Solved papers for J & K CET Medical J & K - CET Medical Solved Paper-2003

J & K - CET Medical Solved Paper-2003 Total Questions - 225

1) The following is the truth table for :

A B Y

0 0 1

1 0 1

0 1 1

1 1 0

A)

NAND

B)

AND

C)

XOR

D)

NOT

View Answer
2) In a full wave rectifier circuit operating from 50 Hz main frequency, the fundamental frequency in the ripple would be :

A)

25 Hz

B)

50 Hz

C)

70.7 Hz

D)

100 Hz

View Answer
3) The current gain a of a transistor is 0.9. The transistor is connected to common base configuration. What would be the change in collector current when base current changes by 4 mA?

A)

1.2 mA

B)

12 mA

C)

24 mA

D)

36 mA

View Answer
4) What is the name of the level formed due to impurity atom in p-type in the forbidden gap?

A)

Donor level

B)

Acceptor level

C)

Conduction level

D)

Forbidden level

View Answer
5) Which of the following is not true?

A)

All unit cells are primitive

B)

FCC structure is a closed packed structure

C)

A unit cell is primitive if it contains lattice points only at its corner

D)

A lattice does not contain any atom or molecule

View Answer
6) A radioactive element A decays into B with a half-life of 2 days. A fresh prepared sample of A has a mass of 12 g. What mass of A and B are there in the sample after 4 days?

A)

A = 3g, B = 9g

B)

A = 6 g, B = 6 g

C)

A = 12g, B = 0 g

D)

A = 9g, B = 3g

View Answer
7) How many \[\alpha \]-particle and \[\beta \]-particles are emitted when uranium nucleus \[_{92}^{238}U\]decays to lead nucleus \[_{82}^{206}Pb\]?

A)

\[\alpha \]= 6, \[\beta \]= 8

B)

\[\alpha \]=10,\[\beta \]=8

C)

\[\alpha \]= 8, \[\beta \]= 10

D)

\[\alpha \]=       8,\[\beta \] =6

View Answer
8) The angular speed of the electric in the nth orbit of Bohr hydrogen atom is :

A)

directly proportional to n

B)

inversely proportional to \[\sqrt{n}\]

C)

inversely proportional to n2

D)

inversely proportional to n3

View Answer
9) If the electron in hydrogen atom jumps from the third to second orbit, the wavelength of the emitted radiation in terms of Rydberg constant R is given by :

A)

\[\lambda =\frac{36}{5R}\]

B)

\[\lambda =\frac{5R}{36}\]

C)

\[\lambda =\frac{5}{R}\]

D)

\[\lambda =\frac{R}{6}\]

View Answer
10) When a monochromatic point source of light is at a distance of 0.2 m from a photocell, the cut-off voltage and the saturation current are respectively \[{{V}_{0}}=0.6\]volt and Js = 18.0 mA. If the same source is placed 0.6 m away from the photocell, then :

A)

stopping potential \[{{V}_{0}}=~0.2\] volt and saturation current J, = 18.0 mA

B)

stopping potential \[{{V}_{0}}=0.6\] volt and saturation current Is = 18.0 mA

C)

stopping potential \[{{V}_{0}}=0.6\] volt and saturation current Is = 2.0 mA

D)

stopping potential \[{{V}_{0}}=2.0\] volt and saturation current Is = 2.0 mA

View Answer
11) When light of wavelength 300 nm (nanometre) falls on a photoelectric emitter, photoelectrons are just liberated. For another emitter, however, light of 600 nm wavelength is sufficient for creating photoemission. What is the ratio of the work function of the two emitters?

A)

1 : 2

B)

2 : 1

C)

4 : 1

D)

1 : 4

View Answer
12) In Millikans oil drop experiment, a charged drop of mass \[1.8\times {{10}^{-14}}kg\] is stationary between the plates. The distance between the plates 0.9 cm and potential difference between the plates is 2000 V. The number of electons on the oil drop is:

A)

10

B)

5

C)

50

D)

20

View Answer
13) In the experiment for the determination of\[\frac{e}{m}\] of electrons by the Thomson method, electric and magnetic fields are :

A)

parallel and both are perpendicular to the motion of the electron

B)

both mutually perpendicular and parallel to the motion of electron

C)

both mutually perpendicular and also perpendicular to the motion of electron

D)

both mutually perpendicular and have no relation with motion of the electron

View Answer
14) Blue colour of sky is due to :

A)

interference

B)

scattering of light

C)

dispersion of light

D)

sun emits more of blue light

View Answer
15) In Youngs double slit experiment distance between source is 1 mm and distance between the screen and source is 1 m. If the fringe width on the screen is 0.06 cm, then \[\lambda \] is :

A)

6000\[\overset{0}{\mathop{A}}\,\]

B)

4000 \[\overset{0}{\mathop{A}}\,\]

C)

1200 \[\overset{0}{\mathop{A}}\,\]

D)

2400 \[\overset{0}{\mathop{A}}\,\]

View Answer
16) Angle of minimum deviation for a prism of refractive index 1.5 is equal to the angle of the prism. The angle of the prism is : (given \[cos\text{ }41{}^\circ -24-36\text{ }=\text{ }0.75\]}

A)

\[82{}^\circ -{{49}^{}}-12\]

B)

\[72{}^\circ -48-30\]

C)

\[41{}^\circ -24-36\]

D)

\[{{31}^{0}}-49-30\]

View Answer
17) Two media having speeds of light \[2\times {{10}^{8}}m\text{ }:\] and \[2.4\times {{10}^{8}}m/s,\] are separated by a plane surface. What is the critical angle for a ray going from medium I to medium II?

A)

\[{{\sin }^{-1}}\left( \frac{5}{6} \right)\]

B)

\[{{\sin }^{-1}}\left( \frac{5}{12} \right)\]

C)

\[{{\sin }^{-1}}\left( \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}} \right)\]

D)

\[{{\sin }^{-1}}\left( \frac{1}{2} \right)\]

View Answer
18) When sunlight is incident on a prism, it produces a spectrum due to :

A)

interference of light

B)

diffraction of light

C)

total internal reflection

D)

variation in speeds of different colours of light in the prism

View Answer
19) The transverse nature of light is shown by :

A)

interference of light

B)

diffraction of light

C)

polarization

D)

radiation spectrum of black body

View Answer
20) An electromagnetic radiation of wavelength \[\lambda ,\] frequency v and propagating in air with velocity v is incident on a glass plate and is transmitted through. Which of the following statement is true for the wave inside the glass plate?

A)

The velocity v remains unchanged but\[\lambda ,\] changes

B)

The frequency v and wavelength remain unchanged but v changes

C)

The wavelength\[\lambda ,\]remains unchanged but velocity v changes

D)

The frequency v remains unchanged but\[\lambda ,\] changes

View Answer
21) The oscillating electric and magnetic vectors of an electromagentic wave in vacuum are oriented along :

A)

the same direction but differ in phase by \[90{}^\circ \]

B)

the same direction and are in phase

C)

mutually perpendicular directions and differ in phase by \[90{}^\circ \]

D)

mutually perpendicular directions and are in phase

View Answer
22) In an AC circuit the instantaneous values of emf and current aree = 200 sin 3001 volt and \[i=2\sin \left( 300t\frac{\pi }{3} \right)\] amp the average power consumed in watts is:

A)

200

B)

100

C)

50

D)

400

View Answer
23) A transformer is used to light a 140 W, 24 V lamp from 240 V AC mains. The current in the mains cable of 0.7 A. The efficiency of the transformer is:

A)

48%

B)

63.8%

C)

c) 83.3%

D)

90%

View Answer
24) A solenoid has 2000 turns wound over a length of 0.30 m. The area of its cross-section is \[1.2\times {{10}^{-3}}\text{ }{{m}^{2}}.\] Around its central section a coil of 300 turns is wound. If an initial current of 2 A in the solenoid is reversed in 0.25 s, the emf induced in the coil is:

A)

\[48\text{ }V\]

B)

\[4.8\text{ }V\]

C)

\[4.8\times {{10}^{-1}}V\]

D)

\[4.8\times {{10}^{-2}}V\]

View Answer
25) A copper ring is held horizontally and a bar magnet with its length along the axis of the ring is dropped through the ring. The acceleration of the falling magnet is :

A)

less than that due to gravity

B)

equal to that due to gravity

C)

more than that due to gravity

D)

depend on the length of the magnet and diameter of the ring

View Answer
26) The dimensional formula of Plancks constant (h)is:

