Solved papers for WB JEE Medical WB JEE Medical Solved Paper-2013

done WB JEE Medical Solved Paper-2013

  • question_answer1) In an experiment four quantities a, b, c and d are measured with percentage error 1%, 2%, 3% and 4% respectively. Quantity P is calculated as follows \[P=\frac{{{a}^{3}}{{b}^{2}}}{cd}%,\]Error in P is

    A) 14%

    B) 10%

    C) 7%

    D) 4%

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  • question_answer2) The velocity of a projectile at the initial point A is \[(2i+3j)\,m/s.\] Its velocity (in m/s) at point B is

    A) \[-2i-3j\]

    B) \[-2i+3j\]

    C) \[2i-3j\]

    D) \[2i+3j\]

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  • question_answer3) A stone falls freely under gravity. It covers distances \[{{h}_{1}},{{h}_{2}}\]and \[{{h}_{3}}\]in the first 5 seconds, the next 5 seconds and the next 5 seconds respectively. The relation between \[{{h}_{1}},{{h}_{2}}\]and \[{{h}_{3}}\] is

    A) \[{{h}_{1}}=2{{h}_{2}}=3{{h}_{3}}\]

    B) \[{{h}_{1}}=\frac{{{h}_{2}}}{3}=\frac{{{h}_{3}}}{{{h}_{5}}}\]

    C) \[{{h}_{2}}=3{{h}_{1}}\] and \[{{h}_{3}}=3{{h}_{2}}\]

    D) \[{{h}_{1}}={{h}_{2}}={{h}_{3}}\]

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  • question_answer4) Three blocks with masses m,2m and 3m are connected by strings, as shown in the figure. After an upward force F is applied on block m, the masses move upward at constant speed \[\upsilon .\]What is the net force on the block of mass 2m? (g is the acceleration due to gravity)

    A) Zero

    B) 2mg

    C) 3 mg

    D) 6mg

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  • question_answer5) The upper half of an inclined plane of inclination \[\theta \]is perfectly smooth while lower half is rough. A block starting from rest at the top of the plane will again come to rest at the bottom, if the coefficient of friction between the block and lower half of the plane is given by

    A) \[\mu =\frac{1}{\tan \theta }\]

    B) \[\mu =\frac{2}{\tan \theta }\]

    C) \[\mu =2\tan \theta \]

    D) \[\mu =\tan \theta \]

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  • question_answer6) A uniform force of \[(3i+j)N\]acts on a particle of mass 2 kg. Hence the particle is displaced from position\[(2i+k)m\] to position \[(4i+3j-k)m.\] The work done by the force on the particle is

    A) 9J

    B) 6J

    C) 13 J

    D) 15 J

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  • question_answer7) An explosion breaks a rock into three parts in a horizontal plane. Two of them go off at right angles to each other. The first part of mass 1 kg moves with a speed of \[12\,m{{s}^{-1}}\] and the second part of mass 2 kg moves with \[8\,m{{s}^{-1}}\] speed. If the third part flies off with \[4\,m{{s}^{-1}}\] speed, then its mass is

    A) 3 kg

    B) 5 kg

    C) 7kg

    D) 17kg

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  • question_answer8) A rod PQ of mass M and length L is hinged at end P. The rod is kepts horizontal by a massless string tied to point Q as shown in figure. When string is cut, the initial angular acceleration of the rod is

    A) \[\frac{3g}{2L}\]

    B) \[\frac{g}{L}\]

    C) \[\frac{2g}{L}\]

    D) \[\frac{2g}{3L}\]

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  • question_answer9) A small object of uniform density rolls up a curved surface with an initial velocity \[\upsilon .\]It reaches up to a maximum height of\[\frac{3{{\upsilon }^{2}}}{4g}\] with respect to the initial position. The object is

    A) ring

    B) solid sphere

    C) hollow sphere

    D) disc

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  • question_answer10) A body of mass m taken from the earths surface to the height equal to twice the radius (R) of the earth. The change is potential energy of body will be

    A) mg2R

    B) \[\frac{2}{3}mgR\]

    C) 3mgR

    D) \[\frac{1}{3}mgR\]

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  • question_answer11) Infinite number of bodies, each of mass 2 kg are situated on \[x-\]axis at distance 1m, 2 m, 4 m, 8 m, respectively from the origin. The resulting gravitational potential due to this system at the origin will be

    A) \[-G\]

    B) \[-\frac{8}{3}G\]

    C) \[-\frac{4}{3}G\]

    D) \[-4G\]

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  • question_answer12) The following four wires are made of the same material. Which of these will have the largest extension when the same tension is applied?

    A) Length = 50 cm, diameter = 0.5 mm

    B) Length = 100 cm, diameter = 1 mm

    C) Length = 200 cm, diameter = 2 mm

    D) Length = 300 cm, diameter = 3 mm

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  • question_answer13) The wettability of a surface by a liquid depends primarily on

    A) viscosity

    B) surface tension

    C) density

    D) angle of contact between the surface and the liquid

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  • question_answer14) The molar specific heats of an ideal gas at constant pressure and volume are denoted by \[{{C}_{P}}\]and \[{{C}_{V}}\]respectively. If \[\gamma =\frac{{{C}_{p}}}{{{C}_{V}}}\]and R is the universal gas constant, then \[{{C}_{V}}\]is equal to

    A) \[\frac{1+\gamma }{1-\gamma }\]

    B) \[\frac{R}{(\gamma -1)}\]

    C) \[\frac{(\gamma -1)}{R}\]

    D) \[\gamma R\]

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  • question_answer15) A piece of iron is heated in a flame. If first becomes dull red then becomes reddish yellow and finally turns to white hot. The correct explanation for the above observation is possible by using

    A) Stefans law

    B) Wiens displacement law

    C) Kirchoffs law

    D) Newtons law of cooling

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  • question_answer16) A gas is taken through the cycle \[A\to B\to C\to A,\]as shown. What is the net work done by the gas?

    A) 2000 J

    B) 1000 J

    C) Zero

    D) -2000J

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  • question_answer17) During an adiabatic process, the pressure of a gas is found to be proportional to the cube of its temperature. The ratio of \[\frac{{{C}_{p}}}{{{C}_{\upsilon }}}\] for the gas is

    A) \[\frac{4}{3}\]

    B) 2

    C) \[\frac{5}{3}\]

    D) \[\frac{3}{2}\]

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  • question_answer18) In the given (V-T) diagram, what is the relation between pressures \[{{p}_{1}}\]and\[{{p}_{2}}\]?

