frac{hv}{m}}\]

View Answer
38) The wavelength \[{{\lambda }_{e}}\]of an electron and \[{{\lambda }_{p}}\] of a photon of same energy E are related by

A)

\[{{\lambda }_{p}}\propto \lambda _{e}^{2}\]

B)

\[{{\lambda }_{p}}\propto {{\lambda }_{e}}\]

C)

\[{{\lambda }_{p}}\propto \sqrt{{{\lambda }_{e}}}\]

D)

\[{{\lambda }_{p}}\propto \frac{1}{\sqrt{{{\lambda }_{e}}}}\]

View Answer
39) A plano-convex lens fits exactly into a plano-concave lens. Their plane surfaces are parallel to each other. If lenses are made of different materials of refractive indices \[{{\mu }_{1}}\] and \[{{\mu }_{2}}\] and -R is the radius of curvature of the curved surface of the lenses, then the focal length of the combination is

A)

\[\frac{R}{2({{\mu }_{1}}+{{\mu }_{2}})}\]

B)

\[\frac{R}{2({{\mu }_{1}}-{{\mu }_{2}})}\]

C)

\[\frac{R}{({{\mu }_{1}}-{{\mu }_{2}})}\]

D)

\[\frac{2R}{({{\mu }_{2}}-{{\mu }_{1}})}\]

View Answer
40) For a normal eye, the cornea of eye provides a converging power of 40 D and the least converging power of the eye lens behind the cornea is 20 D. Using this information, the distance between the retina and the cornea-eye lens can be estimated to be

A)

5 cm

B)

2.5 cm

C)

1.67cm

D)

1.5cm

View Answer
41) In Young's double slit experiment, the slits are 2 mm apart and are illuminated by photons of two wavelengths \[{{\lambda }_{1}}=12000\overset{\text{o}}{\mathop{\,\text{A}}}\,\] and \[{{\lambda }_{2}}=10000\overset{\text{o}}{\mathop{\,\text{A}}}\,\]. At what minimum distance from the common central bright fringe on the screen 2 m from the slit will a bright fringe from one interference pattern coincide with a bright fringe from the other?

A)

8 mm

B)

6 mm

C)

4 mm

D)

3 mm

View Answer
42) A parallel beam of fast moving electrons is incident normally on a narrow slit. A fluorescent screen is placed at a large distance from the slit. If the speed of the electrons is increased, then which of the following statements is correct?

A)

Diffraction pattern is not observed on the screen in the case of electrons

B)

The angular width of the central maximum of the diffraction pattern will increase

C)

The angular width of the central maximum will decrease

D)

The angular width of the central maximum will be unaffected

View Answer
43) In a n-type semiconductor, which of the following statement is true?

A)

Electrons are majority carriers and trivalent atoms are dopants

B)

Electrons are minority carriers and pentavalent atoms are dopants

C)

Holes are minority carriers and pentavalen atoms are dopants

D)

Holes are majority carriers and trivalent atoms are dopants

View Answer
44) In a common emitter (CE) amplifier having a voltage gain G, the transistor used has trans conductance 0.03 mho and current gain 25. If the above transistor is replaced with another one with trans conductance 0.02 mho and current gain 20, the voltage gain will

A)

\[\frac{2}{3}G\]

B)

\[1.5G\]

C)

\[\frac{1}{3}G\]

D)

\[\frac{5}{4}G\]

View Answer
45) The output (X) of the logic circuit shown in figure will be

A)

\[X=\overline{\overline{A}}\cdot \overline{\overline{B}}\]

B)

\[X=\overline{A\cdot B}\]

C)

\[X=A\cdot B\]

D)

\[X=\overline{A+B}\]

View Answer
46) The value of Plancks constant is \[\text{6}\text{.63 }\!\!\times\!\!\text{ 1}{{\text{0}}^{\text{-34}}}\text{Js}\text{.}\] The speed of light is \[\text{3 }\!\!\times\!\!\text{ 1}{{\text{0}}^{17}}\text{nm}{{\text{s}}^{\text{-1}}}\text{.}\]Which value is closest to the wavelength in nanometer of a quantum of light with frequency of \[\text{6 }\!\!\times\!\!\text{ 1}{{\text{0}}^{15}}{{\text{s}}^{\text{-1}}}?\]

A)

10

B)

25

C)

50

D)

75

View Answer
47) What is the maximum numbers of electrons that can be .associated with the following set of quantum numbers? \[n=3,l=1\] and m = - 1

A)

10

B)

6

C)

4

D)

2

View Answer
48) What is the activation energy for a reaction if its rate doubles when the temperature is raised from \[20{}^\circ C\] to \[34{}^\circ C\]? (\[\text{R=}\,\text{8}\text{.314}\,\text{J}\,\text{mo}{{\text{l}}^{\text{-1}}}\,{{\text{K}}^{\text{-1}}}\])

A)

\[\text{342}\,\text{kJ}\,\text{mo}{{\text{l}}^{\text{-1}}}\]

B)

\[269\,\text{kJ}\,\text{mo}{{\text{l}}^{\text{-1}}}\]

C)

\[34.7\,\text{kJ}\,\text{mo}{{\text{l}}^{\text{-1}}}\]

D)

\[15.1\,\text{kJ}\,\text{mo}{{\text{l}}^{\text{-1}}}\]

View Answer
49) A hydrogen gas electrode is made by dipping platinum wire in a solution of\[HCl\]of \[pH=10\] and by passing hydrogen gas around the platinum wire at 1 atm pressure. The oxidation potential of electrode would be

A)

0.059 V

B)

0.59 V

C)

0.118 V

D)

1.18 V

View Answer
50) A reaction having equal energies of activation for forward and reverse reactions has

A)

\[\Delta S=0\]

B)

\[\Delta G=0\]

C)

\[\Delta H=0\]

D)

\[\Delta H=\Delta G=\Delta S=0\]

View Answer
51) At \[25{}^\circ C\] molar conductance of 0.1 molar aqueous solution of ammonium hydroxide is 9.54 \[\text{oh}{{\text{m}}^{\text{-1}}}\text{c}{{\text{m}}^{\text{2}}}\]\[\text{mo}{{\text{l}}^{\text{-1}}}\]and at infinite dilution its molar conductance is \[\text{238}\,\text{oh}{{\text{m}}^{\text{-1}}}\]\[\text{c}{{\text{m}}^{2}}\]\[\text{mo}{{\text{l}}^{\text{-1}}}.\]The degree of ionization of ammonium hydroxide at the same concentration and temperature is

A)

2.080%

B)

20.800%

C)

4.008%

D)

40.800%

View Answer
52) Based on equation \[E=-2.178\times {{10}^{-18}}J\left( \frac{{{Z}^{2}}}{{{n}^{2}}} \right)\]certain con-elusions are written. Which of them is not correct?

