Solved papers for AMU Medical AMU Solved Paper-2015

AMU Solved Paper-2015 Total Questions - 200

1) The potential differences across the resistances are given in the following circuit as shown. If point Q is grounded, the potential at point S will be

A)

20V

B)

-20V

C)

50V

D)

-50V

View Answer
2) A straight conductor carrying a current I splits into two identical semicircular arcs as shown in figure below. What is the magnitude of the magnetic field at the centre C of the resulting circular arcs of radius R?

A)

0

B)

\[\frac{{{\mu }_{0}}l}{4R}\]

C)

\[\frac{{{\mu }_{0}}l}{2R}\]

D)

\[\frac{{{\mu }_{0}}l}{R}\]

View Answer
3) A circular loop of area 1\[c{{m}^{2}}\], carrying a current of 10 A is placed in a magnetic field of T perpendicular to the plane of the loop. The torque on the loop due to the magnetic field is

A)

zero

B)

                \[{{10}^{-4}}N\,m\]

C)

  \[{{10}^{-2}}N\,m\]

D)

1 Nm

View Answer
4) An average of emf 20 V is induced in an inductor when the current I in it is changed from 2.5 A in one direction to the same value in the opposite direction in 0.1 s. What is the self-inductance of the inductor?

A)

Zero

B)

0.2 H

C)

0.4H

D)

0.1H

View Answer
5) Two cells of emf \[{{E}_{1}}\] and \[{{E}_{2}}({{E}_{1}}>{{E}_{2}})\] are connected as shown When a potentiometer is connected between A and B, the balancing length of the potentiometer wire is 300 cm. On connecting the same potentiometer between A and C, the balancing length is 100 cm. What is the ratio of \[{{E}_{1}}\] and \[{{E}_{2}}\]?

A)

3/2

B)

2/3

C)

1/2

D)

1/3

View Answer
6) A convex lens is made of a material having refractive index 1.2. Both the sides are convex. If it is dipped in water (27 = 1.3 3), it will behave like a

A)

                convergent lens

B)

                divergept lens

C)

                a rectangular slab

D)

                a prisms

View Answer
7) What will be the angle of diffraction for the first secondary maximum due to diffraction at a single slit of width 0.4 mm, using light of wavelength 4000 Å?

A)

\[1.0\times {{10}^{-4}}\] rad

B)

\[0.5\times {{10}^{-4}}\] rad

C)

\[0.15\times {{10}^{-3}}\] rad

D)

\[1.5\times {{10}^{-3}}\] rad

View Answer
8) A glass slab of thickness 8 cm contains the same number of waves as 10 cm of water when both are traversed by the same monochromatic light. If the refractive index of water is 4/3, the refractive index of glass is

A)

3/4

B)

3/5

C)

5/3

D)

5/4

View Answer
9) If E and B are the electric and magnetic fields vectors of electromagnetic waves then the direction of propagation of electromagnetic waves is along the direction of

A)

E

B)

B

C)

\[E\times B\]

D)

\[B\times E\]

View Answer
10) The amplitude of the magnetic field of a harmonic electromagnetic wave in vacuum I Bo = 510 nT. What is the amplitude of the electric field?

A)

140 \[N{{C}^{-1}}\]

B)

153 \[N{{C}^{-1}}\]

C)

163 \[N{{C}^{-1}}\]

D)

133 \[N{{C}^{-1}}\]

View Answer
11) lie A free electron is placed in the path of a plane electromagnetic wave. The electron will start moving

A)

along the electric field

B)

along the magnetic field

C)

along the direction of propagation of wave

D)

in a plane containing the magnetic field and the direction of propagation

View Answer
12) Ultraviolet light of wavelength 350 nm and intensity \[1.00\text{ }W/{{m}^{2}}\]is directed at a potassium surface. What will be the maximum kinetic   energy of the photoelectrons? (Work function of potassium =2.2eV)

A)

3.5eV

B)

2.6eV

C)

2.2eV

D)

1.3eV

View Answer
13) Light of wavelength \[\lambda =5893\,\overset{o}{\mathop{A}}\,\] is incident on potassium surface. The stopping potential for the emitted electrons is 0.36 V. What is the maximum kinetic energy of the photoelectrons?

A)

0.18eV

B)

0.36eV

C)

0.74eV

D)

2.1eV

View Answer
14) If the kinetic energy of a particle is reduced to one - fourth then the percentage increase in the de - Broglie wavelength is

A)

41%

B)

100%

C)

144%

D)

200%

View Answer
15) In the Bohr Model of hydrogen atom, the electron circulates around the nucleus in a path of radius \[5.1\times {{10}^{-11}}\] m at a frequency of \[6.8\times {{10}^{15}}\] revolutions per second. What will be the equivalent current?

A)

2.544 mA

B)

2.176 mA

C)

1.880 mA

D)

1.088 mA

View Answer
16) The graph of log \[(R/{{R}_{0}})\] versus log A (R = radius of a nucleus and A = its mass number) is

A)

a straight line

B)

a parabola

C)

an ellipse

D)

None of the above

View Answer
17) An \[\alpha \]-particle is bombarded on \[^{14}N\]. As a result, a \[^{17}O\] nucleus is formed and a particle is emitted. This particle is a/an

A)

neutron

B)

proton

C)

electron

D)

positron

View Answer
18) The circuit shown in the diagram contains two diodes, each with a forward resistance of 30 \[\Omega \]and infinite reverse resistance. If the battery is of 3 V, then the voltage drop across 50 \[\Omega \]resistance will be

A)

2V

B)

5 V

C)

1 V

D)

1.5V

View Answer
19) The depletion layer in the p-n junction region is caused by

A)

drift of holes

B)

diffusion of charge carriers

C)

migration of impurity ions

D)

drift of electrons

View Answer
20) In order to be transmitted over a communication system, a speech signal with frequencies in the range 0.2-5 kHz is amplitude modulated over a carrier wave of frequency 1000 kHz. What would be the maximum transmitted frequency?