A)

\[[M{{L}^{-2}}{{T}^{-3}}]\]

B)

\[[M{{L}^{2}}{{V}^{-1}}]\]

C)

\[[ML{{T}^{-2}}]\]

D)

\[[M{{L}^{-2}}{{T}^{-1}}]\]

View Answer
27) 27.          A particle starts from rest and experiences constant acceleration for 6 s. If it travels a distance \[{{d}_{1}}\] in the first two seconds, a distance \[{{d}_{2}}\] in the next two seconds and a distance \[{{d}_{3}}\] in the last two seconds, then :

A)

                \[{{d}_{1}}:\text{ }{{d}_{2}}:\text{ }{{d}_{3}}=\text{ }1:1:1\]

B)

                \[{{d}_{1}}:{{d}_{2}}:\text{ }{{d}_{3}}=\text{ }1\text{ }:\text{ }2:\text{ }3\]

C)

                \[{{d}_{1}}:\text{ }{{d}_{2}}:\text{ }{{d}_{3}}=\text{ }1:\text{ }3:\text{ }5\]

D)

                \[{{d}_{1}}:\text{ }{{d}_{2}}:\text{ }{{d}_{3}}=\text{ }1:\text{ }5:\text{ }9\]

View Answer
28) A particle originally at rest at the highest point of a smooth circle in a vertical plane, is gently pushed and starts sliding along the circle. It will leave the circle at a vertical distance h below the highest point such that:

A)

h=2R

B)

\[h=\frac{R}{2}\]

C)

h=R

D)

\[h=\frac{R}{3}\]

View Answer
29) An inclined plane has an inclination 0 with horizontal. A body of mass m rests on it. If the coefficient of friction between the body and the plane is n, then the minimum force that needs to be applied parallel to the inclined plane is :

A)

mg sin \[\theta \]

B)

\[\mu mg\cos \theta \]

C)

\[\mu mg\cos \theta +mg\sin \theta \]

D)

\[\mu mg\cos \theta -mg\sin \theta \]

View Answer
30) A 60 kg man stands on a spring scale in a lift. At some instant he finds that the scale reading has changed from 60 kg to 50 kg for a while and then comes again to 60 kg mark. What should he conclude?

A)

The lift was in constant motion upwards

B)

The lift was in constant motion downwards

C)

The lift while in motion suddenly stopped

D)

The lift while in motion upwards suddenly stopped

View Answer
31) A diatomic molecule is formed by two atoms which may be treated as mass points \[{{m}_{1}}\]and\[{{m}_{2}},\]joined by a massless rod of length r. Then the, moment of inertia of the molecule about an axis passing through the centre of mass and perpendicular to rod is :

A)

zero

B)

\[({{m}_{1}}+{{m}_{2}}){{r}^{2}}\]

C)

\[\left( \frac{{{m}_{1}}+{{m}_{2}}}{{{m}_{1}}{{m}_{2}}} \right){{r}^{2}}\]

D)

\[\left( \frac{{{m}_{1}}{{m}_{2}}}{{{m}_{1}}+{{m}_{2}}} \right){{r}^{2}}\]

View Answer
32) If the polar ice caps of earth melt, how long it affect the length of day?

A)

Length of day would remain unchanged

B)

Length of day would increase

C)

Length of day would decrease

D)

None of the above

View Answer
33) A planet revolves in an elliptical orbit around the sun. The semi-major and semi-minor axes are a and b, then the period is given by :

A)

\[{{T}^{2}}\alpha {{b}^{3}}\]

B)

\[{{T}^{2}}\alpha {{\left( \frac{a+b}{2} \right)}^{3}}\]

C)

\[{{T}^{2}}\alpha {{a}^{3}}\]

D)

\[{{T}^{2}}\alpha {{\left( \frac{a-b}{2} \right)}^{3}}\]

View Answer
34) In a capillary tube of which the lower end dips in a liquid, the liquid rises to a height of 10 cm. If a capillary of the same bore is taken, whose length is 5 cm and dipped in liquid, then :

A)

a fountain of liquid will be obtain

B)

the liquid will not rise in the rube at all

C)

the liquid will rise upto the top and slowly ooze out of it

D)

the liquid will rise to the top and will stay there

View Answer
35) There relation between Y (Youngs modulus), K (bulk modulus) and n (shear modulus) is :

A)

\[\frac{9}{y}=\frac{1}{k}+\frac{3}{\eta }\]

B)

\[\frac{1}{y}=\frac{1}{3\lambda }+\frac{1}{9k}\]

C)

\[\frac{9}{y}=\frac{1}{\eta }+\frac{3}{k}\]

D)

\[\frac{1}{\eta }=\frac{1}{k}+\frac{1}{y}\]

View Answer
36) Solar radiation emitted by sun correspond to that emitted by black body at a temperature of 6000 K. Maximum intensity is emitted at wavelength of 4800\[\overset{0}{\mathop{A}}\,\] If the sun was to cool down from 6000 K to 3000 K, then the peak intensity of emitted radiation would occur at a wavelength :

A)

4300\[\overset{0}{\mathop{A}}\,\]

B)

9600\[\overset{0}{\mathop{A}}\,\]

C)

2400\[\overset{0}{\mathop{A}}\,\]

D)

19200\[\overset{0}{\mathop{A}}\,\]

View Answer
37) An ideal gas heat engine operates in a Carnot cycle between 227°C and 127°C. It absorbs \[6\times {{10}^{4}}\]cal at the higher temperature. The amount of heat converted into work is :

A)

\[4.8\times {{10}^{4}}cal\]

B)

\[1.2\times {{10}^{4}}cal\]

C)

\[3.5\times {{10}^{4}}cal\]

D)

\[1.6\times {{10}^{4}}cal\]

View Answer
38) A certain mass of gas at NTP is expanded to three times its volume under adiabatic conditions. The resulting temperature of gas will be : (y for gas is 1.40)

A)

\[273\times {{\left( \frac{1}{3} \right)}^{1.4}}\]

B)

\[273\times {{(3)}^{0.4}}\]

C)

\[273\times {{\left( \frac{1}{3} \right)}^{0.4}}\]

D)

\[273\times {{(3)}^{1.4}}\]

View Answer
39) If for a gas\[\frac{R}{{{C}_{v}}}=0.67,\] this gas is made up of molecules which are :

A)

monoatomic

B)

diatomic

C)

polyatomic

D)

mixture of diatomic and polyatomic molecules

View Answer
40) The velocity of a small ball of mass M and density \[{{d}_{1}}\] when dropped in a container filled with glycerine becomes constant after some time. If the density of glycerine is \[{{d}_{2}},\] the viscous force acting on the ball is :

A)

\[mg\left( 1-\frac{{{d}_{2}}}{{{d}_{1}}} \right)\]

B)

\[mg\frac{{{d}_{1}}}{{{d}_{2}}}\]

C)

\[mg({{d}_{1}}-{{d}_{2}})\]

D)

\[mg{{d}_{1}}{{d}_{2}}\]

View Answer
41) The length of an elastic spring is a metres when a force of 4 N is applied, and b metres when the 5N force is applied. Then the length of the spring when the 9 N force is applied is :

A)

a + b

B)

9b - 9a

C)

5b - 4a

D)

4a - 5b

View Answer
42) Moment of inertia of a uniform disc about a diameter is I. Its moment of inertia about an axis perpendicular to its plane and passing through a point on its rim will be :

A)

51

B)

31

C)

41

D)

61

View Answer
43) The escape velocity of a body from the surface of earth is 11.2 km/s. It is thrown up with a velocity 4 times this velocity of escape. The velocity of the body when it has escaped the gravitational pull of earth (neglecting presence of all other heavenly bodies) is :

A)

\[4\times 11.2km/s\]

B)

\[\sqrt{15}\times 11.2km/s\]

C)

zero

D)

\[3\times 11.2\text{ }km/s\]

View Answer
44) If a planet of given density were made larger (keeping its density unchanged) its force of attraction for an object on its surface would increase because of increased mass of the planet but would decrease because of larger separation between the centre of the planet and its surface. Which effect would dominate?

