Solved papers for NEET NEET SOLVED PAPER 2016 Phase-II

NEET SOLVED PAPER 2016 Phase-II Total Questions - 180

1) Planck's constant (h), speed of light in vacuum \[\text{(c)}\] and Newton's gravitational constant (G) are three fundamental constants. Which of the following combinations of these has the dimension of length?

A)

\[\frac{\sqrt{hc}}{{{c}^{\frac{3}{2}}}}\]

B)

\[\frac{\sqrt{hc}}{{{c}^{\frac{5}{2}}}}\]

C)

\[\sqrt{\frac{hc}{G}}\]

D)

\[\sqrt{\frac{Gc}{{{h}^{\frac{3}{2}}}}}\]

View Answer
2) Two cars P and Q start from a point at the same time in a straight line and their positions are represented by \[{{X}_{p}}(t)=at+b{{t}^{2}}and\,{{X}_{Q}}(t)=ft-{{t}^{2}}\]. At what time do the cars have the same velocity?

A)

\[\frac{a-f}{1+b}\]

B)

\[\frac{a+f}{2(b-1)}\]

C)

\[\frac{a+f}{2(1+b)}\]

D)

\[\frac{f-a}{2(1+b)}\]

View Answer
3) In the given figure,\[a=15m/{{s}^{2}}\]represents the total acceleration of a particle moving in the clockwise direction in a circle of radius \[R=2.5\]m at a given instant of time. The speed of the particle is

A)

4.5 m/s

B)

5.0 m/s

C)

5.7 m/s

D)

6.2 m/s

View Answer
4) A rigid ball of mass m strikes a rigid wall at \[{{60}^{{}^\circ }}\] and gets reflected without loss of speed as shown in the figure below. The value of impulse imparted by the wall on the ball will be

A)

mV

B)

2mV

C)

\[\frac{mV}{2}\]

D)

\[\frac{mV}{3}\]

View Answer
5) A bullet of mass 10 g moving horizontally with a velocity of\[400m{{s}^{-1}}\]strikes a wood block of mass 2 kg which is suspended by light inextensible string of length 5 m. As a result, the centre of gravity of the block found to rise a vertical distance of 10 cm. The speed of the bullet after it emerges out horizontally from the block will be

A)

\[100m{{s}^{-1}}\]

B)

\[80m{{s}^{-1}}\]

C)

\[120m{{s}^{-1}}\]

D)

\[160m{{s}^{-1}}\]

View Answer
6) Two identical balls A and B having velocities of 0.5 m/s and -0.3 m/s respectively collide elastically in one dimension. The velocities of B and A after the collision respectively will be

A)

- 0.5 m/s and 0.3 m/s

B)

0.5 m/s and - 0.3 m/s

C)

- 0.3 m/s and 0.5 m/s

D)

0.3 m/s and 0.5 m/s

View Answer
7) A particle moves from a point \[(-2\hat{i}+5\hat{j})to(4\hat{j}+3\hat{k})\] when a force of\[(4\hat{i}+3\hat{j})N\] is applied. How much work has been done by the force?

A)

8 J

B)

11 J

C)

5 J

D)

2 J

View Answer
8) Two rotating bodies A and B of masses m and 2m with moments of inertia\[{{I}_{A}}\,and\,{{I}_{g}}({{I}_{g}}>{{I}_{A}})\]have equal kinetic energy of rotation. If \[{{L}_{A}}and\text{ }{{L}_{B}}\]be their angular momenta respectively, then

A)

\[{{L}_{A}}=\frac{{{L}_{B}}}{2}\]

B)

\[{{L}_{A}}=2{{L}_{B}}\]

C)

\[{{L}_{g}}>{{L}_{A}}\]

D)

\[{{L}_{A}}>{{L}_{g}}\]

View Answer
9) A solid sphere of mass m and radius R is rotating about its diameter. A solid cylinder of the same mass A solid sphere of mass m and radius R is rotating about its diameter. A solid cylinder of the same mass and same radius is also rotating about its geometrical axis with an angular speed twice that of the sphere. The ratio of their kinetic energies of rotation \[\left( \frac{{{E}_{sphere}}}{{{E}_{cylinder}}} \right)\] will be.

A)

2:3

B)

1:5

C)

1:4

D)

3:1

View Answer
10) A light rod of length l has two masses \[{{m}_{1}}\]and \[{{m}_{2}}\] attached to its two ends. The moment of inertia of the system about an axis perpendicular to the rod and passing through the centre of mass is

A)

\[\frac{{{m}_{1}}{{m}_{2}}}{{{m}_{1}}+{{m}_{2}}}{{I}^{2}}\]

B)

\[\frac{{{m}_{1}}+{{m}_{2}}}{{{m}_{1}}{{m}_{2}}}{{I}^{2}}\]

C)

\[({{m}_{1}}+{{m}_{2}}){{I}^{2}}\]

D)

\[\sqrt{{{m}_{1}}{{m}_{2}}}{{I}^{2}}\]

View Answer
11) Starting from the centre of the earth having radius R, the variation of g (acceleration due to gravity) is shown by

A)



B)

C)



D)



View Answer
12) A satellite of mass m is orbiting the earth (of radius R) at a height h from its surface. The total energy of the satellite in terms of\[{{g}_{0}}\],the value of acceleration due to gravity at the earth's surface, is

A)

\[\frac{m{{g}_{o}}{{R}^{2}}}{2(R+h)}\]

B)

\[\frac{m{{g}_{o}}{{R}^{2}}}{2(R+h)}\]

C)

\[\frac{2{{m}_{o}}{{R}^{2}}}{R+h}\]

D)

\[\frac{2{{m}_{o}}{{R}^{2}}}{R+h}\]

View Answer
13) A rectangular film of liquid is extended from \[(4cm\times 2cm)\]to\[(5cm\times 4cm)\]. If the work done is \[3\times {{10}^{-4}}J,\] the value of the surface tension of the liquid is

A)

\[0.250\,N{{m}^{-1}}\]

B)

\[0.125\text{ }N{{m}^{-1}}\]

C)

\[0.2\text{ }N{{m}^{-1}}\]

D)

\[8.0\text{ }N{{m}^{-1}}\]

View Answer
14) Three liquids of densities\[{{\rho }_{1}},{{\rho }_{2}}\]and\[{{\rho }_{3}}\](with \[{{\rho }_{1}}>{{\rho }_{2}}>{{\rho }_{3}})\], having the same value of surface tension T, rise to the same height in three identical capillaries. The angles of contact \[{{\theta }_{1}},{{\theta }_{2}}and\,{{\theta }_{3}}\] obey

A)

\[\frac{\pi }{2}>{{\theta }_{1}}>{{\theta }_{2}}>{{\theta }_{3}}\ge 0\]

B)

\[0\le {{\theta }_{1}}<{{\theta }_{2}}<{{\theta }_{3}}<\frac{\pi }{2}\]

C)

\[\frac{\pi }{2}\le {{\theta }_{1}}<{{\theta }_{2}}<{{\theta }_{3}}<\pi \]

D)

\[\pi >{{\theta }_{1}}>{{\theta }_{2}}>{{\theta }_{3}}>\frac{\pi }{2}\]