A)

5 kHz

B)

1000 kHz

C)

1000.2 kHz

D)

1005 kHz

View Answer
21) The dimensional formula of Plancks constant, h is

A)

\[[M{{L}^{2}}{{T}^{-1}}]\]

B)

\[[M{{L}^{2}}{{T}^{-2}}]\]

C)

\[[M{{L}^{0}}{{T}^{2}}]\]

D)

\[[ML{{T}^{2}}]\]

View Answer
22) Astronomical unit (Au) is the average distance between the earth and sun approximately \[1.5\times {{10}^{8}}km\]. The speed of light is about\[3.0\times {{10}^{8}}m/s\]. The speed of light in astronomical unit per minute is

A)

0.012 Au/min

B)

0.12 Au/min

C)

1.2 Au/min

D)

12.0 Au/min

View Answer
23) A 130 m long train is moving in up direction with speed 17 km/h. Another train of 120 m long is moving in down direction with speed 108 km/h. The time in which second train crosses the first train will be

A)

5s

B)

10s

C)

12s

D)

15s

View Answer
24) At a certain time a particle has a speed of 18 m/s in positive x-direction and 2.4 s later its speed was 30 m/s in the opposite direction. What is the magnitude of the average acceleration of the particle during the 2.4 s interval?

A)

\[20\,m/{{s}^{2}}\]

B)

\[10\,m/{{s}^{2}}\]

C)

\[5\,m/{{s}^{2}}\]

D)

\[2.5\,m/{{s}^{2}}\]

View Answer
25) Three projectile motion paths are shown below. Each having reached the same height\[{{y}_{m}}\]. For which path the time of flight is minimum.

A)

I

B)

II

C)

III

D)

All have the same time of flight

View Answer
26) A certain force gives an object of mass \[{{m}_{2}}\] an acceleration of \[12\,\,m/{{s}^{2}}\] and an object of mass \[{{m}_{2}}\] an acceleration of \[3\,\,m/{{s}^{2}}\]. What acceleration would the force give to an object of mass \[{{m}_{2}}={{m}_{1}}\]?

A)

\[0.5\,m/{{s}^{2}}\]

B)

\[1.0\,m/{{s}^{2}}\]

C)

\[2.0\,m/{{s}^{2}}\]

D)

\[4.0\,m/{{s}^{2}}\]

View Answer
27) Two blocks A and B of masses 10 kg and 20 kg respectively are connected by a massless spring as shown in figure. A force of 200 N acts on the block B. At the instant shown, the block A has an acceleration of \[12\,m/{{s}^{2}}\]The acceleration of the block B will be

A)

                zero

B)

                \[4\,m/{{s}^{2}}\]

C)

\[10\,m/{{s}^{2}}\]

D)

\[12\,m/{{s}^{2}}\]

View Answer
28) A body of mass 10 kg moves at a constant speed of \[10\,m/{{s}^{2}}\]. A constant force then acts for 4 second on the body and gives it a speed of 2 m/s in opposite direction. Magnitude of the force acting on the body is

A)

30N

B)

20N

C)

15N

D)

10N

View Answer
29) A stone is fastened to one end of a string and is whirled in a vertical circle of radius R. Find the minimum speed the stone can have at the highest point of the circle.

A)

\[\sqrt{2Rg}\]

B)

\[\sqrt{2R/g}\]

C)

\[\sqrt{R/g}\]

D)

\[\sqrt{Rg}\]

View Answer
30) If g is acceleration due to gravity on earths surface, the gain in the potential energy of an object of mass m raised from surface of the earth to a height equal to radius R of the earth is

A)

\[2\,mg\,R\]

B)

\[\,mg\,R\]

C)

\[\frac{1}{2}\,mg\,R\]

D)

\[\frac{1}{4}\,mg\,R\]

View Answer
31) A man racing with his son has half the kinetic energy of the son, who has half the mass of the father. The man speeds up by 1 m/s and has the same kinetic energy as the son. What was the original speed of the man?

A)

4.8 m/s

B)

3.6 m/s

C)

2.4 m/s

D)

1.2 m/s

View Answer
32) All particles of a body are situated at a distance R from the origin. The distance of the centre of mass of the body from the origin is

A)

= R

B)

\[\le R\]

C)

> R

D)

\[\ge R\]

View Answer
33) A wheel is rotating freely at angular speed 800 rev/min on a shaft whose rotational inertia negligible. A second wheel, initially at rest and with twice the rotational inertia of the first is suddenly coupled to the shaft. The angular speed of the resultant combination of the shaft and two wheel is

A)

267 rev/min

B)

335 rev/min

C)

400 rev/min

D)

1150 rev/min

View Answer
34) A person sitting firmly over a rotating stool has his arms stretched. If he folds his arms, his angular momentum about the axis of rotation

A)

increases

B)

decreases

C)

remains unchanged

D)

doubles

View Answer
35) An asteroid, whose mass is \[2.0\times {{10}^{-4}}\] times the mass of Earth, revolves in a circular orbit around the sun at a distance that is twice the Earths distance form the sun. The period of revolution of asteroid in years is (mass of the sun \[=1.99\times {{10}^{30}}kg\], radius of the Earths orbit \[=1.5\times {{10}^{11}}m\],\[G=6.67\times {{10}^{-11}}{{m}^{3}}/{{s}^{2}}\,kg\])

A)

0.28 yr

B)

2.8 yr

C)

10yr

D)

28 yr

View Answer
36) The pressure increases on the fluid in a syringe when a nurse applies a force of 42 N to the syringes circular piston, which has a radius of 1.1 cm.

A)

\[1.1\times {{10}^{5}}Pa\]

B)

\[11\times {{10}^{5}}Pa\]

C)

\[1.1\times {{10}^{7}}Pa\]

D)

\[1.1\times {{10}^{1}}Pa\]

View Answer
37) A solid sphere falls with a terminal velocity of 20 m/s in air. If it is allowed to fall in vacuum?

A)

the terminal velocity will be 20 m/s

B)

the terminal velocity will be less than 20 m/s

C)

the terminal velocity will be more than 20 m/s

D)

there will be no terminal velocity

View Answer
38) Consider the process on a system shown in figure below. During the process, the work done by the system

A)

continuously increases

B)

continuously decreases

C)

first increases then decreases

D)

first decreases then increases

View Answer
39) An ideal gas is taken from state A to state B and then from state B to state C as shown in figure. Which of the following statements is true?

A)

Process AB is isochoric, while process BC is isobaric

B)

Process AB is isobaric, while process BC is isochoric

C)

Process AB is isothermal while process BC is adiabatic

D)

Process AB is adiabatic while process BC is isothermal

View Answer
40) Two particles execute SHM of the same amplitude and frequency along the same line. They pass one another when going in opposite directions each time their displacement is half their amplitude. What is the phase difference between them?