    A) \[{{p}_{2}}={{p}_{1}}\]

    B) \[{{p}_{2}}>{{p}_{1}}\]

    C) \[{{p}_{2}}<{{p}_{1}}\]

    D) Cannot be predicted

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  • question_answer19) The amount of heat energy required to raise the temperature of 1 g of helium at NTP, from \[{{T}_{1}}K\]to \[{{T}_{2}}K\]is

    A) \[\frac{3}{8}{{N}_{a}}{{K}_{B}}({{T}_{2}}-{{T}_{1}})\]

    B) \[\frac{3}{2}{{N}_{a}}{{K}_{B}}({{T}_{2}}-{{T}_{1}})\]

    C) \[\frac{3}{4}{{N}_{a}}{{K}_{B}}({{T}_{2}}-{{T}_{1}})\]

    D) \[\frac{3}{4}{{N}_{a}}{{K}_{B}}\left( \frac{{{T}_{2}}}{{{T}_{1}}} \right)\]

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  • question_answer20) A wave travelling in the positive \[x-\]direction having displacement along \[y-\]direction as 1 m, wavelength \[2\pi \,m\]and frequency of \[\frac{1}{\pi }Hz\]is represented by

    A) \[y=\sin (x-2t)\]

    B) \[y=\sin (2\pi x-2\pi t)\]

    C) \[y=\sin (10\pi x-20\pi t)\]

    D) \[y=\sin (2\pi x+2\pi t)\]

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  • question_answer21) If we study the vibration of a pipe open at both ends, then the following statements is not true

    A) Open end will be anti-node

    B) Odd harmonics of the fundamental frequency will be generated

    C) All harmonics of the fundamental frequency will be generated

    D) Pressure change will be maximum at both ends

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  • question_answer22) A source of unknown frequency gives 4 beats/s when sounded with a source of known frequency 250 Hz. The second harmonic of the source of unknown frequency gives five beats per second when sounded with a source of frequency 513 Hz. The unknown frequency is

    A) 254 Hz

    B) 246 Hz

    C) 240 Hz

    D) 260 Hz

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  • question_answer23) Two pith balls carrying equal charges are suspended from a common point by strings of equal length, the equilibrium separation between them is r. Now the strings are rigidly clamped at half the height. The equilibrium separation between the balls now become.

    A) \[{{\left( \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}} \right)}^{2}}\]

    B) \[\left( \frac{r}{\sqrt[3]{2}} \right)\]

    C) \[\left( \frac{2r}{\sqrt{3}} \right)\]

    D) \[\left( \frac{2r}{3} \right)\]

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  • question_answer24) A, B and C are three points in a uniform electric field. The electric potential is

    A) maximum at A

    B) maximum at B

    C) maximum at C

    D) same at all the three points A S and C

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  • question_answer25) A wire of resistance \[4\Omega \] is stretched to twice its original length. The resistance of stretched wire would be

    A) \[2\Omega \]

    B) \[4\Omega \]

    C) \[8\Omega \]

    D) \[16\Omega \]

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  • question_answer26) The internal resistance of a 2.1 V cell which gives a current of 0.2 A through a resistance of \[10\,\Omega \] is

    A) \[0.2\,\Omega \]

    B) \[0.5\,\Omega \]

    C) \[0.8\,\Omega \]

    D) \[1.0\,\Omega \]

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  • question_answer27) The resistances of the four arms P, Q, R and S in a Wheatstones bridge are \[10\,\Omega ,\,30\,\Omega ,\,30\,\Omega \]and \[90\,\Omega ,\] respectively. The emf and internal resistance of the cell are 7 V and \[5\,\Omega \] respectively. If the galvanometer resistance is \[50\,\Omega ,\] the current drawn from the cell will be

    A) 1.0 A

    B) 0.2 A

    C) 0.1 A

    D) 2.0 A

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  • question_answer28) When a proton is released from rest in a room, it starts with an initial acceleration\[{{a}_{0}}\] towards west. When it is projected towards north with a speed \[{{\upsilon }_{0}}\]it moves with an initial acceleration \[3{{a}_{0}}\] towards west. The electric and magnetic fields in the room are

    A) \[\frac{m{{a}_{0}}}{e}west,\frac{2m{{a}_{0}}}{e{{v}_{0}}}up\]

    B) \[\frac{m{{a}_{0}}}{e}west,\frac{2m{{a}_{0}}}{e{{v}_{0}}}down\]

    C) \[\frac{m{{a}_{0}}}{e}east,\frac{3m{{a}_{0}}}{e{{v}_{0}}}up\]

    D) \[\frac{m{{a}_{0}}}{e}east,\frac{3m{{a}_{0}}}{e{{v}_{0}}}down\]

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  • question_answer29) A current loop in a magnetic field

    A) experiences a torque whether the field is uniform or non-uniform in all orientations

    B) can be in equilibrium in one orientations

    C) can be equilibrium in two orientations, both the equilibrium states are unstable

    D) can be in equilibrium in two orientations, one stable while the other is unstable

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  • question_answer30) A bar magnet of length \[l\] and magnetic dipole moment M is bent in the form of an arc as shown in figure. The new magnetic dipole moment will be

    A) M

    B) \[\frac{3}{\pi }M\]

    C) \[\frac{2}{\pi }M\]

    D) \[\frac{M}{2}\]

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  • question_answer31) A wire loop is rotated in a magnetic field. The frequency of change of direction of the induced emf is

    A) once per revolution

    B) twice per revolution

    C) four times per revolution

    D) six times per revolution

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  • question_answer32) A coil of self-inductance L is connected in series with a bulb B and an AC source. Brightness of the bulb decreases when

    A) frequency of the AC source is decreased

    B) number of turns in the coil is reduced

    C) a capacitance of reactance \[{{X}_{C}}={{X}_{L}}\]is included in the same circuit

    D) an iron rod is inserted in the coil

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  • question_answer33) The condition under which a microwave oven heats up a food item containing water molecules most efficiently is

    A) the frequency of the microwave must match the resonant frequency of the water molecules

    B) the frequency of the microwave has no relation with natural frequency of water molecules

    C) microwave are heat waves, so always produce heating

    D) infrared waves produce heating in a microwave oven

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  • question_answer34) Ratio of longest wavelengths corresponding to Lyman and Balmer series in hydrogen spectrum is

    A) \[\frac{5}{27}\]

    B) \[\frac{3}{23}\]

    C) \[\frac{7}{29}\]

    D) \[\frac{9}{31}\]

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  • question_answer35) The half-life of a radioactive isotope X is 20 yr. It decays to another element Y which is stable. The two elements X and Y were found to be in the ratio 1:7 in a sample of a given rock. The age of the rock is estimated to be

    A) 40 yr

    B) 60 yr

    C) 80 yr

    D) 100 yr

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  • question_answer36) A certain mass of hydrogen is changed to helium by the process of fusion. The mass defect in fusion reaction is 0.02866 u. The energy liberated, per u is (given 1 u =931 MeV)

    A) 2.67 MeV

    B) 26.7 MeV

    C) 6.675 MeV

    D) 13.35MeV

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  • question_answer37) For photoelectric emission from certain metal the cut-off frequency is v. If radiation of frequency 2v impinges on the metal plate, the maximum possible velocity of the emitted electron will be (m is the electron mass)

    A) \[\sqrt{\frac{hv}{(2m)}}\]

    B) \[\sqrt{\frac{hv}{m}}\]

    C) \[\sqrt{\frac{2hv}{m}}\]

    D) \[2\sqrt{\frac{hv}{m}}\]

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  • question_answer38) The wavelength \[{{\lambda }_{e}}\] Of an electron and \[{{\lambda }_{p}}\]of a photon of same energy E are related by

    A) \[{{\lambda }_{p}}\propto \lambda _{e}^{2}\]

    B) \[{{\lambda }_{p}}\propto {{\lambda }_{e}}\]

    C) \[{{\lambda }_{p}}\propto \sqrt{{{\lambda }_{e}}}\]

    D) \[{{\lambda }_{p}}\propto \frac{1}{\sqrt{{{\lambda }_{e}}}}\]

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  • question_answer39) A plano-convex lens fits exactly into a plano-concave lens. Their plane surfaces are parallel to each other. If lenses are made of different materials of refractive indices \[{{\mu }_{1}}\]and \[{{\mu }_{2}}\]and R is the radius of curvature of the curved surface of the lenses, then the focal length of the combination is