View Answer
15) One of these is at \[{{100}^{o}}C,\] while the other one is at \[{{10}^{o}}C,\]If the two bodies are brought into contact, then assuming no heat loss, the final common temperature is

A)

\[{{50}^{o}}C\]

B)

More than \[{{50}^{o}}C\]

C)

Less than\[{{50}^{o}}C\]but greater than \[{{0}^{o}}C\]

D)

\[{{0}^{o}}C\]

View Answer
16) A body cools from a temperature 3T to 2T in 10 minutes. The room temperature is T. Assume that Newton's law of cooling is applicable. The temperature of the body at the end of next 10 minutes will be

A)

\[\frac{7}{4}T\]

B)

\[\frac{3}{2}T\]

C)

\[\frac{4}{3}T\]

D)

\[T\]

View Answer
17) One mole of an ideal monatomic gas undergoes a process described by the equation \[P{{V}^{3}}\] constant. The heat capacity of the gas during this process is

A)

\[\frac{3}{2}R\]

B)

\[\frac{5}{2}R\]

C)

\[2R\]

D)

\[R\]

View Answer
18) The temperature inside a refrigerator is \[{{t}_{2}}^{{}^\circ }C\] and the room temperature is \[{{t}_{2}}^{{}^\circ }C.\]The amount of heat delivered to the room for each joule of electrical energy consumed ideally will be

A)

\[\frac{{{t}_{1}}}{{{t}_{1}}-{{t}_{2}}}\]

B)

\[\frac{{{t}_{1}}+273}{{{r}_{1}}-{{t}_{1}}}\]

C)

\[\frac{{{t}_{2}}+273}{{{t}_{1}}-{{t}_{2}}}\]

D)

\[\frac{{{t}_{1}}+{{t}_{2}}}{{{t}_{1}}+273}\]

View Answer
19) A given sample of an ideal gas occupies a volume V at a pressure P and absolute temperature T. The mass of each molecule of the gas is m. Which of the following gives the density of the gas?

A)

\[\frac{P}{(KT)}\]

B)

\[\frac{Pm}{(KT)}\]

C)

\[\frac{P}{(KTV)}\]

D)

\[mKT\]

View Answer
20) A body of mass m is attached to the lower end of a spring whose upper end is fixed. The spring has negligible mass. When the mass m is slightly pulled down and released, it oscillates with a time period of 3 s. When the mass m is increased by 1 kg, the time period of oscillations becomes 5 s. The value of m in kg is

A)

\[\frac{3}{4}\]

B)

\[\frac{4}{3}\]

C)

\[\frac{16}{9}\]

D)

\[\frac{9}{16}\]

View Answer
21) The second overtone of an open organ pipe has the same frequency as the first overtone of a closed pipe L metre long. The length of the open pipe will be

A)

L

B)

2L

C)

\[\frac{L}{2}\]

D)

4L

View Answer
22) Three sound waves of equal amplitudes have frequencies\[(n-1),n,(n+1)\].They superimpose to give beats. The number of beats produced per second will be

A)

1

B)

4

C)

3

D)

2

View Answer
23) An electric dipole is placed at an angle of \[{{30}^{o}}\] with an electric field intensity\[2\times {{10}^{5}}N/C\].It experiences a torque equal to 4 N m. The charge on the dipole, if the dipole length is 2 cm, is

A)

8 mC

B)

2 mC

C)

5 mC

D)

\[2\mu C\]

View Answer
24) A parallel-plate capacitor of area A, plate separation d and capacitance C is filled with four dielectric materials having dielectric constants \[{{K}_{1}},{{K}_{2}},{{K}_{3}}\,and\,{{K}_{4}}\] as shown in the figure below. If a single dielectric material is to be used to have the same capacitance C in this capacitor, then its dielectric constant k is given by

A)

\[K={{K}_{1}}+{{K}_{2}}+{{K}_{3}}+3{{K}_{4}}\]

B)

\[K=\frac{2}{3}({{K}_{1}}+{{K}_{2}}+{{K}_{3}})+2{{K}_{4}}\]

C)

\[\frac{2}{K}=\frac{3}{{{K}_{1}}+{{K}_{2}}+{{K}_{3}}}+\frac{1}{{{K}_{4}}}\]

D)

\[\frac{1}{K}=\frac{1}{{{K}_{1}}}+\frac{1}{{{K}_{2}}}+\frac{1}{{{K}_{3}}}+\frac{3}{2{{K}_{4}}}\]

View Answer
25) The potential difference \[({{V}_{A}}-{{V}_{B}})\] between the points A and B in the given figure is

A)

-3V

B)

+3V

C)

+6V

D)

+9V

View Answer
26) A filament bulb (500 W, 100 V) is to be used in a 230 V main supply. When a resistance R is connected in series, it works perfectly and the bulb consumes 500 W. The value of R is

A)

\[230\Omega \]

B)

\[46\Omega \]

C)

\[26\Omega \]

D)

\[13\Omega \]

View Answer
27) A long wire carrying a steady current is bent into a circular loop of one turn. The magnetic field at the centre of the loop is B. It is then bent into a circular coil of n turns. The magnetic field at the centre of this coil of n turns will be

A)

nB

B)

\[{{n}^{2}}B\]

C)

2nB

D)

\[2{{n}^{2}}B\]

View Answer
28) A bar magnet is hung by a thin cotton thread in a uniform horizontal magnetic field and is in equilibrium state. The energy required to rotate it by\[{{60}^{o}}\]is W. Now the torque required to keep the magnet in this new position is

A)

\[\frac{W}{\sqrt{3}}\]

B)

\[\sqrt{3W}\]

C)

\[\frac{\sqrt{3}W}{2}\]

D)

\[\frac{2W}{\sqrt{3}}\]

View Answer
29) An electron is moving in a circular path under the influence of a transverse magnetic field of\[3.57\times {{10}^{-2}}\] T. If the value of e/m is\[1.67\times {{10}^{11}}C/kg.\] the frequency of revolution of the electron is

A)

1 GHz

B)

100 MHz

C)

62.8 MHz

D)

6.28 MHz

View Answer
30) Which of the following combinations should be selected for better tuning of an L-C-R circuit used for communication?

A)

\[R=20\Omega ,L=1.5\text{ }H,C=35\mu F\]

B)

\[R=25\Omega ,L=2.5H,C=45\mu F\]

C)

\[R=15\Omega ,L=3.5H,C=30\mu F\]

D)

\[R=25\Omega ,L=1.5\text{ }H,C=45\mu F\]

View Answer
31) A uniform magnetic field is restricted within a region of radius r. The magnetic field changes with time at a rate\[\frac{d\overset{\to }{\mathop{B}}\,}{dt}\]. Loop 1 of radius \[R>r\] encloses the region r and loop 2 of radius R is outside the region of magnetic field as shown in the figure below. Then the e.m.f. generated is

A)

Zero in loop 1 and zero in loop 2

B)

\[-\frac{d\overset{\to }{\mathop{B}}\,}{dt}\pi {{r}^{2}}\text{in loop 1 and}\,-\frac{d\overset{\to }{\mathop{B}}\,}{dt}\pi {{r}^{2}}\,\text{in}\,\text{loop}\,\text{2}\]