A)

\[{{60}^{o}}\]

B)

\[{{120}^{o}}\]

C)

\[{{160}^{o}}\]

D)

\[{{180}^{o}}\]

View Answer
41) A jet engine emits a sound of frequency 3000 Hz. When the engine is moving directly away from the observer at half the speed of sound (speed of sound = 340 m/s), the observer hears a sound of frequency

A)

1000 Hz

B)

1500 Hz

C)

2000 Hz

D)

4500 Hz

View Answer
42) A particle is executing SHM with a period \[\pi \]sec. When it is passing through the centre of its path, its velocity is 0.1 m/s. What is its velocity when it is at a distance of 0.03 m from the mean position?

A)

0.08 m/s

B)

0.05 m/s

C)

0.04 m/s

D)

0.01 m/s

View Answer
43) A proton is released from rest in a uniform electric field of magnitude \[8.0\times {{10}^{4}}\] V/m, directed along positive x-axis. The proton undergoes a displacement of 0.30m in the direction of the field. What is the change in electric potential of the proton as a result of this displacement?

A)

\[2.4\times {{10}^{4}}\,V\]

B)

\[4.8\times {{10}^{4}}\,V\]

C)

\[-2.4\times {{10}^{4}}\,V\]

D)

\[-1.2\times {{10}^{4}}\,V\]

View Answer
44) A positive point charge is brought near an isolated metal cube.

A)

The cubes becomes negatively charged

B)

The cube becomes positively charged

C)

The interior becomes positively charged and the surface becomes negatively charged

D)

The interior remains charge free and the surface gets non-uniform charge distribution.

View Answer
45) A charge Q is to be divided on two objects. The values of the charges on the objects so that the force between the objects can be maximum are

A)

\[\frac{2Q}{3},\frac{Q}{3}\]

B)

\[\frac{3Q}{4},\frac{Q}{4}\]

C)

\[\frac{Q}{2},\frac{Q}{2}\]

D)

Q. O

View Answer
46) Initially, sphere A has charge of-50 e and sphere B has a charge of +20e. The spheres are made of conducting material and are identical in size. If the spheres touch each other, what is the resulting charge on sphere A?

A)

-15e

B)

-30e

C)

+30e

D)

+15e

View Answer
47) A battery of emf 10 V is connected to the network as shown in figure The potential difference between A and B is

A)

                -2V

B)

                2V

C)

5V

D)

7V

View Answer
48) The net resistance of an ammeter should be small to ensure that

A)

it does not get overheated

B)

it does not draw excessive current

C)

it can measure large currents

D)

it does not appreciably change the current to be measured

View Answer
49) Suppose the first strip A is red, second strip B is yellow, third strip C is orange and fourth strip .R is silver, from left to right, m a colour coded carbon resistor. What is the value of resistance?

A)

\[(24\pm 5%)\,k\Omega \]

B)

\[(24\pm 10%)\,k\Omega \]

C)

\[(350\pm 5%)\,k\Omega \]

D)

\[(350\pm 10%)\,k\Omega \]

View Answer
50) Two bulbs of rating 100 W, 250 V and 200 W, 250 V are connected in series across a 500 V line, then

A)

100 W bulb will be fused

B)

200 W bulb will be fused

C)

both bulbs will be fused

D)

No bulb will be fused

View Answer
51) Which one of the following is an addition polymer?

A)

Nylon-6

B)

Nylon-6 6

C)

Terylene (dacron)

D)

Buna-S

View Answer
52) Toluene on treatment with chromyl chloride in presence of \[C{{S}_{2}}\] yields a complex which upon hydrolysis yields

A)

benzole acid

B)

acetophenone

C)

benzaidehyde

D)

benzyl alcohol

View Answer
53) Which one of the following organic compound is a gas?

A)

\[C{{H}_{3}}CHO\]

B)

\[C{{H}_{2}}O\]

C)

\[C{{H}_{3}}COC{{H}_{3}}\]

D)

View Answer
54) Lucas reagent is equimolar solution of

A)

cone. \[{{H}_{2}}S{{O}_{4}}\] and cone. \[HN{{O}_{3}}\]

B)

cone. \[HN{{O}_{3}}\] and anhydrous \[ZnC{{l}_{3}}\]

C)

cone. \[HCl\] and anhydrous \[ZnC{{l}_{2}}\]

D)

cone. \[{{H}_{2}}S{{O}_{4}}\] and anhydrous \[ZnC{{l}_{2}}\]

View Answer
55) The carbocation formed in \[{{S}_{N}}1\] reaction of alkyl halide in the slow step is

A)

\[s{{p}^{3}}\] hybridised

B)

\[s{{p}^{2}}\]hybridized

C)

sp hybridised

D)

\[s{{p}^{3}}d\] hybridised

View Answer
56) The conversion of nitriles to aldehydes with stannous chloride in presence of \[HCl\] is known as

A)

Rosenmund reduction

B)

Stephen reduction

C)

Etard reaction

D)

Wolf Kishner reduction

View Answer
57) The Nobel Prize in Chemistry in 2005 was awarded for the work

A)

concerning the reduction of hazardous waster in creating new chemicals

B)

concerning the formation and decomposition of ozone

C)

concerning the recycling of CFCs

D)

concerning the climate change

View Answer
58) For a weak electrolyte, a plot of a (degree of ionisation)vs 1/C gives

A)

a straight line

B)

a parabola

C)

a hyperbola

D)

an exponential curve

View Answer
59) The pH of a solution obtained by mixing of 100 mL of a \[HCl\] solution of pH = 2 with 400 mL of another \[HCl\] solution of pH = 3 will be

A)

2

B)

3

C)

2.5

D)

2.8

View Answer
60) The reduced volume and reduced temperature of a gas are 10.2 and 0.7 respectively. If its critical pressure is 4.25 atm then its pressure will be

A)

0.6816 atm

B)

0.6618 atm

C)

0.8616 atm

D)

zero

View Answer
61) For the electrode \[{{H}^{+}}(aq)\,\left| {{H}_{2}}(g) \right.\], if pH is decreased by one unit at \[{{25}^{o}}C\], then the cell potential

A)

decreases by 59.1 mV

B)

increases by 59.1 mV

C)

remains unchanged

D)

becomes zero

View Answer
62) For a reaction,\[NO\,(g)+{{O}_{2}}(g)\xrightarrow{{}}2N{{O}_{2}}\,(g);\] Rate \[=kl\,{{[NO]}^{2}}[{{O}_{2}}]\]. If the volume of the reaction vessel is doubled, the rate of reaction

A)

will diminish to 1/4 of initial value

B)

will diminish to 1/8 of initial value

C)

will increase 4 times

D)

will increase 8 times

View Answer
63) Two moles of an ideal gas are allowed to expand reversibly and isothermally at 300 K from a pressure of 1 atm to a pressure of 0.1 atm. The change in Gibbs free energy is

A)

                -11.488J

B)

                +11.488J

C)

-11.488kJ

D)

zero

View Answer
64) What will be pH of the following half-cell\[Pt,\,{{H}_{2}}\left| {{H}_{2}}S{{O}_{4}} \right.\]? The oxidation potential is + 0.3V.