A)

Increase in mass

B)

Increase in radius

C)

Both affect the attraction equally

D)

None of the above

View Answer
45) Two balls each of mass m are placed on the vertices A and B of an equilateral triangle ABC of side 1 m. A ball of mass 2m is placed at vertex C. The centre of mass of this system from vertex A (located at origin) is :

A)

\[\left( \frac{1}{2}m,\frac{1}{2}m \right)\]

B)

\[\left( \frac{1}{2}m,\sqrt{3}m \right)\]

C)

\[\left( \frac{1}{2}m,\frac{\sqrt{3}}{4}m \right)\]

D)

\[\left( \frac{\sqrt{3}}{4}m,\frac{\sqrt{3}}{4}m \right)\]

View Answer
46) A particle moves along the x-axis from \[x={{x}_{1}}\]to \[x={{x}_{2}}\] under the action of a force given by F = 2x. Then the work done in the process is :

A)

zero

B)

\[x_{2}^{2}-x_{1}^{2}\]

C)

\[2{{x}_{2}}({{x}_{2}}-{{x}_{1}})\]

D)

\[2{{x}_{1}}({{x}_{1}}-{{x}_{2}})\]

View Answer
47) A body of mass 5 kg strikes another body of mass 2.5 kg initially at rest. The bodies after collision coalesce and begin to move as whole with a kinetic energy of 5 J. The kinetic energy of the first body before collision is :

A)

7.5 J

B)

5 J

C)

2.5 J

D)

10 J

View Answer
48) For traffic moving at 60 km/h along a circular track of radius 0.1 km, the correct angle of banking is:

A)

\[{{\tan }^{-1}}\left( \frac{{{60}^{2}}}{0.1} \right)\]

B)

\[{{\tan }^{-1}}\left( \frac{{{(50/2)}^{2}}}{100\times 9.8} \right)\]

C)

\[{{\tan }^{-1}}{{(60\times 0.1\times 9.8)}^{{1}/{2}\;}}\]

D)

\[{{\tan }^{-1}}\left( \frac{100\times 9.8}{{{(50/3)}^{3}}} \right)\]

View Answer
49) Two projectiles are fired at different angles with the same magnitude of velocity, such that they have the same range. At what angles they might have been projected?

A)

\[25{}^\circ \text{ }and\text{ }65{}^\circ \]

B)

\[35{}^\circ \text{ }and\text{ }75{}^\circ \]

C)

\[10{}^\circ \text{ }and\text{ }50{}^\circ \]

D)

None of these

View Answer
50) If two non-zero vectors obey the relation \[\left| {\vec{P}} \right.+\vec{Q}\left| =\left| \vec{P}-\left. {\vec{Q}} \right| \right. \right.\] then the angle between the vectors \[\vec{P},\vec{Q}\] is :

A)

\[0{}^\circ \]

B)

\[\pi \]

C)

\[\frac{\pi }{4}\]

D)

\[\frac{\pi }{2}\]

View Answer
51) A weightless spring which has a force constant k oscillates with a frequency n when a mass m is suspended from it. The spring is cut into two equal halves and a mass 2m is attached to one of the halves. The frequency of oscillation will not become:

A)

\[\sqrt{2n}\]

B)

\[\frac{n}{\sqrt{2}}\]

C)

\[\frac{2\pi }{\sqrt{b}}\]

D)

n

View Answer
52) A particle moves so that its acceleration a is given by a = - bx, where x is displacement from equilibrium position and b is a non-negative real constant. The time period of oscillation of the particle is :

A)

\[2\pi \sqrt{b}\]

B)

\[\frac{2\pi }{b}\]

C)

\[\frac{2\pi }{\sqrt{b}}\]

D)

\[2\sqrt{\frac{\pi }{b}}\]

View Answer
53) A tuning fork of frequency 500 cycles/s is sounded on a resonance tube. The first and second resonance is obtained at 17 cm and 52 cm. The velocity of sound in m/s is :

A)

175

B)

350

C)

525

D)

700

View Answer
54) Which of the following characteristics does not change due to the damping of simple harmonic motion?

A)

Angular frequency

B)

Time period

C)

Initial phase

D)

Amplitude

View Answer
55) A hollow charged metal sphere has a radius r. If the potential difference between its surface and a point at a distance 3 r from the centre is V, then electrical intensity at distance 3 r from the centre is:

A)

\[\frac{V}{2r}\]

B)

\[\frac{V}{3r}\]

C)

\[\frac{V}{4r}\]

D)

\[\frac{V}{6r}\]

View Answer
56) Current is flowing with a current density \[J=480\text{ }A/c{{m}^{2}}\] in a copper wire. Assuming that each copper atom contributes one free electron and given that: Avogadro number \[=6.0\times {{10}^{23}}\] atoms/mol Density of copper \[=\text{ }9.0\text{ }g/c{{m}^{3}}\] Atomic weight of copper \[=\text{ }64\text{ }g/mol\] Electronic charge \[=1.6\times {{10}^{-19}}C\] The drift velocity of electrons is :

A)

1 mm/s

B)

2 mm/s

C)

0.5 mm/s

D)

0.36 mm/s

View Answer
57) A tap supplies water at \[20{}^\circ C\]. A man takes 1L of water per minute at \[35{}^\circ C\] from a geyser connected to the tap. The power of geyser is :

A)

1050 W

B)

2100 W

C)

1500 W

D)

3000 W

View Answer
58) A charge is fired through a magentic field. The force acting on the charge is maximum when the angle between the direction of motion of charge and the magnetic field is :

A)

zero

B)

\[\frac{\pi }{4}\]

C)

\[\pi \]

D)

\[\frac{\pi }{2}\]

View Answer
59) At a place the angle of dip is 30°. If the horizontal component of earths magnetic field is H, then the total field intensity is :

A)

\[\frac{H}{2}\]

B)

\[\frac{2H}{\sqrt{3}}\]

C)

\[H\sqrt{2}\]

D)

\[H\sqrt{3}\]

View Answer
60) A particle is vibrating in simple harmonic motion with an amplitude of 4 cm. At what displacement from the equilibrium position is its energy half potential and half-kinetic?

A)

\[2\sqrt{2}cm\]

B)

\[\sqrt{2}cm\]

C)

2 cm

D)

1 cm

View Answer
61) A tuning fork of frequency 480 Hz produces 10 beats/s, when sounded With a sonometer string. A slight increase in tension in the sonometer string produces fewer beats/s than before. What was the frequency of sonometer string?

A)

470 Hz

B)

490 Hz

C)

480 Hz

D)

460 Hz

View Answer
62) A hollow metal sphere of radius 5 cm is charged such that potential at its surface is 10 V. The potential at the centre of the sphere is:

A)

zero volt

B)

10 V

C)

same as at point 5 cm away from the surface

D)

same as at point 10 cm away from the surface

View Answer
63) An electric dipole consisting of two opposite chargcs of \[2\times {{10}^{-6}}C\] each, separated by a distance of 3 cm is placed in an electric field of \[2\times {{10}^{5}}N/C.\] The maximum torque on the dipole is :

A)

\[12\times {{10}^{-1}}Nm\]

B)

\[12\times {{10}^{-3}}Nm\]

C)

\[24\times {{10}^{-1}}Nm\]

D)

\[24\times {{10}^{-3}}Nm\]

View Answer
64) A given piece of wire of length I and radius r is having a resistance R. This wire is stretched \[\frac{r}{2}\]uniformly to a wire of radius What is the new resistance?

A)

4R

B)

8R

C)

16K

D)

2R

View Answer
65) Two thin long parallel wires separated by a distance b are carrying current i ampere each. The magnitude of the force per unit length exerted by one wire on the other is :

A)

\[\frac{{{\mu }_{0}}}{2\pi }\frac{{{i}^{2}}}{b}\]

B)

\[\frac{{{\mu }_{0}}}{2\pi }\frac{{{i}^{2}}}{{{b}^{2}}}\]

C)

\[\frac{{{\mu }_{0}}}{2\pi }\frac{i}{b}\]

D)

\[\frac{{{\mu }_{0}}}{2\pi }\frac{i}{{{b}^{2}}}\]

View Answer
66) To increase the range of a voltmeter, we need to connect a suitable:

A)

high resistance in parallel

B)

high resistance in series

C)

low resistance in series

D)

low resistance in parallel

View Answer
67) Two wires made up of the same material are of equal length but their radii are in the ratio of 1:2. On stretching each of these two strings by fundamental frequencies is :

A)

1 : 4

B)

4 : 1

C)

2 : 1

D)

1 : 2

View Answer
68) An object producing a pitch of 400Hz flies past a stationary person. The object was moving in a straight line with a velocity 200m/s. The velocity of sound is 300 m/s. What is the change in frequency noted by the person as the object flies past him?