C)

\[-\frac{d\overset{\to }{\mathop{B}}\,}{dt}\pi {{r}^{2}}\text{in loop 1 and zero in loop 2}\]

D)

\[~-\frac{d\overset{\to }{\mathop{B}}\,}{dt}\pi {{r}^{2}}\text{in loop 1 and zero in loop 2}\]

View Answer
32) The potential differences across the resistance, capacitance and inductance are 80 V, 40 V and 100 V respectively in an L-C-R circuit. The power factor of this circuit is

A)

0.4

B)

0.5

C)

0.8

D)

1.0

View Answer
33) A \[100\Omega \] resistance and a capacitor of \[100\Omega \] reactance are connected in series across a 220 V source. When the capacitor is 50% charged, the peak value of the displacement current is

A)

2.2 A

B)

11 A

C)

4.4 A

D)

\[11\sqrt{2A}\]

View Answer
34) Two identical glass \[\left( {{\mu }_{8}}=\frac{3}{2} \right)\] equiconvex lenses of focal length f each are kept in contact. The space between the two lenses is filled with water\[\left( {{\mu }_{W}}=\frac{4}{3} \right)\]. The focal length of the combination is

A)

\[\frac{f}{3}\]

B)

f

C)

\[\frac{4f}{3}\]

D)

\[\frac{3f}{4}\]

View Answer
35) An air bubble in a glass slab with refractive index 1.5 (near normal incidence) is 5 cm deep when viewed from one surface and 3 cm deep when viewed from the opposite face. The thickness (in cm) of the slab is

A)

8

B)

10

C)

12

D)

16

View Answer
36) The interference pattern is obtained with two coherent light sources of intensity ratio n. In the interference pattern, the ratio \[\frac{{{\operatorname{I}}_{\max }}-{{\operatorname{I}}_{\min }}}{{{I}_{\max }}+{{I}_{\min }}}\]will be

A)

\[\frac{\sqrt{n}}{n+1}\]

B)

\[\frac{2\sqrt{n}}{n+1}\]

C)

\[\frac{\sqrt{n}}{{{(n+1)}^{2}}}\]

D)

\[\frac{2\sqrt{n}}{{{(n+1)}^{2}}}\]

View Answer
37) A person can see clearly objects only when they lie between 50 cm and 400 cm from his eyes. In order to increase the maximum distance of distinct vision to infinity, the type and power of the correcting lens, the person has to use, will be

A)

Convex, +2.25 diopter

B)

Concave, \[-0.25\]diopter

C)

Concave, \[-0.2\]diopter

D)

Convex, + 0.15 diopter

View Answer
38) A linear aperture whose width is 0.02 cm is placed immediately in front of a lens of focal length 60 cm. The aperture is illuminated normally by a parallel beam of wavelength\[5\times {{10}^{-5}}cm\].The distance of the first dark band of the diffraction pattern from the centre of the screen is

A)

0.10 cm

B)

0.25 cm

C)

0.20 cm

D)

0.15 cm

View Answer
39) Electrons of mass m with de-Broglie wavelength λ fall on the target in an X-ray tube. The cutoff wavelength \[{{\lambda }_{0}}\] of the emitted X-ray is

A)

\[{{\lambda }_{0}}=\frac{2mc{{\lambda }^{2}}}{h}\]

B)

\[{{\lambda }_{0}}=\frac{2h}{mc}\]

C)

\[{{\lambda }_{0}}=\frac{2{{m}^{2}}{{c}^{2}}{{\lambda }^{2}}}{{{h}^{2}}}\]

D)

\[{{\lambda }_{0}}=\lambda \]

View Answer
40) Photons with energy 5 eV are incident on a cathode C in a photoelectric cell. The maximum energy of emitted photoelectrons is 2 eV. When photons of energy 6 eV are incident on C, no photoelectrons will reach the anode A, if the stopping potential of A relative to C is

A)

+3 V

B)

+4 V

C)

-1 V

D)

-3 V

View Answer
41) If an electron in a hydrogen atom jumps from the 3rd orbit to the 2nd orbit, it emits a photon of wavelength λ. When it jumps from the 4th orbit to the 3rd orbit, the corresponding wavelength of the photon will be

A)

\[\frac{16}{25}\lambda \]

B)

\[\frac{9}{16}\lambda \]

C)

\[\frac{20}{7}\lambda \]

D)

\[\frac{20}{13}\lambda \]

View Answer
42) The half-life of a radioactive substance is 30 minutes. The time (in minutes) taken between 40% decay and 85% decay of the same radioactive substance is

A)

15

B)

30

C)

45

D)

60

View Answer
43) For CE transistor amplifier, the audio signal voltage across the collector resistance of 2 kΩ is 4 V. If the current amplification factor of the transistor is 100 and the base resistance is 1 k Ω then the input signal voltage is

A)

10 mV

B)

20 mV

C)

30 mV

D)

15 mV

View Answer
44) The given circuit has two ideal diodes connected as shown in the figure below. The current flowing through the resistance \[{{R}_{1}}\]will be

A)

2.5 A

B)

10.0 A

C)

1.43 A

D)

3.13 A

View Answer
45) What is the output Y in the following circuit, when all the three inputs A, B, C are first 0 and then 1?

A)

0, 1

B)

0, 0

C)

1, 0

D)

1, 1

View Answer
46) Which one of the following compounds shows the presence of intermolecular hydrogen bond?

A)

\[{{H}_{2}}{{O}_{2}}\]

B)

HCN

C)

Cellulose

D)

Concentrated acetic acid

View Answer
47) The molar conductivity of a\[0.5\frac{mol}{d{{m}^{3}}}\]solution of \[AgN{{O}_{3}}\]with electrolytic conductivity of \[5.76\times {{10}^{-3}}S\text{ }c{{m}^{-1}}at\text{ }298K\]

A)

\[2.88\text{ }Sc{{m}^{2}}/mol\]

B)

\[11.52\text{ }Sc{{m}^{2}}/mol\]

C)

\[0.086\text{ }Sc{{m}^{2}}/mol\]

D)

\[28.8\text{ }Sc{{m}^{2}}/mol\]

View Answer
48) The decomposition of phosphine\[(P{{H}_{3}})\]on tungsten at low pressure is a first-order reaction. It is because the

A)

Rate is proportion to the surface coverage

B)

Rate is inversely proportional to the surface coverage

C)

Rate is independent of the surface coverage

D)

Rate of decomposition is very slow

View Answer
49) The coagulation values in millimoles per litre of the electrolytes used for the coagulation of \[A{{s}_{2}}{{S}_{3}}\] are given below:

I. \[(NaCl)=52\]

I. \[(BaC{{l}_{2}})=0.69\]

III. \[(MgS{{o}_{4}})=0.22\]

The correct order of their coagulating power is

A)

I>II>III

B)

II>I>III

C)

III>II>I

D)

III>I>II

View Answer
50) During the electrolysis of molten sodium chloride, the time required to produce 0.10 mol of chlorine gas using a current of 3 amperes is

A)

55 minutes

B)

110 minutes

C)

220 minutes

D)

330 minutes

View Answer
51) How many electrons can fit in the orbital for which \[~n=3and\text{ }l=1?\]

A)

2

B)

6

C)

10

D)