    A) \[\frac{R}{2({{\mu }_{1}}+{{\mu }_{2}})}\]

    B) \[\frac{R}{2({{\mu }_{1}}-{{\mu }_{2}})}\]

    C) \[\frac{R}{({{\mu }_{1}}-{{\mu }_{2}})}\]

    D) \[\frac{2R}{({{\mu }_{2}}-{{\mu }_{1}})}\]

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  • question_answer40) For a normal eye, the cornea of eye provides a converging power of 40 D and the least converging power of the eye lens behind the cornea is 20 D. Using this information, the distance between the retina and the cornea-eye lens can be estimated to be

    A) 5cm

    B) 2.5cm

    C) 1.67cm

    D) 1.5cm

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  • question_answer41) In Youngs double slit experiment, the slits are 2 mm apart and are illuminated by photons of two wavelengths \[{{\lambda }_{1}}=12000\overset{\text{o}}{\mathop{\text{A}}}\,\] and \[{{\lambda }_{2}}=10000\overset{\text{o}}{\mathop{\text{A}}}\,.\]At what minimum distance from the common central bright fringe on the screen 2 m from the slit will a bright fringe from one interference pattern coincide with a bright fringe from the other?

    A) 8 mm

    B) 6 mm

    C) 4 mm

    D) 3 mm

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  • question_answer42) A parallel beam of fast moving electrons is incident normally on a narrow slit. A fluorescent screen is placed at a large distance from the slit. If the speed of the electrons is increased, then which of the following statements is correct?

    A) Diffraction pattern is not observed on the screen in the case of electrons

    B) The angular width of the central maximum of the diffraction pattern will increase.

    C) The angular width of the central maximum will decrease

    D) The angular width of the central maximum will be unaffected

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  • question_answer43) In a \[n-\]type semiconductor, which of the following statement is true?

    A) Electrons are majority carriers and trivalent atoms are dopants

    B) Electrons are minority carriers and pentavalent atoms are dopants

    C) Holes are minority carriers and pentavalentf atoms are dopants

    D) Holes are majority carriers and trivalent atoms are dopants

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  • question_answer44) In a common emitter (CE) amplifier having a voltage gain G, the transistor used has transconductance 0.03 mho and current gain 25. If the above transistor is replaced with another onewith transconductance 0.02 mho and current gain 20, the voltage gain will

    A) \[\frac{2}{3}G\]

    B) \[1.5\,G\]

    C) \[\frac{1}{3}G\]

    D) \[\frac{5}{4}G\]

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  • question_answer45) The output (X) of the logic circuit shown in figure will be

    A) \[X=\bar{\bar{A}}.\bar{\bar{B}}\]

    B) \[X=\overline{A.B}\]

    C) \[X=A.B\]

    D) \[X=\overline{A+B}\]

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  • question_answer46) The value of Plancks constant is \[6.63\times {{10}^{-34}}\,Js.\]The speed of light is \[3\times {{10}^{17}}nm{{s}^{-1}}.\] Which value is closest to the wavelength in nanometer of a quantum of light with frequency of \[6\times {{10}^{15}}{{s}^{-1}}\]?

    A) 10

    B) 25

    C) 50

    D) 75

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  • question_answer47) What is the maximum numbers of electrons that can be associated with the following set of quantum numbers? \[n=3,\,l=1\]And\[m=-1\]

    A) 10

    B) 6

    C) 4

    D) 2

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  • question_answer48) What is the activation energy for a reaction if its rate doubles when the temperature is raised from \[20{{\,}^{o}}C\]to \[35{{\,}^{o}}C\]? \[(R=8.314\,J\,mo{{l}^{-1}}\,{{K}^{-1}})\]

    A) \[342\,kJ\,mo{{l}^{-1}}\]

    B) \[269\,kJ\,mo{{l}^{-1}}\]

    C) \[34.7\,kJ\,mo{{l}^{-1}}\]

    D) \[15.1\,kJ\,mo{{l}^{-1}}\]

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  • question_answer49) A hydrogen gas electrode is made by dipping platinum wire in a solution of \[HCl\]of \[pH=10\]and by passing hydrogen gas around the platinum wire at 1 aim pressure. The oxidation potential of electrode would be

    A) 0.059V

    B) 0.59V

    C) 0.118V

    D) 1.18V

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  • question_answer50) A reaction having equal energies of activation for forward and reverse reactions has

    A) \[\Delta S=0\]

    B) \[\Delta G=0\]

    C) \[\Delta H=0\]

    D) \[\Delta H=\Delta G=\Delta S=0\]

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  • question_answer51) At \[25{{\,}^{o}}C\]molar conductance of 0.1 molar aqueous solution of ammonium hydroxide is \[9.54\,oh{{m}^{-1}}\,c{{m}^{2}}\,mo{{l}^{-1}}\] and at infinite dilution its molar conductance is \[238\,oh{{m}^{-1}}\,c{{m}^{2}}mo{{l}^{-1}}.\] The degree of ionisation of ammonium hydroxide at the same concentration and temperature is

    A) 2.080%

    B) 20.800%

    C) 4.008%

    D) 40.800%

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  • question_answer52) Based on equation \[E=-2.178\times {{10}^{-18}}J\left( \frac{{{Z}^{2}}}{{{n}^{2}}} \right)\]certain conclusions are written. Which of them is not correct?

    A) The negative sign in equation simply means that the energy of electron bound to the nucleus is lower than it would be if the electrons were at the infinite distance from the nucleus

    B) Larger the value of n, the larger is the orbit radius

    C) Equation can be used to calculate the change in energy when the electron changes orbit

    D) For \[n=1\]the electron has a more negative energy than it does for which means that the electron is more loosely bound in the smallest allowed orbit

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  • question_answer53) A button cell used in watches functions as following \[Zn(s)+A{{g}_{2}}O(s)+{{H}_{2}}O(l)2Ag(s)\] \[+Z{{n}^{2+}}(aq)+2O{{H}^{-}}(aq)\] If half cell potentials are \[Z{{n}^{2+}}(aq)+2{{e}^{-}}\to Zn(s);{{E}^{o}}=-0.76\,V\] \[A{{g}_{2}}O(s)+{{H}_{2}}O(l)+2{{e}^{-}}\] \[\to 2Ag(s)+2O{{H}^{-}}(aq),\] \[{{E}^{o}}=0.34\,V\] The cell potential will be

    A) 1.10V

    B) 0.42V

    C) 0.84V

    D) 1.34V

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  • question_answer54) How many grams of concentrated nitric acid solution should be used to prepare 250 mL of \[2.0M\,HN{{O}_{3}}\,?\] The concentrated acid is 70% \[HN{{O}_{3}}.\]

    A) \[45.0\text{ }g\text{ }conc.\text{ }HN{{O}_{3}}\]

    B) \[~90.0\text{ }g\text{ }conc.\text{ }HN{{O}_{3}}\]

    C) \[70.0\,g\,conc.HN{{O}_{3}}\]

    D) \[54.0\,g\,conc.\,HN{{O}_{3}}\]

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  • question_answer55) The number of carbon atoms per unit cell of diamond unit cell is

    A) 4

    B) 8

    C) 6

    D) 1

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  • question_answer56) Maximum deviation from ideal gas is expected from

    A) \[{{H}_{2}}(g)\]

    B) \[{{N}_{2}}(g)\]

    C) \[C{{H}_{4}}(g)\]

    D) \[N{{H}_{3}}(g)\]

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  • question_answer57) A metal has a fee lattice. The edge length of the unit cell is 404 pm. The density of the metal is \[2.72\,g\,c{{m}^{-3}}.\] The molar mass of the metal is (\[{{N}_{A}}\] Avogadros constant \[=6.02\times {{10}^{23}}\,mo{{l}^{-1}}\]

    A) \[40\,g\,mo{{l}^{-1}}\]

    B) \[30\,g\,mo{{l}^{-1}}\]

    C) \[27\,g\,mo{{l}^{-1}}\]

    D) \[20\,g\,mo{{l}^{-1}}\]

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  • question_answer58) Dipole-induced dipole interactions are present in which of the following pairs?

