question_answer 1) Which of the following is a true statement?
A)
The total entropy of thermally interacting systems is conserved
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B)
Carnot engine has 100% efficiency
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C)
Total entropy does not change in a reversible process
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D)
Total entropy in an irreversible process can either increase or decrease
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question_answer 2) Which of the following is not related to the Bernoullis principle?
A)
Rise of a liquid column inside a capillary
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B)
Operation of a venturimeter
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C)
Lift provided to an aeroplane by the air
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D)
Propelling force provided to an aeroplane by its propellers
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question_answer 3) A steel wire can support a maximum load of w before reaching its elastic limit. How much load can another wire, made out of identical steel, but with a radius one half the radius of the first wire, support before reaching its elastic limit?
A)
\[w\]
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B)
\[\frac{w}{2}\]
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C)
\[\frac{w}{4}\]
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D)
\[4w\]
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question_answer 4) Which of the following laws of thermodynamics forms the basis for the definition of temperature?
A)
First law
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B)
Zerothlaw
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C)
Second law
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D)
Third law
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question_answer 5) The air pressure inside a soap bubble of radius R exceeds the outside air pressure by 10 Pa. By how much will the pressure inside a bubble of radius 2R exceed the outside air pressure?
A)
20 Pa
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B)
40 Pa
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C)
2.5 Pa
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D)
5 Pa
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question_answer 6) Taking the radius of the earth to be 6400 km, by what percentage will the acceleration due to gravity at a height of 100 km from the surface of the earth differ from that on the surface of the earth?
A)
About 1.5%
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B)
About 5%
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C)
About 8%
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D)
About 3%
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question_answer 7) Which of the following statements is true for the three types of magnetism - para, dia and ferro?
A)
Paramagnetism is associated with negative susceptibility and dia and ferromagnetism with positive susceptibility
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B)
Diamagnetism is generally weakest of the three and is associated with negative susceptibility
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C)
Ferromagnetism is the strongest of the three and is associated with negative susceptibility
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D)
All three are associated with positive susceptibility, diamagnetism is the weakest form of magnetism and ferromagnetism is the strongest form
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question_answer 8) The molecules in an ideal gas at\[27{}^\circ C\]have a certain mean velocity. At what approximate temperature, will the mean velocity be doubled?
A)
\[54{}^\circ C\]
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B)
\[327{}^\circ C\]
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C)
\[1200{}^\circ C\]
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D)
\[927{}^\circ C\]
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question_answer 9) Which of the two (i) compressing a gas isothermally until its volume is reduced by half (ii) compressing the same gas adiabatically until its volume is reduced by half, will require more work to be done?
A)
(i)
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B)
(ii)
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C)
Both will require the same amount of work
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D)
It will depend upon the nature of the gas
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question_answer 10) Three coplanar, parallel, long straight wires are equally spaced, that is, the distance between each pair of successive wires is the same. The first and the third wire carry currents of 1 A each, in the same direction. What must be the current in the second wire (wire in the middle), so that the other two wires do not feel any net force?
A)
0.25 A in opposite direction to those in the first and the third
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B)
0.5 A in the same direction as those in the first and the third
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C)
0.5 A in the opposite direction to those in the first and the third
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D)
0.25 A in the same direction as those in the first and the third
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question_answer 11) A conducting rod of length L is moving in a uniform magnetic field with a velocity v without rotation. The velocity of the rod is perpendicular to the rod, and the motion of the rod is confined to a plane perpendicular to the magnetic field. What is the induced emf developed across the rod?
A)
\[BLv\]
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B)
\[B{{v}^{2}}L\]
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C)
\[\frac{BL}{v}\]
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D)
\[B{{L}^{2}}v\]
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question_answer 12) What is the resonance frequency of a driven. L-C-R oscillator?
A)
\[\frac{1}{LC}\]
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B)
\[\frac{1}{2\pi LC}\]
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C)
\[{{(LC)}^{-1/2}}\]
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D)
\[{{(2\pi LC)}^{-1/2}}\]
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question_answer 13) A bar magnet is placed upright on a floor (so that the axis of the magnet is vertical). A copper ring is held above the magnet, with its plane horizontal and released. The copper ring falls in such a manner that its axis always coincides with that of/ the magnet. What will be the acceleration with which the ring will fall? Acceleration due to gravity is\[10\text{ }m/{{s}^{2}}\].
A)
\[10\text{ }m/{{s}^{2}}\]
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B)
less than\[10\text{ }m/{{s}^{2}}\]
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C)
more than\[10\text{ }m/{{s}^{2}}\]
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D)
the answer will depend upon which pole of the magnet is up
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question_answer 14) A short solenoid of radius a, number of turns per unit length n^ and length L is kept coaxially inside a very long solenoid of radius b, number of turns per unit length\[{{n}_{2}}\]. What is the mutual inductance of the system?
A)
\[{{\mu }_{0}}\pi {{b}^{2}}{{n}_{1}}{{n}_{2}}L\]
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B)
\[{{\mu }_{0}}\pi {{a}^{2}}{{n}_{1}}{{n}_{2}}{{L}^{2}}\]
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C)
\[{{\mu }_{0}}\pi {{a}^{2}}{{n}_{1}}{{n}_{2}}L\]
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D)
\[{{\mu }_{0}}\pi {{b}^{2}}{{n}_{1}}{{n}_{2}}{{L}^{2}}\]
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question_answer 15) Which of the following is a semiconductor?
A)
\[F{{e}_{2}}{{O}_{3}}\]
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B)
\[Si{{O}_{2}}\]
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C)
\[GaAs\]
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D)
\[CuO\]
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question_answer 16) What is the order of the reverse saturation current before break down in a Zener diode?
A)
Ampere
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B)
Milli-ampere
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C)
It depends on the applied voltage
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D)
Micro-ampere
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question_answer 17)
Which logic gate does the following truth table represent? Input A Input B Input Q 0 0 1 0 1 1 1 0 1 1 1 0
A)
NAND
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B)
AND
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C)
OR
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D)
NOR
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question_answer 18) What is the equivalent expression of the decimal number 212 in binary number system?
A)
11000100
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B)
10010100
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C)
11010100
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D)
11010110
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question_answer 19) Why do we need carrier wave of high frequency to transmit audio signal over long distances?
A)
High frequency carrier wave can propagate with a faster speed
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B)
High frequency carrier waves offer availability of higher transmission bandwidth
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C)
High frequency carrier waves offer availability of lower transmission bandwidth
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D)
High frequency carrier waves is easy to produce
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question_answer 20) What does the Poynting vector represent?
A)
Power flowing across unit area in an electromagnetic field
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B)
Charge flowing across unit area per unit time in an electromagnetic field
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C)
Momentum flowing across unit area per unit time in an electromagnetic field
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D)
Angular momentum flowing across unit area per unit time in an electromagnetic field
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question_answer 21) In television transmission what type of modulation is used?
A)
Only amplitude modulation
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B)
Only frequency modulation
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C)
Both amplitude and frequency modulation
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D)
TV signal does not need any kind of modulation
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question_answer 22) Which of the following is true for any collision?
A)
Both linear momentum and kinetic energy are conserved
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B)
Neither linear momentum nor kinetic energy may be conserved
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C)
Linear momentum is always conserved, however, kinetic energy may or may not be conserved
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D)
Kinetic energy is always conserved, but linear momentum may or may not be conserved
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question_answer 23) A uniform rod of length L and mass M is held vertical, with its bottom end pivoted to the floor. The rod falls under gravity, freely turning about the pivot. If acceleration due to gravity is g, what is the instantaneous angular speed of the rod when it makes an angle\[60{}^\circ \]with the vertical?