14

View Answer
52) For a sample of perfect gas when its pressure is changed isothermally from \[{{p}_{1}}to\text{ }{{p}_{2}}\], the entropy change is given by

A)

\[\Delta S=nrIn\left( \frac{Pf}{Pi} \right)\]

B)

\[\Delta S=nrIn\left( \frac{Pi}{Pf} \right)\]

C)

\[\Delta S=nrTIn\left( \frac{Pf}{Pi} \right)\]

D)

\[\Delta S=RTIn\left( \frac{Pi}{Pf} \right)\]

View Answer
53) The van't Hoff factor (i) for a dilute aqueous solution of the strong electrolyte barium hydroxide is

A)

0

B)

1

C)

2

D)

3

View Answer
54) The percentage of pyridine \[({{C}_{5}}{{H}_{5}}N)\] that forms pyridinium ion \[({{C}_{5}}{{H}_{5}}{{N}^{+}}H)\] in a 0.10 M aqueous pyridine solution \[({{K}_{b}}\,for\text{ }{{C}_{5}}{{H}_{5}}N=1.7\times {{10}^{-9}}\,\]is

A)

0.0060%

B)

0.013%

C)

0.77%

D)

1.6%

View Answer
55) In calcium fluoride, having the fluorite structure, the coordination numbers for calcium ion \[(C{{a}^{2+}})\] and fluoride ion\[({{F}^{-}})\]are

A)

4 and 2

B)

6 and 6

C)

8 and 4

D)

4 and 8

View Answer
56) If the \[{{E}^{{}^\circ }}_{cell}\]for a given reaction has a negative value, which of the following gives the correct relationships for the values of \[\Delta {{G}^{0}}\]and\[{{K}_{eq}}\]?

A)

\[\Delta {{G}^{o}}\text{0; }{{K}_{eq}}<1\]

B)

\[\Delta {{G}^{o}}>0;{{K}_{eq}}>1\]

C)

\[\Delta {{G}^{o}}<0;{{K}_{eq}}<1\]

D)

\[\Delta {{G}^{o}}<0;{{K}_{eq}}<1\]

View Answer
57) Which one of the following is incorrect for ideal solution?

A)

\[\Delta {{H}_{mix}}=0\]

B)

\[\Delta {{U}_{mix}}=0\]

C)

\[\Delta P={{0}_{\text{obs}}}-{{P}_{\text{calculated}\,\text{by}\,\text{Raiul }\!\!\grave{\ }\!\!\text{ s}\,\text{law}}}=0\]

D)

\[\Delta {{G}_{mix}}\,for\,ideal\,Solution\,is\,positive\]

View Answer
58) The solubility of \[AgCl(s)\] with solubility product \[1.6\times {{10}^{-10}}\]in 0.1 M \[NaCl\] solution would be

A)

\[1.26\times {{10}^{-5}}M\]

B)

\[1.6\times {{10}^{-11}}M\]

C)

\[1.6\times {{10}^{-9}}M\]

D)

Zero

View Answer
59) Suppose the elements X and Y combine to form two compounds\[X{{Y}_{2}}\]and \[{{X}_{3}}{{Y}_{2}}\]. When 0.1 mole of\[X{{Y}_{2}}\]weighs 10 g and 0.05 mole of\[{{X}_{3}}{{Y}_{2}}\] weighs 9 g, the atomic weights of X and Y are

A)

40, 30

B)

60, 40

C)

20, 30

D)

30, 20

View Answer
60) The number of electrons delivered at the cathode during electrolysis by a current of 1 ampere in 60 seconds is (charge on electron \[=1.60\times {{10}^{-19}}C)\]

A)

\[6\times {{10}^{23}}\]

B)

\[6\times {{10}^{20}}\]

C)

\[3.75\times {{10}^{20}}\]

D)

\[7.48\times {{10}^{23}}\]

View Answer
61) Boric acid is an acid because its molecule

A)

Contains replaceable \[{{H}^{+}}\]ion

B)

Gives up a proton

C)

Accepts\[O{{H}^{-}}\]from water releasing proton

D)

Combines with proton from water molecule

View Answer
62) \[Al{{F}_{3}}\]is soluble in HF only in presence of KF. It is due to the formation of

A)

\[{{K}_{2}}[Al{{F}_{3}}{{H}_{3}}]\]

B)

\[{{K}_{3}}[Al{{F}_{6}}]\]

C)

\[Al{{H}_{3}}\]

D)

\[K(A{{l}_{3}}H)\]

View Answer
63) Zinc can be coated on iron to produce galvanized iron but the reverse is not possible. It is because

A)

Zinc is lighter than iron

B)

Zinc has lower melting point than iron

C)

Zinc has lower negative electrode potential than iron

D)

Zinc has higher negative electrode potential than iron

View Answer
64) The suspension of slaked lime in water is known as

A)

Limewater

B)

Quicklime

C)

Milk of lime

D)

Aqueous solution of slaked lime

View Answer
65) The hybridizations of atomic orbitals of nitrogen in\[NO_{2}^{+},NO_{3}^{-}\]and\[N{{H}^{+}}_{4}\]respectively are

A)

\[sp,\,\,s{{p}^{2}}and\,s{{p}^{2}}\]

B)

\[s{{p}^{2}},\,\,s{{p}^{3}}and\,s{{p}^{{}}}\]

C)

\[s{{p}^{{}}},\,\,s{{p}^{2}}and\,s{{p}^{3}}\]

D)

\[s{{p}^{2}},\,\,s{{p}^{{}}}and\,s{{p}^{3}}\]

View Answer
66) Which of the following fluoro - compounds is most likely to behave as a Lewis base?

A)

\[B{{F}_{3}}\]

B)

\[P{{F}_{3}}\]

C)

\[C{{F}_{4}}\]

D)

\[S{{i}_{4}}\]

View Answer
67) Which of the following pairs of ions is isoelectronic and is structural?

A)

\[Co_{3}^{2-},NO_{3}^{-}\]

B)

\[Cl_{3}^{-},CO_{3}^{2-}\]

C)

\[SO_{3}^{2-},NO_{3}^{-}\]

D)

\[ClO_{2}^{-},SO_{3}^{2-}\]

View Answer
68) In context with beryllium which one of the following statements is incorrect

A)

It is rendered passive by nitric acid

B)

It form \[B{{e}_{2}}C\]

C)

Its salts rarely hydrolyze

D)

Its hydride is electron -deficient and polymeric

View Answer
69) Hot concentrated sulphuric acid is a moderately strong oxidizing agent. Which of the following reactions does not show oxidizing behaviour?

A)

\[C{{u}^{+}}2{{H}_{2}}S{{O}_{4}}\to CuS{{O}_{4}}+S{{O}_{2}}+2{{H}_{2}}O\]

B)

\[3S+2{{H}_{2}}S{{O}_{4}}\to 3S{{O}_{2}}+2{{H}_{2}}O\]

C)

\[C+2{{H}_{2}}S{{O}_{4}}\to C{{O}_{2}}+2S{{O}_{2}}+2{{H}_{2}}O\]

D)

\[C{{a}_{2}}+{{H}_{2}}S{{O}_{4}}\to CaS{{O}_{4}}+2HF\]

View Answer
70) Which of the following pairs of d - orbitals will have electron density along the axes?