    A) \[{{H}_{2}}O\]and alcohol

    B) \[C{{l}_{2}}\]and \[CC{{l}_{4}}\]

    C) HCI and He atoms

    D) \[Si{{F}_{4}}\]and He atoms

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  • question_answer59) A magnetic moment of 1.73 BM will be shown by one among the following

    A) \[{{[Cu{{(N{{H}_{3}})}_{4}}]}^{2+}}\]

    B) \[{{[{{(NiCN)}_{4}}]}^{2-}}\]

    C) \[TiC{{l}_{4}}\]

    D) \[{{[CoC{{l}_{6}}]}^{4-}}\]

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  • question_answer60) Roasting of sulphides gives the gas X as a by-product. This is a colourless gas with choking smell of burnt sulphur and causes great damage to respiratory organs as a result of acid rain. Its aqueous solution is acidic acts as. a reducing agent and its acid has never been insolated. The gas X is

    A) \[{{H}_{2}}S\]

    B) \[S{{O}_{2}}\]

    C) \[C{{O}_{2}}\]

    D) \[S{{O}_{3}}\]

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  • question_answer61) Which is the strongest acid in the following?

    A) \[{{H}_{2}}S{{O}_{4}}\]

    B) \[HCl{{O}_{3}}\]

    C) \[HCl{{O}_{4}}\]

    D) \[{{H}_{2}}S{{O}_{3}}\]

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  • question_answer62) Which of the following is paramagnetic?

    A) CO

    B) \[O_{2}^{-}\]

    C) \[C{{N}^{-}}\]

    D) \[N{{O}^{+}}\]

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  • question_answer63) Which of the following structure is similar to graphite?

    A) BN

    B) B

    C) \[{{B}_{4}}C\]

    D) \[{{B}_{2}}{{H}_{6}}\]

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  • question_answer64) The basic structural unit of silicates is

    A) \[Si{{O}^{-}}\]

    B) \[SiO_{4}^{4-}\]

    C) \[SiO_{3}^{2-}\]

    D) \[SiO_{4}^{2-}\]

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  • question_answer65) Reaction by which benzaldehyde cannot be prepared?





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  • question_answer66) Which of the following does not give oxygen on heating?

    A) \[KCl{{O}_{3}}\]

    B) \[Zn{{(Cl{{O}_{3}})}_{2}}\]

    C) \[{{K}_{2}}C{{r}_{2}}{{O}_{7}}\]

    D) \[{{(N{{H}_{4}})}_{2}}C{{r}_{2}}{{O}_{7}}\]

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  • question_answer67) Which of the following lanthanide ions is diamagnetic? \[(At\,nos.\,Ce=58,\,Sm=62,\,Eu=63,\,Yb=70)\]

    A) \[C{{e}^{2+}}\]

    B) \[S{{m}^{2+}}\]

    C) \[E{{u}^{2+}}\]

    D) \[Y{{b}^{2+}}\]

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  • question_answer68) Identify the correct order of solubility in aqueous medium.

    A) \[CuS>ZnS>N{{a}_{2}}S\]

    B) \[ZnS\text{ }>\text{ }N{{a}_{2}}S>CuS\]

    C) \[N{{a}_{2}}S>CuS\text{ }>ZnS\]

    D) \[N{{a}_{2}}S\text{ }>\text{ }ZnS\text{ }>\text{ }CuS\]

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  • question_answer69) \[Xe{{F}_{2}}\]is structural with

    A) \[Te{{F}_{2}}\]

    B) \[ICl_{2}^{-}\]

    C) \[SbC{{l}_{3}}\]

    D) \[BaC{{l}_{2}}\]

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  • question_answer70) An excess of \[AgN{{O}_{3}}\]is added to 100 mL of a 0.01 M solution of dichlorotetraaquachromium (III) chloride. The number of moles of\[AgCl\] precipitate would be

    A) 0.001

    B) 0.002

    C) 0.003

    D) 0.01

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  • question_answer71) Which of these is least likely to act as a Lewis base?

    A) CO

    B) \[{{F}^{-}}\]

    C) \[B{{F}_{3}}\]

    D) \[P{{F}_{3}}\]

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  • question_answer72) \[KMn{{O}_{4}}\]can be prepared from \[{{K}_{2}}Mn{{O}_{4}}\]as per reaction \[3MnO_{4}^{2-}+2{{H}_{2}}O\rightleftharpoons 2MnO_{4}^{-}\] \[+Mn{{O}_{2}}+4O{{H}^{-}}\] The reaction can go to completion by removing \[O{{H}^{-}}\]ions by adding

    A) HCI

    B) KOH

    C) \[C{{O}_{2}}\]

    D) \[S{{O}_{2}}\]

    View Answer play_arrow
  • question_answer73) Which of the following is electron deficient?

    A) \[{{(C{{H}_{3}})}_{2}}\]

    B) \[{{(Si{{H}_{3}})}_{2}}\]

    C) \[{{(B{{H}_{3}})}_{2}}\]

    D) \[P{{H}_{3}}\]

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  • question_answer74) Structure of the compound whose IUPAC name is 3-ethyl-2-hydroxy- 4-methylhex-3-en-5-ynoic acid is





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  • question_answer75) Which of these is not a monomer for a high molecular mass silicone polymer?

    A) \[MeSiC{{l}_{3}}\]

    B) \[M{{e}_{2}}SiC{{l}_{2}}\]

    C) \[M{{e}_{3}}SiCl\]

    D) \[PhSiC{{l}_{3}}\]

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  • question_answer76) Which of the following statements about the interstitial compounds is incorrect?

    A) They retain metallic conductivity

    B) They are chemically reactive

    C) They are much harder than the pure metal

    D) They have higher melting points than the pure metal

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  • question_answer77) Which one of the following molecules contain no \[\pi -\]bond?

    A) \[C{{O}_{2}}\]

    B) \[{{H}_{2}}O\]

    C) \[S{{O}_{2}}\]

    D) \[N{{O}_{2}}\]

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  • question_answer78) Antiseptics and disinfectants either kill or prevent growth of microorganisms. Identify which of the following is not true.

    A) A 0.2% solution of phenol is an antiseptic while 1% solution acts as a disinfectant

    B) Chlorine and iodine are used as strong disinfectants

    C) Dilute solutions of boric acid and hydrogen, peroxide are strong antiseptics

    D) Disinfectants harm the living tissues

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  • question_answer79) Among the following ethers, which one will produce methyl alcohol on treatment with hot concentrated HI?