A)
\[{{\left( \frac{g}{L} \right)}^{1/2}}\]
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B)
\[{{\left( \frac{3g}{4L} \right)}^{1/2}}\]
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C)
\[{{\left( \frac{3\sqrt{3}g}{2L} \right)}^{1/2}}\]
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D)
\[{{\left( \frac{3g}{2L} \right)}^{1/2}}\]
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question_answer 24) A cheetah, weighing 150 kg, chases a deer, weighing 30 kg, in a straight path. The speed of the cheetah is 20 m/s and that of the deer is 25 m/s. The approximate speed of the centre of mass of the pair is
A)
21 m/s
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B)
24 m/s
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C)
26 m/s
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D)
zero
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question_answer 25) A tennis racket can be idealized as a uniform ring of mass M and radius R, attached to a uniform rod also of mass M and length L. The rod and the ring are coplanar and the line of the rod passes through the centre of the ring. The moment of inertia of the object (racket) about an axis through the centre of the ring and perpendicular to its plane is
A)
\[\frac{1}{12}M(6{{R}^{2}}+{{L}^{2}})\]
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B)
\[\frac{1}{12}M(18{{R}^{2}}+{{L}^{2}})\]
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C)
\[\frac{1}{3}M(6{{R}^{2}}+{{L}^{2}}+3LR)\]
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D)
None of the above
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question_answer 26) How long will a satellite, placed in a circular orbit of radius that is\[{{\left( \frac{1}{4} \right)}^{th}}\]the radius of a geostationary satellite, take to complete one revolution around the earth?
A)
12 h
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B)
6 h
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C)
3 h
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D)
4 days
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question_answer 27) A rocket is fired from inside a deep mine, so as to escape the earths gravitational field. The minimum velocity to be rocket is
A)
exactly the same as the escape velocity of fire from the earths surface
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B)
a little more than the escape velocity of fire from the earths surface
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C)
a little less than the escape velocity of fire from the earths surface
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D)
Infinity
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question_answer 28) Which of the following is the correct Kirchhoffs loop rule?
A)
The algebraic sum of the currents meeting at a junction is zero
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B)
The algebraic sum of potential drops, across all resistors in a circuit is zero
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C)
The algebraic sum of the currents across all the resistors in a circuit is zero
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D)
The algebraic sum of potential drops across all resistors plus those across sources in a circuit is zero
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question_answer 29) What are the dimensions of electrical conductivity?
A)
\[[M{{L}^{-3}}{{T}^{3}}{{I}^{2}}]\]
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B)
\[[{{M}^{-1}}{{L}^{3}}{{T}^{2}}{{I}^{3}}]\]
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C)
\[[{{M}^{-1}}{{L}^{-2}}{{T}^{3}}{{I}^{2}}]\]
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D)
\[[{{M}^{-1}}{{L}^{-3}}{{T}^{3}}I]\]
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question_answer 30) A coil has resistance\[25.00\,\Omega \]and\[25.17\,\Omega \]at \[20{}^\circ C\]and\[35{}^\circ C\]respectively. What is the temperature coefficient of resistance?
A)
\[4.545\times {{10}^{-7}}/{}^\circ C\]
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B)
\[4.545\times {{10}^{-3}}/{}^\circ C\]
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C)
\[4.545\times {{10}^{-2}}/{}^\circ C\]
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D)
\[4.545\times {{10}^{-5}}/{}^\circ C\]
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question_answer 31) An electron and a proton, both having the same kinetic energy, enter a region of uniform magnetic field, in a plane perpendicular to the field. If their masses are denoted by\[{{m}_{e}}\]and\[{{m}_{p}}\] respectively, then the ratio of the radii (electron to proton) of their circular orbits is
A)
\[\sqrt{\frac{{{m}_{p}}}{{{m}_{e}}}}\]
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B)
\[\sqrt{\frac{{{m}_{e}}}{{{m}_{p}}}}\]
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C)
\[\frac{{{m}_{e}}}{{{m}_{p}}}\]
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D)
\[1\]
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question_answer 32) In using Amperes law to find the magnetic field of a straight, long solenoid, the loop (Amperian loop) that is taken is
A)
a circular loop, coaxial with the solenoid
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B)
a rectangular loop in a plane perpendicular to the axis of the solenoid
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C)
a rectangular loop in a plane containing the axis of the solenoid, the loop being totally within the solenoid
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D)
a rectangular loop in a plane containing the axis of the solenoid, the loop being partly inside the solenoid and partly outside it
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question_answer 33) A rectangular coil, of sides 2 cm and 3 cm respectively, has 10 turns in it. It carries a current of 1 A, and is placed in a uniform magnetic field of 0.2 T in such a manner that its plane makes an angle\[60{}^\circ \]with the field direction. The torque on the loop is
A)
\[6.0\times {{10}^{-4}}N-m\]
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B)
\[6.0\times {{10}^{-5}}N-m\]
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C)
\[1.2\times {{10}^{-3}}N-m\]
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D)
6.0 N-m
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question_answer 34) Which of the following facts about the photoelectric effect can be understood without invoking the quantum concept of light propagation?
A)
The rate of photoelectrons emission, when they are emitted, increases with the intensity of light used
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B)
There is a threshold frequency, below which no photoelectrons are emitted, no matter how long the light is thrown on the metallic surface
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C)
Once the frequency of light is more than the threshold frequency, photoelectrons are emitted almost instantaneously, no matter how weak the light intensity is
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D)
For each frequency of light, exceeding the threshold frequency, there is a maximum kinetic energy of the emitted electrons
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question_answer 35) Consider the four gases-hydrogen, oxygen, nitrogen and helium, at the same temperature. Arrange them in the increasing order of the de-Broglie wavelengths of their molecules
A)
hydrogen, helium, nitrogen, oxygen
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B)
oxygen, nitrogen, hydrogen, helium
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C)
oxygen, nitrogen, helium, hydrogen
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D)
nitrogen, oxygen, helium, hydrogen
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question_answer 36) The half-life of\[^{60}Co\] is approximately 5.25 years. In a sample containing 1 g of freshly prepared\[^{60}Co,\]how much of the isotope will be left after 21 years?
A)
125 mg
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B)
62.5 mg
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C)
Nothing will be left
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D)
31.25 mg
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question_answer 37) Which of the following is true of the Balmer series of the hydrogen spectrum?
A)
The entire series falls in the ultraviolet region
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B)
The entire series falls in the infrared region
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C)
The series is partly in the visible region and partly in the ultraviolet region
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D)
The series is partly in the visible region and partly in the infrared region
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question_answer 38) In a nuclear fusion reaction, two nuclei, A and B, fuse to produce a nucleus C, releasing an amount of energy\[\Delta E\]in the process. If the mass defects of the three nuclei are\[\Delta {{M}_{A}},\Delta {{M}_{B}}\]and\[\Delta {{M}_{C}}\]respectively, then which of the following relations holds? Here, c is the speed of light
A)
\[\Delta {{M}_{A}}+\Delta {{M}_{B}}=\Delta {{M}_{C}}-\Delta E/{{c}^{2}}\]
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B)
\[\Delta {{M}_{A}}+\Delta {{M}_{B}}=\Delta {{M}_{C}}+\Delta E/{{c}^{2}}\]
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C)
\[\Delta {{M}_{A}}-\Delta {{M}_{B}}=\Delta {{M}_{C}}-\Delta E/{{c}^{2}}\]
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D)
\[\Delta {{M}_{A}}-\Delta {{M}_{B}}=\Delta {{M}_{C}}+\Delta E/{{c}^{2}}\]
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question_answer 39) Which of the following postulates of the Bohr model led to the quantization of energy of the hydrogen atom?
A)
The electron goes around the nucleus in circular orbits
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B)
The angular momentum of the electron can only be an integral multiple of h/2n
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C)
The magnitude of the linear momentum of the electron is quantized
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D)
Quantization of energy is itself a postulate of the Bohr model
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question_answer 40) A certain vector in the\[x-y\]plane has an \[x-\] component of 12 m and a\[y-\]component of 8 m. It is then rotated in the\[x-y\]plane so that its\[x-\]component is halved. Then its new y-component is approximately
A)
14m
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B)
13.11m
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C)
10m
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D)
2.0m
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question_answer 41) A block is placed on a plane inclined at\[12{}^\circ \]to the horizontal. What is the, maximum value of coefficient of static friction for which the block slides down the plane?
A)
\[tan\text{ }12{}^\circ \]
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B)
\[\text{cos }12{}^\circ \]
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C)
\[\text{sin }12{}^\circ \]
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D)
None of these
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question_answer 42) A brick of mass m , tied to a rope, is being whirled in a vertical circle, with a uniform speed. The tension in the rope is
A)
the same throughout
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B)
largest when the brick is at the highest point of the circular path and smallest when it is at the lowest point
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C)
largest when the rope is horizontal and smallest when it is vertical
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D)
largest when the brick is at the lowest point and smallest when it is at the highest point
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question_answer 43) Two blocks, of mass 1 kg and 2 kg respectively, are connected by a spring and kept on a frictionless table. The blocks are pulled apart, so that the spring is stretched, and released from rest. At a certain instant of time, the block of mass 1 kg, is found to be moving at a speed 2 m/s. What must be the speed of the other block at this instant?