A)

\[{{d}_{{{z}^{2}}}},{{d}_{xz}}\]

B)

\[{{d}_{xz}},{{d}_{yz}}\]

C)

\[{{d}_{{{z}^{2}}}},{{d}_{{{x}^{2}}}}-{{y}^{2}}\]

D)

\[{{d}_{xy}},{{d}_{{{x}^{2}}}}-{{y}^{2}}\]

View Answer
71) The correct geometry and hybridization for\[Xe{{F}_{4}}\] are

A)

Octahedral, \[s{{p}^{3}}{{d}^{2}}\]

B)

Trigonal bipyramidal, \[s{{p}^{3}}d\]

C)

Planar triangle, \[s{{p}^{3}}{{d}^{3}}\]

D)

Square planar, \[s{{p}^{3}}{{d}^{2}}\]

View Answer
72) Among the following, which one is a wrong statement?

A)

\[P{{H}_{5}}\,and\,BiC{{l}_{5}}\,\] do not exist

B)

\[p\pi -d\pi \]bonds are present in \[S{{O}_{4}}\]

C)

\[SeF{{O}_{4}}\] and\[C{{H}_{4}}\]have same shape

D)

\[I_{3}^{+}\] has bent geometry

View Answer
73) The correct increasing order of trans - effect of the following species is

A)

\[N{{H}_{3}}>C{{N}^{-}}>B{{r}^{-}}>{{C}_{6}}H_{5}^{-}\]

B)

\[C{{N}^{-}}>{{C}_{6}}H_{5}^{-}>B{{r}^{-}}>N{{H}_{3}}\]

C)

\[B{{r}^{-}}>C{{N}^{-}}>N{{H}_{3}}>{{C}_{6}}H_{5}^{-}\]

D)

\[C{{N}^{-}}>B{{r}^{-}}>{{C}_{6}}H_{5}^{-}>N{{H}_{3}}\]

View Answer
74) Which one of the following statements related to lanthanons is incorrect?

A)

Europium shows + 2 oxidation state

B)

The basicity decreases as the ionic radius decreases from Pr to Lu

C)

All the lanthanons are much more reactive than aluminium

D)

Ce (+4) solutions are widely used as oxidizing agent in volumetric analysis

View Answer
75) Jahn - Teller effect is not observed in high spin complexes of

A)

\[{{d}^{7}}\]

B)

\[{{d}^{8}}\]

C)

\[{{d}^{4}}\]

D)

\[{{d}^{9}}\]

View Answer
76) Which of the following can be used as the halide component for Friedel Crafts reaction?

A)

Chlorobenzene

B)

Bromobenzene

C)

Chloroethene

D)

Isopropyl chloride

View Answer
77) In which of the following molecules, all atoms are coplanar?

A)

B)

C)

D)

View Answer
78) Which one of the following structures represents nylon 6,6 polymer ?

A)

B)

C)

D)

View Answer
79) In pyrrole the electron density s maximum on

A)

2 and 3

B)

3 and 4

C)

2 and 4

D)

2 and 5

View Answer
80) Which of the following compounds shall not produce propene by reaction with HBr followed by elimination or direct only elimination reaction?

A)

B)

C)

D)

View Answer
81) Which one of the following nitro - compounds does not react with nitrous acid?

A)

B)

C)

D)

View Answer
82) The central dogma of molecular genetics states that the genetic information flows from

A)

Amino acids \[\to \] Proteins \[\to \] DNA

B)

DNA \[\to \] Carbohydrates \[\to \] Proteins

C)

DNA \[\to \] RNA \[\to \] Proteins

D)

DNA \[\to \] RNA \[\to \] Carbohydrates

View Answer
83) The correct corresponding order of names of four aldoses with configuration given below respectively, is

A)

L - erythrose, L - threose, L - erythrose, D - threose

B)

D - threose, D - erythrose, L - threose, L - erythrose

C)

L - erythrose, L - threose, D - erythrose, D - threose

D)

D - erythrose, D - threose, L - erythrose, L - threose

View Answer
84) In the given reaction the product P is

A)

B)

C)

D)

View Answer
85) A given nitrogen - containing aromatic compound A reacts with Sn⁄HCl, followed by \[HN{{O}_{3}}\]to give an unstable compound B.B, on treatment with phenol, forms a beautiful coloured compound C with the molecular formula \[{{C}_{12}}{{H}_{10}}{{N}_{2}}O\]. The structure of compound A is

A)

B)

C)

D)

View Answer
86) Consider the reaction\[C{{H}_{2}}C{{H}_{2}}C{{H}_{2}}Br+Na\to C{{H}_{2}}C{{H}_{2}}C{{H}_{2}}CN+NaBr\]. This reaction will be the fastest in

A)

Ethanol

B)

Methanol

C)

N, N? - dimethylformamde (DMF)

D)

Water

View Answer
87) The correct structure of the product A formed in the reaction is

A)

B)

C)

D)

View Answer
88) Which among the given molecules can exhibit tautomerism?

A)

III Only

B)

Both I and III

C)

Both I and II

D)

Both II and III

View Answer
89) The correct order of strengths of the carboxylic acids is

A)

I > II > III

B)

II > III > I

C)

III > II > I

D)

II > I > III

View Answer
90) The compound that will react most readily with gaseous bromine has the formula

A)

\[{{C}_{3}}{{H}_{6}}\]

B)

\[{{C}_{2}}{{H}_{2}}\]

C)

\[{{C}_{4}}{{H}_{10}}\]

D)

\[{{C}_{2}}{{H}_{4}}\]

View Answer
91) Which one of the following is wrong for fungi?

A)

They are eukaryotic

B)

All fungi possess a purely cellulosic cell wall

C)

They are heterotrophic

D)

They are both unicellular and multicellular

View Answer
92) Methanogens belong to

A)

Eubacteria

B)

Archaebacteria

C)

Dinoflagellates

D)

Slime moulds

View Answer
93) Select the wrong statement.

A)

The walls of diatoms are easily destructible

B)

"Diatomaceous earth" is formed by the cell walls of diatoms

C)

Diatoms are chief producers in the oceans

D)

Diatoms are microscopic and float passively in water

View Answer
94) The label of a herbarium sheet does not carry information on

A)

Data of collection

B)

Name of collector

C)

Local names

D)

Height of the plant

View Answer
95) Conifers are adapted to tolerate extreme environmental conditions because of

A)

Broad hardy leaves

B)

Superficial stomata

C)

Thick cuticle

D)

Presence of vessels

View Answer
96) Which one of the following statements is wrong?

A)

Algae increase the level of dissolved oxygen in the immediate environment

B)

Algin is obtained from red algae, and carrageenan from brown algae

C)

Agar - agar is obtained from Gelidium and Gracilaria

D)

Laminaria and Sargassum are used as food

View Answer
97) The term "polyadelphous" is related to

A)

Gynoecium

B)

Androecium

C)

Corolla

D)

Calyx

View Answer
98) How many plants among Indigofera, Sesbania, Salvia, Allium, Aloe, mustard, groundnut, radish, gram and turnip have stamens with different lengths in their flowers?