A)

The negative sign in equation simply means that the energy of electron bound to the nucleus is lower than it would be if the electrons were at the infinite distance from the nucleus

B)

Larger the value of n, the larger is the orbit radius

C)

Equation can be used to calculate the change in energy when the electron changes orbit

D)

For n = 1 the electron has a more negative energy than it does for n = 6 which means that the electron is more loosely bound in the smallest allowed orbit

View Answer
53) A button cell used in watches functions as following

\[Zn(s)+A{{g}_{2}}O(s)+{{H}_{2}}O(l)2Ag(s)\] \[+Z{{n}^{2+}}(aq)+2O{{H}^{-}}(aq)\]

If half-cell potentials are

\[Z{{n}^{2+}}(aq)+2{{e}^{-}}\to Zn(s){{E}^{o}}=-0.76V\]

\[A{{g}_{2}}O(s)+{{H}_{2}}O(l)+2{{e}^{-}}\] \[\to 2Ag(s)+2O{{H}^{-}}(aq),\]\[{{E}^{o}}=0.34V\]

The cell potential will be

A)

1.10 V

B)

0, 42 V

C)

0.84 V

D)

1.34 V

View Answer
54) How many grams of concentrated nitric acid solution should be used to prepare 250 mL of \[\text{2}\text{.0M}\]\[\text{HN}{{\text{O}}_{\text{3}}}\] The concentrated acid is 70% \[\text{HN}{{\text{O}}_{\text{3}}}\].

A)

45.0 g cone. \[\text{HN}{{\text{O}}_{\text{3}}}\]

B)

90.0 g conc.\[\text{HN}{{\text{O}}_{\text{3}}}\]

C)

70.0 g cone. \[\text{HN}{{\text{O}}_{\text{3}}}\]

D)

54.0 g conc.\[\text{HN}{{\text{O}}_{\text{3}}}\]

View Answer
55) The number of carbon atoms per unit cell of diamond unit cell is

A)

4

B)

8

C)

6

D)

1

View Answer
56) Maximum deviation from ideal gas is expected from

A)

\[{{H}_{2}}(g)\]

B)

\[{{N}_{2}}(g)\]

C)

\[C{{H}_{2}}(g)\]

D)

\[N{{H}_{3}}(g)\]

View Answer
57) A metal has a fee lattice. The edge length of the unit cell is 404 pm. The density of the metal is 2.72 g \[c{{m}^{-3}}\]. The molar mass of the metal is (\[{{N}_{A}}\] Avogadros constant \[=6.02\times {{10}^{23}}mo{{l}^{-1}}\])

A)

\[\text{40}\,\text{g}\,\text{mo}{{\text{l}}^{\text{-1}}}\]

B)

\[\text{30}\,\text{g}\,\text{mo}{{\text{l}}^{\text{-1}}}\]

C)

\[27\,\text{g}\,\text{mo}{{\text{l}}^{\text{-1}}}\]

D)

\[20\,\text{g}\,\text{mo}{{\text{l}}^{\text{-1}}}\]

View Answer
58) Dipole-induced dipole interactions are present in which of the following pairs?

A)

\[{{\text{H}}_{\text{2}}}\text{O}\] and alcohol

B)

\[\text{C}{{\text{l}}_{\text{2}}}\] and \[\text{CC}{{\text{l}}_{4}}\]

C)

\[\text{HCl}\] and He atoms

D)

\[\text{Si}{{\text{F}}_{4}}\] and He atoms

View Answer
59) A magnetic moment of 1.73 BM will be shown by one among the following

A)

\[{{\text{ }\!\![\!\!\text{ Cu(N}{{\text{H}}_{\text{3}}}{{\text{)}}_{\text{4}}}\text{ }\!\!]\!\!\text{ }}^{\text{2+}}}\]

B)

\[{{\text{ }\!\![\!\!\text{ (NiCN}{{\text{)}}_{\text{4}}}\text{ }\!\!]\!\!\text{ }}^{\text{2-}}}\]

C)

\[\text{TiC}{{\text{l}}_{\text{4}}}\]

D)

\[{{\text{ }\!\![\!\!\text{ CoC}{{\text{l}}_{6}}]}^{4-}}\]

View Answer
60) Roasting of sulphides gives the gas X as a by-product. This is a colour less gas with .choking smell of burnt sulphur and causes great damage to respiratory organs as a result of acid rain. Its aqueous solution is acidic acts as a reducing agent and its acid has never been insolated. The gas X is

A)

\[{{\text{H}}_{\text{2}}}\text{S}\]

B)

\[\text{S}{{\text{O}}_{\text{2}}}\]

C)

\[\text{C}{{\text{O}}_{\text{2}}}\]

D)

\[\text{S}{{\text{O}}_{3}}\]

View Answer
61) Which is the strongest acid in the following?

A)

\[{{\text{H}}_{\text{2}}}\text{S}{{\text{O}}_{4}}\]

B)

\[\text{HCl}{{\text{O}}_{3}}\]

C)

\[\text{HCl}{{\text{O}}_{4}}\]

D)

\[{{\text{H}}_{\text{2}}}\text{S}{{\text{O}}_{3}}\]

View Answer
62) Which   of   the   following   is paramagnetic?

A)

CO

B)

\[\text{O}_{\text{2}}^{\text{-}}\]

C)

\[\text{C}{{\text{N}}^{\text{-}}}\]

D)

\[\text{N}{{\text{O}}^{+}}\]

View Answer
63) Which of the following structure is similar to graphite?