A)

1440 Hz

B)

240 Hz

C)

1200 Hz

D)

960 Hz

View Answer
69) Four capacitors each of 1\[\mu F\] are connected as shown. The equivalent capacitance between P and Q is:

A)

4\[\mu F\]

B)

\[\frac{1}{4}\mu F\]

C)

\[\frac{3}{4}\mu F\]

D)

\[\frac{4}{3}\mu F\]

View Answer
70) The magnitude of electric field at distance r from an infinitely thin rod having a linear charge density \[\lambda \]is (use Gausss law)

A)

\[E=\frac{\lambda }{2\pi {{\varepsilon }_{0}}r}\]

B)

\[E=\frac{2\lambda }{2\pi {{\varepsilon }_{0}}r}\]

C)

\[E=\frac{2\lambda }{4\pi {{\varepsilon }_{0}}r}\]

D)

\[E=\frac{4\lambda }{\pi {{\varepsilon }_{0}}r}\]

View Answer
71) A 200 W and a 100 W bulb, both meant for operation at 220 V are connected in series. When connected to a 220 V supply the power consumed by the combination is :

A)

33.3 W

B)

66.7 W

C)

300 W

D)

100 W

View Answer
72) The sensitivity of a moving coil galvanometer depends on:

A)

angle of deflection

B)

earths magnetic field

C)

torsional constant of the spring

D)

none of the above

View Answer
73) Domain formation is the necessary feature of:

A)

diamagnetic substances

B)

paramagnetic substances

C)

ferromagnetic substances

D)

all of the above

View Answer
74) In a charged capacitor the energy stored in :

A)

the positive charges

B)

the negative charges

C)

the field between the plates

D)

none of the above

View Answer
75) For a given temperature difference which of the following pairs will generate maximum thermo-emf?

A)

lead-nickel

B)

copper-iron

C)

gold-silver

D)

antimony-bismuth

View Answer
76) The electrons identified by quantum numbers:

(I) \[n=4,l=1\]

(II) \[n=4,l=0\]

(III) \[n=3,l=2\]

(IV) \[n=2,l=1\]

can be placed in order of increasing energy from the lowest to highest as:

A)

(IV) < (II) < (III) < (I)

B)

(II) < (IV) < (I) < (I)

C)

(I) < (III) < (II) < (IY)

D)

(III) < (I) < (IV) < CH)

View Answer
77) Ground state electronic configuration of nitrogen atom can be represented as:

A)

B)

C)

D)

View Answer
78) The first emission line in the electronic spectrum of hydrogen in the Balmer series appears at\[c{{m}^{-1}}\]:

A)

\[\frac{9R}{400}c{{m}^{-1}}\]

B)

\[\frac{7R}{144}c{{m}^{-1}}\]

C)

\[\frac{3R}{4}c{{m}^{-1}}\]

D)

\[\frac{5R}{36}c{{m}^{-1}}\]

View Answer
79) \[KMn{{O}_{4}}\]reacts with oxalic acid according to the equation \[2MnO_{4}^{-}+5{{C}_{2}}O_{4}^{2-}+16{{H}^{+}}\xrightarrow[{}]{{}}2M{{n}^{2+}}\]\[+10C{{O}_{2}}+8{{H}_{2}}O\] Here, 20 mL of\[0.1\text{ }M\text{ }KMn{{O}_{4}}\]is equivalent to:

A)

\[20\,mL\,of0.5M\,{{H}_{2}}{{C}_{2}}{{O}_{4}}\]

B)

\[50\,mL\,of\,0.1\,M\,{{H}_{2}}{{C}_{2}}{{O}_{4}}\]

C)

\[50\,mL\,of\,0.01\,M\,{{H}_{2}}{{C}_{2}}{{O}_{4}}\]

D)

\[20\,mL\,of\,0.1\,M\,{{H}_{2}}{{C}_{2}}{{O}_{4}}\]

View Answer
80) Half-life of a sample is 160 days. After 800 days, 1 g of the sample shall be reduced to:

A)

\[\frac{1}{2}g\]

B)

\[\frac{1}{5}g\]

C)

\[\frac{1}{4}g\]

D)

\[\frac{1}{32}g\]

View Answer
81) Radio-carbon dating was discovered by:

A)

G. N. Lewis

B)

J. Williard Gibbs

C)

W.F. Libby

D)

W. Nernst

View Answer
82) An aqueous solution of 6.3 g oxalic acid dihydrate is made up to 250 mL. The volume of 0.1 N sodium hydroxide required to completely neutralise 10 mL of this solution is:

A)

40 mL

B)

20 mL

C)

10 mL

D)

4mL

View Answer
83) How will increase of pressure affect the equation? \[C(s)+{{H}_{2}}O(g)CO(g)+{{H}_{2}}(g)\]

A)

Shift in the forward direction

B)

Shift in the reverse direction

C)

Increase in the yield of hydrogen

D)

No effect

View Answer
84) For which of the following reactions,\[{{K}_{p}}={{K}_{c}}\]?

A)

\[{{N}_{2}}+3{{H}_{2}}2N{{H}_{3}}\]

B)

\[{{N}_{2}}+{{O}_{2}}2NO\]

C)

\[PC{{l}_{5}}PC{{l}_{3}}+C{{l}_{2}}\]

D)

\[2S{{o}_{3}}2S{{O}_{2}}+{{O}_{2}}\]

View Answer
85) Which of the following salts is most soluble?

A)

\[B{{i}_{2}}{{S}_{3}}({{K}_{sp}}=1\times {{10}^{-17}})\]

B)

\[MnS({{K}_{sp}}=7\times {{10}^{-16}})\]

C)

\[CuS({{K}_{sp}}=8\times {{10}^{-37}})\]

D)

\[A{{g}_{2}}S({{K}_{sp}}=6\times {{10}^{-51}})\]

View Answer
86) Ostwald dilution law is applicable to:

A)

strong electrolytes only

B)

weak electrolytes only

C)

non-electrolytes only

D)

strong as well as weak electrolytes

View Answer
87) In the reaction\[2A+B\xrightarrow[{}]{{}}{{A}_{2}}B,\]if the concentration of A is doubled and that of B is halved, then the rate of reaction will:

A)

increase by 4 times

B)

decrease by 2 times

C)

increase by 2 times

D)

remains the same

View Answer
88) The Arrhenius equation expressing the effect of temperature on the rate constant of a reaction is:

A)

\[k={{e}^{-E/RT}}\]

B)

\[k=In\frac{E}{RT}\]

C)

\[k=\frac{A.E}{RT}\]

D)

\[k=A.{{e}^{-Ea/RT}}\]

View Answer
89) If the half-time for a particular reaction is found to be constant and independent of the initial concentration of the reactants, then the reaction is of:

A)

first order

B)

zero order

C)

second order

D)

none of these

View Answer
90) Normality of\[2\text{ }M\text{ }{{H}_{2}}S{{O}_{4}}\]is:

A)

\[2N\]

B)

\[4N\]

C)

\[\frac{N}{2}\]

D)

\[\frac{N}{4}\]

View Answer
91) Which of the following is a non-colligative property?

A)

Elevation in boiling point

B)

Osmotic pressure

C)

Optical activity

D)

Depression in freezing point

View Answer
92) The freezing point of equivocal aqueous solution will be highest for:

A)

\[{{C}_{6}}{{H}_{5}}N{{H}_{3}}Cl\]

B)

\[La{{(N{{O}_{3}})}_{3}}\]

C)

glucose

D)

\[Ca{{(N{{O}_{3}})}_{2}}\]

View Answer
93) The vant Hoff factor for \[0.1\,M\,Ba{{(N{{O}_{3}})}_{2}}\]solution is 2.74. The degree of dissociation is:

A)

91.3%

B)

87%

C)

100%

D)

74%

View Answer
94) The enthalpy of vaporisation of liquid water using the data: \[{{H}_{2}}(g)+\frac{1}{2}{{O}_{2}}(g)\xrightarrow[{}]{{}}{{H}_{2}}O(l);\]\[\Delta H=-285.77\text{ }kJ/mol\] \[{{H}_{2}}(g)+\frac{1}{2}{{O}_{2}}(g)\xrightarrow[{}]{{}}{{H}_{2}}O(g);\]\[\Delta H=-241.84\text{ }kJ/mol\]is:

A)

\[+\,43.93kJ/mol\]

B)

\[-\,43.93\text{ }kJ/mol\]

C)

\[527.61\text{ }kJ/mol\]

D)

\[-\,527.61\text{ }kJ/mol\]

View Answer
95) The enthalpy charge for the transition of liquid water to steam is\[40.8\text{ }kJ\text{ }mo{{l}^{-1}}\]at 373 K. Calculate the entropy of vaporisation of water.