A)

3.085

B)

4.085

C)

5.085

D)

6.085

View Answer
65) Consider a first order decomposition process \[{{A}_{3}}\xrightarrow{{}}\frac{3}{2}{{A}_{2}}\]A plot of concentration of \[{{A}_{3}}\] and \[{{A}_{2}}\] versus time is shown below. At time \[{{t}_{A}}\], percentage of reactant decomposed is

A)

75%

B)

50%

C)

40%

D)

30%

View Answer
66) The composition of a sample of website is\[F{{e}_{0.95}}{{O}_{1.00}}\]. What percentage of iron is present in the form of Fe (III)?

A)

16.05

B)

15.05

C)

18.05

D)

17.05

View Answer
67) How many grams of \[KCl\] should be added to kg of water to lower its freezing point to \[{{8.0}^{o}}C\]? [\[{{K}_{f}}\] for water \[={{1.86}^{o}}C\,k\,g\,mo{{l}^{-1}}\])

A)

160.2

B)

150.2

C)

140.2

D)

130.2

View Answer
68) 0.01 m solution of \[KCl\] and \[BaC{{l}_{2}}\] are prepared in water. The freezing point of \[KCl\] found to be \[-{{4}^{o}}C\]. What will be the freezing point for \[BaC{{l}_{2}}\] solution assuming that both \[KCl\] and \[BaC{{l}_{2}}\] are completely ionised in solutions?

A)

\[-{{3}^{o}}C\]

B)

\[-{{4}^{o}}C\]

C)

\[-{{5}^{o}}C\]

D)

\[-{{6}^{o}}C\]

View Answer
69) The emf of the following three cells I. \[Zn\left| Z{{n}^{2+}}\,\,(1M) \right|\left| C{{u}^{2}}(1M)\,\, \right|Cu\] II. \[Zn\left| Z{{n}^{2+}}\,\,(0.1M) \right|\left| C{{u}^{2}}(1M)\,\, \right|Cu\] III. \[Zn\left| Z{{n}^{2+}}\,\,(1M) \right|\left| C{{u}^{2+}}(0.1M)\,\, \right|Cu\] are represented by \[{{E}_{1}},{{E}_{2}}\] and \[{{E}_{3}}\]. Which of the following statement is correct?

A)

\[{{E}_{1}}>{{E}_{2}}>{{E}_{3}}\]

B)

\[{{E}_{3}}>{{E}_{2}}>{{E}_{1}}\]

C)

\[{{E}_{3}}>{{E}_{1}}>{{E}_{2}}\]

D)

\[{{E}_{2}}>{{E}_{1}}>{{E}_{3}}\]

View Answer
70) 20 \[d{{m}^{3}}\] of \[S{{O}_{2}}\] diffuse through a porous partition in 60 s. What volume of \[{{O}_{3}}\] will diffuse under similar conditions?

A)

14.1 \[d{{m}^{3}}\]

B)

16.1 \[d{{m}^{3}}\]

C)

18.1 \[d{{m}^{3}}\]

D)

20.1 \[d{{m}^{3}}\]

View Answer
71) What will be the pH of 0.1 M ammonium acetate solution? \[(p{{K}_{a}}=p{{K}_{b}}=4.74)\]

A)

4.74

B)

6.74

C)

7.74

D)

7.00

View Answer
72) The solubility of \[Sr{{(OH)}_{2}}\] at 298 K is 0.1581 M. What will be the concentration of \[{{H}_{3}}{{O}^{+}}\] in the solution?

A)

\[0.158\times {{10}^{-14}}\]

B)

\[0.3162\times {{10}^{-14}}\]

C)

\[3.163\times {{10}^{-14}}\]

D)

\[2.163\times {{10}^{-14}}\]

View Answer
73) The \[{{K}_{p}}\] value for the reaction,\[{{H}_{2}}(g)+{{I}_{2}}(g)2HI(g)\] at \[{{460}^{o}}C\] is 49. If the partial pressure of \[{{H}_{2}}\] and \[{{I}_{2}}\] is 0.5 atm, respectively. What will be the partial pressure of HI at equilibrium?

A)

0.389

B)

0.111

C)

0.788

D)

0,222

View Answer
74) Enthalpy of \[C{{H}_{4}}+\frac{1}{2}{{O}_{2}}\xrightarrow{{}}C{{H}_{3}}OH\], is negative. If enthalpies of combustion of \[C{{H}_{4}}\] and \[C{{H}_{3}}OH\] are x and y respectively, then which of the following relation is correct?

A)

\[x>y\]

B)

\[x<y\]

C)

\[x=y\]

D)

\[x\ge y\]

View Answer
75) The state of hybridisation of \[Cl\] atom in \[ClO_{2}^{-}\]is

A)

                \[s{{p}^{3}}\]

B)

                \[s{{p}^{2}}\]

C)

\[s{{p}^{2}}d\]

D)

\[s{{p}^{3}}\]

View Answer
76) The maximum number of electrons in an , subshell is given by the expression

A)

\[2{{n}^{2}}\]

B)

\[4l+1\]

C)

\[4l+2\]

D)

\[4l-2\]

View Answer
77) Which one of the silicon components does not exist?

A)

\[{{[Si{{F}_{6}}]}^{2-}}\]

B)

\[Si{{(OH)}_{4}}\]

C)

\[{{[SiC{{l}_{6}}]}^{2-}}\]

D)

\[SiC{{l}_{4}}\]

View Answer
78) The oxidation number of cobalt in \[K[Co{{(CO)}_{4}}]\] is

A)

+1

B)

+2

C)

- 1

D)

- 3

View Answer
79) Which one of the following complexes is paramagnetic in nature?