A)

BN

B)

B

C)

\[{{\text{B}}_{\text{4}}}\text{C}\]

D)

\[{{\text{B}}_{\text{2}}}{{\text{H}}_{\text{6}}}\]

View Answer
64) The basic structural unit of silicates is

A)

\[\text{Si}{{\text{O}}^{\text{-}}}\]

B)

\[\text{SiO}_{4}^{4-}\]

C)

\[\text{SiO}_{3}^{2-}\]

D)

\[\text{SiO}_{4}^{2-}\]

View Answer
65) Reaction by which benzaldehyde cannot be prepared?

A)

B)

C)

D)

View Answer
66) Which of the following does not give oxygen on heating?

A)

\[\text{KCl}{{\text{O}}_{\text{3}}}\]

B)

\[\text{Zn(Cl}{{\text{O}}_{\text{3}}}{{)}_{2}}\]

C)

\[{{\text{K}}_{\text{2}}}\text{C}{{\text{r}}_{\text{2}}}{{\text{O}}_{7}}\]

D)

\[{{\text{(N}{{\text{H}}_{\text{4}}}\text{)}}_{\text{2}}}\text{C}{{\text{r}}_{\text{2}}}{{\text{O}}_{\text{7}}}\]

View Answer
67) Which of the following lanthanides ions is diamagnetic? (At. nos. Ce = 58, Sm = 62, Eu = 63, Yb=70)

A)

\[\text{C}{{\text{e}}^{\text{2+}}}\]

B)

\[\text{S}{{\text{m}}^{\text{2+}}}\]

C)

\[\text{E}{{\text{u}}^{\text{2+}}}\]

D)

\[\text{Y}{{\text{b}}^{\text{2+}}}\]

View Answer
68) Identify the correct order of solubility in aqueous medium.

A)

\[\text{CuS}\,\text{}\,\text{Zn}\,\text{}\,\text{N}{{\text{a}}_{\text{2}}}\text{S}\]

B)

\[\text{ZnS}\,\text{}\,\text{N}{{\text{a}}_{\text{2}}}\text{S}\,\,\text{}\,\text{CuS}\]

C)

\[\,\text{N}{{\text{a}}_{\text{2}}}\text{S}\,\,\text{}\,\text{CuS}\,\text{ZnS}\]

D)

\[\,\text{N}{{\text{a}}_{\text{2}}}\text{S}\,\,\text{}\,\text{ZnS}\,\text{}\,\text{CuS}\]

View Answer
69) \[\text{Xe}{{\text{F}}_{\text{2}}}\] is structural with

A)

\[\text{Te}{{\text{F}}_{\text{2}}}\]

B)

\[lCl_{2}^{-}\]

C)

\[SbC{{l}_{3}}\]

D)

\[\text{BaC}{{\text{l}}_{\text{2}}}\]

View Answer
70) An excess of \[\text{AgN}{{\text{O}}_{3}}\] is added to 100 mL of a 0.01 M solution of Dichlorotetraaquachromium\[\text{(III)}\]chloride. The number of moles of \[\text{AgCl}\] precipitate would be

A)

0.001

B)

0.002

C)

0.003

D)

0.01

View Answer
71) Which of these is least likely to act as a Lewis base?

A)

CO

B)

\[{{\text{F}}^{\text{-}}}\]

C)

\[\text{B}{{\text{F}}_{\text{3}}}\]

D)

\[\text{P}{{\text{F}}_{\text{3}}}\]

View Answer
72) \[\text{KMn}{{\text{O}}_{\text{4}}}\] can be prepared from \[{{\text{K}}_{\text{2}}}\text{Mn}{{\text{O}}_{\text{4}}}\] as per reaction\[\text{3MnO}_{4}^{2-}+2{{H}_{2}}O2MnO_{4}^{-}\]\[+Mn{{O}_{2}}+4O{{H}^{-}}\] The reaction can go to completion by removing \[\text{O}{{\text{H}}^{\text{-}}}\] ions by adding

A)

HCI

B)

KOH

C)

\[C{{O}_{2}}\]

D)

\[S{{O}_{2}}\]

View Answer
73) Which of the following is electron deficient?

A)

\[{{(C{{H}_{3}})}_{2}}\]

B)

\[{{(Si{{H}_{3}})}_{2}}\]

C)

\[{{(B{{H}_{3}})}_{2}}\]

D)

\[P{{H}_{3}}\]

View Answer
74) Structure of the compound whose IUPAC name is 3-ethyl-2-hydroxy- 4-methylhex-3-en-5-ynoic acid is

A)

B)

C)

D)

View Answer
75) Which of these is not a monomer for a high molecular mass silicone polymer?

A)

\[\text{MeSiC}{{\text{l}}_{\text{3}}}\]

B)

\[\text{M}{{\text{e}}_{\text{2}}}\text{SiC}{{\text{l}}_{2}}\]

C)

\[\text{M}{{\text{e}}_{3}}\text{SiCl}\]

D)

\[\text{PhSiC}{{\text{l}}_{\text{3}}}\]

View Answer
76) Which of the following statements about the interstitial compounds is incorrect?

A)

They retain metallic conductivity

B)

They are chemically reactive

C)

They are much harder than the pure metal

D)

They have higher melting points than the pure metal

View Answer
77) Which one of the following molecules contain no \[\text{ }\!\!\pi\!\!\text{ -}\]bond?

A)

\[\text{C}{{\text{O}}_{\text{2}}}\]

B)

\[{{\text{H}}_{\text{2}}}\text{O}\]

C)

\[\text{S}{{\text{O}}_{\text{2}}}\]

D)

\[\text{N}{{\text{O}}_{\text{2}}}\]

View Answer
78) Antiseptics and disinfectants either kill or prevent growth of microorganisms. Identify which of the following is not true.

A)

A 0.2% solution of phenol is an antiseptic while 1% solution acts as a disinfectant

B)

Chlorine and iodine are used as strong disinfectants

C)

Dilute solutions of boric acid and hydrogen, peroxide are strong antiseptics

D)

Disinfectants harm the living tissues

View Answer
79) Among the following ethers, which one will produce methyl alcohol on treatment with hot concentrated HI?