A)

\[109.4\text{ }J{{K}^{-1}}\text{ }mo{{l}^{-1}}\]

B)

\[-109.4\text{ }J{{K}^{-1}}\text{ }mo{{l}^{-1}}\]

C)

\[218.8\text{ }J{{K}^{-1}}\text{ }mo{{l}^{-1}}\]

D)

\[-218.8\text{ }J{{K}^{-1}}\text{ }mo{{l}^{-1}}\]

View Answer
96) The occurrence of the reaction is impossible if:

A)

\[\Delta H\]is + ve;\[\Delta S\]is also + ve

B)

\[\Delta H\]is\[-ve\];\[\Delta S\]is, also\[-ve\]

C)

\[\Delta H\]is\[-ve\];\[\Delta S\]is +ve

D)

\[\Delta H\]is + ve;\[\Delta S\]is\[-ve\]

View Answer
97) The bond energy of an\[OH\]bond is 109 kcal/mol. When a mole of water is formed, then:

A)

109 kcals is released

B)

218 kcals is absorbed

C)

109 kcals is absorbed

D)

218 kcals is released

View Answer
98) Of the following reaction, only one is a redox reaction. Identify this reaction.

A)

\[Ca{{(OH)}_{2}}+2HCl\xrightarrow{{}}CaCl+2{{H}_{2}}O\]

B)

\[2{{S}_{2}}O_{7}^{2-}+2{{H}_{2}}O\xrightarrow{{}}2SO_{4}^{2-}+4{{H}^{+}}\]

C)

\[BaC{{l}_{2}}+MgS{{O}_{4}}\xrightarrow{{}}BaS{{O}_{4}}+MgC{{l}_{2}}\]

D)

\[C{{u}_{2}}S+2FeO\xrightarrow{{}}2Cu+2Fe+S{{O}_{2}}\]

View Answer
99) Oxidation number of nitrogen is highest in:

A)

\[{{N}_{3}}H\]

B)

\[{{N}_{2}}{{O}_{4}}\]

C)

\[N{{H}_{2}}OH\]

D)

\[N{{H}_{3}}\]

View Answer
100) Correct order of first ionization potential among the following elements\[Be,B,C,N,O\] is:

A)

\[B<Be<C<\text{O}<N\]

B)

\[B<Be<C<N<O\]

C)

\[Be<B<C<N<O\]

D)

\[Be<B<C<O<N\]

View Answer
101) The unit of equivalent conductivity is:

A)

ohm cm

B)

\[oh{{m}^{-1}}c{{m}^{2}}\text{ }g\text{ }equi{{v}^{-1}}\]

C)

\[ohm\text{ }c{{m}^{2}}\text{ }g\text{ }equiv.\]

D)

\[oh{{m}^{-2}}c{{m}^{-2}}g\text{ }equiv.\]

View Answer
102) In which of the crystals of ionic compounds would you expect maximum distance between the centres of cations and anions?

A)

\[LiF\]

B)

\[CsF\]

C)

\[CsI\]

D)

\[Lil\]

View Answer
103) 50 ml, of hydrogen diffuses through small hole from a vessel in 20 min time. Time taken for 40 mL of oxygen to diffuse out under similar conditions will be:

A)

12 min

B)

32 min

C)

8 min

D)

64 min

View Answer
104) A gas will approach ideal behaviour at:

A)

low temperature and high pressure

B)

low temperature and low pressure

C)

high temperature and low pressure

D)

high temperature and high pressure

View Answer
105) A colloidal system in which gas bubbles are dispersed in a liquid is known as:

A)

foam

B)

aerosol

C)

sol

D)

emulsion

View Answer
106) In which of the following, Tyndall effect is not observed?

A)

Smoke

B)

Emulsions

C)

Sugar solution

D)

Gold sol

View Answer
107) Which is not correct regarding the adsorption of a gas on surface of a solid?

A)

Enthalpy and entropy change is negative

B)

Adsorption is more for some specific substance

C)

On increasing temperature, adsorption increases progressively

D)

It is a reversible reaction

View Answer
108) The ionic radii of iso-electronic species \[N_{3}^{-},{{O}^{2-}}\]and\[{{F}^{-}}\]are in the order:

A)

1.36, 1.40, 1.71

B)

1.36, 1.71, 1.40

C)

1.71, 1.40, 1.36

D)

1.71, 1.36, 1.40

View Answer
109) Which of the following element is most electropositive?

A)

\[Al\]

B)

\[Mg\]

C)

\[P\]

D)

\[S\]

View Answer
110) The compound in which carbon atom uses \[s{{p}^{3}}-\]hybrid orbitals for bond formation?

A)

\[HCOOH\]

B)

\[N{{H}_{2}}CON{{H}_{2}}\]

C)

\[{{(C{{H}_{3}})}_{3}}COH\]

D)

\[C{{H}_{3}}CHO\]

View Answer
111) The only .molecule having dipole moment is:

A)

2,2-dimethylpropane

B)

trans-2-pentene

C)

tran5-3-hexene

D)

2,2,3,3-tetramethylbutane

View Answer
112) \[{{N}_{2}}\]and\[{{O}_{2}}\]are converted to\[N_{2}^{+}\]and\[O_{2}^{+}\] respectively. Which of the following is not correct?

A)

In\[N_{2}^{+},\]the\[N-N\]bond weakens

B)

In\[O_{2}^{+},O-O\]bond order increases

C)

In\[O_{2}^{+},\]pararnagnetism decreases

D)

\[N_{2}^{+}\] becomes diamagnetic

View Answer
113) The hybridisation of carbon atoms in\[CC\] single bond of\[HC\equiv CCH=C{{H}_{2}}\]is:

A)

\[s{{p}^{3}}-s{{p}^{3}}\]

B)

\[s{{p}^{2}}-s{{p}^{2}}\]

C)

\[sp-s{{p}^{2}}\]

D)

\[s{{p}^{3}}-sp\]

View Answer
114) Chemical A is used for water softening to remove temporary hardness. A reacts with sodium carbonate to generate caustic soda. When\[C{{O}_{2}}\]is bubbled through A, it turns cloudy. What is A?

A)

\[CaC{{O}_{3}}\]

B)

\[CaO\]

C)

\[Ca{{(OH)}_{2}}\]

D)

\[Ca{{(HC{{O}_{3}})}_{2}}\]

View Answer
115) Which of the following pentafluorides cant be formed?

A)

\[P{{F}_{5}}\]

B)

\[As{{F}_{5}}\]

C)

\[Sb{{F}_{5}}\]

D)

\[Bi{{F}_{5}}\]

View Answer
116) The correct order of increasing oxidising power is:

A)

\[{{F}_{2}}<C{{l}_{2}}<{{I}_{2}}>B{{r}_{2}}\]

B)

\[{{F}_{2}}<B{{r}_{2}}<C{{l}_{2}}<{{I}_{2}}\]

C)

\[C{{l}_{2}}<B{{r}_{2}}<{{F}_{2}}<{{I}_{2}}\]

D)

\[{{I}_{2}}<B{{r}_{2}}<C{{l}_{2}}<{{F}_{2}}\]

View Answer
117) Amongst\[TiF_{6}^{2-},CoF_{6}^{3-},C{{u}_{2}}C{{l}_{2}}\]and\[NiCl_{4}^{2-}\]at. no.\[Ti=22,\text{ }Co=27,\text{ }Cu=29,\text{ }Ni=28\]). The colorless species are:

A)

\[CoF_{6}^{3-}\]and \[NiCl_{4}^{2-}\]

B)

\[TiF_{6}^{2-}\]and \[CoF_{6}^{3-}\]

C)

\[C{{u}_{2}}C{{l}_{2}}\]and \[NiCl_{4}^{2-}\]

D)

\[TiFl_{6}^{2-}\]and\[C{{u}_{2}}C{{l}_{2}}\]

View Answer
118) The number of\[SS\]bonds in sulphur trioxide is:

A)

three

B)

two

C)

one

D)

zero

View Answer
119) Choose the correct statement:

A)

Transition elements have low melting points

B)

Transition elements do not have catalytic activity

C)

Transition elements exhibit variable oxidation states

D)

Transition elements show inert pair effect

View Answer
120) Two of the constituents of German silver are:

A)

\[Ag+Cu\]

B)

\[Ag+Zn\]

C)

\[Cu+Zn\]

D)

\[Cu+Sn\]

View Answer
121) Aufbau principle does not give the correct arrangement of filling up of atomic orbitals in:

A)

Cu and Zn

B)

Co and Zn

C)

Mn and Cr

D)

Cu and Cr

View Answer
122) Which of the following compounds exhibit linkage isomerism?