A)
1 m/s
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B)
0.5 m/s
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C)
4 m/s
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D)
0.25 m/s
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question_answer 44) A coin of mass 10 g rolls along a horizontal table with a velocity of 6 cm/s. Its total kinetic energy is
A)
\[9\,\mu J\]
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B)
\[18\,\mu J\]
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C)
\[27\,\mu J\]
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D)
\[36\,\mu J\]
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question_answer 45) A simple harmonic oscillator oscillates, with an amplitude A. At what point of its motion, is the power delivered to it by the restoring force maximum?
A)
When it is at a displacement\[\pm \frac{A}{\sqrt{2}}\]from the equilibrium point and moving towards the equilibrium point
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B)
When it is at the maximum displacement
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C)
When it passes through the equilibrium point, either way
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D)
When it is at a displacement\[\pm \frac{A}{\sqrt{2}}\]from the equilibrium point and moving away from the equilibrium point
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question_answer 46) There is a point charge q located at the centre of a cube. What is the electric flux of this point charge, through a face of the cube?
A)
\[\frac{q}{{{\varepsilon }_{0}}}\]
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B)
\[\frac{q}{6{{\varepsilon }_{0}}}\]
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C)
\[\frac{q}{3{{\varepsilon }_{0}}}\]
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D)
It will depend upon the size of the cube
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question_answer 47) A point dipole is located at the origin in some orientation. The electric field at the point (10 cm, 10 cm) on the\[x-y\]plane is measured to have a magnitude\[1.0\times {{10}^{-3}}V/m\]. What will be the magnitude of the electric field at the point (20 cm, 20 cm)?
A)
\[5.0\times {{10}^{-4}}V/m\]
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B)
\[2.5\times {{10}^{-4}}V/m\]
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C)
It will depend on the orientation of the dipole
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D)
\[1.25\times {{10}^{-4}}V/m\]
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question_answer 48) Which of the following statements is false for a perfect conductor?
A)
The surface of the conductor is an equipotential surface
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B)
The electric field just outside the surface of a conductor is perpendicular to the surface
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C)
The charge carried by a conductor is always uniformly distributed over the surface of the conductor
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D)
None of the above
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question_answer 49) A parallel plate capacitor without any dielectric within its plates, has a capacitance C and is connected to a battery of emf V. The battery is disconnected and the plates of the capacitor are pulled apart until the separation between the plates is doubled. What is the work done by the agent pulling the plates apart, in this process?
A)
\[\frac{1}{2}C{{V}^{2}}\]
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B)
\[\frac{3}{2}C{{V}^{2}}\]
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C)
\[-\frac{3}{2}C{{V}^{2}}\]
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D)
\[C{{V}^{2}}\]
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question_answer 50) Consider a copper wire of length L, cross-sectional area A. It has n number of free electrons per unit volume. Which of the following is the correct expression of drift velocity of the electrons when the wire carries a steady current\[I\]?
A)
\[\frac{I}{neL}\]
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B)
\[\frac{I}{{{n}^{2}}eL}\]
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C)
\[\frac{I}{neL}\]
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D)
\[\frac{I}{n{{e}^{2}}L}\]
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question_answer 51) A resistor has the following colour code, sequentially from the left Black Brown Orange Red and Black What is the resistance of the resistor?
A)
\[13\,\Omega \]
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B)
\[1300\,\,\Omega \]
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C)
\[130\,\,\Omega \]
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D)
\[13000\,\,\Omega \]
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question_answer 52) Which of the following is false for interference of light?
A)
Coherence of the sources is an essential condition for interference
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B)
The minima of the interference pattern need not be of zero intensity
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C)
Interference simply redistributes light energy, without destroying any of it
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D)
The minima of the interference pattern must always be of zero intensity
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question_answer 53) Totally unpolarized light of intensity\[{{I}_{0}}\]is incident normally on a polarizer and the emerging light is made to pass through a second, parallel polarizer with its axis making an angle of\[60{}^\circ \]with that of the first. What is the intensity of light emerging out of the second polarizer?
A)
Zero
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B)
\[\frac{{{I}_{0}}}{8}\]
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C)
\[\frac{{{I}_{0}}}{4}\]
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D)
\[\frac{{{I}_{0}}}{16}\]
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question_answer 54) A concave mirror has a focal length of 5 cm. When an object is placed at a distance of 15 cm from the mirror, where is the image formed?
A)
10 cm in front of the mirror
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B)
7.5 cm behind the mirror
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C)
2.5 cm in front of the mirror
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D)
7.5 cm in front of the mirror
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question_answer 55) The power of a convex lens is 2 dioptre. Its power is to be reduced to 1.5 dioptre, by putting another lens in combination with it. Which of the following lenses will serve the purpose?
A)
A concave lens of focal length 2 m
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B)
A concave lens of focal lens 4 m
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C)
A convex lens of focal lens 2 m
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D)
A concave lens of focal length 1 m
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question_answer 56) Spherical wave fronts, emanating from a point source, strike a plane reflecting surface. What will happen to these wave fronts, immediately after reflection?
A)
They will remain spherical with the same curvature, both in magnitude and sign
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B)
They will become plane wave fronts
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C)
They will remain spherical, with the same curvature, but sign of curvature reversed
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D)
They will remain spherical, but with different curvature, both in magnitude and sign
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question_answer 57) Which of the following is true for the minimum angular separation of two stars,\[\Delta {{\theta }_{\min }}\]at can be resolved by a telescope? In the following aperture is the diameter of the objective
A)
it decreases with the increase in aperture of the telescope
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B)
it is independent of the aperture of the telescope
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C)
it increases linearly with the aperture of the telescope
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clear
D)
it increases quadratically with the aperture of the telescope
done
clear
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question_answer 58) The flux density of mass is defined as the amount of mass crossing unit area per unit time. The dimensions of this quantity is
A)
\[[M{{L}^{-2}}{{T}^{-1}}]\]
done
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B)
\[[M{{L}^{2}}{{T}^{-1}}]\]
done
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C)
\[[ML{{T}^{-1}}]\]
done
clear
D)
\[[{{M}^{-1}}{{L}^{-2}}T]\]
done
clear
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question_answer 59) A physical quantity z, depends upon two other physical quantities\[x\]and y, as follows. \[z=a{{x}^{2}}{{y}^{1/2}}\]where, a is a constant. In an experiment, the quantity\[x\]is determined by measuring z and y and using the above expression. If the percentage of error in the measurement of z and y are 10% and 12% respectively, then the percentage of error in the determined value of\[x\]is
A)
2%
done
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B)
8%
done
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C)
15%
done
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D)
without the value of the constant a, the percentage of error cannot be calculated
done
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question_answer 60) If a particle moves with an acceleration, then which of the following can remain constant?
A)
Both speed and velocity
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B)
Neither speed nor velocity
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C)
Only the velocity
done
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D)
Only the speed
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question_answer 61) A rubber ball is bounced on the floor of a room which has its ceiling at a height of 3.2 m from the floor. The ball hits the floor with a speed of 10 m/s and rebounds vertically up. If all collisions simply reverse the velocity of the ball, without changing its speed, then how long does it take the ball for a round trip, from the moment it bounces from the floor to the moment it returns back to it? Acceleration due to gravity is\[10\text{ }m/{{s}^{2}}\].
A)
4s
done
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B)
2s
done
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C)
0.8 s
done
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D)
1.2 s
done
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question_answer 62) Two vectors a and b, add up to vector c. When vector a is made 3 times as long and vector b is doubled in length, without changing their directions, then it is found that vector c is also doubled in length, without change in direction. Then which of the following is true?
A)
All three vectors must be parallel
done
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B)
b and c must be parallel to each other, but a need not be parallel to b and c
done
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C)
a and b must be perpendicular to each other
done
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D)
It is impossible for three non-zero vectors a, b and c to have the property stated above
done
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question_answer 63) Which of the following is not an assumption of the kinetic theory of gases?