A)

\[C{{H}_{3}}-C{{H}_{2}}-C{{H}_{2}}-C{{H}_{2}}-O-C{{H}_{3}}\]

B)

\[C{{H}_{3}}-C{{H}_{2}}-\underset{\begin{smallmatrix} | \\ C{{H}_{3}} \end{smallmatrix}}{\mathop{CH}}\,-O-C{{H}_{3}}\]

C)

\[\text{C}{{\text{H}}_{\text{3}}}\text{-}\underset{\begin{smallmatrix} \text{ }\!\!|\!\!\text{ } \\ \text{C}{{\text{H}}_{\text{3}}} \end{smallmatrix}}{\overset{\begin{smallmatrix} \text{C}{{\text{H}}_{\text{3}}} \\ \text{ }\!\!|\!\!\text{ } \end{smallmatrix}}{\mathop{\text{C}}}}\,\text{-O-C}{{\text{H}}_{\text{3}}}\]

D)

\[\text{C}{{\text{H}}_{\text{3}}}\text{-}\underset{\begin{smallmatrix} \text{ }\!\!|\!\!\text{ } \\ \text{C}{{\text{H}}_{\text{3}}} \end{smallmatrix}}{\mathop{\text{CH}}}\,\text{-C}{{\text{H}}_{\text{2}}}\text{-O-C}{{\text{H}}_{\text{3}}}\]

View Answer
80) Nylon is an example of

A)

polyster

B)

polysaccharide

C)

polyamide

D)

polythene

View Answer
81) The structure of isobutyl group in an organic compound is

A)

B)

\[\text{C}{{\text{H}}_{\text{3}}}\text{-}\underset{\text{ }\!\!|\!\!\text{ }}{\mathop{\text{CH}}}\,\text{-C}{{\text{H}}_{\text{2}}}\text{-C}{{\text{H}}_{\text{3}}}\]

C)

\[C{{H}_{3}}-C{{H}_{2}}-C{{H}_{2}}-C{{H}_{2}}-\]

D)

\[\text{C}{{\text{H}}_{\text{3}}}\text{-}\underset{\begin{smallmatrix} \text{ }\!\!|\!\!\text{ } \\ \text{C}{{\text{H}}_{\text{3}}} \end{smallmatrix}}{\overset{\begin{smallmatrix} \text{C}{{\text{H}}_{\text{3}}} \\ \text{ }\!\!|\!\!\text{ } \end{smallmatrix}}{\mathop{\text{C}}}}\,\text{-}\]

View Answer
82) Nitrobenzene on reaction with cone. \[HN{{O}_{3}}/{{H}_{2}}S{{O}_{4}}\]at \[80-100{}^\circ C\] forms which one of the following products?

A)

1, 2-dinitrobenzene

B)

1, 3-dinitrobenzene

C)

1, 4-dinitrobenzene

D)

1, 2, 4-trinitrobenzene

View Answer
83) Some meta-directing substituents in aromatic substitution are given. Which one is most deactivating?

A)

\[-\text{C}\equiv \text{N}\]

B)

\[-\text{S}{{\text{O}}_{\text{3}}}\text{H}\]

C)

\[-\text{COOH}\]

D)

\[-\text{N}{{\text{O}}_{\text{2}}}\]

View Answer
84) \[6.02\times {{10}^{20}}\]molecules of urea are present in 100 mL of its solution. The concentration of solution is

A)

0.02 M

B)

0.01 M

C)

0.001 M

D)

0.1 M

View Answer
85) Which of the following is a polar molecule?

A)

\[\text{B}{{\text{F}}_{\text{3}}}\]

B)

\[\text{S}{{\text{F}}_{\text{3}}}\]

C)

\[\text{Si}{{\text{F}}_{4}}\]

D)

\[\text{Xe}{{\text{F}}_{4}}\]

View Answer
86) Which is the monomer of neoprene in the following?

A)

\[C{{H}_{2}}=CH-C\equiv CH\]

B)

\[C{{H}_{2}}=\underset{\begin{smallmatrix} | \\ C{{H}_{3}} \end{smallmatrix}}{\mathop{C}}\,-CH=C{{H}_{2}}\]

C)

\[C{{H}_{2}}=\underset{\begin{smallmatrix} | \\ Cl \end{smallmatrix}}{\mathop{C}}\,-CH=C{{H}_{2}}\]

D)

\[C{{H}_{2}}=CH-CH=C{{H}_{2}}\]

View Answer
87) In the reaction, A is

A)

\[HgS{{O}_{4}}/{{H}_{2}}S{{O}_{4}}\]

B)

\[C{{u}_{2}}C{{l}_{2}}\]

C)

\[{{H}_{3}}P{{O}_{2}}\]and\[{{H}_{2}}O\]

D)

\[{{H}^{+}}/{{H}_{2}}O\]

View Answer
88) The radical because it has

A)

6 p-orbitals and 6 unpaired electrons

B)

7 p-orbitals and 6 unpaired electrons

C)

7 p-orbitals and 7 unpaired electrons

D)

6 p-orbitals and 7 unpaired electrons

View Answer
89) The order of stability of the following tatutomeric compound is \[\underset{\text{I}}{\mathop{\text{CH}{{ }_{\text{2}}}\text{=}\overset{\begin{smallmatrix} \text{OH} \\ \text{ }\!\!|\!\!\text{ } \end{smallmatrix}}{\mathop{\text{C}}}\,\text{-C}{{\text{H}}_{\text{2}}}\text{-CH}{{ }_{\text{2}}}-\overset{\begin{smallmatrix} \text{OH} \\ \text{ }\!\!|\!\!\text{ }\!\!|\!\!\text{ } \end{smallmatrix}}{\mathop{\text{C}}}\,\text{-C}{{\text{H}}_{3}}}}\,\]\[\underset{\text{II}}{\mathop{\text{CH}{{ }_{3}}\text{=}\overset{\begin{smallmatrix} \text{OH} \\ \text{ }\!\!|\!\!\text{ } \end{smallmatrix}}{\mathop{\text{C}}}\,\text{-C}{{\text{H}}_{\text{2}}}-\overset{\begin{smallmatrix} \text{OH} \\ \text{ }\!\!|\!\!\text{ }\!\!|\!\!\text{ } \end{smallmatrix}}{\mathop{\text{C}}}\,\text{-C}{{\text{H}}_{3}}}}\,\]\[\underset{\text{III}}{\mathop{\text{C}{{\text{H}}_{\text{3}}}\text{-}\overset{\begin{smallmatrix} \text{OH} \\ \text{ }\!\!|\!\!\text{ } \end{smallmatrix}}{\mathop{\text{C}}}\,\text{=CH-}\overset{\begin{smallmatrix} \text{O} \\ \text{ }\!\!|\!\!\text{ }\!\!|\!\!\text{ } \end{smallmatrix}}{\mathop{\text{C}}}\,\text{-C}{{\text{H}}_{\text{3}}}}}\,\]