A)

\[{{[Zn{{(N{{H}_{3}})}_{4}}]}^{2+}}\]

B)

\[{{(Co{{(N{{H}_{3}})}_{6}}]}^{3+}}\]

C)

\[{{[Ni{{({{H}_{2}}O)}_{6}}]}^{2+}}\]

D)

\[{{[Ni{{(CN)}_{4}}]}^{2-}}\]

View Answer
80) Constantan is an alloy of

A)

Cu, Sn

B)

Cu, Zn

C)

Cu, Ni

D)

Cu, Mn

View Answer
81) Electrolytic reduction method is used in extraction of

A)

highly electronegative elements

B)

elements having high electron affinity

C)

highly electropositive elements

D)

transition elements

View Answer
82) The undecomposed AgBr in black and white photography is dissolved by hypo solution due to formation of the complex.

A)

\[A{{g}_{2}}S\]

B)

\[{{[Ag{{({{S}_{2}}{{O}_{3}})}_{2}}]}^{3-}}\]

C)

\[{{[Ag{{(S)}_{2}}]}^{3-}}\]

D)

\[{{[Ag{{(S{{O}_{3}})}_{2}}]}^{3-}}\]

View Answer
83) Which of the following is the correct combination of oxidation states for group 17 elements?

A)

+ 6, + 4, + 2, -2

B)

+ 7, + 5, + 3, + 1, - 1

C)

+7, + 6, + 5, + 3, +2, -2

D)

+ 7, + 5, + 4, + 3, + 2, - 2

View Answer
84) The increasing electron releasing tendencies of Cu, Ag, Fe and Zn are in the order.

A)

Ag, Cu, Fe, Zn

B)

Cu, Ag, Fe, Zn

C)

Zn, Cu, Fe, Ag

D)

Fe, Zn, Cu, Ag

View Answer
85) The oxidation state of potassium in \[K{{O}_{2}}\] is

A)

+2

B)

+ 4

C)

+1

D)

- 1

View Answer
86) Which one of the following is Nesslefs reagent?

A)

\[{{K}_{2}}Hg{{l}_{4}}\]

B)

\[{{K}_{2}}Hg{{l}_{4}}+KOH\]

C)

\[{{K}_{2}}Hg{{l}_{2}}+KOH\]

D)

\[KHg{{l}_{3}}+KOH\]

View Answer
87) The presence of primary alcoholic group in glucose can be confirmed by

A)

oxidation of glucose with nitric acid

B)

acetylation of glucose with acetic anhydride

C)

oxidation of glucose with mild oxidizing etgent

D)

prolonged heating of glucose with HI

View Answer
88) The electronegativity of elements helps in predicting

A)

strength of the element

B)

polarity of the molecule

C)

size of the molecule

D)

valency of the element

View Answer
89) Which one of the following carbohydrate gives equimolar mixture of D-(+)-glucose and D-(-)-fructose on hydrolysis?

A)

Maltose

B)

Lactose

C)

Amylose

D)

Sucrose

View Answer
90) The correct order of hybridisation of the central atom in the following species\[N{{H}_{3}},{{[PtC{{l}_{4}}]}^{2-}},PC{{l}_{5}}{{[BC{{l}_{4}}]}^{-}}\]

A)

\[s{{p}^{3}},ds{{p}^{2}},ds{{p}^{3}},s{{p}^{2}}\]

B)

\[s{{p}^{3}},ds{{p}^{2}},s{{p}^{3}},s{{p}^{3}}\]

C)

\[s{{p}^{3}},ds{{p}^{2}},ds{{p}^{3}},s{{p}^{3}}\]

D)

\[s{{p}^{3}},s{{p}^{2}},ds{{p}^{3}},s{{p}^{3}}\]

View Answer
91) Carbylamine test is given by

A)

primary amines

B)

secondary amines

C)

test amines

D)

quaternary amines

View Answer
92) The product of the chemical reaction,\[C{{H}_{3}}-\overset{\begin{smallmatrix} O \\ || \end{smallmatrix}}{\mathop{C}}\,-N{{H}_{2}}+B{{r}_{2}}+4NaOH\xrightarrow{{}}?\] will be

A)

\[C{{H}_{4}}\]

B)

\[C{{H}_{3}}-Br\]

C)

\[C{{H}_{3}}OBr\]

D)

\[C{{H}_{3}}-N{{H}_{2}}\]

View Answer
93) Silver mirror test is given by

A)

amines

B)

alcohols

C)

carboxylic acids

D)

aldehydes

View Answer
94) In the chemical reaction,\[A\xrightarrow{{{O}_{3}}}B\xrightarrow{Zn+{{H}_{2}}O}\] propane-2-one + methanol. The compound A is

A)

2-methylbutene

B)

but-1-ene

C)

but-2-ene

D)

1,3-butadiene

View Answer
95) Tick the correct statement.

A)

Mixture of NaCI and \[N{{H}_{4}}Cl\] can be separated by sublimation

B)

Mixture of camphor and \[N{{H}_{4}}Cl\] can be separated by sublimation

C)

Mixture of \[NaCl\] and camphor can be separated by sublimation

D)

Both (a) and (b)

View Answer
96) Maximum number of optical isomers of 2, 3-dihydroxypentane are

A)

2

B)

3

C)

4

D)

5

View Answer
97) Tick the statement that is not true about artificial sweetness.

A)

Aspartame is produced from phenylalanine

B)

Alitame is used as common food sweetener

C)

Sucrolose is stable at cooking temperature

D)

o-sulphobenzimide does not provide calories to the human body

View Answer
98) Tick the statement which is not true about nucleic acids?

A)

The hydrolysis of DNA produces \[\beta \]-D-2- deoxyribose

B)

The hydrolysis of RNA produces thymine

C)

The molecular mass of a nucleotide is greater than a nucleoside

D)

Nucleotides are joined together by phosphodiester linkage to for dinucleotide

View Answer
99) The chemical reaction,\[R-C{{H}_{2}}COOH\,\,\xrightarrow[(ii)\,\,{{H}_{2}}O]{(i)\,{{X}_{2}}/redphosphorus}R\]\[-\underset{\begin{smallmatrix} | \\ X \end{smallmatrix}}{\mathop{C}}\,H-COOH\]is known as

A)

Hunsdiecker reaction

B)

Vilsmeier reaction

C)

Finkelstein reaction

D)

Hell-Volhard-Zelinsky reaction

View Answer
100) Which one of the following organic compounds has highest boiling point?