A)

Three

B)

Four

C)

Five

D)

Six

View Answer
99) Radial symmetry is found in the flowers of

A)

Brassica

B)

Trifolium

C)

Pisum

D)

Cassia

View Answer
100) Free-central placentation is found in

A)

Dianthus

B)

Argemone

C)

Brassica

D)

Citrus

View Answer
101) Cortex is the region found between

A)

Epidermis and stele

B)

Pericycle and endodermis

C)

Endodermis and pith

D)

Endodermis and vascular bundle

View Answer
102) The balloon - shaped structures called tyioses

A)

Originate in the lumen of vessels

B)

Characterize the sapwood

C)

Are extensions of xylem parenchyma cells into vessels

D)

Are linked to the ascent of sap through xylem vessels

View Answer
103) A non - proteinaceous enzyme is

A)

Lysozyme

B)

Ribozyme

C)

Ligase

D)

Deoxyribonuclease

View Answer
104) Select the mismatch.

A)

Gas vacuoles - Green bacteria

B)

Large central vacuoles - Animal cells

C)

Protists - Eukaryotes

D)

Methanogens - Prokaryotes

View Answer
105) Select the wrong statement

A)

Bacteria cell wall is made up of peptidoglycan

B)

Pili and fimbriae are mainly involved in motility of bacterial cells

C)

Cyanobacteria lack flagellated cells

D)

Mycoplasma is a wall - less microorganism

View Answer
106) A cell organelle containing hydrolytic enzymes is

A)

Lysosome

B)

Microsome

C)

Ribosome

D)

Mesosome

View Answer
107) During cell growth, DNA synthesis takes place in

A)

S phase

B)

\[{{G}_{1}}\]phase

C)

\[{{G}_{2}}\]phase

D)

M phase

View Answer
108) Which of the following biomolecules is common to respiration - mediated breakdown of fats, carbohydrates and proteins?

A)

Glucose - 6 - phosphate

B)

Fructose 1, 6- bisphosphate

C)

Pyruvic acid

D)

Acetyl CoA

View Answer
109) A few drops of sap were collected by cutting across a plant stem by a suitable method. The sap was tested chemically. Which one of the following test results indicates that it is phloem sap?

A)

Acidic

B)

Alkaline

C)

Low refractive index

D)

Absence of sugar

View Answer
110) You are given a tissue with its potential for differentiation in an artificial culture. Which of the following pairs of hormones would you add to the medium to secure shoots as well as roots?

A)

IAA and gibberellin

B)

Auxin and cytokinin

C)

Auxin and abscisic acid

D)

Gibberellin and abscisic acid

View Answer
111) Phytochrome is a

A)

Flavoprotein

B)

Glycoprotein

C)

Lipoprotein

D)

Chromoprotein

View Answer
112) Which is essential for the growth of root tip?

A)

\[Zn\]

B)

\[Fe\]

C)

\[Ca\]

D)

\[Mn\]

View Answer
113) The process which makes major difference between \[{{C}_{3}}\] and\[{{C}_{4}}\]. plants is

A)

Glycolysis

B)

Calvin cycle

C)

Photorespiration

D)

Respiration

View Answer
114) Which one of the following statements is not correct?

A)

Offspring produced by the asexual reproduction are called clone

B)

Microscopic, motile asexual reproductive structures are called zoospores

C)

In potato, banana and ginger, the plantlets arise from the internodes present in the modified stem

D)

Water hyacinth, growing in the standing water, drains oxygen from water that leads to the death of fishes

View Answer
115) Which one of the following generates new genetic combinations leading to variation?

A)

Vegetative reproduction

B)

Parthenogenesis

C)

Sexual reproduction

D)

Nucellar polyembryony

View Answer
116) Match Column - I with Column - II and select the correct option using the codes given below.

Column - I Column - II

A. Pistils fused together (i) Gametogenesis

B. Formation of gametes (ii) Pistillate

C. Hyphae of higher (iii) Syncarpous

D. Unisexual female flower (iv) Dikaryotic

A)

\[\text{A-iv B-iii C-i D-ii}\]

B)

\[\text{A-ii B-i C-iv D-iii}\]

C)

\[\text{A-i B-ii C-iv D-iii}\]

D)

\[\text{A-iii B-i C-iv D-ii}\]

View Answer
117) In majority of angiosperms

A)

Egg has a filiform apparatus

B)

There are numerous antipodal cells

C)

Reduction division occurs in the megaspore

D)

A small central cell is present in the embryo sac

View Answer
118) Polllination in water hyacinth and water lily is brough about by the agency of

A)

Water

B)

Insects or wind

C)

Birds

D)

Bats

View Answer
119) The ovule of an angiosperm is technically equivalent to

A)

Megasporangium

B)

Megasporophyll

C)

Megaspore mother cell

D)

Megaspore

View Answer
120) Taylor conducted the experiments to prove semiconservative mode of chromosome replication on

A)

Vinca rosea

B)

Viciafaba

C)

Drosophila melanogaster

D)

E. coli

View Answer
121) The mechanism that causes a gene to move from one linkage group to another is called

A)

Inversion

B)

Duplication

C)

Translocation

D)

Crossing-over

View Answer
122) The equivalent of a structural gene is

A)

Muton

B)

Cistron

C)

Operon

D)

Recon

View Answer
123) A true breeding plant is

A)

One that is able to breed on its own

B)

Produced due to cross-pollination among unrelated plants

C)

Near homozygous and produces offspring of its own kind

D)

Always homozygous recessive in its genetic constitution

View Answer
124) Which of the following rRNAs acts as structural RNA as well as ribozyme in bacteria?

A)

5 S rRNA

B)

18 S rRNA

C)

23 S rRNA

D)

5.8 S rRNA

View Answer
125) Stirred-tank bioreactors have been designed for

A)

Purification of product

B)

Addition of preservatives to the product

C)

Availability of oxygen throughout the process

D)

Ensuring anaerobic conditions in the culture vessel

View Answer
126) A foreign DNA and plasmid cut by the same restriction endonuclease can be joined to form a recombinant plasmid using

A)

Eco Rl

B)

Taq polymerase

C)

Polymerase III

D)

Ligase

View Answer
127) Which of the following is not a component of downstream processing?

A)

Separation

B)

Purification

C)

Preservation

D)

Expression

View Answer
128) Which of the following restriction enzymes produces blunt ends?

A)

Sal I

B)

Eco RV

C)

Xhol

D)

Hind III

View Answer
129) Which kind of therapy was given in 1990 to a four year- old girl with adenosine deaminase (ADA) deficiency?

A)

Gene therapy

B)

Chemotherapy

C)

Immunotherapy

D)

Radiation therapy

View Answer
130) How many hot spots of biodiversity in the world have been identified till date by Norman Myers?

A)

17

B)

25

C)

34

D)

43

View Answer
131) The primary producers of the deep-sea hydrothermal vent ecosystem are

A)

Green algae

B)

Chemosynthetic bacteria

C)

Blue-green algae

D)

Coral reefs

View Answer
132) Which of the following is correct for r-selected species?

A)

Large number of progeny with small size

B)

Large number of progeny with large size

C)

Small number of progeny with small size

D)

Small number of progeny with large size

View Answer
133) If '+' sign is assigned to beneficial interaction,'-' sign to detrimental and '0' sign to neutral interaction, then the population interaction represented by '+', '-' refers to

A)

Mutualism

B)

Amensalism

C)

Commensalism

D)

Parasitism

View Answer
134) Which of the following is correctly matched?