    A) \[C{{H}_{3}}-C{{H}_{2}}-C{{H}_{2}}-C{{H}_{2}}-O-C{{H}_{3}}\]

    B) \[C{{H}_{3}}-C{{H}_{2}}-\underset{C{{H}_{3}}}{\mathop{\underset{|}{\mathop{CH}}\,}}\,-O-C{{H}_{3}}\]

    C) \[C{{H}_{3}}-\underset{C{{H}_{3}}}{\overset{C{{H}_{3}}}{\mathop{\underset{|}{\overset{|}{\mathop{C}}}\,}}}\,-O-C{{H}_{3}}\]

    D) \[C{{H}_{3}}-\underset{C{{H}_{3}}}{\mathop{\underset{|}{\mathop{CH}}\,}}\,-C{{H}_{2}}-O-C{{H}_{3}}\]

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  • question_answer80) Nylon is an example of

    A) polyster

    B) polysaccharide

    C) polyamide

    D) polythene

    View Answer play_arrow
  • question_answer81) The structure of isobutyl group in an organic compound is


    B) \[C{{H}_{3}}-\underset{|}{\mathop{CH}}\,-C{{H}_{2}}-C{{H}_{3}}\]

    C) \[C{{H}_{3}}-C{{H}_{2}}-C{{H}_{2}}-C{{H}_{2}}-\]

    D) \[C{{H}_{3}}-\underset{C{{H}_{3}}}{\overset{C{{H}_{3}}}{\mathop{\underset{|}{\overset{|}{\mathop{C}}}\,}}}\,-\]

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  • question_answer82) Nitrobenzene on reaction with conc. \[HN{{O}_{3}}/{{H}_{2}}S{{O}_{4}}\]at \[80-100{{\,}^{o}}C\]forms which one of the following products?

    A) 1, 2-dinitrobenzene

    B) 1, 3-dinitrobenzene

    C) 1.4-dinitrobenzene

    D) 1, 2, 4-trinitrobenzene

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  • question_answer83) Some meto-directing substituents in aromatic substitution are given. Which one is most deactivating?

    A) \[-C\equiv N\]

    B) \[-S{{O}_{3}}H\]

    C) \[-COOH\]

    D) \[-N{{O}_{2}}\]

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  • question_answer84) \[6.02\times {{10}^{20}}\]molecules of urea are present in 100 mL of its solution. The concentration of solution is

    A) 0.02 M

    B) 0.01 M

    C) 0.001 M

    D) 0.1 M

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  • question_answer85) Which of the following is a polar molecule?

    A) \[B{{F}_{3}}\]

    B) \[S{{F}_{4}}\]

    C) \[Si{{F}_{4}}\]

    D) \[Xe{{F}_{4}}\]

    View Answer play_arrow
  • question_answer86) Which is the monomer of neoprene in the following?

    A) \[C{{H}_{2}}=CH-C\equiv CH\]

    B) \[C{{H}_{2}}=\underset{C{{H}_{3}}}{\mathop{\underset{|}{\mathop{CH}}\,}}\,-CH=C{{H}_{2}}\]

    C) \[C{{H}_{2}}=\underset{Cl}{\mathop{\underset{|}{\mathop{C}}\,}}\,-CH=C{{H}_{2}}\]

    D) \[C{{H}_{2}}=CH-CH=C{{H}_{2}}\]

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  • question_answer87) In the reaction, A is

    A) \[HgS{{O}_{4}}/{{H}_{2}}S{{O}_{4}}\]

    B) \[C{{u}_{2}}C{{l}_{2}}\]

    C) \[{{H}_{3}}P{{O}_{2}}\]and \[{{H}_{2}}O\]

    D) \[{{H}^{+}}/{{H}_{2}}O\]

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  • question_answer88) The radical because it has

    A) 6 p-orbitals and 6 unpaired electrons

    B) 7 p-orbitals and 6 unpaired electrons

    C) 7 p-orbitals and 7 unpaired electrons

    D) 6 p-orbitals and 7 unpaired electrons

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  • question_answer89) The order of stability of the following tatutomeric compound is \[\underset{I}{\mathop{C{{H}_{2}}=\,\overset{OH}{\mathop{\overset{|}{\mathop{C}}\,}}\,-C{{H}_{2}}-\overset{O}{\mathop{\overset{||}{\mathop{C}}\,}}\,-C{{H}_{3}}\rightleftharpoons }}\,\] \[\underset{II}{\mathop{C{{H}_{3}}-\,\overset{O}{\mathop{\overset{||\,\,\,}{\mathop{C}}\,}}\,-C{{H}_{2}}-\overset{O}{\mathop{\overset{||}{\mathop{C}}\,}}\,-C{{H}_{3}}\rightleftharpoons }}\,\] \[\underset{III}{\mathop{C{{H}_{3}}-\,\overset{O\,H}{\mathop{\overset{|}{\mathop{C}}\,}}\,=CH-\overset{O}{\mathop{\overset{||}{\mathop{C}}\,}}\,-C{{H}_{3}}\rightleftharpoons }}\,\]

    A) I > II > III

    B) III > II > I

    C) II>I> HI

    D) II > III > I

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  • question_answer90) Which of the following compounds will not undergo Friedal-Crafts reaction easily?

    A) Cumene

    B) Xylene

    C) Nitrobenzene

    D) Toluene

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  • question_answer91) Select the wrong statement.

    A) isogametes are similar in structure, function and behaviour

    B) Anisogametes differ either in structure. function and behaviour

    C) In oomycetes female gamete is smaller and motile, while male gamete is larger and non-motile

    D) Chlamydomonas exhibits both isogamy and anisogamy and Fucus shows oogamy

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  • question_answer92) Which one of the following is not a correct statement?

    A) Herbarium houses dried, pressed and preserved plant specimens

    B) Botanical gardens have collection of living plants for reference

    C) A museum has collection of photographs of plants and animals

    D) Key is a taxonomic aid for identifications specimens

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  • question_answer93) Isogamous condition with non-flagellated gametes is found in

    A) Chlamydomonas

    B) Spirogyra

    C) Volvox

    D) Fucus

    View Answer play_arrow
  • question_answer94) Besides paddy fields, cyanobacteria are also found inside vegetative part of

    A) Pinus

    B) Cycas

    C) Equisetum

    D) Psilotum

    View Answer play_arrow
  • question_answer95) Megasporangium is equivalent to

    A) embryo sac

    B) fruit

    C) nucellus

    D) ovule

    View Answer play_arrow
  • question_answer96) Read the following statements (IV) and answer the question which follows them

    I. In liverworts, mosses and ferns gametophytes are free living.
    II. Gymnosperms and some ferns are heterospores.
    III. Sexual reproduction in Fucus, Volvox and aAlbugo is oogamous.
    IV. The sporophyte in liverworts is more elaborate than that in mosses.
    How many of the above statements are correct?

    A) One

    B) Two

    C) Three

    D) Four

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  • question_answer97) Among bitter gourd, mustard, brinjal, pumpkin, China rose, lupin, cucumber, sunnhemp, gram, guava, bean, chilli, plum, Petunia, tomato, rose, Withania, potato, onion, aloe and tulip, how many plants have hypogynous flower?