A)
The molecules travel in straight paths until they undergo collision with other molecules
done
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B)
Molecules of the gas are small hard spheres, occupying negligible volume compared with the total volume of the gas
done
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C)
The molecules do not undergo any collisions at all
done
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D)
The molecules undergo elastic collisions only
done
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question_answer 64) The equation describing the motion of a simple harmonic oscillator along the\[x\]axis is given as \[x=A\cos (\omega t+\phi )\]. If at time\[t=0,\]the oscillator is at\[x=0\]and moving in the negative\[x-\]direction, then the phase angle\[\phi \]is
A)
\[\frac{\pi }{2}\]
done
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B)
\[-\frac{\pi }{2}\]
done
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C)
\[\pi \]
done
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D)
\[0\]
done
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question_answer 65) At a displacement from the equilibrium position, that is one-half the amplitude of oscillation, what fraction of the total energy of the oscillator is kinetic energy?
A)
\[\frac{1}{2}\]
done
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B)
\[\frac{1}{4}\]
done
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C)
\[\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\]
done
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D)
\[\frac{3}{4}\]
done
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question_answer 66) Which of the following does not change as a wave moves from one medium to another?
A)
Wavelength
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B)
Wave velocity
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C)
Frequency
done
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D)
None of these
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question_answer 67) An organ pipe is closed at one end and open at the other. What is the ratio of frequencies of the 3rd and 4th fundamental modes of vibration?
A)
\[\frac{3}{4}\]
done
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B)
\[\frac{5}{7}\]
done
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C)
\[\frac{3}{5}\]
done
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D)
\[\frac{9}{11}\]
done
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question_answer 68) The Doppler shift in the frequency received by a stationary receiver when the source is moving towards it, was measured to be\[\Delta {{v}_{air}}\]when both receiver and source are in air, and it was measured to be\[\Delta {{v}_{water}}\]when both are under water. Then,
A)
\[\Delta {{v}_{air}}>\Delta {{v}_{water}}\]
done
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B)
\[\Delta {{v}_{air}}<\Delta {{v}_{water}}\]
done
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C)
\[\Delta {{v}_{air}}=\Delta {{v}_{water}}\]
done
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D)
\[\Delta {{v}_{water}}=0,\Delta {{v}_{air}}<0\]
done
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question_answer 69) Which of the following is false for electric lines of force?
A)
They always start from positive charges and terminate on negative charges
done
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B)
They are always perpendicular to the surface of a charged conductor
done
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C)
They always form closed loops
done
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D)
They are parallel and equally spaced in a region of uniform electric field
done
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question_answer 70) A uniform magnetic field B points vertically up and is slowly changed in magnitude, but not in direction. The rate of change of the magnetic field is a. A conducting ring of radius r and resistance R is held perpendicular to the magnetic field, and is totally inside it. The induced current in the ring is
A)
zero
done
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B)
\[\frac{2\pi rB}{R}\]
done
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C)
\[\frac{r\alpha }{R}\]
done
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D)
\[\frac{\pi {{r}^{2}}\alpha }{R}\]
done
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question_answer 71) A plane electromagnetic wave is propagating along the z-direction. If the electric field component of this wave is in the direction \[(i+j),\]then which of the following, is the direction of the magnetic field component?
A)
\[(-i+j)\]
done
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B)
\[(i-j)\]
done
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C)
\[(-i-j)\]
done
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D)
\[(i+j)\]
done
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question_answer 72) Which of the following is the correct arrangement of the electromagnetic spectrum in the increasing order of frequency?
A)
Microwaves, infrared, radio waves, visible light. X-rays
done
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B)
Radio waves, microwaves, infrared, visible light. X-rays
done
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C)
X-rays, visible light, infrared, microwaves, radio waves
done
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D)
Microwaves, radio waves, infrared, visible light. X-rays
done
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question_answer 73) Which of the following optical phenomena is involved in the propagation of light in an optical fibre?
A)
Refraction
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B)
Dispersion
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C)
Interference
done
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D)
Total internal reflection
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question_answer 74) In a Youngs double-slits experimental arrangement, the light used has wavelength \[5000\text{ }\overset{o}{\mathop{\text{A}}}\,,\] the slit separation is 2 mm and slits to screen distance is 1 m. What is the width of the fringes produced on the screen?
A)
0.25 mm
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B)
0.1 mm
done
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C)
0.5 mm
done
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D)
0.025 mm
done
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question_answer 75) In a single-slit diffraction experiment, the width of the slit is reduced by half. Which of the following needs to be done if the width of the central maxima has to remain the same?
A)
Reduce the distance between the slit and screen by half
done
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B)
Reduce the distance between the slit and the screen to\[{{\left( \frac{1}{4} \right)}^{th}}\]the original separation
done
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C)
Double the distance between the slit and the screen
done
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D)
No need to do anything, as the width of the central maxima does not depend on the slit width
done
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question_answer 76) Molar conductivity decreases with decrease in concentration
A)
for strong electrolytes
done
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B)
for weak electrolytes
done
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C)
both for strong and weak electrolytes
done
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D)
for non-electrolytes
done
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E)
None of the Above
done
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question_answer 77) A nucleophilic substitution reaction proceeds through\[{{S}_{N}}1\]mechanism. So, the reaction is
A)
unimolecular
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B)
bimolecular
done
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C)
trimolecular
done
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D)
rate depends on concentration of incoming nucleophile
done
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question_answer 78) For an electrophilic aromatic substitution reaction
A)
chlorine is o-p directing group and also electron releasing group
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B)
chlorine is o-p directing group and also electron with drawing group
done
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C)
chlorine is meta directing group and also electron relasing group
done
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D)
chlorine is meta directing group and also electron withdrawing group
done
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question_answer 79) Enthalpy of combustion of carbon to\[C{{O}_{2}}\]is\[-393.52\text{ }kJ/mol\]. The heat released upon formation of 11 g of\[C{{O}_{2}}\]from carbon and dioxygen is
A)
35.77 kJ
done
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B)
98.38 kJ
done
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C)
1574.08 kJ
done
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D)
393.52 kJ
done
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question_answer 80) Entropy change in a process where 1 L of liquid He is poured into ice cold water is
A)
finite and positive
done
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B)
finite and negative
done
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C)
zero
done
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D)
infinity
done
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question_answer 81) Anode reaction of a fuel cell is
A)
\[Zn(Hg)+2O{{H}^{-}}\xrightarrow[{}]{{}}ZnO(s)+{{H}_{2}}O+2{{e}^{-}}\]
done
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B)
\[Pb(s)+SO_{4}^{2-}(aq)\xrightarrow[{}]{{}}PbS{{O}_{4}}(s)+2{{e}^{-}}\]
done
clear
C)
\[2{{H}_{2}}(g)+4O{{H}^{-}}(aq)\xrightarrow[{}]{{}}4{{H}_{2}}O(l)+4{{e}^{-}}\]
done
clear
D)
\[2Fe(s)\xrightarrow[{}]{{}}2F{{e}^{2+}}+4{{e}^{-}}\]
done
clear
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question_answer 82) For an ideal system at thermal equilibrium, the velocity distribution of the constituent particles will be governed by
A)
Gaussian distribution
done
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B)
Maxwell-Boltzmann distribution
done
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C)
Lorentzian distribution
done
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D)
Log-normal distribution
done
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question_answer 83) During spontaneous discharge of an electrochemical cell Gibbs free energy will
A)
increase
done
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B)
decrease
done
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C)
not change
done
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D)
be infinity
done
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question_answer 84) Standard electrode potential of half-cell reactions are given below \[C{{u}^{2+}}+2{{e}^{-}}\xrightarrow[{}]{{}}Cu;\] \[E{}^\circ =0.34V\] \[Z{{n}^{2+}}+2{{e}^{-}}\xrightarrow[{}]{{}}Zn;\] \[E{}^\circ =-0.76V\] What is the emf of the cell?
A)
\[+1.10V\]
done
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B)
\[-1.10V\]
done
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C)
\[-0.42V\]
done
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D)
\[+0.42V\]
done
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question_answer 85) Tollens test can be used to distinguish
A)
propionaldehyde and acetone
done
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B)
propanol and propionic acid
done
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C)
propene and isobutene
done
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D)
isopropanol and propanol
done
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question_answer 86) The product of reaction between aniline and acetic anhydride is
A)
o-aminoacetophenone
done
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B)
m-aminoacetophenone
done
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C)
p-aminoacetophenone
done
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D)
acetanilide
done
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question_answer 87) According to Le-Chateliers principle, the equilibrium constant of a reversible reaction will not shift by
A)
increasing the temperature of an exothermic reaction
done
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B)
increasing the temperature of an endothermic reaction
done
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C)
changing the concentrations of the reactants
done
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D)
the effect of a catalyst
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question_answer 88) Properties of elements are periodic function of number of...... present in the nucleus.