A)

Pentan-1-al

B)

Pentan-1-ol

C)

n-pentane

D)

Ethoxyethane

View Answer
101) Adjacent nucleotides are joined by a

A)

covalent bond

B)

phosphodiester bond

C)

ionic bond

D)

peptide bond

View Answer
102) Axenic culture refers to

A)

culture lacking agar-agar

B)

culture of cell

C)

culture without contamination

D)

culture of pollen

View Answer
103) Bacteria protect themselves from viruses by fragmenting viral DNA upon entry with

A)

methylase

B)

endonuclease

C)

ligases

D)

exonucleases

View Answer
104) Genetic engineered male sterile crop plants may be produced by inserting

A)

Bt toxin gene

B)

barnase gene

C)

lectin gene

D)

chitinase gene

View Answer
105) The distribution of species diversity on earth may be best described as

A)

it is uniformity distributed

B)

it is highest in tropics

C)

it is highest in polar regions

D)

it is highest in Southern hemisphere as lowest in Northern hemisphere

View Answer
106) The correct statement is

A)

In a population, number of birth is different from birth rate.

B)

A sigmoid growth curve is depiction of exponential growth.

C)

In a logistic growth curve the asymptote is beyond the carrying capacity.

D)

r is equal to the difference between number of births and number of deaths in a population.

View Answer
107) The adaptation in an organism is meant for

A)

optimum primary production

B)

optimum life span

C)

optimum mobility

D)

optimum survival and reproduction

View Answer
108) Verhulst-PearP is associated with the equation

A)

\[\frac{dN}{dt}=rN\left( \frac{K-N}{K} \right)\]

B)

\[\frac{dN}{dt}=tN\left( \frac{K-N}{K} \right)\]

C)

\[\frac{dN}{dt}=rN\left( \frac{K-N}{N} \right)\]

D)

\[\frac{dN}{dt}=tN\left( \frac{K-N}{N} \right)\]

View Answer
109) The organism which can tolerate and thrive in a wide temperature range are known as

A)

                eurythermal

B)

                isothermal

C)

homothermal

D)

stenothermal

View Answer
110) A decline in population size will be in the stimulation

A)

nataiity < mortality

B)

mortality < natality

C)

immigration < emigration

D)

emigration < immigration

View Answer
111) The scientist widely regarded as the triple crown of biology X is

A)

RH Whittaker

B)

Carolus Linnaeus

C)

Ernst Mayr

D)

Zimmermann

View Answer
112) Rajaji National Park is situated in

A)

Tamil Nadu

B)

Uttarakhand

C)

Asom

D)

Karnataka

View Answer
113) Morels and buffles groups of fungi are classified under

A)

Phycomycetes

B)

Deuteromycetes

C)

Basidiomycetes

D)

Ascomycetes

View Answer
114) Bacterial viruses usually have

A)

single stranded RNA

B)

double stranded RNA

C)

single stranded DNA

D)

double stranded DNA

View Answer
115) No vessels are found in the wood of

A)

pine

B)

Eucalyptus

C)

teak

D)

shesham

View Answer
116) The increase in length of petiole results from the division of

A)

apical meristems

B)

lateral meristems

C)

intercalary meristems

D)

phelogen

View Answer
117) Oval, spherical or polygonal cells, thickening at the corners due to the deposition of cellulose, hemicellulose and pectin, often containing chloroplasts and having or not having intercellular spaces are called

A)

parenchyma

B)

chlorenchyma

C)

sclerenchyma

D)

collenchyma

View Answer
118) Monoadelphous condition of stamens is found in

A)

pea

B)

China rose

C)

Citrus

D)

None of the above

View Answer
119) Floral formula of family-Fabaceae is

A)

B)

C)

D)

View Answer
120) Leaf tendrils are found in

A)

peas

B)

cucumber

C)

                grape vines

D)

                All of theses

View Answer
121) Smallest unit in the plant cell wall is

A)

micelle

B)

microfibril

C)

fibril

D)

None of these

View Answer
122) An example of mitogen is

A)

cytokinin

B)

glucose

C)

glycerol

D)

fructose

View Answer
123) Omnis cellula e cellula was stated by

A)

Schwann

B)

Schleiden

C)

Purkinje

D)

Virchow

View Answer
124) Cellulose is the polymer of

A)

\[\alpha \]-D glucose

B)

\[\beta \]-D glucose

C)

\[\alpha \]-D fructose

D)

\[\beta \]-D fructose

View Answer
125) The cell wall material present only in bacteria and blue-green algae is

A)

                pectin

B)

                cellulose

C)

                chitin

D)

                muramic acids

View Answer
126) A example of CAM plant is

A)

black night shade (Solanum nigrum)

B)

lemon grass (Cymbopagon flexuosus)

C)

sugarbeet (Beta vulgaris)

D)

snake plant (Sanseviera thfasciata)

View Answer
127) Abscisic acid cause

A)

faster leaf fall

B)

dormancy of buds and seeds

C)

retardation of growth

D)

All of the above

View Answer
128) The characteristics like leaf expansion, breaking dormancy, promoting germination and flowering are associated with

A)

auxins

B)

gibberellins

C)

cytokinins

D)

ethylene

View Answer
129) Die-back disease is caused by the deficiency of

A)

zinc

B)

copper

C)

manganese

D)

boron

View Answer
130) A natural growth regulator is

A)

2, 4-D.

B)

benzaldehyde

C)

naphthalene acetic acid

D)

ethylene

View Answer
131) The enzyme nitrogenase is a

A)

Cu-Fe protein

B)

Ni-Fe protein

C)

Mo-Fe protein

D)

Ni-Cu protein

View Answer
132) The element related with nitrogen metabolism is

A)

manganese

B)

magnesium

C)

zinc

D)

molybdenum

View Answer
133) 6-(4-hydroxy-3 methyl-trans-2-butenylamine) purine is also called as

A)

methyl jasmonate

B)

zeatin

C)

brassinoide

D)

triacontanol

View Answer
134) The isobilateral type of microspores arrangement in tetrad is present in

A)

Solanum nigrum

B)

Zea mays

C)

Cassia fistula

D)

Vigna radiate

View Answer
135) The fibrous bands develop from cells of the another wall layer known as

A)

                epidermis

B)

                endothecium

C)

middle layers

D)

tapetum

View Answer
136) Chalazogamy is shown by

A)

Petunia

B)

Cucurbita

C)

Pistacia

D)

Casuarina

View Answer
137) Anthesis is a phenomenon which refers to

A)

stigma receptivity

B)

dehiscence of anthers

C)

viability of pollen

D)

opening of flower bud

View Answer
138) Downs syndrome is characterised by

A)

19trisomy

B)

21 trisomy

C)

one X-chromosome

D)

two X and one Y-chromosome

View Answer
139) The enzyme used to join the fragments of DNA during the process of replication is

A)

DNA polymerase

B)

DNA ligase

C)

endonuclease

D)

helicase

View Answer
140) Semi-conservative replication of DNA was first demonstrated in

A)

Eschenchia coli

B)

Streptococcus pneumonia

C)

Drosophila melanogaster

D)

Salmonella typhimurium

View Answer
141) The transfer of genetic material from the bacterium to another via viruses is called

A)

transformation

B)

conjugation

C)

recombination

D)

transduction

View Answer
142) During the experiments, Mendel called genes by the term

A)

traits

B)

characters

C)

factors

D)

qualities

View Answer
143) If a genotype consist of different types of alleles, it is called.