    A) Six

    B) Ten

    C) Fifteen

    D) Eighteen

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  • question_answer98) Interfascicular cambium develops from the cells of

    A) medullary rays

    B) xylem parenchyma

    C) endodermis

    D) pericycle

    View Answer play_arrow
  • question_answer99) In China rose the flowers are

    A) actinomorphic, hypogynous with twisted aestivation

    B) actinomorphic, epigynous with valvate aestivation

    C) zygomorphic, hypogynous with imbricate aestivation

    D) zygomorphic, epigynous with twisted aestivation

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  • question_answer100) Lenticels are involved in

    A) transpiration

    B) gaseous exchange

    C) food transport

    D) photosynthesis

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  • question_answer101) Age of a tree can be estimated by

    A) its height and girth

    B) biomass

    C) number of annual rings

    D) diameter of its heartwood

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  • question_answer102) Seed coat is not thin, membranous in

    A) maize

    B) coconut

    C) groundnut

    D) gram

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  • question_answer103) Transition state structure of the substrate formed during an enzymatic reaction is

    A) transient but stable

    B) permanent but unstable

    C) transient and unstable

    D) permanent and stable

    View Answer play_arrow
  • question_answer104) A phosphoglyceride is always made up of

    A) only a saturated fatty acid esterified to a glycerol molecule to which a phosphate group is also attached

    B) only an unsaturated fatty acid esterified to a glycerol molecule to which a phosphate group is also attached

    C) a saturated or unsaturated fatty acid esterified to a glycerol molecule to which a phosphate group is also attached

    D) a saturated or unsaturated fatty acid esterified to a phosphate grolip, which is also attached to a glycerol molecule

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  • question_answer105) Pigment-containing memberanous extensions in some cyanobacteria are

    A) heterocysts

    B) basal bodies

    C) pneumatophores

    D) chromatophores

    View Answer play_arrow
  • question_answer106) A major site for synthesis oflipids is

    A) RER

    B) SER

    C) symplast

    D) nucleoplasm

    View Answer play_arrow
  • question_answer107) The complex formed by a pair of synapsed homologous chromosomes is called

    A) equatorial plate

    B) kinetochore

    C) bivalent

    D) axoneme

    View Answer play_arrow
  • question_answer108) The three boxes in this diagram represent the three major biosynthetic pathways in aerobic respiration. Arrows represent net reactants or products Arrows numbered 4, 8 and 12 can all be

    A) NADH

    B) ATP

    C) \[{{H}_{2}}O\]

    D) \[Fa{{D}^{+}}or\,FAD{{H}_{2}}\]

    View Answer play_arrow
  • question_answer109) The most abundant intracellular cation is

    A) \[N{{a}^{+}}\]

    B) \[C{{a}^{2+}}\]

    C) \[{{H}^{+}}\]

    D) \[{{K}^{+}}\]

    View Answer play_arrow
  • question_answer110) During seed germination its stored food is mobilised by

    A) ethylene

    B) cytokinin

    C) ABA

    D) gibberellin

    View Answer play_arrow
  • question_answer111) Which of the following criteria does not pertain to facilitated transport?

    A) Requirement of special membrane proteins

    B) High selectivity

    C) Transport saturation

    D) Uphill transport

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  • question_answer112) The first stable product of fixation of atmospheric nitrogen in leguminous plants is

    A) \[NO_{2}^{-}\]

    B) ammonia

    C) \[NO_{3}^{-}\]

    D) glutamate

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  • question_answer113) Which of the metabolites is common to respiration mediated breakdown of fats, carbohydrates and proteins?

    A) Glucose-6-phosphate

    B) Fructose 1. 6-bisphosphate

    C) Pyruvicacid

    D) Acetyl Co-A

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  • question_answer114) Which one of the following statement is correct?

    A) Hard outer layer of pollen is called inline

    B) Sporogenous tissue is haploid

    C) Endothecium produces the microspores

    D) Tapetum nourishes the developing pollen

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  • question_answer115) Product of sexual reproduction generally generates

    A) longer viability of seeds

    B) prolonged dormancy

    C) new genetic combination leading to variation

    D) large biomass

    View Answer play_arrow
  • question_answer116) Meiosis takes place in

    A) Meiocyte

    B) Conidia

    C) Gemmule

    D) Megaspore

    View Answer play_arrow
  • question_answer117) Advantage of cleistogamy is

    A) higher genetic variability

    B) more vigorous offspring

    C) no dependence on pollinators

    D) vivipary

    View Answer play_arrow
  • question_answer118) Monoecious plant of Chara shows occurrence of

    A) antheridiophore and archegoniophore on the same plant

    B) stamen and carpel on the same plant

    C) upper antheridium and lower oogonium on the same plant

    D) upper oogonium and lower antheridium on the same plant

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  • question_answer119) Perisperm differs from endosperm in

    A) being a haploid tissue

    B) having no reserve food

    C) being a diploid tissue

    D) its formation by fusion of secondary nucleus with several sperms

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  • question_answer120) Which of the following statements is not true of two genes that show 50% recombination frequency?

    A) the genes may be on different chromosomes

    B) the genes are tightly linked

    C) the genes show independent assortment

    D) if the genes are present on the same chromosome, they undergo more than one crossovers in every meiosis

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  • question_answer121) Variation in gene frequencies within populations can occur by chance rather than by natural selection. This is referred to as

    A) genetic flow

    B) genetic drift

    C) random mating

    D) genetic load

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  • question_answer122) If two persons with AB blood group marry and have sufficiently large number of children, these children could be classified as A blood group : AB blood group : Ti blood group in 1 : 2 : 1 ratio. Modem technique of protein electrophoresis reveals presence of both A5 and TB type proteins in AK blood group .individuals. This is an example of

    A) codominance

    B) incomplete dominance

    C) partial dominance

    D) complete dominance

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  • question_answer123) The process by which organisms with different evolutionary history evolve similar phenotypic adaptations in response to a common environmental challenge, is called

    A) natural selection

    B) convergent evolution

    C) non-random evolution

    D) adaptive radiation

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  • question_answer124) The tendency of population to remain in genetic equilibrium may be disturbed by

    A) random mating

    B) lack of migration

    C) lack of mutations

    D) lack of random mating

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  • question_answer125) Which of the following Bt crops is being grown in India by the farmers?

    A) Maize

    B) Cotton

    C) Brinjal

    D) Soyabean

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  • question_answer126) A good producer of citric acid is

    A) Aspergillus

    B) Pseudomonas

    C) Clostridium

    D) Saccharomyces

    View Answer play_arrow
  • question_answer127) DNA fragments generated by the restriction endonucleases in a chemical reaction can be separated by

    A) centrifugation

    B) polymerase chain reaction

    C) electrophoresis

    D) restriction mapping

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  • question_answer128) Which of the following is not correctly matched for the organism and its cell wall degrading enzyme?

    A) Bacteria - Lysozyme

    B) Plant cells - Cellulase

    C) Algae - Methylase

    D) Fungi - Chitinase

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  • question_answer129) The colonies of recombinant bacteria appear white in contrast to blue colonies of non-recombinant bacteria because of

    A) Non-recombinant bacteria containing \[\beta \]galactosidase

    B) Insertional inactivation ofoc-galactosidase in non-recombinant bacteria

    C) Insertional inactivation ofa-galactosidase in recombinant bacteria

    D) Inactivation of glycosidase enzyme in recombinant bacteria

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  • question_answer130) Which of the following are likely to be present in deep sea water?

    A) Archaebacteria

    B) Eubacteria

    C) Blue-green algae

    D) Saprophytic fungi

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  • question_answer131) Natural reservoir of phosphorus is

    A) sea water

    B) animaftiones

    C) rock

    D) fossils

    View Answer play_arrow
  • question_answer132) Secondary productivity is rate of formation of new organic matter by

    A) producer

    B) parasite

    C) consumer

    D) decomposer

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  • question_answer133) Which one of the following is not used for ex situ plant conservation?