A)
protons
done
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B)
electrons
done
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C)
neutrons
done
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D)
mesons
done
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View Answer play_arrow
question_answer 89) The complex\[{{[Co{{(N{{H}_{3}})}_{5}}Br]}^{2+}}SO_{4}^{2-}\]and\[{{[Co{{(N{{H}_{3}})}_{5}}S{{O}_{4}}]}^{+}}B{{r}^{-}}\]are
A)
coordination isomers
done
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B)
linkage isomers
done
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C)
stereoisomers
done
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D)
ionisation isomers
done
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question_answer 90) Maximum number of electrons in a shell with principal quantum number n is given by
A)
\[n\]
done
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B)
\[2n\]
done
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C)
\[{{n}^{2}}\]
done
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D)
\[2{{n}^{2}}\]
done
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question_answer 91) Anti-Markownikoff addition of\[HBr\]is not observed in
A)
propene
done
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B)
butene
done
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C)
2-butene
done
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D)
2-pentene
done
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question_answer 92) A ketone gives a yellow ppt when treated with 12 in an alkaline solution. Thus, the ketone is
A)
a cyclic ketone
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B)
a methyl ketone
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C)
an unsaturated ketone
done
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D)
None of the above
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question_answer 93) Wroughtiron contains
A)
Cr
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B)
Cu
done
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C)
C
done
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D)
Ag
done
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question_answer 94) The ore magnetite is
A)
\[F{{e}_{3}}{{O}_{4}}\]
done
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B)
\[ZnC{{O}_{3}}\]
done
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C)
\[CuC{{O}_{3}}-Cu{{(OH)}_{2}}\]
done
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D)
\[Fe{{S}_{2}}\]
done
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question_answer 95) The first step in the extraction of Cu from copper pyrites is
A)
reduction by carbon
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B)
electrolysis of ore
done
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C)
roasting of ore in\[{{O}_{2}}\]
done
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D)
magnetic separation
done
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question_answer 96) Desalination of sea water can be done by
A)
osmosis
done
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B)
reverse osmosis
done
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C)
filtration
done
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D)
diffusion
done
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question_answer 97) A compound with nitro group was reduced by \[Sn/HCl,\]followed by treatment with \[NaN{{O}_{2}}/HCl\]and followed by phenol. The chromophore group in the final compound is
A)
\[N{{O}_{2}}\]group
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B)
\[N{{H}_{2}}\]group
done
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C)
azo group
done
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D)
OH group
done
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question_answer 98)
Certain reactions follow the relation between concentrations of the reactant vs time as What is the expected order for such reactions?
A)
0
done
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B)
1
done
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C)
2
done
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D)
Infinity
done
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question_answer 99) A first order reaction has a rate constant\[k=3.01\times {{10}^{-3}}/s\]. How long it will take to decompose half of the reaction?
A)
2.303 s
done
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B)
23.03 s
done
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C)
230.23 s
done
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D)
2303 s
done
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question_answer 100) The shape of the ammonia molecule is
A)
tetrahedral
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B)
trigonal pyramidal
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C)
trigonal bipyramid
done
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D)
trigonal planar
done
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question_answer 101) \[{{H}_{5}}I{{O}_{6}}\]is a
A)
strong reducing agent
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B)
strong base
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C)
strong oxidising agent
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D)
weak base
done
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question_answer 102) If a compound gives an orange or red precipitate with 2,4-dinitrophenylhydrazine, then the compound is
A)
an alkyl halide
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B)
an aryl halide
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C)
an amine
done
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D)
a carbonyl compound
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question_answer 103) Isotones have
A)
same neutron number but different proton number
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B)
same proton number but different neutron number
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C)
same proton and neutron number
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D)
same proton but different electron number
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question_answer 104) \[{{(C{{H}_{3}})}_{3}}C-OH\]on treatment with\[NaCl\]in aqueous medium gives
A)
no reaction
done
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B)
\[{{(C{{H}_{3}})}_{3}}{{C}^{-}}N{{a}^{+}}\]
done
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C)
\[{{(C{{H}_{3}})}_{3}}CC{{l}^{-}}\]
done
clear
D)
isobutylene
done
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question_answer 105) The de-Broglie wavelength of a particle is
A)
proportional to its mass
done
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B)
proportional to its velocity
done
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C)
inversely proportional to its momentum
done
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D)
proportional to its total energy
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question_answer 106) The\[C-H\]bond distance is the longest in
A)
\[{{C}_{2}}{{H}_{2}}\]
done
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B)
\[{{C}_{2}}{{H}_{4}}\]
done
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C)
\[{{C}_{2}}He\]
done
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D)
\[{{C}_{2}}{{H}_{2}}B{{r}_{2}}\]
done
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question_answer 107) Dimension of universal gas constant (R) is
A)
\[[VP{{T}^{-1}}{{n}^{-1}}]\]
done
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B)
\[[V{{P}^{-1}}T{{n}^{-1}}]\]
done
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C)
\[[VPT{{n}^{-1}}]\]
done
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D)
\[[VP{{T}^{-1}}n]\]
done
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question_answer 108) Entropy of a perfectly crystalline solid at\[0\text{ }K\]is
A)
positive
done
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B)
negative
done
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C)
zero
done
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D)
either positive or negative
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question_answer 109) The hybridisation of carbon in molecular\[C{{O}_{2}}\] is
A)
\[sp\]
done
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B)
\[s{{p}^{2}}\]
done
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C)
\[s{{p}^{3}}\]
done
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D)
\[s{{p}^{3}}d\]
done
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question_answer 110) \[CC{{l}_{4}}\]and freons
A)
are green compounds because they are green coloured
done
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B)
deplete ozone
done
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C)
cause increase in ozone concentration
done
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D)
have no effect on ozone concentration
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question_answer 111) Total number of metal atoms per unit cell in a face-centred cubic lattice is
A)
14
done
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B)
8
done
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C)
6
done
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D)
4
done
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question_answer 112) Bakelite is formed by polymerization between
A)
acrylonitrile molecules
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B)
tetrafluoroethene molecules
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C)
urea and formaldehyde molecules
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D)
phenol and formaldehyde molecules
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question_answer 113) Chromatographic analysis is done based on the property of
A)
diffusion
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B)
absorption
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C)
adsorption
done
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D)
condensation
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question_answer 114) Avogadro number\[(6.023\times {{10}^{23}})\]of carbon atoms are present in
A)
12 g of\[^{12}C{{O}_{2}}\]
done
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B)
22.4 L\[^{12}C{{O}_{2}}\]at room temperature
done
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C)
44 g of \[^{12}C{{O}_{2}}\]
done
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D)
12 moles of \[^{12}C{{O}_{2}}\]
done
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question_answer 115) Glucose can be converted into ethyl alcohol using
A)
invertase
done
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B)
zymase
done
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C)
maltase
done
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D)
diastase
done
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View Answer play_arrow
question_answer 116) When\[FeC{{l}_{3}}\]is added to phenol
A)
no reaction occurs
done
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B)
a coloured complex will be formed
done
clear
C)
\[F{{e}^{3+}}\]will be oxidised to higher state
done
clear
D)
o-chlorophenol will be formed
done
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View Answer play_arrow
question_answer 117) The correct order of decreasing Lewis acidity is
A)
\[B{{F}_{3}}>BC{{l}_{3}}>BB{{r}_{3}}>B{{I}_{3}}\]
done
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B)
\[B{{I}_{3}}>BC{{l}_{3}}>BB{{r}_{3}}>B{{F}_{3}}\]
done
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C)