A)

\[I>II>III\]

B)

\[III>II>I\]

C)

\[II>I>III\]

D)

\[II>III>I\]

View Answer
90) Which of the following compounds will not undergo Friedal-Crafts reaction easily?

A)

Cumene

B)

Xylene

C)

Nitrobenzene

D)

Toluene

View Answer
91) Select the wrong statement.

A)

Isogametes are similar in structure, function and behaviour

B)

An isogametes differ either in structure, function and behaviour

C)

In oomycetes female gamete is smaller and motile, while male gamete is larger and non-motile

D)

Chlamydomonas exhibits both isogamy and anisogamy and Fucus shows oogamy

View Answer
92) Which one of the following is not a correct statement?

A)

Herbarium houses dried, pressed and preserved plant specimens

B)

Botanical gardens have collection of living plants for reference

C)

A museum has collection of photographs of plants and animals

D)

Key is a taxonomic aid for identification of Specimens

View Answer
93) Isogamous condition with non-flagellated gametes is found in

A)

Chlamydomonas

B)

Spirogyra

C)

Volvox

D)

Fucus

View Answer
94) Besides paddy fields, cyan bacteria are also found inside vegetative part of

A)

Pinus

B)

Cycas

C)

Equisetum

D)

Psilotum

View Answer
95) Megasporangium is equivalent to

A)

embryo sac

B)

fruit

C)

nucellus

D)

ovule

View Answer

96) Read the following statements (IV) and answer the question which follows them

I. In liverworts, mosses and ferns gametophytes are free living.

II. Gymnosperms and some ferns are heterospores.

III. Sexual reproduction in Fucus, Volvox and Albugo is oogamous.

IV. The saprophyte in liverworts is more elaborate than that in mosses.

How many of the above statements are correct?

One

Two

Three

Four

View Answer

97) Among bitter gourd, mustard, brinjal, pumpkin, China rose, lupin, cucumber, sunnhemp, gram, guava, bean, chilli, plum, Petunia, tomato, rose, Withania, potato, onion, aloe and tulip, how many plants have hypogynous flower?

A)

Six

B)

Ten

C)

Fifteen

D)

Eighteen

View Answer
98) Interfascicular cambium develops from the cells of

A)

medullary rays

B)

xylem parenchyma

C)

endodermis

D)

pericycle

View Answer
99) In China rose the flowers are

A)

actinomorphic, hypogynous with twisted aestivation

B)

actinomorphic, epigynous with valvate aestivation

C)

zygonnorphic, hypogynous with imbricate aestivation

D)

zygomorphic, epigynous with twisted aestivation

View Answer
100) Lenticels are involved in

A)

transpiration

B)

gaseous exchange

C)

food transport

D)

photosynthesis

View Answer
101) Age of a tree can be estimated by

A)

its height and girth

B)

biomass

C)

number of annual rings

D)

diameter of its heartwood

View Answer
102) Seed coat is not thin, membranous in

A)

maize

B)

coconut

C)

groundnut

D)

gram

View Answer
103) Transition state structure of the substrate formed during an enzymatic reaction is

A)

transient but stable

B)

permanent but unstable

C)

transient and unstable

D)

permanent and stable

View Answer
104) A phosphoglyceride is always made up of

A)

only a saturated fatty acid esterifies to a glycerol molecule to which a phosphate group is also attached

B)

only an unsaturated fatty acid esterifies to a glycerol molecule to which a phosphate group is also attached

C)

a saturated or unsaturated fatty acid esterifies to a glycerol molecule to which a phosphate group is also attached

D)

a saturated or unsaturated fatty acid esterifies to a phosphate group, which is also attached to a glycerol molecule

View Answer
105) Pigment-containing membranous extensions in some cyan bacteria are

A)

heterocyst

B)

basal bodies

C)

pneumatophores

D)

chromatophores

View Answer
106) A major site for synthesis of lipids is

A)

RER

B)

SER

C)

symplast

D)

nucleoplasm

View Answer
107) The complex formed by a pair of synapsed homologous chromosomes is called

A)

equatorial plate

B)

kinetochore

C)

bivalent

D)

axon me

View Answer
108) The three boxes in this diagram represent the three major biosynthetic pathways in aerobic respiration. Arrows numbered 4, 8 and 12 can all be

A)

NADH

B)

ATP

C)

\[{{H}_{2}}O\]

D)

\[FA{{D}^{+}}orFAD{{H}_{2}}\]

View Answer
109) The most abundant intracellular cation is

A)

\[N{{a}^{+}}\]

B)

\[C{{a}^{2+}}\]

C)

\[{{H}^{+}}\]

D)

\[{{K}^{+}}\]

View Answer
110) During seed germination its stored food is mobilized by

A)

ethylene

B)

cytokinin

C)

ABA

D)

gibberellin

View Answer
111) Which of the following criteria does not pertain to facilitated transport?

A)

Requirement of special membrane proteins

B)

High selectivity

C)

Transport saturation

D)

Uphill transport

View Answer
112) The first stable product of fixation of atmospheric nitrogen in leguminous plants is

A)

\[NO_{2}^{-}\]

B)

ammonia

C)

\[NO_{3}^{-}\]

D)

glutamate

View Answer
113) Which of the metabolites is common to respiration mediated breakdown of fats, carbohydrates and proteins?