    A) Field gene banks

    B) Seed banks

    C) Shifting cultivation

    D) Botanical gardens

    View Answer play_arrow
  • question_answer134) Kyoto Protocol was endorsed at

    A) \[CoP-3\]

    B) \[CoP-5\]

    C) \[CoP-6\]

    D) \[CoP-4\]

    View Answer play_arrow
  • question_answer135) Which of the following represent maximum number of species among global biodiversity?

    A) Algae

    B) Lichens

    C) Fungi

    D) Mosses and ferns

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  • question_answer136) Match the name of the animal (Column I) with one characteristics (Column II) and the phylum/class (Column III) to which it belongs


    Column-I Column-II Column-III
    Petromyzon Ectoparasite Cyclostomata


    Column-I Column-II Column-III
    Ichthyophis Terrestrial Reptilia


    Column-I Column-II Column-III
    Limulus Body covered by chitinous exoskeleton Pisces


    Column-I Column-II Column-III
    Adamsia Radially symmetrical Radially symmetrical

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  • question_answer137) Which of the following are correctly matched with respect to their taxonomic classification?

    A) Flying fish. cuttlefish, silverfish -Pisces

    B) Centipede, millipede, spider, scorpion -Insecta

    C) House fly, butterfly, tse-tse fly. silverfish- Insecta

    D) Spiny anteater, sea urchin, sea cucumber - Echinodermata

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  • question_answer138) Which group of animals belong to the same phylum?

    A) Malarial parasite, Amoeba, mosquito

    B) Earthworm, pinworm, tapeworm

    C) Prawn, scorpion, Locusta

    D) Sponge, sea anemone, starfish

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  • question_answer139) One of the representative of Phylum-Arthropoda is

    A) cuttlefish

    B) silverfish

    C) pufferfish

    D) flying fish

    View Answer play_arrow
  • question_answer140) The H-zone in the skeletal muscle fibre is due to

    A) the absence of myofibrils in the central portion of A-band

    B) the central gap between myosin filaments in the A-band

    C) the central gap between actin filaments extending through myosin filaments in the A-band

    D) extension of myosin filaments in the central portion of the A-band

    View Answer play_arrow
  • question_answer141) What external changes are visible after the last moult of a cockroach nymph?

    A) Mandibles become harder

    B) Anal cerci develop

    C) Both fore wings and hind wings develop

    D) Labium develops

    View Answer play_arrow
  • question_answer142) The Golgi complex plays a major role

    A) in trapping the light and transforming it into chemical energy

    B) in digesting proteins and carbohydrates

    C) as energy transferring organelles

    D) in post translational modification of proteins and glycosidation of lipids

    View Answer play_arrow
  • question_answer143) Which one of the following organelle in the figure correctly matches with its function?

    A) Rough endoplasmic reticulum. formation of glycoproteins

    B) Golgi apparatus, protein synthesis

    C) Golgi apparatus, formation of glycolipids

    D) Rough endoplasmic reticulum, protein synthesis

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  • question_answer144) Macromolecule chitin is

    A) nitrogen containing polysaccharide

    B) phosphorus containing polysaccharide

    C) sulphur containing polysaccharide

    D) simple polysaccharide

    View Answer play_arrow
  • question_answer145) The essential chemical components of many coenzymes are

    A) proteins

    B) nuclei adds

    C) carbohydrates

    D) vitamins

    View Answer play_arrow
  • question_answer146) A stage in cell division is shown in the figure. Select the answer which gives correct identification of the stage with its characteristics

    A) Telophase - Nuclear Envelope reforms, Golgi complex Reforms

    B) Late - Chromosomes Move anaphase away from equatorial plate, Golgi complex not present

    C) Cytokinesis - Cell plate formed, mitochondria distributed between two daughter cells

    D) Telophase - Endoplasmic reticulum and nucleolus not reformed yet

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  • question_answer147) Select the correct match of the digested products in humans given in column I with their absorption site and mechanism in column II.


    Column-I Column-II
    Glycine and glucose Small intestine and active absorption


    Column-I Column-II
    Fructose and \[N{{a}^{+}}\] Small intestine passive absorption


    Column-I Column-II
    Glycerol and fatty acids Duodenum and move as chylomicrons


    Column-I Column-II
    Cholesterol and maltose Large intestine and active absorption

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  • question_answer148) A pregnant female delivers a baby, who suffers from stunted growth, mental retardation low intelligence quotient and abnormal skin. This is the result of

    A) deficiency of iodine in diet

    B) low secretion of growth hormone

    C) cancer of the thyroid gland

    D) over secretion of pars distalis

    View Answer play_arrow
  • question_answer149) The figure Shows a diagrammatic view of human respiratory system with labels A, B, C and D. Select the option, which gives correct identification and main function and/or characteristic.

    A) A-trachea-long tube supported by complete cartilaginous rings for conducting inspired air

    B) S-pleural membrane-surround ribs on both sides to provide cushion against rubbing

    C) C-alveoli-thin walled vascular bag-like structures for exchange of gases

    D) D-lower end of lungs-diaphragm pulls it down during inspiration

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  • question_answer150) Figure shows schematic plair of blood circulation in human with labels A to D. Identify the label and give its function/s

    A) A-pulmonary vein-takes impure blood from body parts, \[p{{O}_{2}}=60\,mmHg\]

    B) S-pulmonary artery-takes blood from heart to lungs. \[p{{O}_{2}}=90\,mmHg\]

    C) C-vena cava-takes blood from body parts to right auricle. \[pC{{O}_{2}}=45\,mmHg\]

    D) D-dorsal aorta-takes blood from heart to body parts, \[p{{O}_{2}}=95\,mmHg\]

    View Answer play_arrow
  • question_answer151) The diagram given here is the standard EGG of a normal person. The P-wave represents the

    A) contraction of both the atria

    B) initiation of the ventricular contraction

    C) beginning of the systole

    D) end of systole

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  • question_answer152) Figure shows human urinary system with structures labelled A to D. Select option, which correctly identifies them and gives their characteristics and/of functions

    A) A-adrenal gland-located at the anterior part of kidney. Secrete catecholamines. Which stimulate glycogen breakdown

    B) B-pelvis-broad funnel shaped space inner to hilum, directly connected to loops of Henie

    C) C-mediulla-inner zone of kidney and contains complete nephrons

    D) D-cortex-outer part of kidney and do not contain any part of nephrons

    View Answer play_arrow
  • question_answer153) Select the correct statement with respect to locomotion in humans

    A) A decreased level of progesterone causes osteoporosis in old people

    B) Accumulation of uric acid crystals in joints causes their inflammation

    C) The vertebral column has 10 thoracic vertebrae

    D) The joint between adjacent vertebrae is a fibrous joint

    View Answer play_arrow
  • question_answer154) The characteristics and an example of a synovial joint in humans is


    Characteristics Examples
    Fluid cartilage between two bones, limited movements Knee joints


    Characteristics Examples
    Fluid filled between two joints, provides cushion Skull bones


    Characteristics Examples
    Fluid filled synovial cavity between two bones Joint between atlas and axis


    Characteristics Examples
    Lymph filled between two bones, limited movement Gliding joint between carpals

    View Answer play_arrow
  • question_answer155) A diagram showing axon terminal and synapse is given. Identify correctly at least two of A-D

    A) A-Receptor C-Synaptic vesicles

    B) B-Synaptic \[D-{{K}^{+}}\] connection

    C) A-Neurotransmitter B-Synaptic cleft

    D) C-Neurotransmitter \[D-C{{a}^{2+}}\]

    View Answer play_arrow
  • question_answer156) Parts A, B, C and D of the human eyes are shown in the diagram. Select the option, which gives correct identification along with its functions/characteristics

    A) A-retina-contains photoreceptors-rods and cones

    B) B-blind spot-has only a few rods and cones

    C) C-aqueous chamber-reflects the light, which does not pass through the lens

    D) D-choroidits anterior part forms ciliary body

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  • question_answer157) Which of the following statement is correct in relation to the endocrine system?