\[B{{I}_{3}}>BB{{r}_{3}}>BC{{l}_{3}}>B{{F}_{3}}\]
done
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D)
\[BC{{l}_{3}}>B{{F}_{3}}>BB{{r}_{3}}>B{{I}_{3}}\]
done
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question_answer 118) The buffer present in blood plasma is
A)
borax, sodium hydroxide
done
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B)
carbonic acid, bicarbonate ion
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C)
acetic acid, sodium acetate
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D)
citric acid, potassium dihydrogen phosphate
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question_answer 119) Conduction in a p-type semiconductor is increased by
A)
increasing the band gap
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B)
decreasing the temperature
done
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C)
adding appropriate electron deficient impurities
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D)
adding appropriate electron rich impurities
done
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question_answer 120) The volume of\[0.1\text{ }M\text{ }Ca{{(OH)}_{2}}\]required to neutralise 10 mL of\[0.1\text{ }N\text{ }HCl\]is
A)
10 mL
done
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B)
20 mL
done
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C)
5 mL
done
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D)
15 mL
done
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question_answer 121) Boron is unable to form\[BF_{6}^{3-}\]because of
A)
high electronegativity of boron
done
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B)
high electronegativity of fluorine
done
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C)
lack of d-orbitals in boron
done
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D)
less difference in electronegativity between B and F
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question_answer 122) The rate of reactions exhibiting negative activation energy
A)
decreases with increasing temperature
done
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B)
increases with increasing temperature
done
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C)
does not depend on temperature
done
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D)
depends on the height of the potential barrier
done
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question_answer 123) Addition of a non-volatile solute in a volatile ideal solvent
A)
increases the vapour pressure of the solvent
done
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B)
decreases the vapour pressure of the solvent
done
clear
C)
decreases the boiling point of the solvent
done
clear
D)
increases the freezing point of the solvent
done
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question_answer 124) The dissolution of a gas in a liquid is governed by
A)
Raoults law
done
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B)
Henrys law
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C)
Daltons law of partial pressure
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D)
vant Hoff factor
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question_answer 125) Normal human blood sugar range is 65-105 mg/dL. Considering density of human blood is 1.06 kg/L, if a patients sugar level reads 720 ppm, his/her blood sugar at that time is
A)
normal
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B)
high
done
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C)
low
done
clear
D)
cannot say
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question_answer 126) pH of 0.0002 M formic acid\[[{{K}_{a}}=2\times {{10}^{-4}}]\] approximately is
A)
1.35
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B)
0.5
done
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C)
3.7
done
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D)
1.85
done
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question_answer 127) At room temperature, for the reaction \[N{{H}_{4}}SH(s)N{{H}_{3}}(g)+{{H}_{2}}S(g)\]
A)
\[{{K}_{p}}={{K}_{c}}\]
done
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B)
\[{{K}_{p}}>{{K}_{c}}\]
done
clear
C)
\[{{K}_{p}}<{{K}_{c}}\]
done
clear
D)
\[{{K}_{p}}\]and\[{{K}_{c}}\]do not relate
done
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question_answer 128) The molecule NO is
A)
paramagnetic
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B)
diamagnetic
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C)
ferromagnetic
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D)
an even electron molecule
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question_answer 129) The most stable oxidation state exhibited by thallium is
A)
0
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B)
+1
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C)
+2
done
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D)
+3
done
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question_answer 130) Which of the following elements has the highest value of electron affinity?
A)
\[O\]
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B)
S
done
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C)
Se
done
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D)
Te
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question_answer 131) The correct order of electron gain enthalpy \[({{\Delta }_{eg}}H)\]of the halogen atoms is
A)
\[F<Cl<Br<I\]
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B)
\[Cl<F<Br<I\]
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C)
\[KBr<Cl<F\]
done
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D)
\[Cl<Br<I<F\]
done
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question_answer 132) Which of the following statements is correct?
A)
The equivalent mass of\[KMn{{O}_{4}}\]in alkaline medium is molar mass divided by five.
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B)
The equivalent mass of\[KMn{{O}_{4}}\]in strongly alkaline medium is molar mass divided by three.
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C)
The equivalent mass of\[KMn{{O}_{4}}\]in neutral medium is molar mass divided by three.
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D)
The equivalent mass of\[KMn{{O}_{4}}\]in weakly acidic medium is molar mass divided by three.
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question_answer 133) Bohr model of hydrogen atom was unable to explain
A)
Rydbergs formula of atomic spectra
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B)
Heisenbergs uncertainty principle
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C)
Plancks law of energy quantisation
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D)
Rutherfords model of atomic structure
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View Answer play_arrow
question_answer 134) The correct order of bond energy is
A)
\[C{{l}_{2}}>B{{r}_{2}}>{{F}_{2}}>{{I}_{2}}\]
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B)
\[C{{l}_{2}}>{{F}_{2}}>B{{r}_{2}}>{{I}_{2}}\]
done
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C)
\[{{I}_{2}}>B{{r}_{2}}>C{{l}_{2}}>{{F}_{2}}\]
done
clear
D)
\[{{I}_{2}}>B{{r}_{2}}>{{F}_{2}}>C{{l}_{2}}\]
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
question_answer 135) The correct order of increasing oxidizing power in the series is
A)
\[VO_{2}^{+}<C{{r}_{2}}O_{7}^{2-}<MnO_{4}^{-}\]
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B)
\[C{{r}_{2}}O_{7}^{2-}<VO_{2}^{+}<MnO_{4}^{-}\]
done
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C)
\[C{{r}_{2}}O_{7}^{2-}<MnO_{4}^{-}>VO_{2}^{+}\]
done
clear
D)
\[MnO_{4}^{-}<C{{r}_{2}}O_{7}^{2-}<VO_{2}^{+}\]
done
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question_answer 136) Paramagnetism is shown by
A)
\[{{N}_{2}}\]
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B)
\[{{O}_{2}}\]
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C)
\[{{F}_{2}}\]
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D)
\[C{{O}_{2}}\]
done
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View Answer play_arrow
question_answer 137) The spin only magnetic moment of \[{{[Cr{{F}_{6}}]}^{4-}}\](at. no. for Cr is 24) is
A)
0
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B)
1.73 BM
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C)
2.83BM
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D)
4.9BM
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question_answer 138) The reduction of zinc oxide with coke occurs at temperature
A)
greater than that for\[CuO\]
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B)
less than that for \[CuO\]
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C)
less than that for\[A{{g}_{2}}O\]
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D)
equal to that for \[CuO\]
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question_answer 139) The effective atomic number for \[{{[Rh{{({{H}_{2}}O)}_{6}}]}^{3+}}\] (at. no. for Rh is 45) is
A)
42
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B)
45
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C)
48
done
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D)
54
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question_answer 140) The crystal structure of solid Mn (II) oxide is
A)
\[NaCl\]structure
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B)
\[F{{e}_{2}}{{O}_{3}}\]structure
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C)
\[Ca{{F}_{2}}\]structure
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D)
\[N{{a}_{2}}O\]structure
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View Answer play_arrow
question_answer 141) The nitration (using nitration mixture) of aniline gives
A)
p-nitroaniline
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B)
o-nitroaniline
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C)
m-nitroaniline
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D)
All of these
done
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View Answer play_arrow
question_answer 142) The order of basic strength for methyl substituted amine in aqueous solution is
A)
\[N{{(C{{H}_{3}})}_{3}}>N{{(C{{H}_{3}})}_{2}}H>N(C{{H}_{3}}){{H}_{2}}\] \[>N{{H}_{3}}\]
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B)
\[N(C{{H}_{3}}){{H}_{2}}>N{{(C{{H}_{3}})}_{2}}H>N{{(C{{H}_{3}})}_{3}}\] \[>N{{H}_{3}}\]
done
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C)
\[N{{H}_{3}}_{2}>N(C{{H}_{3}}){{H}_{2}}>N{{(C{{H}_{3}})}_{2}}H\] \[>N{{(C{{H}_{3}})}_{3}}\]
done
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D)
\[N{{(C{{H}_{3}})}_{2}}H>N(C{{H}_{3}}){{H}_{2}}>N{{(C{{H}_{3}})}_{3}}\]\[>N{{H}_{3}}\]
done
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View Answer play_arrow
question_answer 143) The strongest acid among the choices is
A)
dichloroacetic acid
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B)
dimethylacetic acid
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C)
trifluoroacetic acid
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D)
triiodoacetic acid
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View Answer play_arrow
question_answer 144) Glucose and fructose can be distinguished by
A)
Lucas test
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B)
Ninhydrin test
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C)
Benedict reagent test
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D)
All of the above
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View Answer play_arrow
question_answer 145) Which is the most stable compound among the following?