A)

Glucose-6-phosphate

B)

Fructose 1, 6-bisphosphate

C)

Pyruvic acid

D)

Acetyl Co-A

View Answer
114) Which one of the following statement is correct?

A)

Hard outer layer of pollen is called intone

B)

Sporogenous tissue is haploid

C)

Endothelium produces the microspores

D)

Tarentum nourishes the developing pollen

View Answer
115) Product of sexual reproduction generally generates

A)

longer viability of seeds

B)

prolonged dormancy

C)

new genetic combination leading to variation

D)

large biomass

View Answer
116) Meiosis takes place in

A)

Meiocyte

B)

Conidia

C)

Gemmule

D)

Megaspore

View Answer
117) Advantage of cleistogamy is

A)

higher genetic variability

B)

more vigorous offspring

C)

no dependence on pollinators

D)

vivipary

View Answer
118) Monoecious plant of Chara shows occurrence of

A)

antheridiophore and archegoniophore on the same plant

B)

stamen and carpel on the same plant

C)

upper antheridium and lower oogonium on the same plant

D)

upper oogonium and lower antheridium on the same plant

View Answer
119) Perisperm differs from endosperm in

A)

being a haploid tissue

B)

having no reserve food

C)

being a diploid tissue

D)

its formation by fusion of secondary nucleus with several sperms

View Answer
120) Which of the following statements is not true of two genes that show 50% recombination frequency?

A)

the genes may be on different chromosomes

B)

the genes are tightly linked

C)

the genes show independent assortment

D)

if the genes are present on the same chromosome, they undergo more than one crossovers in every meiosis

View Answer
121) Variation in gene frequencies within populations can occur by chance rather than by natural selection. This is referred to as

A)

genetic flow

B)

genetic drift

C)

random mating

D)

genetic load

View Answer
122) If two persons with AB' blood group marry and have sufficiently large number of children, these children could be classified as A' blood group : AB' blood group : 'B' blood group in 1 : 2 : 1 ratio. Modern technique of protein electrophoresis reveals presence of both A' and 'B' type proteins in AB' blood group individuals. This is an example of

A)

co dominance

B)

incomplete dominance

C)

partial dominance

D)

complete dominance

View Answer
123) The process by which organisms with different evolutionary history evolve similar phenotypic adaptations in response to a common environmental challenge, is called

A)

natural selection

B)

convergent evolution

C)

non-random evolution

D)

adaptive radiation

View Answer
124) The tendency of population to remain in genetic equilibrium may be disturbed by

A)

random mating

B)

lack of migration

C)

lack of mutations

D)

lack of random mating

View Answer
125) Which of the following Bt crops is being grown in India by the farmers?

A)

Maize

B)

Cotton

C)

Brinjal

D)

Soyabean

View Answer
126) A good producer of citric acid is

A)

Aspergillums

B)

Pseudomonas

C)

Clostridium

D)

Saccharomyces

View Answer
127) DNA fragments generated by the restriction endonucleases in a chemical reaction can be separated by

A)

centrifugation

B)

polymerase chain reaction

C)

electrophoresis

D)

restriction mapping

View Answer
128) Which of the following is not correctly matched for the organism and its cell wall degrading enzyme?

A)

Bacteria - Lysozyme

B)

Plant cells - Cellulase

C)

Algae - Methylase

D)

Fungi        - Chitinase

View Answer
129) The colonies of recombinant bacteria    appear white in contrast to blue colonies of non-recombinant bacteria because of

A)

Non-recombinant   bacteria   containing \[\text{ }\!\!\beta\!\!\text{ -}\]galactosidase

B)

Inspectional inactivation of \[\alpha \text{-}\]galactosidasein non-recombinant bacteria

C)

Insertional inactivation of \[\alpha \text{-}\]galactosidase in recombinant bacteria

D)

Inactivation of glycosidase enzyme in recombinant bacteria

View Answer
130) Which of the following are likely to be present in deep sea water?

A)

Archaebacteria

B)

Eubacteria

C)

Blue-green algae

D)

Saprophytic fungi

View Answer
131) Natural reservoir of phosphorus is

A)

sea water

B)

animal bones

C)

rock

D)

fossils

View Answer
132) Secondary productivity is rate of formation of new organic matter by

A)

producer

B)

parasite

C)

consumer

D)

decomposer

View Answer
133) Which one of the following is not used for ex situ plant conservation?

A)

Field gene banks

B)

Seed banks

C)

Shifting cultivation

D)

Botanical gardens

View Answer
134) Kyoto Protocol was endorsed at

A)

CoP-3

B)

CoP-5

C)

CoP-6

D)

CoP-4

View Answer
135) Which of the following represent maximum number of species among global biodiversity?

A)

Algae

B)

Lichens

C)

Fungi

D)

Mosses and ferns

View Answer
136) Match the name of the animal (Column I) with one characteristics (Column II) and the phylum/class (Column III) to which it belongs

A)

Column I - Petromyzon, Column II - Ectoparasite, Column III - Cyclostomata

B)

Column I - Ichthyophis, Column II - Terrestrial, Column III - Reptilia

C)

Column I - Limulus, Column II - Body covered by chitinous exoskeleton , Column III - Pisces

D)

Column I - Adamsia, Column II - Radially symmetrical , Column III - Porifera

View Answer
137) Which of the following are correctly matched with respect to their taxonomic classification?

A)

Flying fish, cuttlefish, silverfish - Pisces

B)

Centipede, millipede, spider, scorpion -Insecta

C)

House fly, butterfly, tse-tse fly, silverfish- Insecta

D)

Spiny anteater, sea urchin, sea cucumber Echinodermata

View Answer
138) Which group of animals belong to the same phylum?

A)

Malarial parasite, Amoeba, mosquito

B)

Earthworm, pinworm, tapeworm

C)

Prawn, scorpion, Locusta

D)

Sponge, sea anemone, starfish

View Answer
139) One of the representative of Phylum-Arthropoda is

A)

cuttlefish

B)

silverfish

C)

pufferfish

D)

flying fish

View Answer
140) The H-zone in the skeletal muscle fibre is due to

A)

the absence of myofibrils in the central portion of A-band

B)

the central gap between myosin filaments in the A-band

C)

the central gap between actin filaments extending through myosin filaments in the A-band

D)

extension of myosin filaments in the central portion of the A-band

View Answer
141) What external changes are visible after the last moult of a cockroach nymph?