A)

Aerenchyma - Opuntia

B)

Age pyramid - Biome

C)

Parthenium hysterophorus - Threat to Biodiversity

D)

Stratification - Population

View Answer
135) Red list contains data or information on

A)

All economically important plants

B)

Plants whose products are in international trade

C)

Threatened species

D)

Marine vertebrates only

View Answer
136) Which of the following sets of diseases is caused by bacteria?

A)

Cholera and tetanus

B)

Typhoid and smallpox

C)

Tetanus and mumps

D)

Herpes and influenza

View Answer
137) Match Column-I with Column-II for housefly classification and select the correct option using the codes given below:

Column - I Column - II

A. Family (i) Diplera

B. Order (ii) Arthropoda

C. Class (iii) Muscidae

D. Phylum (iv) Insecta

A)

A - (iii) B - (i) C - (iv) D - (ii)

B)

A - (iii) B - (ii) C - (iv) D - (i)

C)

A - (iv) B - (iii) C - (ii) D - (i)

D)

A - (iv) B - (ii) C - (i) D - (iii)

View Answer
138) Choose the correct statement.

A)

All mammals are viviparous

B)

All cyclostomes do not possess jaws and paired fins.

C)

All reptiles have a three-chambered heart.

D)

All pisces have gills covered by an operculum.

View Answer

139) Study the four statements (A- D) given below and select the two correct ones out of them:

A. Definition of biological species was given by Ernst Mayr.

B. Photoperiod does not affect reproduction in plants.

C. Binomial nomenclature system was given by R.H. Whittaker.

D. In unicellular organisms, reproduction is synonymous with growth.

The two correct statements are

B and C

C and D

A and D

A and B

View Answer

140) In male cockroaches, sperms are stored in which part of the reproductive system?

A)

Seminal vesicles

B)

Mushroom glands

C)

Testes

D)

Vas deferens

View Answer
141) Smooth muscles are

A)

Involuntary, fusiform, non-striated

B)

Voluntary, multinucleate, cylindrical

C)

Involuntary, cylindrical, striated

D)

Voluntary, spindle-shaped, uninucleate

View Answer
142) Oxidative phosphorylation is

A)

Formation of ATP by transfer of phosphate group from a substrate to ADP

B)

Oxidation of phosphate group in ATP

C)

Addition of phosphate group to ATP

D)

Formation of ATP by energy released from electrons removed during substrate oxidation

View Answer
143) Which of the following is the least likely to be involved in stabilizing the three-dimensional folding of most proteins?

A)

Hydrogen bonds

B)

Electrostatic interaction

C)

Hydrophobic interaction

D)

Ester bonds

View Answer
144) Which of the following describes the given graph correctly?

A)

Endothermic reaction with energy A in presence of enzyme and B in absence of enzyme

B)

Exothermic reaction with energy A in presence of enzyme and B in absence of enzyme

C)

Endothermic reaction with energy A in absence of enzyme and B in presence of enzyme

D)

Exothermic reaction with energy A in absence of enzyme and B in presence of enzyme

View Answer
145) When cell has stalled DNA replication fork, which checkpoint should be predominantly activated?

A)

\[{{G}_{1}}/S\]

B)

\[{{G}_{2}}/M\]

C)

M

D)

Both \[{{G}_{2}}/M\] and \[M\]

View Answer

146) Match the stages of meiosis of Column-I to their characteristic features in Column-II and select the correct option using the codes given below:

Column - I	Column - II
a. Pachytene	(i) Pairing of homologous chromosomes
b. Metaphasel	(ii) Terminalization of chiasmata
c. Diainesis	(iii) Crossing - over takes place
d. Zygotene	(iv) Chromosomes align at equatorial plate

A - (iii) B - (iv) C - (ii) D - (i)

A - (i) B - (iv) C - (ii) D - (iii)

A - (ii) B - (iv) C - (iii) D - (i)

A - (iv) B - (iii) C - (ii) D - (i)

View Answer

147) Which hormones do stimulate the production of pancreatic juice and bicarbonate?

A)

Angiotensin and epinephrine

B)

Gastrin and insulin

C)

Cholecystokinin and secretin

D)

Insulin and glucagon

View Answer
148) The partial pressure of oxygen in the alveoli of the lungs is

A)

Equal to that in the blood

B)

More than that in the blood

C)

Less than that in the blood

D)

Less than that of carbon dioxide

View Answer
149) Choose the correct statements.

A)

Nociceptors respond to changes in pressure

B)

Meissner's corpuscles are thermoreceptors

C)

Photoreceptors in the human eye are depolarised during darkness and become hyperpolarized in response to the light stimulus

D)

Receptors do not produce graded potentials

View Answer
150) Graves' disease is caused due to

A)

Hyposecretion of thyroid gland

B)

Hypersecretion of thyroid gland

C)

Hyposecretion of adrenal gland

D)

Hypersecretion of adrenal gland

View Answer
151) Name the ion responsible for unmasking of active sites for myosin for cross-bridge activity during muscle contraction.

A)

Calcium

B)

Magnesium

C)

Sodium

D)

Potassium

View Answer
152) Name the blood cells, whose reduction in number can cause clotting disorder, leading to excessive loss of blood from the body.

A)

Erythrocytes

B)

Leucocytes

C)

Neutrophils

D)

Thrombocytes

View Answer
153) Name a peptide hormone which acts mainly on hepatocytes, adipocytes and enhances cellular glucose uptake and utilization.

A)

Insulin

B)

Glucagon

C)

Secretin

D)

Gastrin

View Answer
154) Osteoporosis, an age-related disease of skeletal system, may occur due to

A)

Immune disorder affecting neuromuscular junction leading to fatigue

B)

High concentration of \[C{{a}^{++}}\] and \[N{{a}^{+}}\]

C)

Decreased level of estrogen

D)

Accumulation of uric acid leading to inflammation of joints

View Answer
155) Serum differs from blood in

A)

Lacking globulins

B)

Lacking albumins

C)

Lacking clotting factors

D)

Lacking antibodies

View Answer
156) Lungs do not collapse between breaths and some air always remains in the lungs which can never be expelled because

A)

There is a negative pressure in the lungs

B)

There is a negative intrapleural pressure pulling at the lung walls

C)

There is a positive intrapleural pressure

D)

Pressure in the lungs is higher than the atmospheric pressure

View Answer
157) The posterior pituitary gland is not a 'true' endocrine gland because

A)

It is provided with a duct

B)

It only stores and releases hormones

C)

It is under the regulation of hypothalamus pressure pulling at the lung walls.

D)

It secretes enzymes

View Answer
158) The part of nephron involved in active reabsorption of sodium is

A)

Distal convoluted tubule

B)

Proximal convoluted tubule

C)

Bowman's capsule

D)

Descending limb of Henle's loop

View Answer
159) Which of the following is hormone releasing IUD?

A)

LNG-20

B)

Multiload-375

C)

Lippes loop

D)

Cu7

View Answer
160) Which of the following is incorrect regarding vasectomy?