A)
done
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B)
done
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C)
done
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D)
All the compounds have same stability
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question_answer 146) Among the following, which is the least stable conformation of cyclohexane?
A)
Boat conformation
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B)
Half chair conformation
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C)
Twist boat conformation
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D)
Chair conformation
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question_answer 147)
The correct relation between the following pair of compounds is
A)
constitutional isomers
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B)
enantiomers
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C)
diastereomers
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D)
None of the above
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question_answer 148) Among the choices of alkyl bromide, the least reactive bromide in a\[{{S}_{N}}2\]reaction is
A)
1-bromopentane
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B)
2-bromo-2-methylbutane
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C)
1-bromo-3-methylbutane
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D)
1-bromo-2-methylbutane
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View Answer play_arrow
question_answer 149) The correct order of leaving group ability in a nucleophilic substitution reaction is
A)
\[B{{r}^{-}}>C{{l}^{-}}>C{{H}_{3}}CO_{2}^{-}>H{{O}^{-}}>{{H}^{-}}\]
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B)
\[{{H}^{-}}>O{{H}^{-}}>C{{H}_{3}}C{{O}_{2}}>C{{l}^{-}}>B{{r}^{-}}\]
done
clear
C)
\[B{{r}^{-}}>C{{H}_{3}}C{{O}_{2}}>CF>O{{H}^{-}}>{{H}^{-}}\]
done
clear
D)
\[C{{H}_{3}}C{{O}_{2}}>B{{r}^{-}}>C{{l}^{-}}>O{{H}^{-}}>{{H}^{-}}\]
done
clear
View Answer play_arrow
question_answer 150) 2-bromobutane reacts with\[O{{H}^{-}}\]in\[{{H}_{2}}O\]to give 2-butanol. The reaction involves
A)
retention in configuration
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B)
inversion in configuration
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C)
racemization
done
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D)
mutarotation
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question_answer 151) The plane of cell wall formation in a dividing cell is determined by
A)
Golgi apparatus
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B)
Microfilaments
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C)
microtubules
done
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D)
endoplasmic reticulum
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question_answer 152) From the following, select the statement that is true.
A)
All cells have a cell wall
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B)
Animals cells contain microtubules but plant cells do not contain microtubules
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C)
The Golgi apparatus is found only in animal cells
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D)
Chloroplasts are found in plant cells but not in prokaryotic or animal cells
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question_answer 153) The volume of air which remains in the conducting airways and is not available for gas exchange is called
A)
vital capacity
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B)
functional residual capacity
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C)
forced expiratory volume
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D)
anatomic dead space
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question_answer 154) The Darwinian fitness of an organism is a measure of
A)
its ability, relative to others in the population to pass its genes to the next generation
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B)
the number of offspring it produces
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C)
its lifespan
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D)
its physical vigour
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question_answer 155) A potential danger to a population that has been greatly reduced in number is the
A)
Hardy-Weinberg disequilibrium
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B)
tendency towards assortative mating
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C)
reduced gene flow
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D)
loss of genetic variability
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question_answer 156) An isolated population of humans with approximately equal numbers of blue-eyed and brown-eyed individuals was decimated by an earthquake. Only a few brown-eyed people remained to form the next generation. This kind of change in the gene pool is called a
A)
Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium
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B)
blocked gene flow
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C)
bottleneck effect
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D)
founder effect
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question_answer 157) The syndrome in humans in which individuals somatic cells contain the three sex chromosomes XXY is called
A)
Klinefelters syndrome
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B)
Turners syndrome
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C)
Downs syndrome
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D)
Superfemale
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question_answer 158) How does vaccination work?
A)
The immune system produces antibodies, which stay in the blood
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B)
Memory lymphocytes are produced. They remain in the body to fight off any future infection with the live pathogen
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C)
The dead pathogen stays in the body and constantly stimulates the immune system
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D)
All of the above
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View Answer play_arrow
question_answer 159) The number of autosomes in a normal human cell is
A)
44
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B)
45
done
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C)
46
done
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D)
48
done
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question_answer 160) Downs syndrome is associated with trisomy of chromosome number
A)
20
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B)
21
done
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C)
22
done
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D)
23
done
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question_answer 161) Which of the following is the site of translation of the mRNA?
A)
Nucleus
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B)
Nucleolus
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C)
Golgi body
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D)
Ribosomes
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question_answer 162) Okazaki fragments are formed during
A)
transcription
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B)
translation
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C)
reverse transcription
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D)
DNA replication
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question_answer 163) Human proteins can be produced in the milk or semen of farm animals. True or false.
A)
True
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B)
False, proteins cannot be produced in milk.
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C)
False, proteins cannot be produced in semen
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D)
False, animals are not used for protein production
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question_answer 164) In a genetic engineering experiment, restriction enzymes can be used for
A)
bacterial DNA only
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B)
viral DNA only
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C)
any DNA fragment
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D)
eukaryotic DNA only
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question_answer 165) Which of the following is used to select genes of interest from a genomic library?
A)
Restriction enzymes
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B)
Cloning vectors
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C)
Gene targets
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D)
DNA probes
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question_answer 166) Sporopollenin, an organic material is present in
A)
stigma
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B)
style
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C)
exine
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D)
intine
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question_answer 167) In general, pollen tube enters the ovule through
A)
micropyle
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B)
chalaza
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C)
hilum
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D)
funicle
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question_answer 168) Transfer of pollen grain from anther to stigma of another flower of the same plant is called as
A)
geitonogamy
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B)
xenogamy
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C)
cleistogamy
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D)
chasmogamy
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question_answer 169) The endosperm cells in angiosperms are
A)
haploid
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B)
diploid
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C)
triploid
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D)
tetraploid
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question_answer 170) The fleshy edible part of an apple is
A)
thalamus
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B)
nucellus
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C)
ovary
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D)
endosperm
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question_answer 171) The portion of embryonal axis above cotyledon is called as
A)
epicotyl
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B)
hypocotyl
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C)
coleoptile
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D)
radicle
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question_answer 172) Phenotypic and genotypic ratio is similar in case of
A)
complete dominance
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B)
incomplete dominance
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C)
over dominance
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D)
epistasis
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question_answer 173) Which of the following is the number of alleles for blood group in an individual?
A)
1
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B)
2
done
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C)
3
done
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D)
4
done
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question_answer 174) Cholesterol belongs to which of the following groups?
A)
Steroids
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B)
Neutral fats
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C)
Waxes
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D)
Phospholipids
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question_answer 175) Which of the following occurs at the ribosomes?
A)
Most of a cells DNA molecules are stored there
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B)
Proteins are produced there
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C)
mRNAs are produced there
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D)
DNA replication takes place there
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question_answer 176) Which of the following is the ultimate source of energy in an ecosystem?
A)
Sunlight
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B)
Producers
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C)
Consumers
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D)
Decomposers
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question_answer 177) The interaction where one species is benefitted and the other is neither benefitted nor harmed is called as
A)
amensalism
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B)
commensalism
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C)
mutualism
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D)
predation
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question_answer 178) The detritus food chain begins with
A)
primary producers
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B)
primary consumers
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C)
secondary consumers
done
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D)
dead organic matter
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question_answer 179) The problem of electrical discontinuity caused in the normal heart by the connective tissue separating the atria from the ventricles is solved by
A)
coordinating electrical activity in the atria with electrical activity in the ventricles by connecting them via the boundle of His
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B)
having the AV node function as a secondary pacemaker
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C)
having an ectopic pacemaker
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D)
coordinating electrical activity in the atria with electrical activity in the ventricles by connecting them via the vagus nerve
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question_answer 180) The protein whose removal enables myosin to bind actin in smooth muscle is
A)
tropomyosin
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B)
caldesmon
done
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C)
myosin light chain kinase
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D)
calmodulin
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question_answer 181) An investigator places an isolated neuron in a calcium-free medium, gives the neuron a suprathreshold stimulus and then performs an assay to test whether neurotransmitter is released into the medium. Which of the following outcomes would you predict?
A)
No neurotransmitter is detected since influx of calcium into the synaptic knob is required for neurotransmitter release
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B)
No neurotransmitter is detected since influx of calcium is required in order for the neuron to conduct an action potential
done
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C)
Neurotransmitter is detected since calcium is not required for action potential conduction and the initial stimulus was suprathreshold
done
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D)
We cannot predict the outcome without knowing whether the neuron was myelinated
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question_answer 182) What product of the immune system attaches to bacteria, making them easier to be eaten by white blood cells?