A)

Mandibles become harder

B)

Anal cerci develop

C)

Both fore wings and hind wings develop

D)

Labium develops

View Answer
142) The Golgi complex plays a major role

A)

in trapping the light and transforming it into chemical energy

B)

in digesting proteins and carbohydrates

C)

as energy transferring organelles

D)

in post translational modification of proteins and glycosidation of lipids

View Answer
143) Which one of the following organelle in the figure correctly matches with its function?

A)

Rough endoplasmic reticulum, formation of glycoprotein?s

B)

Golgi apparatus, protein synthesis

C)

Golgi apparatus, formation of glycolipids

D)

Rough endoplasmic reticulum, protein synthesis

View Answer
144) Macromolecule chitin is

A)

nitrogen containing polysaccharide

B)

phosphorus containing polysaccharide

C)

sulphur containing polysaccharide

D)

simple polysaccharide

View Answer
145) The essential chemical components of many coenzymes are

A)

proteins

B)

nucleic acids

C)

carbohydrates

D)

vitamins

View Answer
146) A stage in cell division is shown in the figure. Select the answer which gives correct identification of the stage with its characteristics

A)

Telophase   - Nuclear      envelope reforms, Golgi complex reforms

B)

Late        - Chromosomes    move anaphase        away from equatorial plate, Golgi complex not present

C)

Cytokinesis - Cell    plate   formed, mitochondria distributed between two daughter cells

D)

Telophase   - Endoplasmic reticulum and   nucleolus   not reformed yet

View Answer
147) Select the correct match of the digested products in humans given in column I with their absorption site and mechanism in column II.

A)

Column I - Glycine and glucose, Column II - Small intestine and active absorption

B)

Column I - Fructose and \[N{{a}^{+}}\], Column II - Small intestine passive absorption

C)

Column I - Glycerol and fatty acids, Column II - Duodenum and move as chi omicrons

D)

Column I - Cholesterol and maltose, Column II - Large intestine and active absorption

View Answer
148) A pregnant female delivers a baby, who suffers from stunted growth, mental retardation low intelligence quotient and abnormal skin. This is the result of

A)

deficiency of iodine in diet

B)

low secretion of growth hormone

C)

cancer of the thyroid gland

D)

over secretion of pars distalis

View Answer
149) The figure shows a diagrammatic view of human respiratory system with labels A, B, C and D. Select the option, which gives correct identification and main function and/or characteristic.

A)

A-trachea-long tube supported by complete cartilaginous rings for conducting inspired air

B)

B-pleural membrane-surround ribs on both sides to provide cushion against rubbing

C)

C-alveoli-thin walled vascular bag-like structures for exchange of gases

D)

D-lower end of lungs-diaphragm pulls it down during inspiration

View Answer
150) Figure shows schematic plan of blood circulation in human with labels A to D. Identify the label and give its function/s

A)

A-pulmonary vein-takes impure blood from body-parts, \[p{{O}_{2}}=60\,mmHg\]

B)

B-pulmonary artery-takes blood from heart to lungs, \[p{{O}_{2}}=90\,mmHg\]

C)

C-vena cava-takes blood from body parts to right auricle, \[pC{{O}_{2}}=45\,mmHg\]

D)

D-dorsal aorta-takes blood from heart to body parts, \[p{{O}_{2}}=95\,mmHg\]

View Answer
151) The diagram given here is the standard EGG of a normal person. The P-wave represents the

A)

contraction of both the atria

B)

initiation of the ventricular contraction

C)

beginning of the systole

D)

end of systole

View Answer
152) Figure shows human urinary system with structures labelled A to D. Select option, which correctly identifies them and gives their characteristics and/of functions

A)

A-adrenal gland-located at the anterior part of kidney. Secrete catecholamines, which stimulate glycogen breakdown

B)

B-pelvis-broad funnel shaped space inner to hilum, directly connected to loops of Henie

C)

C-mediulla-inner zone of kidney and contains complete nephrons

D)

D-cortex-outer part of kidney and do not contain any part of nephrons

View Answer
153) Select the correct statement with respect to locomotion in humans

A)

A decreased level of progesterone causes osteoporosis in old people

B)

Accumulation of uric acid crystals in joints causes their inflammation

C)

The vertebral column has 10 thoracic vertebrae

D)

The joint between adjacent vertebrae is a fibrous joint

View Answer
154) The characteristics and an example of a synovial joint in humans is

A)

Characteristics - Fluid cartilage between two bones, limited movements, Examples - Knee joints

B)

Characteristics - Fluid filled between two joints, provides cushion, Examples - Skull bones

C)

Characteristics - Fluid filled synovial cavity between two bones, Examples - Joint between atlas and axis

D)

Characteristics - Lymph filled between two bones, limited movement, Examples - Gliding joint between carpals

View Answer
155) A diagram showing axon terminal and synapse is given. Identify correctly at least two of A-D

A)

A-Receptor C-Synaptic vesicles

B)

B-Synaptic connection D-K+

C)

A-Neurotransmitter S-Synaptic cleft

D)

C-Neurotransmitter D-Ca2+

View Answer
156) Parts A, B, C and D of the human eyes are shown in the diagram. Select the option, which gives correct identification along with its functions/characteristics

A)

A-retina-contains photoreceptors-rods and cones

B)

B-blind spot-has only a few rods and cones

C)

C-aqueous chamber-reflects the light, which does not pass through the lens

D)

D-choroidits anterior part forms ciliary body

View Answer
157) Which of the following statement is correct in relation to the endocrine system?