    A) Adenohypophysis is under direct neural regulation of the hypothalamus

    B) Organs in the body like gastrointestinal tract, heart, kidney and liver do not produce any hormones

    C) Non-nutrient chemicals produced by the body in trace amount that act as intercellular messenger are known as hormones

    D) Releasing and inhibitory hormones are produced by the pituitary gland

    View Answer play_arrow
  • question_answer158) Select the answer which correctly matches the endocrine gland with the hormone it secretes and its function/deficiency symptom


    Endocrine gland Hormone Function/ deficiency symptoms
    Anterior pituitary Oxytocin Stimulates uterus contraction during child birth


    Endocrine gland Hormone Function/ deficiency symptoms
    Posterior pituitary Growth Hormone (GH) Oversee ration stimulates abnormal growth


    Endocrine gland Hormone Function/ deficiency symptoms
    Thyroid gland Thyrpxine Lack of iodine in diet results in goitre


    Endocrine gland Hormone Function/ deficiency symptoms
    Corpus luteum Testosterone Stimulates spermatogenesis

    View Answer play_arrow
  • question_answer159) What is the correct sequence of sperm formation?

    A) Spermatid. Spermatocyte, Spermatogonia, Spermatozoa

    B) Spermatogonia, Spermatocyte, Spermatozoa, Spermatid

    C) Spermatogonia, Spermatozoa, Spermatocyte, Spermatid

    D) Spermatogonia, Spermatocyte, Spermatid, Spermatozoa

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  • question_answer160) Menstrual flow occurs due to lack of

    A) progesterone

    B) FSH

    C) oxytocin

    D) vasopressin

    View Answer play_arrow
  • question_answer161) Which one of the following is not the function of placenta? It

    A) facilitates supply of oxygen and nutrients to embryo

    B) secretes oestrogen

    C) facilitates removal of carbon dioxide and waste material from embryo

    D) secretes oxytocin during parturition.

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  • question_answer162) One of the legal methods of birth control is

    A) abortion by taking an appropriate medicine

    B) by abstaining from coitus from day 10-17 of the menstrual cycle

    C) by having coitus at the time of day break

    D) by a premature ejaculation during coitus

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  • question_answer163) Which of the following cannot be detected in a developing foetus by amniocentesis?

    A) Klinefelters syndrome

    B) Sex of the foetus

    C) Downs syndrome

    D) Jaundice

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  • question_answer164) Artificial insemination means

    A) transfer of sperms of a healthy donor to a test-tube containing ova

    B) transfer of sperms of husband to a test-tube containing ova

    C) artificial introduction of sperms of a healthy donor into the vagina

    D) introduction of sperms of healthy donor directly into the ovary

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  • question_answer165) Which Mendelian idea is depicted by a cross in which the \[{{F}_{1}}\]generation resembles both the parents?

    A) Incomplete dominance

    B) Law of dominance

    C) Inheritance of one gene

    D) Codominance

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  • question_answer166) The incorrect statement with regard to haemophilia is

    A) it is a sex-linked disease

    B) it is a recessive disease

    C) it is a dominant disease

    D) a single protein involved in the clotting of blood is affected

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  • question_answer167) If both parents are carriers for thalassemia, which is an autosomal recessive disorder, what are the chances of pregnancy resulting in an affected child?

    A) No chance

    B) 50%

    C) 25%

    D) 100%

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  • question_answer168) The diagram shows an important concept in the genetic implication of DNA. Fill in the blanks A to C

    A) A-transcription, B-replication, C-James Watson

    B) A-translation, B-transcription, C-Erevin Chargaff

    C) A-transcription, ^-translation, C-Francis, Crick

    D) A -translation, B-extension, C-Rosalind Franklin

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  • question_answer169) Which enzyme/s will be produced in a cell in which there is a non-sense mutation in the lac Y gene?

    A) \[\beta -\]galactosidase

    B) Lactose permease

    C) Transacetylase

    D) Lactose permease and transacetylase

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  • question_answer170) According to Darwin, the organic evolution is due to

    A) intraspecific competition

    B) interspecific competition

    C) competition within closely related species

    D) reduced feeding efficiency in one species due to the presence of interfering species

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  • question_answer171) The eyes of Octopus and eyes of cat show different patterns of structure, yet they perform similar function. This is an example of

    A) homologous organs that have evolved due to convergent evolution

    B) homologous organs that have evolved due to divergent evolution

    C) analogous organs that have evolved due to convergent evolution

    D) analogous organs that have evolved due to divergent evolution

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  • question_answer172) Infection ofAscaris usually occurs by

    A) drinking water containing egg of/Ascar/s

    B) eating imperfectly cooked port

    C) tse-tse fly

    D) mosquito bite

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  • question_answer173) The cell-mediated immunity inside the hunman body is carried out by

    A) T-lymphocytes

    B) B-lymphocytes

    C) thrombocytes

    D) erythrocytes

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  • question_answer174) In plant breeding programmes, the entire collection (of plants/seeds) . having all the diverse alleles for all genes in a given crop is called

    A) selection of superior recombinants

    B) cross-hybridisation among the selected parents

    C) evaluation and selection of parents

    D) germplasm collection

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  • question_answer175) During sewage treatment, biogases are produced, which include

    A) methane, hydrogen sulphide and carbon dioxide

    B) methane, oxygen and hydrogen sulphide

    C) hydrogen sulphide, methane and sulphur dioxide

    D) hydrogen sulphide, nitrogen and methane

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  • question_answer176) A biologist studied the population of rats in a barn. He found that the average natality was 250, average mortality 240, immigration 20 and emigration 30. The net increase in population is

    A) 10

    B) 15

    C) 05

    D) Zero

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  • question_answer177) Which one of the following processes during decomposition is correctly described?

    A) Fragmentation - Carried out by organisms such as earthworm

    B) Humification - Leads to the accumulation of a dark coloured substance humus, which undergoes microbial action at a very fast rate

    C) Catabolism - Last step in the decomposition under fully anaerobic condition

    D) Leaching - Water soluble inorganic nutrients rise to the top layers of soil

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  • question_answer178) A sedentary sea anemone gets attached to the shell lining of hermit crab. The association is

    A) ectoparasitism

    B) symbiosis

    C) commensalism

    D) amensalism

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  • question_answer179) Global warming can be controlled by

    A) Reducing deforestation, cutting down use of fossil,fuel

    B) Reducing reforestation, increasing the use of fossil fuel

    C) Increasing deforestation, slowing down the growth of human population

    D) Increasing deforestation, reducing efficiency of energy usage

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  • question_answer180) The Air Prevention and Control of . Pollution Act came into force in

    A) 1975

    B) 1981

    C) 1985

    D) 1990

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