A)

homozygous

B)

heterozygous

C)

monoallelic

D)

uniallelic

View Answer
144) The alternative form of gene is called

A)

dominant character

B)

recessive character

C)

alternative genes

D)

allele

View Answer
145) The experimental material in Mendels experiment was

A)

Pisum sativum

B)

Oryza sativa

C)

Mirabilis jalapa

D)

None of these

View Answer
146) Beer has an alcoholic content of

A)

3-6%

B)

9-12%

C)

40%

D)

60%

View Answer
147) Triticale is an example of

A)

auto polyploidy

B)

allopolyploidy

C)

aneuploidy

D)

None of these

View Answer
148) The common bread wheat has

A)

14 chromosome

B)

21 chromosome

C)

28 chromosome

D)

42 chromosome

View Answer
149) In tissue culture, shoot formation in callus can be induced by

A)

IAA

B)

ABA

C)

GAB

D)

kinetin

View Answer
150) Restriction endonucleases are

A)

used for in vitro DNA synthesis

B)

synthesised by bacteria as part of their defense mechanism

C)

present in mammalian cells for degradation of DNA when the cells dies

D)

used in genetic engineering for ligating two DNA molecules

View Answer
151) Which of the following is a mismatch pair?

A)

Scales - Reptiiia

B)

Combplates - Mollusca

C)

Choanocytes - Porifera

D)

Parapodia - Annelida

View Answer
152) Vermiform appendix arises from

A)

caecum

B)

colon

C)

rectum

D)

ileum

View Answer
153) Which of the following sets of conditions promotes the dissociation of oxygen from haemoglobin?

A)

Low \[p{{O}_{2}}\], high \[pC{{O}_{2}}\], high \[{{H}^{+}}\]

B)

High \[p{{O}_{2}}\], high \[pC{{O}_{2}}\], low \[{{H}^{+}}\]

C)

High \[pC{{O}_{2}}\], low \[pC{{O}_{2}}\], low \[{{H}^{+}}\]

D)

Low \[p{{O}_{2}}\], low \[pC{{O}_{2}}\], low \[{{H}^{+}}\]

View Answer
154) Choose the correct statement.

A)

Stroke volume multiplied by cardial output gives the heart rate.

B)

Heart rate multiplied by cardiac output gives the stroke volume.

C)

Cardiac output divided by heart rate gives the stroke volume.

D)

Stroke volume divided by heart rate gives the cardiac output.

View Answer
155) The juxta glomerular apparatus is a special region formed by close placement and cellular modification in

A)

proximai convoluted tubule and distal convoluted tubule

B)

loop of Henie and collecting duct

C)

afferent arteriole and distal convoluted tubule

D)

afferent arteriole and proximai convoluted tubule

View Answer
156) In humans dosage compensation

A)

brings about equality in X-coded gene product

B)

brings about equality in Y-coded gene products

C)

brings about determination of sex

D)

is not involved in any of above

View Answer
157) Foot prints, trails, tracks and tunnels of various organisation made in mud are rapidly filled in with sand and covered by sediments. This is an example of which of the following type of fossil?

A)

Pertified fossil

B)

Impressions

C)

Imprints

D)

Coprolites

View Answer
158) Which of the following belongs to class-Polyplacophora?

A)

Chiton

B)

Patella

C)

Pila

D)

Murex

View Answer
159) Proportion of colour blind children when normal man marries to carrier woman is

A)

25%

B)

50%

C)

75%

D)

100%

View Answer
160) Which of the following cells secretes histamine?

A)

Plasma cells,

B)

Mast cells

C)

Monocytes

D)

NK-cells

View Answer
161) The retention of juvenile morphological traits in the sexually mature adult

A)

mimicry

B)

neoteny

C)

vivipary

D)

hybrid vigour

View Answer
162) Ionosphere is between

A)

stratosphere and mesosphere

B)

mesosphere and thermosphere

C)

troposphere and stratosphere

D)

troposphere and thermosphere

View Answer
163) The following hormone is not a steroid

A)

testosterone

B)

progesterone

C)

corticosteroids

D)

adrenocorticotrophic hormone

View Answer
164) Tetraiodothyronine refers to

A)

13

B)

Thyroxine

C)

TSH

D)

TRH

View Answer
165) The pneumotaxic centre and rhythm centre are respectively present in

A)

pons and medulla oblongata

B)

corpus callosum and pons

C)

medulla oblongata and hypothalamus

D)

diencephalon and pons

View Answer
166) Which of the following bones does not articulate with any other bone?

A)

Humerus

B)

Malleus

C)

Phalanges

D)

Hyoid

View Answer
167) Which of the following is most appropriate regarding kidney function regulation? Stimulation of

A)

Renin-angiotensin mechanism decreases the Glomerular Filtration Rate (GFR) while atrial natriuretic factor increase GFR

B)

Renin-angiotensin mechanism increase GFR while atrial natriuretic factor decreases GFR

C)

Renin-angiotensin mechanism and atrial natriuretic factor both increase the GFR

D)

Renin-angiotensin mechanism and atrial natriuretic factor both decrease the GFR

View Answer
168) The primary neurotransmitter at the neuromuscular junction is

A)

dopamine

B)

adrenaline

C)

acetylcholine

D)

acetaldehyde

View Answer
169) The optimum pH for pepsin is

A)

11

B)

5-6

C)

1.6-2.4

D)

4-7

View Answer
170) The red jungle fowl is

A)

Gallus gallus

B)

Ravo cristatus

C)

Choriotis nigriceps

D)

Raja hansa

View Answer
171) The snow leopard is

A)

Panthera pardus

B)

Panthera uncial

C)

Panthera tigris

D)

Hylobates hoolock

View Answer
172) The molting hormone ecdysone belongs to the category of

A)

amines

B)

long chain peptides

C)

steroids

D)

fatty acids

View Answer
173) Secretion of which of the following hormones is not pituitary dependant?