A)

\[[Co{{(en)}_{3}}]C{{l}_{3}}\]

B)

\[[Co{{(NH 3)}_{6}}][Cr{{(CN)}_{6}}]\]

C)

\[[Co{{(en)}_{2}}N{{O}_{2}}Cl]Br\]

D)

\[[Co{{(N{{H}_{3}})}_{5}}Cl]B{{r}_{2}}\]

View Answer
123) IUPAC name of\[[Pt{{(N{{H}_{3}})}_{3}}]Br(N{{O}_{2}})Cl]Cl\]:

A)

triamminechlorobromonitro platinum(IV) chloride

B)

triamminebromonitrochloro platinum(IV) chloride

C)

triamminebromochloronitro platinum(IV) chloride

D)

triamminenitrochlorobromo platinum(IV) chloride

View Answer
124) According to postulates of Werners theory for co-ordination compounds, which of the following is true?

A)

Primary valencies are ionizable

B)

Secondary valencies are ionizable

C)

Only primary valencies are non-ionizable

D)

Primary and secondary valencies are non- ionizable

View Answer
125) Ferrocene is an example of:

A)

sand-wiched complex

B)

pi-bonded complex

C)

a complex in which all the five carbon atoms of cyclopentadiene anion are bonded to the metal

D)

all of the above

View Answer
126) Which form of iron is least ductile?

A)

Hard steel

B)

Cast iron

C)

Mild steel

D)

Wrought steel

View Answer
127) Which of the following is known as Lunar caustic when in the fused state?

A)

Silver nitrate

B)

Silver sulphate

C)

Silver chloride

D)

Sodium sulphate

View Answer
128) One of the following metals is obtained by leaching its ore with dilute cyanide solution. Identify it.

A)

Titanium

B)

Vanadium

C)

Silver

D)

Zinc

View Answer
129) Which of the following species could be expected to exhibit aromatic character? Select the correct answer from the following:

A)

I and IV

B)

II and IV

C)

I and III

D)

II and III

View Answer
130) The correct IUPAC name of the following compound is: \[C{{H}_{3}}-C{{H}_{2}}-\underset{\begin{smallmatrix} | \\ C{{H}_{3}} \end{smallmatrix}}{\mathop{CH}}\,-C=\underset{\begin{smallmatrix} | \\ {{C}_{2}}{{H}_{5}} \end{smallmatrix}}{\mathop{CH}}\,-\underset{\begin{smallmatrix} | \\ {{C}_{2}}{{H}_{5}} \end{smallmatrix}}{\mathop{CH}}\,-C{{H}_{2}}\]\[-C{{H}_{2}}-C{{H}_{2}}-C{{H}_{3}}\]

A)

5,6-dimethyl-8-methyldec-6-ene

B)

6-butyl-5-ethyl-3-methyloct-4-ene

C)

5,6-diethyl-3-methyldec-4-ene

D)

2,4,5-triethylnon-3-ene

View Answer
131) The kind of delocalisation involving sigma bond orbitals is called:

A)

inductive effect

B)

hyper conjugation effect

C)

electromeric effect

D)

mesomeric effect

View Answer
132) Which of the following compounds react with \[HBr\]obeying Markownikoffs rule?

A)

\[C{{H}_{2}}=C{{H}_{2}}\]

B)

C)

D)

View Answer
133) How many cyclic isomers of\[{{C}_{5}}{{H}_{10}}\]are possible?

A)

Four

B)

Three

C)

Two

D)

Six

View Answer
134) The (R)and(S) enantiomers of an optically active compound differ in:

A)

their reactivity

B)

their optical rotation of plane polarized light

C)

their melting point

D)

their solubility in achiral reagents

View Answer
135) Which of the following. organic compounds exhibit acidic character?

A)

\[{{H}_{3}}C-C\equiv CH\]

B)

\[{{H}_{3}}C-C\equiv C-C{{H}_{3}}\]

C)

\[{{H}_{2}}C=C{{H}_{2}}\]

D)

\[{{H}_{3}}C-C{{H}_{3}}\]

View Answer
136) Methane is produced by the hydrolysis of:

A)

\[A{{l}_{4}}{{C}_{3}}\]

B)

\[Ca{{C}_{2}}\]

C)

dry ice

D)

\[n-{{C}_{3}}{{H}_{7}}MgBr\]

View Answer
137) In the reaction of phenol with chloroform and aqueous solution of\[NaOH\]at\[{{70}^{o}}C,\]the electrophile attacking the ring is:

A)

\[CHC{{l}_{3}}\]

B)

\[CHC{{l}_{2}}\]

C)

\[{}_{\bullet }^{\bullet }CC{{l}_{2}}\]

D)

\[COC{{l}_{2}}\]

View Answer
138) Which of the following compounds can exist in optically active form?

A)

1-butanol

B)

2-butanol

C)

3-pentanol

D)

4-heptanol

View Answer
139) Chloroform is slowly oxidised by air in the presence of light and air to form:

A)

formyl chloride

B)

trichloro methanol

C)

phosgene

D)

formaldehyde

View Answer
140) Chlorination of toluene in the presence of light and heat followed by treatment with aqueous\[NaOH\]solution gives:

A)

o-cresol

B)

p-cresol

C)

benzoic acid

D)

2,4-dihydroxytoluene

View Answer
141) Formation of cyanohydrin from the reaction of acetone with HCN is called:

A)

electrophilic addition

B)

nucleophilic addition

C)

electrophilic substitution

D)

nucleophilic substitution

View Answer
142) In the following reaction,\[C{{H}_{3}}COCl\xrightarrow[Pd/{{H}_{2}}]{BaS{{O}_{4}}}X\]Identify X out of the following:

A)

acetaldehyde

B)

propionaldehyde

C)

acetone

D)

acetic anhydride

View Answer
143) Reaction of r-butylbromide with sodium methoxide produces:

A)

isobutene

B)

isobutylene

C)

sodium-t-butoxide

D)

t-butylmethylether

View Answer
144) The acid which does not contain\[COOH\] group is:

A)

ethanoicacid

B)

picric acid

C)

lactic acid

D)

plamitic acid

View Answer
145) The decreasing order of basic character of the three amines and ammonia is:

A)

\[N{{H}_{3}}>C{{h}_{3}}N{{H}_{2}}>{{C}_{2}}{{H}_{5}}N{{H}_{2}}>{{C}_{6}}{{H}_{5}}N{{H}_{2}}\]

B)

\[{{C}_{2}}{{H}_{5}}N{{H}_{2}}>C{{H}_{3}}N{{H}_{2}}>N{{H}_{3}}>{{C}_{6}}{{H}_{5}}N{{H}_{2}}\]

C)

\[{{C}_{6}}{{H}_{5}}N{{H}_{2}}>{{C}_{2}}{{H}_{5}}N{{H}_{2}}>C{{H}_{3}}N{{H}_{2}}>N{{H}_{3}}\]

D)

\[C{{H}_{3}}N{{H}_{2}}>{{C}_{2}}{{H}_{5}}N{{H}_{2}}>N{{H}_{3}}\]

View Answer
146) Aniline is treated with a mixture of sodium nitrite and hypophosphorus acid, the product formed is:

A)

aniline diazonium hypophosphate

B)

benzene

C)

anilinium hypophosphite

D)

aniline diazonium hypophos-phite

View Answer
147) Nitrosoamines\[({{R}_{2}}N-N=O)\]are soluble in water. On heating them with cone.\[{{H}_{2}}S{{O}_{4}},\]they give secondary amines. The reaction is called:

A)

Perkins reaction

B)

Fries reaction

C)

Libermann nitroso reaction

D)

Etard reaction

View Answer
148) The compound obtained by heating a mixture of\[{{1}^{o}}\]amine and chloroform with ethanolic potassium hydroxide is:

A)

an alkyl isocyanide

B)

an alkyl isothiocyanate

C)

an amide

D)

an amide and nitro compound

View Answer
149) Which of the following is not an amino-acid?

A)

Glycine

B)

Alanine

C)

Histidine

D)

Benzidine

View Answer
150) Which of the following is a fat soluble vitamin?

A)

Vitamin A

B)

Riboflavin

C)

Pyridoxin

D)

Thiamine

View Answer
151) Which of the following properties is shown by cytokinins?