A)
Antigen
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B)
Haemoglobin
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C)
Antibody
done
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D)
MHC I molecule
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question_answer 183) A patient with symptoms of allergies would have an elevation of which of the following?
A)
\[IgE\]
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B)
White blood count
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C)
\[IgM\]
done
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D)
\[IgD\]
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question_answer 184) In anaphylactic shock, a substance is released which causes dilation of the blood vessels and capillary leaking. What is this substance called?
A)
Adrenaline
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B)
Benadryl
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C)
Albumin
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D)
Histamine
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question_answer 185) Pear fruits are gritty due to the presence of
A)
tracheids
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B)
vessels
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C)
fibres
done
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D)
sclereids
done
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question_answer 186) Which of the following growth hormones is associated with stomatal movements?
A)
Auxin
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B)
Gibberellin
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C)
ABA
done
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D)
Cytokinin
done
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question_answer 187) Denitrification is carried out by
A)
Pseudomonas
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B)
Nitrobacter
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C)
Nitrosomonas
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D)
Nitrococcus
done
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question_answer 188) Non-cyclic photophosphorylation results in the production of
A)
ADP
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B)
ATP
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C)
NADPH
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D)
ATP and NADPH
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question_answer 189) The site of glycolysis is
A)
cytoplasm
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B)
chloroplast
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C)
mitochondrial matrix
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D)
mitochondrial inner membrane
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question_answer 190) The two organisms which breathe only through their moist skin are
A)
fish and frog
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B)
frog and earthworm
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C)
leech and earthworm
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D)
fish and earthworm
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question_answer 191) The alpha helices and beta sheets are the example of which level of protein organization?
A)
Primary structure
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B)
Secondary structure
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C)
Tertiary structure
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D)
Quaternary structure
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question_answer 192) Cervical cancer can be caused by
A)
Chlamydia sp.
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B)
Human papilloma virus
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C)
Herpes simplex virus
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D)
Neisseria gonorrhoeae
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question_answer 193) In human females, the ovarian cycle begins when the
A)
levels of oestrogen reach their maximum
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B)
hypothalamus stimulates the anterior pituitary to increase its output of FSH and LH
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C)
level of progesterone drops precipitously
done
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D)
hypothalamus increases its release-of FSH and LH
done
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question_answer 194) A vasectomy
A)
prevents the production of sperm in the testes
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B)
prevents the production of semen
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C)
prevents the movement of sperm into the urethra
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D)
prevents a man from having an erection
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question_answer 195) Sperm of animal species A cannot fertilize ovum of species B because
A)
fertilizin of A and antifertilizin of B are not compatible
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B)
antifertilizin of A and fertilizin of B are not compatible
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C)
fertilizin of A and B are not compatible
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D)
antifertilizin of A and B are not compatible
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question_answer 196) The unit of evolution is now known to be the
A)
individual
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B)
family
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C)
populaton
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D)
species
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question_answer 197) Trichoderma is an example of which of the following?
A)
Phycomycetes
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B)
Zygomycetes
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C)
Deuteromycetes
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D)
Basidiomycetes
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question_answer 198) Lichen is an association between
A)
fungi and bryophyte
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B)
fungi and algae
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C)
algae and pteridophyte
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D)
algae and bacteria
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question_answer 199) The genetic material of a viroid is
A)
DNA
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B)
RNA
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C)
protein
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D)
carbohydrate
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question_answer 200) Mannitol is a stored food material found in members of which of the following classes?
A)
Chlorophyceae
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B)
Xanthophyceae
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C)
Rhodophyceae
done
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D)
Phaeophyceae
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question_answer 201) The first stable product of\[{{C}_{4}}-\]pathway is
A)
OAA
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B)
PGA
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C)
PGAL
done
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D)
DHAP
done
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question_answer 202) Energy equivalent of a NADH is which of the following numbers of ATP molecules?
A)
2
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B)
3
done
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C)
38
done
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D)
36
done
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question_answer 203) Internodal elongation is associated with
A)
auxin
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B)
cytokinin
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C)
gibberellin
done
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D)
ABA
done
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question_answer 204) Which of the following is not a characteristic features of arthropods?
A)
Jointed appendages
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B)
Unsegmented body
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C)
Moulting
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D)
Articulated exoskeleton
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question_answer 205) Obliquely placed ovary and swollen placenta is associated with which of the following families?
A)
Asteraceae
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B)
Solanaceae
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C)
Brassicaceae
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D)
Malvaceae
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question_answer 206) On the basis of position of the ovary, mustard plants are
A)
hypogynous
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B)
perigynous
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C)
epigynous
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D)
zygomorphic
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question_answer 207) The flower of Calotropis has which of the following aestivations?
A)
Twisted
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B)
Imbricate
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C)
Valvate
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D)
Vexillary
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question_answer 208) The population limited to a particular geographic area is called as
A)
pandemic
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B)
endemic
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C)
alien
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D)
natural
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question_answer 209) Which of the following has the largest population in a food chain?
A)
Producers
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B)
Primary consumers
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C)
Secondary consumers
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D)
Decomposers
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question_answer 210) The second trophic level of longer food chains in a lake is
A)
phytoplankton
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B)
zooplankton
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C)
benthos
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D)
fishes
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question_answer 211) The vertical distribution of different species occupying different levels is called as
A)
stratification
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B)
fragmentation
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C)
mobilization
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D)
mineralization
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question_answer 212) Widal test is specific for the diagnosis of which of the following diseases?
A)
Typhoid
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B)
Malaria
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C)
Pneumonia
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D)
Common cold
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question_answer 213) Antibodies resemble which of the following shape?
A)
X
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B)
Y
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C)
Z
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D)
O
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question_answer 214) AIDS is caused by a
A)
retrovirus
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B)
DNA virus
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C)
viroid
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D)
protein
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question_answer 215) Which of the following belongs to the class- Gastropoda?
A)
Clam
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B)
Cuttle fish
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C)
Snail
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D)
Mussel
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question_answer 216) The blood-brain barrier
A)
consists of both anatomical and physiological factors
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B)
regulates to some extent the passage of substances from the blood to the interstitial fluid of the brain
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C)
is anatomically related to the formation of tight junctions between adjacent capillary endothelial cells
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D)
All of the above are correct
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question_answer 217) The stages between larval moults in an insects are called
A)
pupae
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B)
instars
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C)
grubs
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D)
caterpillars
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question_answer 218) Which of the following animals is a reptile?
A)
Salamander
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B)
Toad
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C)
Newt
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D)
Turtle
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question_answer 219) The secretion of tears, milk, sweat and oil are functions of which of the following tissues?
A)
Epithelial
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B)
Nervous
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C)
Loose connective
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D)
Lymphoid
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question_answer 220) Collagen fibers are characteristic of which tissue?
A)
Muscle
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B)
Epithelial
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C)
Connective
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D)
Nervous
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question_answer 221) Cortisol is secreted by the adrenal cortex in response to stress. In addition to its function in a stress response, it functions in negative feedback by
A)
inhibiting the hypothalamus so that Corticotropin Releasing Hormone (CRH) secretion is reduced
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B)
inhibiting the anterior pituitars ability to respond to CRH by reducing the pituitarys sensitivity to CRH
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C)
Both (a) and (b)
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D)
None of the above
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question_answer 222) Why asexual reproduction is sometimes disadvantageous?
A)
It allows animals that do not move around to produce offspring without finding mates
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B)
It allows an animal to produce many offspring quickly
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C)
It saves the time and energy of gamete production
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D)
It produces genetically uniform populations
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question_answer 223) Which of the following is responsible for nourishing the developing sperm?
A)
Sertoli cells
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B)
Leydig cells
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C)
Granulosa cells
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D)
Corpus luteum
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question_answer 224) What is the site of fertilization in mammals?
A)
Cervix
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B)
Uterus
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C)
Vagina
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D)
Fallopian tubes
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question_answer 225) Surfactant
A)
is a protein produced by type II alveolar cells
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B)
is excessive in many premature infants resulting in difficulties in breathing
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C)
Decreases the surface tension of the fluid lining the alveoli
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D)
is lacking in individuals suffering from acute respiratory distress syndrome
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