A)

Triiodothyronine

B)

Testosterone

C)

Glucocorticoids

D)

Parathyroid hormone

View Answer
174) Sickle-cell anaemia results due to mutation caused by

A)

substitution

B)

insertion

C)

deletion

D)

duplication

View Answer
175) Which of the following DNA polymerase of prokaryotes have both 3-5 and 5-3 exonuclease activity?

A)

DNA polymerase-II

B)

DNA polymerase-I

C)

DNA polymerase-IV

D)

DNA polymerase-III

View Answer
176) Which of the following is a disaccharide?

A)

Glucose

B)

Lactose

C)

Starch

D)

Galactose

View Answer
177) Enzyme not present in pancreatic juice is

A)

amylase

B)

chymotrypsinogen

C)

lipase

D)

enterokinase

View Answer
178) Trisomy 18 is

A)

Edwards syndrome

B)

Pataus syndrome

C)

Turners syndrome

D)

Klinefelters syndrome

View Answer
179) The hormones that are produced in women only during pregnancy

A)

oestrogens, human chorionic gonadotropin, human placental lactogen

B)

oestrogen, progesteron, oxytocin

C)

human placental lactogen, human chorionic gonadotropin, relaxin

D)

human placental lactogen, human chorionic gonadotropin, thyroxine

View Answer
180) The juvenile hormone promoting the nymphal characteristics of insects, is produced by

A)

prothoracic glands

B)

corpus cardiacum

C)

corpus allatum

D)

corpus albicans

View Answer
181) Which of the following antibody is pentamer?

A)

IgA

B)

IgD

C)

IgE

D)

IgM

View Answer
182) The cercarial stage of a liver-fluke is produced by

A)

sexual multiplication

B)

asexual multiplication

C)

binary fission

D)

parthenogenesis .

View Answer
183) Which one of the following is an actively swimming, free-living and non-feeding stage of the liver-fluke?

A)

Sporocyst

B)

Redia

C)

Cercaria

D)

Metacercaria

View Answer
184) Which one of the following cannot be attributed to glycogen?

A)

Homopolysaccharide

B)

Heteropolysaccharide

C)

Branched chain molecule

D)

Stored in liver and muscle

View Answer
185) With respect to its body mass which of the following will have highest metabolic rate?

A)

Rat

B)

Rabbit

C)

Horse

D)

Elephant

View Answer
186) Which one of the following vitamin is not fat soluble?

A)

A

B)

B

C)

D

D)

E

View Answer
187) The deficiency of which of the following vitamin will cause xerophthalmia?

A)

A

B)

B

C)

C

D)

K

View Answer
188) At what speed the mitochondria can be separated out by differential centrifugation?

A)

200 xg

B)

500 xg

C)

800 xg

D)

8000 xg

View Answer
189) The amoeboid movement results from

A)

interactions among actin, myosin and ATP, etc

B)

coordinated beats of cilia

C)

whip-like action of flagella

D)

action by the mitotic spindle, similar so, what happens during mitosis and meiosis

View Answer
190) A donor having blood group AB can safely donate red blood cells to recipients having blood group type

A)

A and AB

B)

B and AB

C)

Only AB

D)

Only 0

View Answer
191) Which of the following is the most appropriate in normal circumstances?

A)

During inspiration the intrapulmonary pressure is less than the atmospheric pressure

B)

During expiration, the intrapulmonary pressure is less than the atmospheric pressure

C)

During inspiration, the intrapulmonary pressure is more than the atmospheric pressure

D)

During expiration the intrapulmonary pressure is equal to the atmospheric pressure

View Answer
192) Which of the following best explains the difference between an epitope and an antigen?

A)

An epitope is any foreign substance, an antigen is a foreign protein

B)

An epitope is the part of an antigen where an antibody or lymphocyte receptor binds

C)

An antigen is the part of an epitope where on antibody or lymphocyte receptor binds

D)

Antigens are recognised by B-cells and antibodies; epitopes are recognised by T-cells

View Answer
193) Which of the following is correct regarding RNA processing?

A)

In capping, methyl guanosine triphosphate is added to 3 and of hn RNA

B)

RNA polymerase-1 transcribes? RNA in eukaryotes

C)

In tailing, adenylate residues are added at 3end of hn-RNA

D)

Three types of RNA polymerase catalyse the transcription of these different types of RNAs in most bacteria

View Answer
194) Splicing is the process where

A)

exons are removed from growing ?RNA strand

B)

introns are removed from growing polypeptide chain

C)

introns are removed from heterogenous nuclear RNA

D)

exons are removed from mRna

View Answer
195) Which plant drug pair is incorrect?

A)

Papaver somniferum                    -    Morphine

B)

Cannabis sativa                                -     Marijuana

C)

Erythroxylum coca          -     Cocine

D)

Atropa belladona            -     Hashish

View Answer
196) Which of the following statement is incorrect?

A)

Oceans contain about 71 % of total global carbon.

B)

Atmosphere contain about 71% of total global carbon.

C)

Carbon constitute about 49% of the dry weight of organism,

D)

Approximately \[4\times {{10}^{13}}\] kg of carbon is fixed in the biosphere through photosynthesis annually.

View Answer
197) The Verhulst-Pearl logistic growth is described using the equation \[\frac{dN}{dt}=rN\left( \frac{K-N}{K} \right)\], in this K stands tor.

A)

temperature in degree Kelvin

B)

intrinsic rate of natural increase

C)

carrying capacity

D)

population density

View Answer
198) Partial pressures of oxygen and carbon dioxide in healthy human lung alveoli are respectively, nearest to

A)

104 and 40 mm of Hg

B)

90 and 20 mm of Hg

C)

40 and 46 mm of Hg

D)

159 and 0.3 mm of Hg

View Answer
199) Which of the following exhibits metagenesis?

A)

Hydra

B)

Adamsia

C)

Aurelia

D)

Obelia

View Answer
200) Pick the odd one out.

A)

Chelone, Calotes, Naja

B)

Pavo, Psittacula, Ornithorhynchus

C)

Cams, Felis, Rattus

D)

Bufo, Rana, Hyla

View Answer

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