A)

Delay leaf senescence

B)

Promote stomatal closing

C)

Cause leaf abscission

D)

Promote seed dormancy

View Answer
152) Read the statements given below. Which of these is wrong?

A)

Sporangiospores borne in the sporangium of Rhizopus are diploid structures

B)

Rhizopus belongs to the class zygomycetes

C)

Dominant phase in the like cycle of Chlamydomonas is haploid

D)

Zoospores of Chlamydomonas are haploid

View Answer
153) Development of gametophyte from sporophyte without formation of spores is called :

A)

apogamy

B)

apospory

C)

autogamy

D)

hologamy

View Answer
154) Read the statements given below Prothallus of Dryopteris is a ............. It bean archegonia on the ................... side. The blank positions are :

A)

sporophyte, dorsal

B)

sporophyte, vental

C)

gametophyte, dorsal

D)

gametophyte, ventral

View Answer
155) Which of the following characteristics does not occur in Pinus?

A)

The number of needles in a spur of Pinus roxburghii is three

B)

Each vascular bundle in the long shoot of Pinus consists of xylem facing towards the centre of the shoot

C)

Microsporophyll of Pinus bears two microsporangia

D)

Pinus is a homosporous gymnosperm

View Answer
156) Pair the flower structures given in series-1 to their equivalent in series-11.

Series-I Series-II

A. Pollen grains 1. Microsporangia

B. Pollen sacs 2. Microspores

C. Stamens 3. Microsporophylls

The correct pairing is:

A)

A-1         B-2        C-3

B)

A-2         B-1        C-3

C)

A-3         B-1        C-2

D)

A-1         B-3        C-2

View Answer
157)                 In a plant the peduncle is elongated and it bears pedicillate flowers. The older flowers lie towards the base and the younger ones near the apex. The growth of the peduncle continues and more flowers are added. The inflorescence is :

A)

raceme

B)

corymb

C)

umbel

D)

head

View Answer
158) Which of these cells is the largest cell of the ovule?

A)

Antipodal cell

B)

Central cell

C)

Megaspore mother cell

D)

The size of the cells varies from species to species and none of the given above can be treated as largest

View Answer
159) Vegetative fertilization leading to the formation of endosperm refers to :

A)

fusion of male gamete with diploid secondary nucleus

B)

fusion of female gamete with diploid secondary nucleus

C)

fusion of two diploid vegetative cells

D)

fusion of two male gametes

View Answer
160) Assign the seeds to their respective food reserve categories :

Seed Category

A. Maize 1. Endospermic

B. Mustard 2. Nonendospermic

C. Pea

The correct pairing is:

A)

A-1         B-1         C-2

B)

A-1         B-2         C-2

C)

A-2         B-2         C-1

D)

A-1         B-2         C-1

View Answer
161) Murashige and Skoogs medium is used for :

A)

isolation of fungal strains

B)

culture of bacteria

C)

raising plants through micro propagation

D)

culture of protein rich cyanobacterium Spirulina

View Answer
162) Which of the following plants does not have Rhizobium containing root nodules?

A)

Phaseolus

B)

Pinus

C)

Pisum

D)

Cicer

View Answer
163) Which of the following pesticides is a herbicide?

A)

2, 4-D

B)

Malathion

C)

Lindane

D)

BHC

View Answer
164) Allethrin is a commonly used :

A)

fertilizer

B)

herbicide

C)

growth hormone

D)

insecticide

View Answer
165) Urea is used in the soil to supplement:

A)

phosphorus

B)

nitrogen

C)

potassium

D)

zinc

View Answer
166) The first ever experimental evidence showing DNA as genetic material in bacteriophages came from the studies of:

A)

Beadle and Tatum

B)

Weismann

C)

Hershey and Chase

D)

Schleiden and Schwann

View Answer
167) Anti-codon is a base triplet on :

A)

m-RNA complementary to base sequence on r-RNA

B)

m-RNA complementary to base sequence on t-RNA

C)

t-RNA complementary to base sequence on r-RNA

D)

r-RNA complementary to base sequence on m-RNA

View Answer
168) Which one of the following nitrogenous bases is not present in RNA?

A)

Thymine

B)

Uracil

C)

Guanine

D)

Cytosine

View Answer
169) A person with XXY sex chromosomes suffers from:

A)

Downs syndrome

B)

Klinefelters syndrome

C)

Turners syndrome

D)

AIDS

View Answer
170) A condition characterized by not having an exact number of chromosomes in a-multiple of haploid set is called:

A)

polyploidy

B)

synploidy

C)

aneuploidy

D)

none of these

View Answer
171) Phenomenon of crossing over in diploid organisms is responsible for:

A)

linkages between genes

B)

recombination between linked genes

C)

segregation between genes

D)

dominance of gene

View Answer
172) Which of the following base sequence acts as a terminal codon during protein synthesis?

A)

AUG

B)

GCG

C)

UAG

D)

AGA

View Answer
173) Activation of an amino acid during protein synthesis requiers a participation of specific molecule of:

A)

m-RNA

B)

t-RNA

C)

r-RNA

D)

none of these

View Answer
174) An extra chromosomal DNA which can be used as vector in gene cloning is called :

A)

transposon

B)

intron

C)

exon

D)

plasmid

View Answer
175) Largest gland present in human body is :

A)

salivary gland

B)

parotid gland

C)

pituitary

D)

liver

View Answer
176) A doctor advises a patient to include yellow fruits, carrots and butter in his diet. What deficiency disease do you think the patient is suffering from ?

A)

Night blindness

B)

Colour blindness

C)

Kwashiorkor disease

D)

Marasmus disease

View Answer
177) Volume of air breathed in and out while at rest is called :

A)

residual volume

B)

tidal volume

C)

vital volume

D)

total lung capacity

View Answer
178) What is the principal cation in human blood?

A)

Potassium

B)

Sodium

C)

Calcium

D)

Manganese

View Answer
179) Endocrine gland are :

A)

ductless glands whose secretions pour directly into blood

B)

have ducts and pour their secretions into blood directly

C)

have ducts which straightway pour secretions into target organs

D)

all of the above

View Answer
180) Heart beat originates in :

A)

Purkinjes fibers

B)

SA node

C)

AV node

D)

Chordae tendinae

View Answer
181) Structural and functional unit of contractile apparatus in striated muscle is called :

A)

cross bridge

B)

my of fibril

C)

Z-band

D)

sarcomere

View Answer
182) Pulmonary artery differs from pulmonary vein in having :

A)

no endothelium

B)

strong valves

C)

Brunners cells

D)

thick muscular walls

View Answer
183) MSH is produced by :

A)

thyroid

B)

anterior pituitary

C)

posterior pituitary

D)

pars inter medial is

View Answer
184) What is the space between arachnoid and pia mater ?

A)

Supra arachnoid space

B)

Sub arachnoid space

C)

Subdural space

D)

Meninges

View Answer
185) Cerebellum portion of brain is :

A)

concerned with the maintenance of posture/equilibrium

B)

responsibile for olfactory functions

C)

controls optic functions

D)

both (a) and (b)

View Answer
186) Which of the following hormones does not play any role in menstruation?

A)

GH

B)

FSH

C)

LH

D)

None of these

View Answer
187) Nephridia of earthworm are performing same functions as :

A)

gills of prawn

B)

flame cells of Planaria

C)

trachea of insects

D)

nematoblasts of Hydra

View Answer
188) Hollow bones are characteristic to:

A)

reptiles

B)

birds

C)

mammals

D)

fishes

View Answer
189) Body cavity o(Hydra is called :

A)

haemocoel

B)

coelenterons

C)

enterocoel

D)

pseudocoel

View Answer
190) Clitellum of earthworm is comprised of following body segments :

A)

14, 15, 16

B)

13,14, 15

C)

15, 16, 17

D)

10,11,12

View Answer
191) To which taxonomic group does a whale belong to?

A)

Fishes

B)

Reptiles

C)

Arthropoda

D)

Mammals

View Answer
192) Salamander belongs to :

A)

reptiles

B)

amphibians

C)

echinoderms

D)

both (a) and (b)

View Answer
193) Which of the following statements is correct?

A)

Organs which are different in basic structure and origins but have similar functions are called analogous organs

B)

Organs which are different in basic structure and origin but have dissimilar functions are called analogous organs

C)

Organs which are similar in basic structure and origin but have different functions are called analogous organs

D)

None of the above

View Answer
194) Who proposed the Theory of origin of species by natural selection ?