A)

No sperm occurs in seminal fluid

B)

No sperm occurs in epididymis

C)

Vasa deferentia is cut and tied

D)

Irreversible sterility

View Answer
161) Embryo with more than 16 blastomeres formed due to in-vitro fertilization is transferred into

A)

Uterus

B)

Fallopian tube

C)

Fimbriae

D)

Cervix

View Answer
162) Which of the following depicts the correct pathway of transport of sperms?

A)

Rete testis \[\to \] Efferent ductules \[\to \] Epididymis \[\to \] Vas deferens

B)

Rate testis \[\to \] Epididymis \[\to \] Efferent ductules \[\to \] Vas deferens

C)

Rete testis \[\to \] Vas deferens \[\to \] Efferent ductules \[\to \] Epididymis

D)

Efferent ductules \[\to \] Rete testis \[\to \] Vas deferens \[\to \] Epididymis

View Answer
163) Match Column - I with Column - II and select the correct option using the codes given below:

Column - I Column - II

A. Mons pubis (i) Embryo formation

B. Antrum (ii) Sperm

C. Trophectoderm (iii) Female external genitalia

D. Nebenkern (iv) Graafian follicle

A)

A - (iii)   B - (iv) C - (ii)   D - (i)

B)

A - (iii) B - (iv) C - (i)     D - (ii)

C)

A - (iii)   B - (i)    C - (iv) D - (ii)

D)

A - (i)    B - (iv) C - (iii) D - (ii)

View Answer
164) Several hormones like hCG, hPL, estrogen, progesterone are produced by

A)

Ovary

B)

Placenta

C)

Fallopian tube

D)

Pituitary

View Answer
165) If a colour-blind man marries a woman who is homozygous for normal colour vision, the probability of their son being colour-blind is

A)

0

B)

0.5

C)

0.75

D)

1

View Answer
166) Genetic drift operates in

A)

Small isolated population

B)

Large isolated population

C)

Non-reproductive population

D)

Slow reproductive population

View Answer
167) In Hardy-Weinberg equation, the frequency of heterozygous individual is represented by

A)

\[{{p}^{2}}\]

B)

\[2pq\]

C)

\[pq\]

D)

\[{{q}^{2}}\]

View Answer
168) The chronological order of human evolution from early to the recent is

A)

Australopithecus \[\to \] Ramapithecus \[\to \] Homo habilis \[\to \] Homo erectus

B)

Ramapithecus \[\to \] Australopithecus \[\to \] Homo habilis \[\to \] Homo erectus

C)

Ramapithecus \[\to \] Homo habilis \[\to \] Australopithecus \[\to \] Homo erectus

D)

Australopithecus \[\to \] Homo habilis \[\to \] Ramapithecus \[\to \] Homo erectus

View Answer
169) Which of the following is the correct sequence of events in the origin of life?

(i) Formation of protobionts

(ii) Synthesis of organic monomers

(iii) Synthesis of organic polymers

(iv) Formation of DNA-based genetic systems

A)

            (i)         (ii)         (iii)        (iv)

B)

            (i)         (iii)        (ii)         (iv)

C)

            (ii)         (iii)        (i)         (iv)

D)

            (ii)         (iii)        (iv)        (i)

View Answer
170) A molecule that can act as a genetic material must fulfill the traits given below, except

A)

It should be able to express itself in the form of 'Mendelian characters'

B)

It should be able to generate its replica

C)

It should be unstable structurally and chemically

D)

It should provide the scope for slow changes that are required for evolution

View Answer
171) DNA-dependent RNA polymerase catalyzes transcription on one strand of the DNA which is called the

A)

Template strand

B)

Coding strand

C)

Alpha strand

D)

Antistrand

View Answer
172) Interspecific hybridization is the mating of

A)

Animals within same breed without having common ancestors

B)

Two different related species

C)

Superior males and females of different breeds

D)

More closely related individuals within same breed for \[4-6\] generations

View Answer
173) Which of the following is correct regarding AIDS causative agent HIV?

A)

HIV is enveloped virus containing one molecule of single-stranded RNA and one molecule of reverse transcriptase

B)

HIV is enveloped virus that contains two identical molecules of single-stranded RNA and two molecules of reverse transcriptase

C)

HIV is unenveloped retrovirus

D)

HIV does not escape but attacks the acquired immune response

View Answer
174) Among the following edible fishes, which one is a marine fish having rich source of omega-3 fatty acids?

A)

Mystus

B)

Mangur

C)

Mrigala

D)

Mackerel

View Answer
175) Match Column-I with Column-II and select the correct option using the codes given below :

Column - I Column - II

A. Citric acid (i) Trichoderma

B. Cyclosporin A (ii) Clostridium

C. Statins (iii) Aspergillus

D. Butyric acid (iv) Monascus

A)

A - (iii) B - (i) C - (ii) D - (iv)

B)

A - (iii) B - (i) C - (iv) D - (ii)

C)

A - (i) B - (iv) C - (ii) D - (iii)

D)

A - (iii) B - (iv) C - (i) D - (ii)

View Answer
176) Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD) may not be a good index for pollution for water bodies receiving effluents from

A)

Domestic sewage

B)

Dairy industry

C)

Petroleum industry

D)

Sugar industry

View Answer
177) The principle of competitive exclusion was stated by

A)

C. Darwin

B)

G. F. Gause

C)

MacArthur

D)

Verhulstand Pearl

View Answer
178) Which of the following National Parks is home to the famous musk deer or hangul?

A)

Keibul Lamjao National Park, Manipur

B)

Bandhavgarh National Park, Madhya Pradesh

C)

Eaglenest Wildlife Sanctuary, Arunachal Pradesh

D)

Dachigam National Park, Jammu & Kashmir

View Answer
179) A lake which is rich in organic waste may result in

A)

Increased population of aquatic organisms due to minerals

B)

Drying of the lake due to algal bloom

C)

Increased population offish due to lots of nutrients

D)

Mortality of fish due to lack of oxygen

View Answer
180) The highest DDT concentration in aquatic food chain shall occur in

A)

Phytop lankton

B)

Seagull

C)

Crab

D)

Eel

View Answer

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NEET Solved Paper-2016 Phase-II

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Column - I	Column - II
A. Pistils fused together	(i) Gametogenesis
B. Formation of gametes	(ii) Pistillate
C. Hyphae of higher	(iii) Syncarpous
D. Unisexual female flower	(iv) Dikaryotic

Column - I	Column - II
A. Family	(i) Diplera
B. Order	(ii) Arthropoda
C. Class	(iii) Muscidae
D. Phylum	(iv) Insecta

Column - I	Column - II
A. Mons pubis	(i) Embryo formation
B. Antrum	(ii) Sperm
C. Trophectoderm	(iii) Female external genitalia
D. Nebenkern	(iv) Graafian follicle

Column - I	Column - II
A. Citric acid	(i) Trichoderma
B. Cyclosporin A	(ii) Clostridium
C. Statins	(iii) Aspergillus
D. Butyric acid	(iv) Monascus

Solved papers for NEET NEET SOLVED PAPER 2016 Phase-II

done NEET SOLVED PAPER 2016 Phase-II Total Questions - 180

Study Package

NEET Solved Paper-2016 Phase-II

NEET SOLVED PAPER 2016 Phase-II Total Questions - 180