A)

Adenohypophysis is under direct neural regulation of the hypothalamus

B)

Organs in the body like gastrointestinal tract, heart, kidney and liver do not produce any hormones

C)

Non-nutrient chemicals produced by the body in trace amount that act as intercellular messenger are known as hormones

D)

Releasing and inhibitory hormones are produced by the pituitary gland

View Answer
158) Select the answer which correctly matches the endocrine gland with the hormone it secretes and its function/deficiency symptom

A)

Endocrine gland Hormone Function/deficiency symptoms

Anterior pituitary Oxytocin Stimulates uterus contraction during child birth

B)

Endocrine gland Hormone Function/deficiency symptoms

Posterior pituitary Growth Hormone (GH) Over secretion stimulates abnormal growth

C)

Endocrine gland Hormone Function/deficiency symptoms

Thyroid gland Thyroxine Lack of iodine in diet results in goiter

D)

Endocrine gland Hormone Function/deficiency symptoms

Corpus Iuteum Testosterone Stimulates spermatogenesis

View Answer
159) What is the correct sequence of sperm formation?

A)

Spermatid, Spermatocyte, Spermatogonia, Spermatozoa

B)

Spermatogonia, Spermatocyte, Spermatozoa, Spermatid

C)

Spermatogonia, Spermatozoa, Spermatocyte, Spermatid

D)

Spermatogonia, Spermatocyte, Spermatid, Spermatozoa

View Answer
160) Menstrual flow occurs due to lack of

A)

progesterone

B)

FSH

C)

oxytocin

D)

vasopressin

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161) Which one of the following is not the function of placenta? It

A)

facilitates supply of oxygen and nutrients to embryo

B)

secretes estrogen

C)

facilitates removal of carbon dioxide and waste material from embryo

D)

secretes oxytocin during parturition

View Answer
162) One of the legal methods of birth control is

A)

abortion by taking an appropriate medicine

B)

by abstaining from coitus from day 10-17 of the menstrual cycle

C)

by having coitus at the time of day break

D)

by a premature ejaculation during coitus

View Answer
163) Which of the following cannot be detected in a developing foetus by amniocentesis?

A)

Klinefelter's syndrome

B)

Sex of the foetus

C)

Down's syndrome

D)

Jaundice

View Answer
164) Artificial insemination means

A)

transfer of sperms of a healthy donor to a test-tube containing ova

B)

transfer of sperms of husband to a test-tube containing ova

C)

artificial introduction of sperms of a healthy donor into the vagina

D)

introduction of sperms of healthy donor directly into the ovary

View Answer
165) Which Mendelian idea is depicted by a cross in which the \[{{\text{F}}_{\text{1}}}\] generation resembles both the parents?

A)

Incomplete dominance

B)

Law of dominance

C)

Inheritance of one gene

D)

Co dominance

View Answer
166) The incorrect statement with regard to hemophilia is

A)

it is a sex-linked disease

B)

it is a recessive disease

C)

it is a dominant disease

D)

a single protein involved in the clotting of blood is affected

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167) If both parents are carriers for thalassemia, which is an autosomal recessive disorder, what are the chances of pregnancy resulting in an affected child?

A)

No chance

B)

50%

C)

25%

D)

100%

View Answer
168) The diagram shows an important concept in the genetic implication of DNA. Fill in the blanks A to C

A)

A-transcription, B-replication, C-James Watson

B)

A-translation, B-transcription, C-Erevin Chargaff

C)

A-transcription, ^-translation, C-Francis Crick

D)

A-translation, 6-extension, C-Rosalind Franklin

View Answer
169) Which enzyme/s will be produced in a cell in which there is a non-sense mutation in the lac Y gene?

A)

\[\text{ }\!\!\beta\!\!\text{ -}\]galactosidase

B)

Lactose permease

C)

Transacetylase

D)

Lactose permease and transacetylase

View Answer
170) According to Darwin, the organic evolution is due to

A)

intraspecific competition

B)

interspecific competition

C)

competition within closely related species

D)

reduced feeding efficiency in one species due to the presence of interfering species

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171) The eyes of Octopus and eyes of cat show different patterns of structure, yet they perform similar function. This is an example of

A)

homologous organs that have evolved due to convergent evolution

B)

homologous organs that have evolved due to divergent evolution

C)

analogous organs that have evolved due to convergent evolution

D)

analogous organs that have evolved due to divergent evolution

View Answer
172) Infection of Ascaris usually occurs by

A)

drinking water containing egg of Ascaris

B)

eating imperfectly cooked port

C)

tse-tse fly

D)

mosquito bite

View Answer
173) The cell-mediated immunity inside the human body is carried out by

A)

T-lymphocytes

B)

B-lymphocytes

C)

thrombocytes

D)

erythrocytes

View Answer
174) In plant breeding programmers, the entire collection (of plants/seeds) having all the diverse alleles for all genes in a given crop is called

A)

selection of superior recombinants

B)

cross-hybridisation among the selected parents

C)

evaluation and selection of parents

D)

germplasm collection

View Answer
175) During sewage treatment, biogases are produced, which include

A)

methane, hydrogen sulphide and carbon dioxide

B)

methane, oxygen and hydrogen sulphide

C)

hydrogen sulphide, methane and sulphur dioxide

D)

hydrogen sulphide, nitrogen and methane

View Answer
176) A biologist studied the population of rats in a barn. He found that the average nasality was 250, average mortality 240, immigration 20 and emigration 30. The net increase in population is

A)

10

B)

15

C)

05

D)

Zero

View Answer
177) Which one of the following processes during decomposition is correctly described?

A)

Fragmentation-Carried out by organisms such as earthworm

B)

Humiliation-Leads to the accumulation of a dark coloured substance humus, which undergoes microbial action at a very fast rate

C)

Catabolism-Last step in the decomposition under fully anaerobic condition

D)

Leaching-Water soluble inorganic nutrients rise to the top layers of soil

View Answer
178) A sedentary sea anemone gets attached to the shell lining of hermit crab. The association is

A)

ectoparasitism

B)

symbiosis

C)

commensalism

D)

amensalism

View Answer
179) Global warming can be controlled by reducing deforestation, cutting down use of fossil fuel

A)

Reducing deforestation, cutting down use of fossil fuel

B)

Reducing reforestation, increasing the use of fossil fuel

C)

Increasing deforestation, slowing down the growth of human population

D)

Increasing deforestation, reducing efficiency of energy usage

View Answer
180) The Air Prevention and Control of Pollution Act came into force in

A)

1975

B)

1981

C)

1985

D)

1990

View Answer