A)

August Weismann

B)

de Vries

C)

Charles Darwin

D)

Charles Darwin and Alfred Wallace

View Answer
195) One of the following factors does not play any role in understanding the concept of evolution. Which one is this factor?

A)

Genetic variation

B)

Natural selection

C)

Isolation

D)

Embryogenesis

View Answer
196) Which of the following statements is correct?

A)

Australopithecus is the real ancestor of man

B)

Homo rectus is the ancestor of man

C)

Neanderthal man is the direct ancestor of Homo sapiens

D)

None of the above

View Answer
197) Which of the following diseases is not caused by virus?

A)

Mumps

B)

Rabies

C)

AIDS

D)

Tuberculosis

View Answer
198) Amniocentesis is a technique used to :

A)

determine errors in amino acid metabolism in embryo

B)

pin point specific cardiac ailments in embryo

C)

determine any hereditary genetic abnormality in embryo

D)

none of the above

View Answer
199) Caffeine is a stimulant present in :

A)

coffee

B)

tea

C)

cold drinks

D)

all of these

View Answer
200) Which one of the following diseases is communicable?

A)

Rickets

B)

Amoebiasis

C)

Diabetes

D)

Cancer

View Answer
201) CAD stands for :

A)

Carotid Arterial Dysfunction

B)

Cerebral Artery Dysfunction

C)

Coronary Artery Disease

D)

Calcium Activated Disease

View Answer
202) What is correct for a person with blood group O ?

A)

The person has no antigen for both A and B antibodies

B)

His blood has antibodies for both A and B antigens

C)

Both (a) and (b)

D)

None of the above

View Answer
203) What is true for DDT? It is :

A)

Not a pollutant

B)

a non-degradable pollutant

C)

an antibiotic

D)

an antiseptic agent

View Answer
204) Which of the following statements is wrong?

A)

Sucrose is a disaccharide

B)

Cellulose is a polysaccharide

C)

Glycine is a sulphur containing amino acid

D)

Uracil is a pyrimidine

View Answer
205) Each phospholipid molecule in a cell membrane consists of:

A)

one polar head and two non-polar tail

B)

one polar head and one polar tail

C)

one non-polar head and one polar tail

D)

one non-polar head and one polar tail

View Answer
206) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum acts as a major site for synthesis of:

A)

lipids and steroids

B)

proteins

C)

ribosomes

D)

DNA

View Answer
207) Which of the following statements is correct?

A)

Mitochondria contain circular DNA, but chloroplasts lack it

B)

Chloroplasts contain circular DNA, but mitochondria lack it

C)

Neither mitochondria nor chloroplasts contain any DNA

D)

Both mitochondria and chloroplasts contain circular DNA

View Answer

208) Read the statements given below with regard to the functions performed by Golgi apparatus?

A. Transport and chemically modify the materials contained within it

B. Secrete mucin in the respiratory tract

C. Secrete slime in the insectivorous plants which of the following is the correct answer?

A is wrong but B and C correct

B is wrong but A and C correct

B and C wrong but A is correct

All A, B and C are correct

View Answer

209) Which of the following cellular organelles is/are bound by a single membrane? peroxisomes, lysosomes, mitochondria

A)

Only peroxisomes but not lysosomes and mitochondria

B)

Both peroxisomes and lysosomes but not mitochondria

C)

All of the three organelles

D)

None of the three organelles

View Answer
210) Which of the following is not present in cell vacuoles ?

A)

Hydrolytic enzymes

B)

Latex of the rubber plant

C)

DNA

D)

Anthocyanins of the flowers

View Answer
211) Acrosome is a type of:

A)

lysosome

B)

flagellum

C)

ribosome

D)

basal body

View Answer
212) Match the series-I and II for organismic respiration.

Series-I Series II

A. Respiration in bacteria 1. Mitochondria

B. Respiration in cyanobacteria 2. Cytoplasmic membrane

C. Respiration in eukaryotic cells 3. Mesosomes

The correct pairing is :

A)

A-2         B-3         C-1

B)

A-3         B-2         C-1

C)

A-1         B-3         C-2

D)

A-2         B-1         C-3

View Answer
213) Which of the following plants has haustorial roots?

A)

Pea

B)

Trapa

C)

Lily

D)

Cuscuta

View Answer
214) Match the following series :

Series-I Series-II

A. Opuntia 1. Stem thorns

B. Asparagus 2. Phylloclades

C. Citrus 3. Cladodes

The correct pairing is :

A)

A-1         B-2         C-3

B)

A-2         B-3         C-1

C)

A-3         B-2         C-1

D)

A-2         B-1         C-3

View Answer
215) Read the statements A and B given below :

A. In a vessel septa among the adjoining cells get dissolved

B. Companion cells are a component of phloem The right answer is :

A)

Both statements are wrong

B)

A is wrong but B is correct

C)

B is wrong but A is correct

D)

Both A and B are correct

View Answer
216) Vascular bundles in which xylem and phloem occur as separate bundles are known as :

A)

collateral

B)

bicollateral

C)

radial

D)

amphivasal

View Answer
217) Cork cambium of dicot originates from :

A)

epiblema

B)

pericycle

C)

cambium of vascular bundles

D)

endodermis

View Answer
218) Vascular bundles of monocot stem are generally:

A)

conjoint, collateral and closed

B)

conjoint, collateral and open

C)

conjoint, concentric and closed

D)

conjoint, bicollateral and open

View Answer
219) Pair the species with the type of wood :

Species Type of wood

A. Tectona grandis    1. Soft wood

B. Cedrus deodara    2. Hard wood

D. Shorea robusta

C. Dalbergia sisso

The correct pairing is :

A)

A-1         B-2         C-2         D-1

B)

1             1              2              2 A-1         B-1         C-2         D-2

C)

A-2         B-1         C-2         D-2

D)

A-2         B-1         C-1         D-2

View Answer
220) Which of the following has maximum water potential?

A)

Pure water

B)

2% sucrose solution

C)

4% glucose solution

D)

10% sodium chloride solution

View Answer
221) Which of the following cations accumulate in the guard cells in light to cause stomatal opening?

A)

\[C{{a}^{2+}}\]

B)

\[N{{a}^{+}}\]

C)

\[{{K}^{+}}\]

D)

\[M{{n}^{2+}}\]

View Answer
222) Which of the following acts as an acceptor of \[C{{O}_{2}}\] in \[{{C}_{3}}\] plants ?

A)

Glycerate phosphate

B)

Glucose disphosphate

C)

Sedoheptulose

D)

Ribulose bisphosphate

View Answer
223) Which of the following characteristics out of A, B and C arc exhibited by \[{{C}_{4}}\]plants?

A. Kranz anatomy

B.The product of photosynthesis is oxaloacetic acid

C. Both PEP carboxylase and Ribulose- bisphosphate carboxylase act as carboxy- lating enzymes

The correct answer is:

A)

only A and B, but not C

B)

only B and C, but not A

C)

only A and C, but not B

D)

all A, B and C

View Answer
224) Glycolysis leads to the formation of 2 molecules of:

A)

oxaloacetic acid

B)

pyruvic acid

C)

citric acid

D)

acetic acid

View Answer
225) Inhibition of enzyme activity by a molecule, which reversibly modifies the structure of the active site of the enzyme is called :

A)

competitive inhibition

B)

non-competitive reversible inhibition

C)

allosteric inhibition

D)

none of the above

View Answer

Study Package

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Series-I		Series-II
A.	Pollen grains	1.	Microsporangia
B.	Pollen sacs	2.	Microspores
C.	Stamens	3.	Microsporophylls

Seed	Category
A. Maize	1. Endospermic
B. Mustard	2. Nonendospermic
C. Pea

Series-I	Series II
A. Respiration in bacteria	1. Mitochondria
B. Respiration in cyanobacteria	2. Cytoplasmic membrane
C. Respiration in eukaryotic cells	3. Mesosomes

Series-I	Series-II
A. Opuntia	1. Stem thorns
B. Asparagus	2. Phylloclades
C. Citrus	3. Cladodes

Species	Type of wood
A. Tectona grandis	1. Soft wood
B. Cedrus deodara	2. Hard wood
D. Shorea robusta
C. Dalbergia sisso

Solved papers for J & K CET Medical J & K - CET Medical Solved Paper-2003

done J & K - CET Medical Solved Paper-2003 Total Questions - 225

Study Package

J & K - CET Medical Solved Paper-2003 Total Questions - 225